JNU BIOTECHNOLOGY 2018 IFAS

JNU BIOTECHNOLOGY 2018

IFAS SOLVED PAPER

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JNU BIOTECHNOLOGY 2018 IFAS

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JNU BIOTECHNOLOGY 2018 IFAS
BIOTECHNOLOGY -2018
PART-A 7. At atom becomes a positively charged:
1. Arrange the following compounds in the (1) by accepting the electrons
decreasing order of dipole moment: (2) by losing the electrons
(i) NH3 (3) by losing the neutrons
(ii) H2O (4) by uccepting the neutrons
(ii) NF3
(iv) CH4 8. Which of the following techniques cannot detect
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) free radicals?
(2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (1) Electron spin resonance
(3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) (2) UV and visible spectroscopy
(4) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (3) NMR (Nuclear Overhauser effect)
(4) X-ray crystallography
2. Which of the following compounds can form
intramolecular hydrogen bonds? 9. Which of the following compounds will undergo
(1) Dimethyl sulphide radical addition reaction with an alkene in the
(2) Pentachloro ethanol presence of hydrogen peroxide (anti-
(3) Diethyl ether Markovnikov rule)?
(4) Acetone (1) HCI
(2) HBr
3. Which of the following statements is correct (3) HI
with respect to carbanion stability? (4) HF
(1) It increases with increase in s-character
(2) It decreases with increase in s-character 10. Which of the following compounds are optically
(3) It increases with decrease in s-character active?
(4) It has no relation with s-character

4. The following compounds (I, II) are described as:

(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 1 and 3 only
(4) 2 and 3 only
(1) enantiomers
(2) diastereomers 11. Which of the following compounds are basic?
(3) geometrical isomers
(4) identical

5. What is the relationship between the following

pair of compounds? (1) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 1, 2 and 3

12. How many isomeric products are produced

when isobutane is chlorinated with two
equivalents of chlorinc gas?
(1) Anomers
(1) 2 (2) 3
(2) Diastercomers
(3) 4 (4) 6
(3) Same compound
(4) Enantiomers
13. Which of the following compounds can react
with Grignard reagent (R-MgX)?
6. Which of the following describes the main
(1) Ammonia
characteristics of the inductive effect?
(2) Water
(1) A permanent effect
(3) Carbon dioxide
(2) A temporary effect
(4) All of the above
(3) Sigma bond is weakened
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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14. The compound which reacts with HBr obeying 20. Enzymes interact with the substrate to form an
Markovnikoff’s rule is : enzyme-substrate complex. Which of the
following factors determines the rate of
enzyme-substrate complex formation?
(1) Km of the enzyme
(2) Vmax of the enzyme
(3) The ratio Vmax /Km
(4) The concentrations of the enzyme and the
substrate

15. Which of the following compound(s) has/have 21. Which of the following statements regarding
plane of symmetry? enzyme catalysis is wrong?
(1) They decrease the activation barrier of the
reaction
(2) They increase the forward reaction rate
(3) They increase the reverse reaction rate
(4) They decrease the free energy change (∆G)
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 4 only
between the substrate and the product
(3) 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
22. Life in a different planet has evolved to use a
16. In electrophysiology, membranes are thought to
reaction 𝑨 + 𝑩 → 𝑪. This reaction releases a lot
be capacitors. The reason why they are
of energy that sustains life. A and B are both
considered to be so is because:
naturally abundant and are found in air. What is
(1) they harbour ion channels
the nature of this reaction 𝑨 + 𝑩 → 𝑪 in nature
(2) they harbour voltage-gated channels
for life to be sustainable?
(3) there is an electric potential gradient across
(1) The reaction should be thermodynamically
the membrane
favourable but kinetically hindered
(4) they are made up of lipids
(2) The reaction should be kinetically favourable
but thermodynamically hindered
17. Which of the following amino acids can act as
(3) The reaction should be thermodynamically
general acid-base catalyst at physiological pH?
and kinetically favourable
(1) Alanine
(4) The reaction should be thermodynamically
(2) Aspartic acid
and kinetically hindered
(3) Serine
(4) Histidine
23. Secondary structure content of proteins cannot
be determined by
18. Which of the following statements is correct
(1) CD spectroscopy
regarding the entropy change during protein
(2) NMR spectroscopy
folding?
(3) X-ray crystallography
(1) Entropy of the protein chain increases while
(4) Förster resonance energy transfer based
that of the solvent decreases
fluorescence spectroscopy
(2) Entropy of the protein chain decreases while
that of the solvent increase
24. Ionic interactions inside protein cores are not
(3) Both the entropies of the protein chain and
very common. The probable reason
the solvent increase
(1) they are weaker inside the core
(4) Both the entropies of the protein chain and
(2) they are between charged residues, which are
the solvent decrease
rarely found within protein core
(3) they are between hydrophobic amino acids
19. The recombination frequency between two
(4) water is required for ionic interaction
genes on a chromosome is:
(1) more when the distance between the genes is
high
(2) more when the distance between the genes is
less
(3) not influenced by the distance between them
(4) directly proportional to the level of
heterochromatin

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25. D-fructose can be enzymatically converted to D- 28. List the following esters in order of decreasing
Psicose. The free energy change (∆𝑮) of the reactivity towards hydrolysis:
reaction as well as the net change in entropy
(AS) is exactly equal to zero. Hence the
maximum expected conversion in a batch
process is 50%. In order to design an industrial
process that will efficiently convert fructose to
Psicose, which one of the following strategies
will be best?
(1) Protein engineering of the enzyme so as to
make the free energy change (AG) highly (1) a>b>c
negative (2) b>c>a
(2) Adding enzyme in two steps, first time at the (3) b>a>c
start of the reaction and the second time after (4) a=b=c
50% conversion has been achieved
(3) Designing a process that will efficiently 29. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
remove D-Psicose from the reaction mixture not a pair of constitutional isomers?
(4) Doing the reaction at a lower temperature (1) CH3 . O. CH = CH2 and CH3 . CH2 . CHO
which will make the free energy change (∆𝐺 ) (2) CH3 − COOH and HO. CH2 . CHO
highly negative (3) CH3 . CH2 . C = CH and CH3 . CH = C = CH2
CH
(4) CH3 . | . CH(CH3)2 and (CH3)2 . CH. CH. (CH3 )2
26. You have isolated two enzymes E1 and E2 from CH3
two different organisms that catalyze the same
reaction. E1 has a higher Km and Vmax than E2. In 30. Choose the correct with respect to figure given
which of the following industrial applications below:
would enzyme E2, be preferable over enzyme
E1?
(1) When the substrates of the enzymatic
reaction cannot be obtained at a high
concentration
(2) When the substrate to product conversion
needs to be as fast as possible
(3) When the product may inhibit the enzyme (1) (i) → ex , (ii) → e−x , (iii) → log(1⁄x) , (iv) →
(4) When the substrate is easily obtained at very log(x)
high concentration (2) (i) → e−x , (ii) → ex , (iii) → log(1⁄x) , (iv) →
log(x)
27. The genetic code of a particular organism uses 4 (3) (i) → ex , (ii) → e−x , (iii) → log(x) , (iv) →
base codons, out of which the 3rd base is log(1⁄x)
completely unimportant and not informative. If (4) (i) → e−x , (ii) → ex , (iii) → log(x) , (iv) →
each codon is associated with just one amino log(1⁄x)
acid and there exists a single stop codon, how
many amino acids can possibly be used by the 31. If two square of sides 300mm and 400mm are
organism for protein synthesis? merged together to form a new square having
(1) 63 area equal to the sum of given squares, what
(2) 255 will be its side?
(3) 32 (1) 500 mm (2) 600 mm
(4) 20 (3) 700 mm (4) 1200 mm

32. It is given that the ratio of the circumference

and diameter of a circle of radius 2 cm is r. How
will the ratio change if it is calculated for a larger
circle of radius 4 cm?
(1) It will become 4r
(2) It will become 2r
(3) It will become r
(4) It will become r/2

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33. Against two available vacancies, four students 39. Two bodies having masses m, and m, have equal
(two females F1, F2; two males M1, M2) are to be kinetic energies. What will be the ratio of their
interviewed by a Biotech Company. What is the momenta?
𝑚
probability that both the selected candidates (1) 𝑚1
2
will not be of the same gender? 𝑚
(2) 𝑚2
(1) 1/2 1
⁄
(2) 2/3 𝑚1 1 2
(3) (𝑚 )
(3) 3/4 ⁄
2
𝑚2 1 2
(4) 4/5 (4) (𝑚 )
1

34. An inductor of inductance L = 001H and

40. What is the arithmetic mean of first 1000
capacitors of capacitance C = 1F are connected
natural numbers?
in series across an A.C. source. If frequency of
(1) 500
the source is increased from 20Hz to 30 Hz, then
(2) 50500
phase shift
(3) 500.5
(1) increases continuously
(4) 501
(2) decreases continuously
(3) first increases then decreases
41. A ball is dropped from a height H. It rebounds to
(4) first decreases then increases
9/10th of its height after striking the floor each
time. What is the total distance travelled by the
35. Legendary Indian mathematician
ball before coming to rest?
Bhaskaracharya posed the following problem to
(1) 16 H
his daughter Lilavati:
(2) 18 H
“A fifth part of a swarm of bees comes to rest
(3) 19 H
on the flowers of the Kadamba, a third on the
(4) 20 H
flowers of the Silinda. Three times the
difference between these two numbers flew
42. If 𝟐𝒙 − 𝒚 = 𝟓, what is the value of 𝟗𝒙 /𝟑𝒚?
over the flower of a Krutaja and one be along
(1) 35
attracted by the perfume of a Jasmine in bloom
(2) 95
remained in the air. Tell me beautiful girl, how
(3) 3
many bees were there in the swarm?”
(4) 9
(1) 5
(2) 10
43. A person sells two items at the same price, one
(3) 15
at loss of 5% and the other at a gain of 5%. In
(4) 20
the overall transaction, the person will have
(1) neither profit nor loss
36. Suppose an RNA sequence of 8 nucleotides is to
(2) profit
be designed in such a way that it contains each
(3) loss
of the A, U, G, C exactly twice. In how many
(4) Depending on the price sometimes profit and
ways such RNA sequence may be designed?
sometimes loss
(1) 28 (2) 50
(3) 2520 (4) 40320
44. The probability of occurrence of event A is 0-2
and the probability of occurrence of event B is
37. The number of solutions of 𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 = 𝟓, 𝟐𝒙 +
0.4 . Probability of both events occurring
𝟒𝒚 = 𝟏𝟎 is:
together is 0.1 . What is the probability that
(1) zero
exactly one event occurs?
(2) unique
(1) 0.1
(3) finite but not unique
(2) 0.2
(4) infinite
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.4
38. A dice is thrown twice. What is the probability
of getting a sum greater than 3?
45. The unit digit in the number 2893763 is
(1) 8/9
(1) 1
(2) 11/12
(2) 3
(3) 1/12
(3) 6
(4) 1/9
(4) 9

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46. Typical velocity magnitudes of some of the 51. A block of mass 200 g att with a hanging ideal
moving objects are enlisted in the following spring oscillates with a time period of 20 sec on
table : earth. If the system is taken to Venus where the
(A) Moving bacterium (i) 2x 106 acceleration due to gravity is about 50% of that
m/sec of earth, what will be the time period of
(B) A snail's pace (ii) 3x 108 oscillations?
m/sec (1) 10 sec
(C) Olympic runner (iii) 1 mm/sec (2) 20 sec
(D) Electron orbiting in a (iv) (3) 30 sec
hydrogen atom 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝛍𝐦/ (4) 40 sec
𝐬𝐞𝐜
(E) Light travelling in vacuum (v) 10 m/sec 52. Two lightweight metal bobs are attached to
Which of the following represents the most insulating nylon threads and are hanging very
appropriate match between above two close to each other. If one is negatively charged
columns? and other is neutral, then select the correct
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii) option.
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i) (1) If they touch, they will attract each other
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii) (2) If they touch, they will repel each other
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii) (3) If they touch, they will not exert any force on
each other
47. A 5-rupee coin of weight 20 gm is dropped from (4) If they do not touch, they will not exert any
the top of the Qutub Minar (height of 73 force on each other
metres). Assuming that it falls freely from rest,
what will be its position after 1.0 second? (Given 53. If the two protons are travelling with the same
g = 9.8 m/s2) speed parallel to each other and in the opposite
(1) 4.9 m (2) 9.8 m direction, which of the following will be true
(3) 19.6 m (4) 29.4 m regarding the electric force (𝑭𝑬 ) and magnetic
force (𝑭𝑩 ) between these two protons?
48. If a kangaroo jumps to a height of 4.9 m, what (1) 𝐹𝐸 will be attractive, 𝐹𝐵 will be repulsive
would be his take-off speed? (Given, value of g = (2) 𝐹𝐸 will be repulsive, 𝐹𝐵 will be attractive
9.8 m/s2) (3) 𝐹𝐸 and 𝐹𝐵 both will be attractive
(1) 96.04 m/s (2) 48.02 m/s (4) 𝐹𝐸 and 𝐹𝐵 both will be repulsive
(3) 9.8 m/s (4) 4.9 m/s
54. A proton has the mass (1.673 x 10-27 kg) and a
49. While doing chin-ups, an exerciser lifts his body neutron has the mass (1.675 x 10-27 kg). If both
(70.0 kg) to 0.3 meters in 2 seconds. Calculate have the de Broglie wavelength 𝛌 = 𝟎. 𝟐 𝐧𝐦
the power delivered by his biceps. (Given, value (Planck's constant h=6.626 x 10-34 J-s), which of
of g = 10 m/s2) the following statements is true?
(1) 52.5 watts (1) Proton will have more kinetic energy than
(2) 105 watts neutron.
(3) 210 watts (2) Neutron will have more kinetic energy than
(4) 700 watts proton.
(3) Both will have identically same kinetic energy.
50. Which of the following is not true? (4) Both will have identically same velocity.
(1) If a gas expands adiabatically and reversibly,
there will be no change in its entropy, i.e., ∆𝑆= 55. To completely melt 50.0 grams of ice, what will
0 be the minimum amount of liquid water
(2) If the left and right hands of a person are at required at 30 degrees? (Specific heat capacity
the same temperature, then rubbing these of liquid water = 4.18 J/g/°C, specific heat of
together to warm them is an irreversible fusion of ice is 333 J/g)
process (1) 133 g
(3) No mechanical engine can be more efficient (2) 150 g
than a Carnot engine operating between the (3) 175 g
same two temperatures (4) 110 g
(4) The heart as a natural biological engine is
more efficient than a Carnot engine

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56. Consider the following functions of time (t) : PART-B
(i) 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝛚𝐭 61. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin together
(ii) 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝛚𝐭 + 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝛚𝐭 make up to form
(iii) 𝐭 𝟑 + 𝐭 𝟐 (1) primary wall
(iv) 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝛚𝐭 + 𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝛚𝐭 (2) secondary wall
(v) 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝐞 (𝝎𝒕) (3) middle wall
Which of the above represents periodic motion? (4) tertiary wall
(1) Only (i)
(2) Only (i) and (ii) 62. Clathrin, a member of the coating protein
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) family, is responsible for
(4) Only (iii) and (v) (1) pinching off of the vesicle from the donor
compartment
57. Which of the following is the best (2) bending the membrane into a pit
approximation of heat that is required to raise (3) directing the vesicles to the proper
the temperature of 500 g of water from 30 °C to compartment
90 °C? (Given, the specific heat capacity of water (4) fusing the vesicle to the target compartment
= 4.18 J/g/°C)
(1) 126 kJ (2) 63 kJ 63. Which of the second messengers listed below
(3) 188 kJ (4) 12.6 kJ remains bound to the plasma membrane?
(1) Ca2+
58. In the following figure, ABCD is a square of side (2) IP3
20 cm. Area of the shaded region is (𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞 𝛑 = (3) Diacylglycerol
𝟑. 𝟏𝟒) (4) cAMP

64. The enzyme responsible for continuing DNA

replication in prokaryotes, once it is initiated, is
(1) polymerase beta
(2) polymerase delta
(3) DNA polymerase-I
(1) 314 cm2 (4) DNA polymerase-III
(2) 400 cm2
(3) 86 cm2 65. mRNA will form hybrids only with the coding
(4) 100 cm2 strand of DNA because
(1) DNA contains phosphate group at 5' end that
59. Identify the correct option. Given the following will not reanneal at high temperatures
assertions : (2) DNA contains hydroxy group at 3' end that will
(i) The value of 𝑪𝒑 − 𝑪𝒗 for a monatomic ideal not reanneal at low temperatures
gas is equal to the value of 𝑪𝒑 − 𝑪𝒗 for a (3) RNA : DNA hybridization follows the base-
diatomic ideal gas. pairing rules
(ii) On a monatomic ideal gas, if a process is (4) denatured DNA is helical structure and will
performed such that ∆𝑽 = 𝟎., change in work not reanneal to form hybrid
done ∆𝑾 = 𝟎.
(1) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong 66. Trypsinogen is a typical example of
(2) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct (1) coenzyme
(3) (i) and (ii) both are correct (2) proenzyme
(4) (i) and (ii) both are wrong (3) apoenzyme
(4) holoenzyme
60. Which of the following are the examples of
linear system? (m and c are constants) 67. The cell wall of Archaebacteria does not contain
(i) 𝒚 = 𝒎𝒙 + 𝒄 (1) protein
(ii) 𝒚 = 𝒎𝒙 + 𝟑𝒙 + 𝒄 (2) polysaccharides
(iii) 𝒚 = 𝒎𝒙 + 𝑰𝒏(𝒙) + 𝒄 (3) peptidoglycan
(iv) 𝒚 = 𝒎𝒙 + √𝒙 + 𝒄 (4) pseudomurein
(1) Only (i)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

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68. Which one of the following radiations is the 75. You are interested in a particular segment of
most lethal one? rhinoceros DNA and would like to clone it into a
(1) Ultraviolet-A (UV-A) cloning plasmid. You have the following
(2) Ultraviolet-B (UV-B) restriction map of the region that includes the
(3) Ultraviolet-C (UV-C) DNA of interest and the plasmid (E = EcoRI, H =
(4) Both UV-A and UV-B HindIII, X = Xbal, S = Sphl, N = Noti).

69. Which one of the following genes is involved in

the conversion of proto-oncogenes into
oncogenes causing cancer?
(1) Angiogenesis genes
(2) Tumour suppressor genes
(3) Transposons Which of the following restriction enzymes
(4) Metastasis gene would you choose to clone the DNA of interest
into the cloning vector?
70. Which of the following is a false statement? (1) E and H
(1) Archaebacteria mostly grow in harsh habitat (2) S
(2) Several bacteria are pathogenic (3) X and N
(3) Viruses are cellular organism (4) S and N
(4) Anabaena belongs to the group cyanobacteria
76. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T
71. Which of the following is mismatched? (TH1) cells do not activate which one of the
(1) Oscillatoria-Cyanobacterium following?
(2) TMV-RNA virus (1) IL-12 cytokine
(3) E. coli-Photosynthetic bacterium (2) Gamma interferon
(4) Plasmid-Extra chromosomal DNA (3) Class II MHC antigens
(4) Class I MHC antigens
72. Which one of the following side chains of an
amino acid is responsible for fluorescence in 77. Which of the following is a component of innate
proteins? immunity?
(1) Indole ring (1) B cells
(2) Guanidino group (2) T lymphocytes
(3) Epsilon amino group (3) Natural killer cell
(4) Imidazole group (4) Antibody

73. In animals, the inability to make the pigment 78. Which of the following flows through an
melanin results in albinism, a recessive ecosystem but not as a cycle?
condition. Two unaffected parents, who have (1) Water
decided to have three children, have a first child (2) Carbon
that has albinism (genotype aa). What is the (3) Nitrogen
probability that the second and third children (4) Energy
will also have albinism?
(1) 1/4 79. The study of evolutionary relationships between
(2) 1/2 organisms is known as
(3) 1/16 (1) Phylogenetics
(4) 9/16 (2) Genetics
(3) Genomics
74. Which of the following crosses would produce a (4) Proteomics
1:1 ratio of phenotypes in the next generation?
(1) AA x AA 80. The rate of migration of the DNA fragments
(2) AA x aa through an agarose gel is determined by the
(3) Aa x Aa (1) number of nucleotides in the fragment
(4) Aa x aa (2) ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment
(3) hydrogen bonds between base pairs
(4) volume of the sample

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81. The undifferentiated and unorganized mass of 86. During the formation of hybrid cells (B-cells and
cells in tissue culture is known as myeloma cells) for the production of
(1) callus monoclonal antibodies, polyethylene glycol
(2) tissue (PEG) is used. What is the role of PEG?
(3) organ (1) It helps in the blocking of de novo pathway,
(4) crown and activate the cells to utilize the salvage
pathway
82. In recombinant DNA technology, a DNA probe is (2) It helps in the synthesis of nucleotides and
used to converts purines and pyrimidines directly into
(1) detect specific nucleotide sequence DNA
(2) insert foreign genes (3) It helps in the fusion of B-cells and myeloma
(3) digest genomic DNA cells
(4) clone extra piece of DNA (4) It helps in maintaining the immortal growth of
hybrid
83. The Widal test is used for detecting
(1) hormone deficiency syndrome, which occurs 87. Synapsis and chiasmata formation occur during
after menopause which stage of cell division?
(2) filariasis, which is caused by the worms (1) Zygotene and diplotene, respectively
Wuchereria bancrofti (2) Both occur during pachytene
(3) typhoid, which is caused by the bacteria (3) Zygotene and pachytene, respectively
Salmonella typhii (4) Pachytene and diakinesis, respectively
(4) malaria, which is caused by Plasmodium
falciparum 88. A haploid set of chromosome, i.e., the number
of chromosomes in the gamete is known as
84. Which of the following assumptions are used in (1) idiogram
the Briggs-Haldane derivation of the Michaelis- (2) genotype
Menten equation? (3) karyotype
(1) the concentration of the ES complex rapidly (4) genome
reaches a steady state
(2) substrate concentration is greater than 89. Balbiani ring formation is a characteristic
enzyme feature of
(3) at saturating concentration of substrate, (1) polytene chromosome
nearly all of the enzyme concentration (2) lampbrush chromosome
(4) all of the above were used in deriving the (3) X chromosome
Michaelis-Menten equation (4) satellite chromosome

85. A researcher did the following steps in an 90. Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor
experiment : of RNA synthesis?
I. Isolated the genomic DNA from a micro- (1) Tetracycline
organism and purified it (2) Streptomycin
II. Digested the DNA sample with 𝐇𝐢𝐧𝐝𝐈𝐈𝐈 (3) Bacitracin
restriction enzyme for overnight (4) Rifamycin
III. Performed the agarose gel electrophoresis of
91. Which of the following cannot excrete
the digested sample
hypertonic urine but can considerably reduce
IV. After electrophoresis, transferred the
water loss in urine?
separated bands to a nitrocellulose
(1) Marsupial rat (2) Camel
membrane
(3) Birds (4) Horse
V. Prepared the gene-based radioactive-probe
and hybridized with nitrocellulose membrane 92. In the genetic code, a stop codon (or
VI. Checked his result with autoradiography termination codon) is a nucleotide triplet within
Which experiment he was conducting? messenger RNA that signals a termination of
(1) Southern hybridization translation into proteins. Identify the correct
(2) Northern hybridization pairs of termination codons from the following:
(3) Western hybridization (1) UAA, UGA, UAG
(4) Subtractive hybridization (2) UAG, UUU, UGU
(3) UAA, UUG, UAC

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(4) UGA, UUC, UGG 99. A protein solution after 1000 fold dilution gave
93. Closing of stomata happens due to secretion of an absorbance of 0-4 in 1 cm path length
abscisic acid by dehydrated mesophyll cells. If cuvette at 280 nm. Its molar extinction
you allow transpiration of a plant in 1% glycerol coefficient is 44000 M-1cm-1. Find out the
containing water and another plant in only approximate concentration of stock solution.
water as control then (1) 0.91 M (2) 0.91 mM
(1) stomata will remain open for longer time (3) 9.9 mM (4) 9.1 Mm
compared to control
(2) stomata will close early compared to control 100. Which of the following is the correct
(3) No effect on stomata closing operational relationship between pH and
(4) stomata will never open 𝐩𝐊 𝐚 ?
(1) pK a is that pH in which 100% of the
94. High fluidity of the thylakoid membrane titratable solute exists in a dissociated state
compared to cell membrane in plant is due to (2) pK a is the logarithm of pH
(1) more rhamnolipids and less phospholipids (3) pK a is that pH in which 50% of the titratable
(2) more phospholipids and less rhamnolipids solute exists in a dissociated state
(3) more rhamnolipids, less phospholipids and (4) pH is the logarithm of pK a
more unsaturated fatty acids
(4) chlorophyll 101. S. cerevisiae has a maximum specific growth
rate of 0.5 h-1 on a glucose-based medium. If
95. Which of the following phospholipids is grown in a chemostat with a dilution rate of
preferentially distributed in the outer leaflet of 0.6 h-1, then at steady state the concentration
plasma membrane? of S. cerevisiae in the same medium will
(1) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine (1) fluctuate
(2) Phosphatidyl serine (2) increase
(3) Phosphatidyl choline (3) decrease
(4) Phosphatidyl inositol (4) be zero

96. According to Chargaff's rule, the concentration 102. The equipment French press is used for
of guanine always equalled to that of the (1) high-pressure filtration
concentration of cytosine. A segment of double- (2) high-pressure cell lysis
stranded DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine (3) low-pressure filtration
bases. What will be the total number of (4) low-pressure cell lysis
nucleotides present in the segment?
(1) 60 103. Which of the following is not a type of impeller
(2) 480 for agitation in a bioreactor?
(3) 120 (1) Anchor (2) Paddle
(4) 240 (3) Helical screw (4) Basket

97. Which of the following cannot be used for 104. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits
determination of enzyme kinetics constants (K m peptidyl transferase in bacterial protein
and Vmax)? synthesis?
(1) Lineweaver-Burk plot (1) Streptomycin
(2) Eadie-Hofstee plot (2) Puromycin
(3) Dixon-Scatchard plot (3) Erythromycin
(4) Hanes-Woolf plot (4) Cycloheximide

98. Which of the following statements is untrue 105. 0.1 ml of a bacterial culture is diluted into 9.9
about enzymes? ml of buffer; 0.1 ml of this dilution is again
(1) These increase the rate of reaction diluted in 9.9 ml of fresh buffer. Plating 0.1 ml
(2) These affect reaction equilibrium to make from the second dilution tube yields an
more product average of 72 colonies on the plate. What is
(3) These are proteins the cell density of the culture?
(4) These sometime require cofactors for their (1) 7.2 x 106 cells per ml
functions (2) 7.2 x 105 cells per ml
(3) 7.2 x 108 cells per ml
(4) 7.2 x 107 cells per ml

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106. The order of glucose, urea, H2O, CO2 and 113. What is the concentration of H+ in the solution
steroid hormones according to their ability to of 0.2 M NaOH?
diffuse through the lipid bilayer, beginning (1) 10-2 M
with the one that crosses the bilayer most (2) 10-12 M
readily is (3) 10-14 M
(1) CO2, steroid hormone, H2O, urea, glucose (4) 10-7 M
(2) CO2, H2O, urea, glucose, steroid hormone
(3) H2O, CO2, glucose, urea, steroid hormone 114. How many times pH = 1.0 has more hydrogen
(4) steroid hormone, CO2, H2O, urea, glucose than that is in pH = 14?
(1) 1 million
107. Chemo-organoautotrophs will use which one (2) 1 trillion
of the following as food source? (3) 10 million
(1) Organic compounds (4) 10 trillion
(2) Inorganic compounds not containing carbon
(3) Carbon dioxide 115. The given 1.8 g of glucose is equivalent to
(4) Inorganic compounds not containing oxygen which of the following?
(1) 0.1 mol of glucose
108. DNA hybridization of less than 25% between (2) 0.01 mol of glucose
two organisms indicates that they are of (3) 1 mol of glucose
(1) different genera and different species (4) 1.8 mol of glucose
(2) same species but different genera
(3) same genera but different species 116. Arrange the following taxonomic levels in the
(4) same family and same genera order of increasing similarity (from least to
most) of the microorganisms in each
109. Which of the following methods will you use taxonomic group :
to differentiate between species and strain? (i) Family
(1) 16S rRNA sequence (ii) Genus
(2) DNA footprinting (iii) Kingdom
(3) Whole cell protein profiling (iv) Order
(4) DNA fingerprinting (v) Species
(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(v)
110. Which of the following marine bacteria is (2) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)-(v)
capable of bioluminescence? (3) (v)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(1) Pseudomonas fluorescens (4) (ii)-(v)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
(2) Salmonella typhii
(3) Vibrio fisheri 117. The bacterial genomic DNA occurs as a
(4) Thiothrix nivea (1) single linear molecule attached to
membrane
111. How does fertilized egg prevent the entry of (2) pair of linear molecules attached to
another sperm? membrane
(1) Sudden rise in Ca2+ concentration on the egg (3) single circular molecule not attached to
cell surface membrane
(2) Sudden modulation in the cell surface (4) single circular molecule attached to
glycoprotein on the cell surface membrane
(3) Sudden change in the sialylation level of cell
surface proteins changes overall charge of 118. The linear genomic DNA of phage T2 is 52 𝛍𝐦
membrane protein long, The DNA is double stranded with 0.34 nm
(4) Sudden change in G-protein conformation distance between each base pair. How many
prevents binding of sperm to the fertilized base pairs does the entire genomic DNA of T2
egg contain?
(1) 34000 bp
112. Which bacterial gene transfer would be (2) 52000 bp
inhibited by extracellular exonucleases? (3) 152941 bp
(1) Conjugation (4) 520000 bp
(2) Transduction
(3) Transformation
(4) Transposition

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119. Following is the titration curve of acetic acid. 123. Pick out the correct statement.
Choose the correct answer. (1) Eukaryotes have single origin of replication
while prokaryotes have multiple origins per
chromosome.
(2) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes have multiple
origins of replication per chromosome.
(3) Eukaryotes have multiple origins while
prokaryotes have a single origin of
replication per chromosome.
(4) Prokaryotes do not have single origin while
(1) Acetic acid has a buffering range from pH 1.0 eukaryotes have single origin of replication
to pH 5.0 per chromosome.
(2) The OH- 0 to 0.5 is the pK a of acetic acid
(3) pH 4.76 is the pK a of acetic acid 124. The resolving power of a microscope can be
(4) pH value increases to 7 and OH- value to 1.0 increased by
(1) increasing the diameter of the eyepiece
120. The relative molecular masses of water and (2) decreasing the diameter of the eyepiece
ammonia are 18 and 17 respectively. However, (3) increasing the diameter of the objective
their boiling points are 100 °C and -33 °C (4) decreasing the diameter of the objective
respectively. The vast difference in the boiling
points is because 125. Polypeptides with identical molecular weights
(1) ammonia is volatile and kept in a dark can be separated by
stoppered bottle (1) gel filtration
(2) ammonia has enough lone pairs of electron (2) SDS-PAGE
form hydrogen bonds (3) isoelectric focussing
(3) hydrogen atoms of water form hydrogen (4) Western blot
bonds with surrounding water molecules
(4) water is non-polar and kept in any vesicle 126. Philadelphia chromosome is an abnormality
associated with
121. An absorption spectrum for a solution is given (1) liver cancer
below. Choose the correct statement regarding (2) blood cancer
the solution. (3) lung cancer
(4) skin cancer

127. Which of the following is not used for end-

modification of DNA?
(1) T4 polynucleotide kinase
(2) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
(4) T4 ligase

128. Which is the correct order of events?

(1) The solution has only DNA. (1) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene
(2) The solution has DNA or RNA, protein and is (2) Leptotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Zygotene
violet in colour. (3) Leptotene, Diplotene, Pachytene, Zygotene
(3) The solution has DNA or RNA, protein and is (4) Zygotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis, Diplotene
blue in colour.
(4) The solution has DNA or RNA, protein and is 129. Which of the following enzymes is activated by
red in colour. cyclic AMP, passing on the hormonal signal?
(1) Protein kinase A
122. Pick the correct order of the evolutionary (2) Protein kinase B
timescale in ascending order. (3) Protein kinase C
(1) Cretaceous, Jurassic, Triassic (4) G protein receptor kinase
(2) Cretaceous, Triassic, Jurassic
(3) Permian, Silurian, Devonian
(4) Cambrian, Silurian, Devonian

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130. Precipitins are 137. Which of the following methods was used to
(1) insoluble antigens sequence the human genome?
(2) antibodies that aggregate soluble antigens (1) Cytogenic mapping
(3) aggregates antigen-antibody actions (2) Shotgun sequencing
(4) insoluble antibodies (3) Chromosome walking
(4) Radiation hybrid mapping
131. Tunicamycin is an inhibitor of
(1) glycosylation 138. Raman spectroscopy deals with the changes in
(2) transcription (1) electronic states
(3) translation (2) molecular rotational and vibrational states
(4) fatty acid biosynthesis (3) rotational state of nuclear spin
(4) electronegativity of amino acids
132. O-linked glycosylation takes place at
(1) serine or threonine residue of a polypeptide 139. During synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerases,
(2) asparagine or aspartic acid residue of a which of the following phosphate groups of
polypeptide the deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs) is
(3) methionine or lysine residue of a incorporated into the DNA?
polypeptide (1) Alpha (2) Beta
(4) glycine or aspartic acid residue of a (3) Gamma (4) Delta
polypeptide
140. Terminal electron acceptor in electron
133. Differentiation of shoot in plant tissue culture transport chain is
is controlled by (1) cytochrome a
(1) high auxin : cytokinin ratio (2) cytochrome b
(2) high cytokinin : auxin ratio (3) cytochromec
(3) high auxin : gibberellin ratio (4) oxygen
(4) high gibberellin : auxin ratio
141. During the carboxylation phase of Calvin cycle,
134. For a character X, there exist 12 alleles in a CO2 combines with
population of rice plants. How many alleles for (1) ribulose 1,5-bis-phosphate
the same character would be present in diploid (2) phosphoglyceraldehyde
rice plant? (3) pyruvic acid
(1) 12 (4) oxaloacetic acid
(2) 8
142. In a DNA molecule, the guanosine content is
(3) 6
40%, the adenine content will be
(4) 2
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
135. Which of the following parts of plant would be
most suitable for the production of virus-free
143. The mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide
plants for micropropagation?
sequence of which of the following of DNA?
(1) Nodes
(1) Coding strand
(2) Meristem
(2) Antitemplate strand
(3) Vascular tissue
(3) Sense strand
(4) Leaves
(4) Antisense strand
136. In plant transformation, the term T-DNA is 144. Substitution of a thymine base by adenine in
used for DNA is known as
(1) plant chromosomal DNA where foreign DNA (1) transposition
is integrated (2) transition
(2) DNA segment that is transferred from (3) transversion
agrobacterium to plant genome (4) frameshift
(3) DNA segment that is responsible for
replication of agrobacterium genome 145. A polypeptide has a molecular mass of about
(4) DNA segment of Ti plasmid that is 200000. The most probable number of amino
transferred to agrobacterium genome acids that the polypeptide has is
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(3) 3000 (4) 4000
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146. Transport of molecules against concentration (1) The statement itself is false, therefore needs
gradient is called no explanation
(1) osmosis (2) active transport (2) The reverse reaction is very fast as
(3) diffusion (4) passive transport compared to forward reaction
(3) The reaction is highly endothermic
147. What would happen if human blood becomes (4) The free energy of activation is very high
acidic?
(1) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is 154. What will be the value of free energy change
increased AG at equilibrium?
(2) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is (1) Greater than 1 (2) Less than 1
decreased (3) Equal to zero (4) Equal to ∞
(3) It will remain same 155. If cells are treated with an inhibitor of the
(4) It will be unpredictable glucosidase 𝐈 enzyme of the endoplasmic
reticulum, it can be expected that the
148. The region of DNA known as TATA box is the glycosylated proteins will show a change in
site for binding of (1) molecular weight and increased
(1) DNA polymerase hydrophobicity
(2) DNA topoisomerase (2) molecular weight and increased
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase hydrophilicity
(4) polynucleotide phosphorylase (3) molecular weight and no change in
hydrophobicity
149. Ames assay is a rapid method for detection of (4) hydrophobicity without any change in the
(1) oncoviruses molecular weight
(2) retroviruses
(3) chemical carcinogens 156. VNTRs represent
(4) typhoid (1) variable new terminal regions with tandem
repeats
150. A new Penicillium mutant was tested for (2) functional genes with tandem repeats
auxotrophy. The mutant grows on minimal (3) split genes in tandem repeats
medium (M) + arginine (1) + proline (P) + (4) on-coding sequences with tandem repeats
histidine (H) but not on M or on M + A+H. The
157. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) allow
mutant requires
researchers to identify
(1) arginine
(1) genes that encode rRNA
(2) histidine and arginine
(2) genes that encode proteins
(3) histidine
(3) the start of an intron
(4) proline
(4) protein sequences that bind to mRNA during
expression
151. Turner's syndrome in female is due to the
presence of 158. Which of the following is not intensive
(1) 44 + XXY chromosomes variables as per properties of matter?
(2) 44 + X chromosomes (1) Temperature (2) Density
(3) 44 + XYY chromosomes (3) Mole fractions (4) Energy
(4) 44 + XXX chromosomes
159. After an overnight fast, which of the following
152. A major class of non-translated RNA functions enzymes would be expected to have little, if
in the regulation of gene expression by base any physiological activity?
pairing to mRNA is (1) Malate dehydratase
(1) ribosomal RNA (2) ∝ −ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(2) antisense RNA (3) Phosphofructokinase
(3) regulatory RNA (4) Glucokinase
(4) small nuclear RNA
160. Cytochrome P-450 is found in the membranes
153. Sometimes reactions may not easily take place of
even though the standard free energy change (1) Golgi
is highly negative. Which one of the following (2) endoplasmic reticulum
is a possible explanation? (3) peroxisomes
(4) lysosomes

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ANSWER KEY
1. 1 2. 2 3. 1 4. 4 5. 4 6. 1 7. 2 8. 1 9. 2 10. 2
11. 1 12. 1 13. 4 14. 4 15. 2 16. 4 17. 4 18. 2 19. 1 20. 4
21. 4 22. 1 23. 4 24. 2 25. 1 26. 1 27. 4 28. 3 29. 4 30. 3
31. 1 32. 3 33. 2 34. 1 35. 3 36. 3 37. 4 38. 2 39. 3 40. 3
41. 3 42. 1 43. 3 44. 4 45. 4 46. 4 47. 1 48. 3 49. 2 50. 2
51. 3 52. 1 53. 4 54. 3 55. 1 56. 1 57. 1 58. 3 59. 3 60. 2
61. 1 62. 2 63. 3 64. 4 65. 3 66. 2 67. 3 68. 3 69. 2 70. 3
71. 3 72. 4 73. 3 74. 4 75. 3 76. 4 77. 3 78. 4 79. 1 80. 1
81. 1 82. 1 83. 3 84. 4 85. 1 86. 3 87. 1 88. 4 89. 1 90. 4
91. 3 92. 1 93. 2 94. 3 95. 1 96. 2 97. 3 98. 2 99. 2 100. 3
101. 4 102. 2 103. 4 104. 2 105. 1 106. 1 107. 1 108. 1 109. 1 110. 3
111. 1 112. 3 113. 2 114. 4 115. 2 116. 1 117. 4 118. 3 119. 3 120. 3
121. 3 122. 1 123. 3 124. 3 125. 3 126. 2 127. 4 128. 1 129. 1 130. 2
131. 1 132. 1 133. 3 134. 1 135. 2 136. 4 137. 4 138. 2 139. 2 140. 4
141. 1 142. 1 143. 4 144. 2 145. 2 146. 2 147. 2 148. 3 149. 3 150. 3
151. 2 152. 2 153. 4 154. 3 155. 3 156. 1 157. 4 158. 4 159. 4 160. 2

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