PHYSICS MOST EXPECTED

QUESTIONS

NEET-2024

Physics Mock Test

 Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test

PHYSICS

Q.47 A window is 50 cm long. A stone is falling from Q.61 A ball is thrown vertically up (taken as +z-axis)
a height of 40 cm above the window. It crosses from the ground. The correct momentum-height
the window in:- (p-h) diagram is :
(1) (3/7) s (2) (2/7) s
(3) (1/7) s (4) (4/7) s p p
Q.49 The radius of a ball is [5.4 ± 0.2]cm. The h h
O O
percentage error in the volume of the ball is :-
(1) 11% (2) 4%
(3) 7% (4) 9% (1) (2)
Q.50 The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are p p
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system
to remain in equilibrium, the angle  should be:- O h h
O

 

(3) (4)
m m
Q.62 On a long horizontal belt, a child runs to and fro
2m
with a speed of 9 km/h (with respect to the belt)
(1) 0º (2) 30º between his father and mother located 50m
(3) 45º (4) 60º apart on the moving belt. The belt moves with a
Q.54 The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of speed of 4 km/h. For an observer on the
2km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of platform the speed of the child in the direction
4km/h. What should be the direction of the of motion of the belt is:-
swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to (1) 9 km/h (2) 4 km/h
cross the river straight ? (3) 13 km/h (4) 5 km/h
(1) 60° Q.66 Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6kg and 8kg are
(2) 150° hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The
(3) 90° tension in the string connecting 8kg and 4kg
(4) 120° block is
Q.56 Which relation can not obtained dimensionally
(1) Pressure = Force /Area
(2) Volume = Length × Area
(3) Thermal energy = (Momentum)2 / Area
(4) Distance = speed × time 6kg
Q.57 A food packet is dropped from a helicopter 8kg
rising up with a velocity of 4 ms–1. The velocity
of the packet after three second will be:-
(1) 20.4 ms–1 4kg
(2) 25.4 ms–1 (1) 4 N (2) 6 N
(3) 28.4 ms–1 (3) 160 N (4) 80/3 N
(4) 30.4 ms–1 Q.71 Find the minimum value of m that should
Q.60 If surface tension (S), Moment of inertia (I) and placed on 20 kg, so that system remain at rest.
m
Planck's constant (h), were to be taken as the
20kg
fundamental units, the dimensional formula for
µ = 0.25
linear momentum would be :
(1) S3/2 I1/2h0
(2) S1/2I1/2h0 10kg
(3) S1/2I1/2h–1 (1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg
(4) S1/2I3/2h–1 (3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.75 A particle is thrown vertically upward. Find its Q.84 Two blocks A and B of masses mA = 1 kg and
velocity so that it covers same distance in fifth mB = 3 kg are kept on the table as shown in
and sixth second :- figure. The coefficient of friction between A
(1) 48 m/s and B is 0.2 and between B and the surface of
(2) 14 m/s
the table is also 0.2. The maximum force F that
(3) 49 m/s can be applied on B horizontally, so that the
(4) 7 m/s block A does not slide over the block B is :
Q.78 A force-time graph for the motion of a body is
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
shown in the figure. The change in the
A
momentum of the body between zero to 10 sec
is :- B F
F(N)
2
(1) 16 N (2) 40 N
10 t(s)
0 8 (3) 12 N (4) 8 N
Q.88 Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled
1 along a smooth horizontal surface. The masses
(1) zero of the blocks and tension in one string are given.
(2) 4 kg-m/sec The pulling force F is :-
F
(3) 6 kg-m/sec
60º 6N
(4) 10 kg-m/sec 8kg 6kg 4kg 2kg
Q.80 The position of a particle as a function of time
(1) 12 N (2) 6 N
t, is given by x (t) = at + bt2 – ct3, where a, b
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N
and c are constants. When the particle attains
Q.89 A body of mass 1 kg crosses a point O with a
zero acceleration, then its velocity will be :
velocity 60 ms–1. A force of 10 N directed
b2 b2 towards O begins to act on it. It will again cross
(1) a + (2) a +
4c c O in:-
b 2
b 2 (1) 24 sec (2) 12 sec
(3) a + (4) a + (3) 6 sec (4) will never return to
2c 3c
O
Q.81 A box of mass m kg is placed on the rear side of
Q.90 A paratrooper after bailing out falls 50 m
an open truck accelerating at 4 m/s2. The without friction. When parachute opens, it
coefficient of friction between the box and the
decelerates at 2m/s2. He reaches the ground
surface below it is 0.4. The net acceleration of
with a speed of
the box with respect to the truck is zero. The
3m/s. At what height did he bail out :-
value of m is :- [g = 10m/s2] (1) 293 m (2) 111 m
(1) 4 kg (3) 91 m (4) 182 m
(2) 8 kg Q.50 A cord is used to lower vertically a block of
(3) 9.78 kg mass M by a distance d with constant downward
(4) It could be any value acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the
Q.83 An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force block is :-
F  (6t 2ˆi  4t ˆj) N is applied on the object, (1) Mgd/4 (2) 3Mgd/4
then the velocity of the object at t = 3 s will be:- (3) –3Mgd/4 (4) Mgd/3.
(1) 18iˆ  3jˆ Q.51 The M.I. of a body about the given axis is
1.2 kg × m2 and initially the body is at rest. In
(2) 18iˆ  6ˆj order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of
(3) 3iˆ  18jˆ 1500 joule an angular acceleration of 25
(4) 18iˆ  4ˆj rad/sec2 must be applied about that axis for a
duration of :-
(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 8 sec (4) 10 sec
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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.52 When work is done on a body by an external Q.67 Two blocks which are connected to each other
force, its :- by means of a massless string are placed on two
(1) Only kinetic energy increases inclined planes as shown in figure. After
(2) Only potential energy increases releasing from rest, the magnitude of
(3) Both kinetic and potential energies may acceleration of the centre of mass of both the
increase blocks is (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) Sum of kinetic and potential energies
remains constant
Q.55 Two blocks A and B of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are
m m
connected together by a spring and are resting on a
horizontal surface. The blocks are pulled apart so
53° Fixed 37°
as to stretch the spring and then released. The ratio
of K.E.s of both the blocks is :- 1
(1) 1 m/s2 m/s2
(2)
(1) 1 (2) 2 2
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero
Q.59 In free space, a shell moving with velocity
Q.70 Radius of gyration of a uniform thin rod of
60m/s along the positive x-axis. When it passes
length L about an axis passing normally through
through origin, it explodes into two pieces of
its centre of mass is :-
mass ratio 1 : 2. After the explosion, the velocity
of the centre of mass is :- (1) L / 12 (2) L/12
(1) 20 m/s (2) 60 m/s (3) 12 L (4) 12 L
(3) 90 m/s (4) zero Q.71 The rectangular plate shown in the figure is
Q.61 A light and a heavy body have equal kinetic rotated in turn about x-x, y-y and z-z axes
energy. Which one has a greater momentum :- passing through its centre of mass O. Its
(1) The light body moment of inertia is :-
(2) The heavy body z
(3) Both have equal momentum y'
(4) It is not possible to say anything without
additional information x x'
Q.64 A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with
angular speed  on a horizontal plane as shown.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the y
disc about the origin O is :- z'
y (1) Same about all the three axes
(2) Maximum about z-z' axis
 (3) Equal about x-x’ and y-y' axis
M (4) Maximum about y-y' axis
O x Q.73 Moment of inertia of a body about a given axis
1 is 1.5 kg m2. Initially the body is at rest. In order
(1) MR 2 (2) MR2 
2 to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1200 J,
3 the angular acceleration of 20 rad/s2 must be
(3) MR 2 (4) 2MR2 
2 applied about the axis for a duration of :
Q.66 A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is (1) 2s (2) 5s
divided into two unequal parts. The first part has (3) 2.5 s (4) 3 s
a mass of 7M/8 and is converted into a uniform Q.76 A sphere is suspended by a thread of length .
disc of radius 2R. The second part is converted What minimum horizontal velocity has to be
into a uniform solid sphere. Let I1 be the imparted to the sphere for it to reach the height
moment of inertia of the disc about its axis and of the suspension
I2 be the moment of inertia of the new sphere (1) g (2) 2g
about its axis. The ratio I1 / I2 is given by :
(3) g (4) 2g
(1) 185 (2) 65
(3) 285 (4) 140

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.78 From an inclined plane a sphere, a disc, a ring Q.89 A particle which is experiencing a force, given
and a spherical shell of same radius are rolled by F  3iˆ  12j,
ˆ undergoes a displacement of
without slipping from the same height ˆ If the particle had a kinetic energy of 3
simultaneously. The order of their reaching at d  4i.
the base will be :- J at the beginning of the displacement, what is
(1) Ring, shell, disc, sphere its kinetic energy at the end of the
(2) Shell, sphere, disc, ring displacement?
(3) Sphere, disc, shell, ring (1) 15 J (2) 10 J
(4) Ring, sphere, disc, shell (3) 12 J (4) 9 J
Q.80 A small body of mass m slides down from the Q.90 Two identical spherical balls of mass M and
top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of radius R each are stuck on two ends of a rod of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The length 2R and mass M (see figure). The moment
height at which the body lose contact with the of inertia of the system about the axis passing
surface of the sphere is :- perpendicularly through the centre of the rod is:
2R
R R
r
h

(1) (3/2) r (2) (2/3) r

(3) (1/2) gt 2 (4) v2 / 2g 152 17
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
Q.83 For a body moving in a circular path, a 15 15
condition for no skidding if µ is the coefficient 137 209
of friction, is (3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
15 15
mv2 mv2 Q.47 A rod of length L at room temperature and
(1)  mg (2)  mg uniform area of cross section A, is made of a
r r
metal having coefficient of linear expansion
v mv2
(3)  g (4)  mg °C. It is observed that an external compressive
r r force F, is applied on each of its ends, prevents
Q.84 A smooth wire of length 2r is bent into a circle any change in the length of the rod, when its
and kept in a vertical plane. A bead can slide temperature rises by T K. Young's modulus,
smoothly on the wire. When the circle is Y, for this metal is :
rotating with angular speed  about the vertical F F
diameter AB, as shown in figure, the bead is at (1) (2)
2AT A (T  273)
rest with respect to the circular ring at position
F 2F
P as shown. Then the value of 2 is equal to : (3) (4)
 AT AT
A Q.51 A geostatationary satellite is orbiting the earth
r at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth.
O R being the radius of the earth. The time period
r/2 of another satellite in hours at a height 2R form
P
B the surface of the earth is
(1) 6 / 2 (2) 6 2 
(1) (g 3) / r (2) 3g / 2r (3) 5 (4) 10
(3) 2g / r (4) 2g / (r 3) Q.53 What is the radius of the circular orbit of a
Q.87 A homogeneous solid cylindrical roller of stationary satellite which remains motionless
radius R and mass M is pulled on a cricket pitch with respect to earth’s surface?
by a horizontal force. Assuming rolling without 1/3
 gR 2T 2   gR 
1/2
slipping, angular acceleration of the cylinder is: (1)   (2)  2 2 
3F F  4 2   4 T 
(1) (2)
2mR 3mR 1/3 1/2
 gRT   gR 
(3) 
 2 
(4) 
(3)
2F
(4)
F  2T 
3mR 2mR

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.54 A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The Q.63 8 mercury drops coalesce to form one mercury
velocities of the liquid in the two sections which drop, the energy changes by a factor of –
have areas of cross section A1 and A2 are v1 ,v2 (1) 1 (2) 2
respectively. The difference in the levels of (3) 4 (4) 6
liquid in the two vertical tubes is h. Q.65 Water rises to a height h in a capillary at the
surface of earth. On the surface of the moon the
height of water column in the same capillary
h will
(1) 6h (2) h/6
(3) h (4) Zero
A1 A2 Q.66 Which one of the following groups represents
v1 v2 correctly the variation of the gravitational
Choose the INCORRECT statement intensity I with the distance r from the centre of
(1) The volume of liquid flowing through the a spherical shell of mass M and radius R?
I
tube in unit time is A1v1. I

(2) v2 – v1 = 2gh
(3) v22 – v12 = 2gh
R r R r
(4) The energy per unit mass of liquid is the (1) (2)
same in both the sections of the tube. I I
Q.57 A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth
of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
R r R r
the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is (3) (4)
(1) gx Q.70 The gravitational field in a region is given by
gR
(2) equation E  (5iˆ  12j)ˆ N / kg.
Rx
If a particle of mass 2 kg is moved from the
g R2 origin to the point (12m, 5m) in this region, the
(3) change in gravitational potential energy is
Rx
(1) –225J
1/2
 g R2  (2) –240J
(4)   (3) –245 J
 R  x (4) –250 J
Q.58 The time period of an earth satellite in circular Q.71 The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s.
orbit is independent of – The mass of another planet is 100 times mass of
(1) The mass of the satellite. earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth.
(2) Radius of its orbit. The escape velocity for the planet is –
(3) Both the mass and radius of the orbit. (1) 280 km/s
(4) Neither the mass of the satellite nor the (2) 56.0 km/s
radius of its orbit. (3) 112 km/s
Q.61 The lengths and radii of two wires of same (4) 56 km/s
material are respectively L, 2L, and 2R, R. Q.72 A communication satellite is in a circular orbit
Equal weights are applied on then. If the around Earth. If the speed of the satellite is
elongations produced in them are 1 and 2 constant, the force acting on the satellite
respectively then their ratio will be (1) is zero.
(1) 2 : 1 (2) is decreasing.
(2) 4 : 1 (3) points toward the center of Earth at all
(3) 8 : 1 times.
(4) 1 : 8 (4) points in the direction that the satellite is
moving.

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.78 A container of large uniform cross-sectional Q.89 The force required to punch a square hole 2 cm
area A is resting on a horizontal surface holds side in steel sheet 2 mm thick is :- (shearing
two immiscible, non-viscous and stress of steel sheet = 3.5 × 108 N/m2)
incompressible liquids of densities d and 2d (1) 5.6 × 104 N (2) 3.4 × 104 N
each of height H/2 as shown. The lower density (3) 9.1 × 104 N (4) 6.8 × 104 N
of liquid is open to atmosphere. A small hole is Q.90 An 8m long copper wire and 4m long steel wire,
made on the wall of container at height h (h < each of cross section 0.5 cm2 are fastened end
H/2). The initial speed of efflux of the liquid at to end and stretched by 500 N force. The elastic
the hole is :- potential energy of the system is :-
(Youngs mod : Ycu = 1 × 1011N/m2,
Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) :-
(1) 1/4 J
(2) 1/3 J
(3) 1/2 J
(3H  4h) g (4) 1 J
(1) (3H – 4h) g (2) Q.49 Heat required to melt 1gm of ice is 80 cal. A
2
man melts 60 gm of ice by chewing it in one
(3H  4h) g
(3) (3H  4h) g (4) minute, his power is :-
2 (1) 4000 W (2) 336 W
Q.79 The quantity on which the rise of liquid in (3) 1.33 W (4) 0.75 W
capillary tube does not depend upon is :- Q.52 When M1 gram of ice at –10ºC (specific heat =
(1) density of the liquid 0.5 cal g–1ºC–1) is added to M2 gram of water at
(2) atmospheric pressure
50ºC, finally no ice is left and the water is at
(3) radius of capillary
(4) angle of contact 0ºC. The value of latent heat of ice, in calg–1 is:
Q.81 If a cube of ice is placed in gravity free space, 5M1 50M 2
(1)  50 (2)
then when the ice melts. M2 M1
(1) It remains in shape of cube 50M 2 5M 2
(2) It will split into pieces of irregular shapes (3) 5 (4) 5
M1 M1
(3) It will split into small tiny water droplets
(4) It will form a spherical shape Q.53 Gas obey P2V = constant. The initial
Q.83 A block of mass M is suspended from a wire of temperature and volume are T0 and V0. If gas
length L, area of cross-section A and Young's expands to volume 2V0, the final temperature is
modulus Y. The elastic potential energy stored (1) 2T0 (2) 2T0
in the wire is-
(3) T0 / 2 (4) T0 / 2
1 M 2g 2 L 1 Mg
(1) (2) Q.55 When heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas of
2 AY 2 ALY
rigid molecules, at constant volume its
1 M 2g 2 A 1 MgY temperature increases by T. The heat required
(3) (4)
2 YL 2 AL to produce the same change in temperature, at a
Q.85 A body of mass m falls from a height R above constant pressure is :
the surface of the earth, where R is the radius of (1) (7/5) Q
the earth. What is the velocity attained by the (2) (3/2) Q
body on reaching the ground? (Acceleration due (3) (5/3) Q
to gravity on the surface of the earth is g) :- (4) (2/3) Q
(1) Gr Q.57 2 mole of N2 gas at 27°C is mixed with 1 mole
(2) gR He gas at –73°C. Find Tmix of the mixture :-
(3) g/R (1) 277°C
(2) 277K
(4) g/R
(3) 5°K
(4) 50°C

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.61 Open container contains x mole of gas at T Q.75 When 100 g of a liquid A at 100°C is added to
kelvin If temperature is tripled, then the amount 50g of a liquid B at temperature 75°C, the
of gas exit the container is :- temperature of the mixture becomes 90°C. The
(1) x/3 (2) 3x temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A
(3) 2x/3 (4) 3x/2 at 100°C is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50°C,
will be
Q.62 A body cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes (1) 80°C
and to 42°C is next 10 minutes. The temp. of (2) 60°C
surrounding is :- (3) 70°C
(1) 16°C (4) 85°C
(2) 26°C Q.79 The gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen
(3) 36°C and 5 moles of argon at temperature T.
(4) 21°C Considering only translational and rotational
Q.68 A tap supplies water at 10°C and another tap at modes, the total internal energy of the system
100°C. How much hot water must be taken so is:
that we get 20 kg water at 35°C ? (1) 12 RT
(1) 7.2 kg (2) 20 RT
(2) 10 kg (3) 15 RT
(3) 5.6 kg (4) 4 RT
(4) 14.4 kg Q.80 A pendulum clock (fitted with a small heavy
Q.69 The given diagram shows four processes i.e., bob that is connected with a metal rod) is 5
isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic. seconds fast each day at a temperature of 15°C
The correct assignment of the processes, in the and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30°C.
same order is given by : The temperature at which it is designed to give
correct time, is :
a
P (1) 18°C
(2) 20°
b (3) 24°C
c (4) 25°C
d Q.81 An ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder at pressure
of 2 atm and temperature, 300 K. The mean time
V between two successive collisions is 6 × 10–8 s.
(1) d a c b If the pressure is doubled and temperature is
(2) a d c b increased to 500 K, the mean time between two
(3) a d b c successive collisions will be close to:
(4) d a b c
(1) 4 × 10–8 s
Q.70 A motor-car tyre has a pressure of 2atm at 27°C.
(2) 3 × 10–6 s
It suddenly bursts. If (Cp / Cv = 1.4) for air, find
(3) 2 × 10–7 s
resulting temp :-
(4) 0.5 × 10–8 s
(1) 27 K
Q.83 Two ends of roads of length L and radius r of
(2) 27°C
the same material are kept at the same
(3) –27°C
temperature which of the following rod
(4) 246°C
conducts most heat?
Q.73 Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated
(1) L = 50 cm; r = 1 cm
at constant pressure of 1atm from 20 ºC to 90ºC.
(2) L = 100 cm; r = 2 cm
Work done by gas is close to :
(3) L = 25 cm; r = 0.5 cm
(Gas constant R = 8.31 J /mol.K)
(4) L = 75 cm; r = 1.5 cm
(1) 73 J
Q.84 A gas deviates maximum from the ideal gas law
(2) 291 J
at
(3) 581 J
(1) high temperature and high pressure
(4) 146 J
(2) low temperature and low pressure
(3) high temperature and low pressure
(4) low temperature and high pressure
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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
For Q.85-Q.87 Q.51 A particle performs SHM about x = 0 such that
A cylinder containing an ideal gas and (see at t = 0 it is at x = 0 and moving towards
diagram) closed by a movable piston is positive extreme. The time taken by it to go
submerged in an ice-water mixture. The piston from x = 0 to x = A/2 is ..... times the time taken
is quickly pushed down from position (1) to to go from x = A/2 to A. The most suitable
position (2) (process AB). The option for the blank space is :-
piston is held at position (2) until the gas is (1) 2 (2) 1/2
again at 0°C (process BC). Then the piston is (3) 11/12 (4) 12/11
slowly raised back to position (1) (process Q.52 A particle is performing SHM according to the
CA).  2t  
equation x = (3 cm) sin  
 18 6 
where t is
1
in seconds. The distance travelled by the
particle in 36 s is :-
2
(1) 24 cm (2) 1.5 cm
(3) 25.5 cm (4) None of these
Q.53 A simple pendulum of length  and mass m of
the bob is suspended in a car that is travelling
Q.85 Which of the following P-V diagrams will with a constant speed v around a circular path
correctly represent the processes AB, BC and of radius R. If the pendulum undergoes
CA and the cycle ABCA? oscillations with small amplitude about its
P P
A A
equilibrium position, the frequency of its
C oscillations will be :-
B
C B 1 g
(1) (2) 2
V2 V1 V V2 V1 V 2 g
(1) (2) 1/2
P P  2 v4   2 v4 
A B B g  2  g  2 
 R   R 
C (3) 1 (4) 1
C A 2 2
V2 V1 V V2 V1 V Q.58 On the superposition of two harmonic
(3) (4) oscillations represented by x1 = a sin (t + 1)
Q.86 If 100 g of ice are melted during the cycle and x2 = a sin (t + 2) a resulting oscillation
ABCA, how much work is done on the gas? with the same time period and amplitude is
(1) 8 kcal (2) 5 kcal obtained. The value of 1 – 2 is :-
(3) 2.1 kJ (4) 4.2 kJ
(1) 120° (2) 90°
Q.87 If tile change in the volume is (V1 – V2) = V m3,
(3) 60° (4) 15°
the work done during the cycle is, with P being Q.59 A particle is performing simple harmonic
the atmospheric pressure acting on the piston, in motion.
N/m2 (i) its velocity–displacement graph is
PV 2PV parabolic in nature.
(1) J (2) J
2 3 (ii) its velocity–time graph is sinusoidal in
(3) PV J (4) None of these nature.
Q.48 If a simple pendulum is taken to a place where (iii) its velocity–acceleration graph is elliptical
g decreases by 4%, then the time period :- in nature.
(1) Increases by 0.5% (2) Increases by 1% Correct answer is
(3) Increases by 2% (4) Decreases by 0.5% (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q.49 A pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a (2) (ii) and (iii)
train has a period T when the train is at rest. (3) (i) and (ii)
When the train travels same distance per unit (4) (i) and (iii)
time, the period of oscillation is :-
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Become twice (4) Remains unaffected
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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.63 In a Resonance–Column lab experiment to Q.75 A transverse wave is travelling along a
measure the velocity of sound, the first stretched string from right to left. The figure
resonance is obtained at a length 1 and the shown represents the shape of the string at a
given instant. At this instant
second resonance at a length 2. Then–
(1) 2 > 31
(2) 2 = 31
(3) 1 < 31
(4) may be any of the above, depending on the
frequency of the tuning fork used. (1) the particles at A, B and H have downward
Q.64 An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in velocity.
its first overtone. Another pipe P2 open at both (2) the particles at D, E and F have downward
ends is vibrating in its third overtone. They are velocity.
in a resonance with a given tuning fork. The (3) the particles at C, E and G have zero
ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is : velocity
(1) 8/3 (2) 3/8 (4) the particles at A and F have maximum
(3) 1/2 (4) 3/4 velocity
Q.67 Two open organ pipes of fundamental Q.76 Two tuning forks A and B produce 8 beats/s
frequencies n1 and n2 are joined in series. The when sounded together. A gas column 37.5 cm
long in a pipe closed at one end resonate to its
fundamental frequency of the new pipe so fundamental mode with fork A whereas a
obtained will be : column of length 38.5cm of the same gas in a
(1) n1 + n2 (2) n1n2 / (n1 + n2) similar pipe is required for resonance with fork
(3) n1n 2 (4) (n12  n 22 ) B. The frequencies of these two tuning forks,
are :-
Q.73 Two vibrating tuning forks produce (1) 308 Hz, 300 Hz (2) 208 Hz, 200 Hz
progressive waves given by y1= 4 sin (500t) (3) 300 Hz, 400 Hz (4) 350 Hz, 500 Hz
and Q.78 A transverse harmonic wave on a string is
y2 = 2 sin (506t). These tuning forks are held described by y = 3sin (36t + 0.018x + /4)
near the ear of a person. The person will hear where x and y are in cm and t in s. The least
(1) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between distance between two successive crests in the
maxima and minima equal to 4. wave is :-
(2) 3 beats/s with intensity ratio between (1) 2.5 m (2) 3.5 m
maxima and minima equal to 9. (3) 1.5 m (4) 4.5 m
(3) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between Q.79 The transverse displacement in a stretched
maxima and minima equal to 4.  2x 
string is given by y = 0.06sin 
 3 
cos
(4) 6 beats/s with intensity ratio between
maxima and minima equal to 9. (120t), where x and y are in m and t is in s.
Q.74 In a standing wave on a string rigidly fixed at The length of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is
both ends:
3.0 × 10–2 kg, then tension in string is :-
(1) all the particles must be at their positive
(1) 648 N (2) 650 N
extremes simultaneously once in half of the
(3) 649 N (4) 651 N
time period.
Q.81 A spring when connected by mass m gives time
(2) all the particles must be at their positive
period 'T'. If spring is cut in n equal parts and
extremes simultaneously once in a time
each part connected in parallel with same mass.
period.
New time- period will be -
(3) in one time period all the particles are
(1) nT (2) T/n
simultaneously at rest twice.
(4) all the particle are never at rest (3) T / n (4) nT
simultaneously.

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.82 Two particles A and B of equal masses are Q.49 Five point charges (+q each) are placed at the
suspended from two massless springs of spring five vertices of a regular hexagon of side 2a.
constants k1 and k2, respectively. If the What is the magnitude of the net electric field at
maximum velocities, during oscillation, are the centre of the hexagon :
equal, the ratio of amplitudes of A and B is 1 q q
(1) (2)
k k2 40 a 2 160a 2
(1) 2 (2)
k1 k1 2q 5q
(3) (4)
k1 k1 4 0a 2
160a 2
(3) (4)
k2 k2 Q.50 Four electric dipoles each of charges ± e are
Q.87 A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz placed inside a sphere. The total electric flux of
makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating coming out of the sphere is :-
string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases (1) zero (2) 4e / 0
to 2 beats per second when the tension in the (3) 8e / 0 (4) None of these
piano string is slightly increased. The Q.56 In the circuit diagram shown below, the
frequency of the piano string before increasing magnitude and direction of the flow of current
the tension was – respectively would be :
(1) 256 – 2 Hz (2) 256 – 5 Hz a 10V 4V b
(3) 256 + 5 Hz (4) 256 + 2 Hz 1 – + e + – 2
Q.89 The wave described by y = 0.25 sin (10x – 3
c
2t), where x and y are in meters and t in
(1) 7/3 amp from a to b via e
seconds, is a wave travelling along the –
(2) 7/3 amp from b to a via e
(1) Negative x direction with amplitude 0.25 m
(3) 1.0 amp from b to a via e
and wavelength = 0.2 m
(4) 1.0 amp from a to b via e
(2) Negative x direction with frequency 1 Hz
Q.58 Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C
(3) Positive x direction with frequency  Hz but their temperature coefficients of resistance
and wavelength  = 0.2 m are 1 and 2. The respective temperature
(4) Positive x direction with frequency 1 Hz
and wavelength  = 0.2 m. coefficient of their series combination is :
Q.46 Four charges +q, –q, +q, –q are placed in order (1) 2 (1 + 1)
on the four consecutive corners of a square of 1 2
(2)
side 'a'. The work done in interchanging the 1   2
positions of any two neighbouring charges of
  2
opposite sign is :- (3) 1
2
q2
(1) (4  2)   2
4 0a (4) 1
2
q2 Q.60 Three electric bulbs of 200 W, 200 W and 400
(2) (4  2 2) W are shown in figure. The resultant power of
4 0a
the combination is :
q2 200W
(3) (4  2 2)
4 0a 400W

q2
(4) (4  2)
4 0a 200W
Q.48 1000 drops of same size are charged to a
potential of 1 V each. If they coalesce to form a (1) 800 W
single drop, its potential would be :- (2) 400 W
(1) V (2) 10 V (3) 200 W
(3) 100 V (4) 1000 V (4) 600 W

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.61 In the circuit shown, the power developed in the Q.69 In the part of a circuit shown in the figure, the
6 resistor is 6 W. The power developed in the potential difference (VG – VH) between points
4 resistor is : G and H will be :-
6
G
2amp 2amp
4 4 5V
2
3V 1 3amp
H

(1) 16 W (1) 6 V (2) 15 V

(2) 9 W (3) 7 V (4) 3 V
(3) 6 W Q.72 Charge Q is given a displacement r  aiˆ  bjˆ in
(4) 4 W
Q.62 Find the equivalent capacitance between A and an electric field E  E ˆi  E ˆj. The work done
1 2
B:- is
1µF (1) Q (E1a + E2b)
A

(2) Q (E1a)2  (E 2b)2

1µF 1µF 2µF

2µF 1µF (3) Q (E1  E 2 ) a 2  b 2

1µF
B (4) Q (E12  E 22 )2 a 2  b2
3 Q.73 A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of
(1) F (2) 1 µF dielectrics as shown in fig. This capacitor is
7
connected across a battery, then the ratio of
4 2
(3) F (4) F potential difference across the dielectric layers
5 5 is-
Q.66 Three point charges q1, q2, q3 are placed at the
vertices of a triangle if force on q1 and q2 are k1=2 k2=6

(2iˆ  ˆj) N and (iˆ  3j)

ˆ N, respectively, then
what will be force on q3 ? d 2d

(1) Zero (1) 4/3 (2) 1/2

(2) (3iˆ  2j)ˆ N (3) 1/3 (4) 3/2
Q.76 Find the charge on the capacitor C in the given
(3) (iˆ  ˆj) N circuit :
(4) Cannot be calculated
Q.68 n identical cells are joined in series with two
cells A and B with reversed polarities. emf of
each cell is E and internal resistance is r.
Potential difference across cell A and B is :
(n > 4) (1) 12µC (2) 14µC
2E (3) 20µC (4) 18µC
(1) Q.78 Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed
n
respectively, at distance, 0, d/2 and d from the
 1
(2) 2E 1   origin, on the x-axis. If the net force
 n experienced by + Q, placed at x=0, is zero, then
4E value of q is
(3)
n (1) +Q/2
 2 (2) –Q/2
(4) 2E 1   (3) –Q/4
 n
(4) +Q/4

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.80 When the switch S, in the circuit shown, is Q.51 A and B are two conductors carrying a current i
closed, then the value of current i will be : in the same direction. x and y are two electron
20V i1 C i 2 10V
beams moving in the same direction :-
A 2 i 4 B A
2
B
S
x
V=0
y
(1) 3 A (2) 5 A
(3) 4 A (4) 2 A (1) There will be repulsion between A and B
Q.82 A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% attraction between x and y.
longer. The percentage change in its electrical (2) There will be attraction between A and B,
resistance if its volume remains unchanged is repulsion between x and y .
(1) 2.5% (2) 0.5% (3) There will be repulsion between A and B
(3) 1.0% (4) 2.0% and also x and y.
Q.85 A conductor has a non-uniform section as (4) There will be attraction between A and B
shown in the figure. A steady current is flowing and also x and y.
through it. Then the drift speed of the electrons Q.52 What is the net force on the rectangular coil :-
10cm
Q P
2A 1A 15cm
(1) varies unpredictably
(2) increases from P to Q 2cm
(3) decreases from P to Q (1) 25 × 10–7 N towards
wire
(4) is constant throughout the wire (2) 25 × 10–7 N away from wire
Q.90 The line AA' is on a charged infinite conducting
(3) 35 × 10–7 N towards wire
plane which is perpendicular to the plane of the
(4) 35 × 10–7 N away from wire
paper. The plane has a surface density of charge
and B is a ball of mass m with a like charge Q.56 A conducting rod of length 2 is rotating with
of magnitude q. B is connected by a string from constant angular speed  about its
a point on the line AA'. The tangent of the angle perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic
() formed between the line AA' and the string field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation.
is The e.m.f. induced between two ends of the rod
q q A is :-
(1) (2)
2 0 mg 4 0 mg 
q q  B
(3) (4)
2 0 mg  0 mg A'
Q.48 A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an
1
arc of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at the (1) B 2 (2) B 2
centre; then the new magnetic moment is :- 2
1
(3) B 2 (4) Zero
60°
8
Q.58 A vertical rod of length  is moved with
2M constant velocity v towards east if vertical
(1) component of earth's magnetic field is B and

angle of dip is  then induced emf in rod
M
(2) (1) Bv cot 

3 3M (2) Bv sin 
(3)
 (3) Bv tan 
3M (4) Bv cos 
(4)


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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.60 Self inductance of solenoid is 'L' which is made Q.49 A curve between magnetic moment and
by a wire of length 'w' then length of solenoid temperature of magnet is :-
M M
is:-
 0 2w 4L w
(1) (2)
4 2 L 0
O T O T

4L w  0 2w (1) (2)
(3)  (4) M M
0 4L
Q.64 A conducting rod AB of length  = 1M is
moving at a velocity v = 4 m/sec. Making an O T O T
angle 30º with it's length A uniform magnetic (3) (4)
field B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular Q.61 Current in 2 resistance shown in figure is :-
to plane of motion then:- 2

10V
v 5H 4

A 30º B
(a) Just after the closing of the key
(b) Some time after the closing of the key
(1) 5A, (5/3) A (2) (10/6) A, Zero
(1) VA – VB = 8V (2) VA – VB = 4V (3) (5/3) A, 5A (4) Zero, 5A
(3) VB – VA = 8V (4) VB – VA = 4V Q.65 A bar magnet of length 3 cm has points A and
Q.67 An inductance coil have the time constant 4 sec, B along its axis at distances of 24 cm and 48 cm
if it is cut into two equal parts and connected on the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields
parallel then new time constant of the circuit : at these points will be :-
(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec A B
(3) 1 sec (4) 0.5 sec
Q.68 For a solenoid keeping the turn density constant 24cm 48cm
its length is halved and its cross section radius 1
is doubled then the inductance of the solenoid (1) 8 (2)
increased by :– 2 2
(1) 200% (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) 100% Q.72 In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1
(3) 800% and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the
(4) 700% voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively :-
Q.74 In an ac circuit, V and I are given by L C R=100
V = 150sin (150t) V & I = 150sin 150t + /3)
A. The power dissipated in the circuit is V V V
(1) 106 W A
(2) 150 W
(3) 5625 W
~
220V,50Hz
(4) zero (1) 100 V, 2.0 A (2) 220 V, 2.2 A
Q.76 The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A. If the (3) 150 V, 2.2 A (4) 220 V, 2.0 A
wattless current be 3A. The power factor is :- Q.80 The current in a circuit varies with time as
(1) 1/ 3 I  2 t. The rms value of the current for the
(2) 1/ 2 interval t = 2 to t = 4 sec is
(3) ½ (1) 3A (2) 2 3A
(4) 1/3 (3) 3 / 2A (4) (4  2 2) A

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.81 A current loop, having two circular arcs joined Q.48 Locate the image formed by refraction in the
by two radial lines is shown in the figure. It situation shown in figure :-
carries a current of 10 A. The magnetic field at µ =1.0 µ =1.5
point O will be close to :
S
O C

3cm 3cm 25cm 20cm

 = 45°
Q R (1) 100 cm left (2) infinity
2cm 2cm
(3) 1 cm to the right (4) 18 cm to the left
P S Q.49 A ray of light is incident at the glass-water
interface at an angle i, it emerges finally
i=10 A parallel to the surface of water, then the value
(1) 1.0 × 10–5 T of µg would be:-
(2) 1.5 × 10–5 T
(3) 1.0 × 10–7 T
(4) 1.0 × 10–7 T water µW 4
3
Q.87 A long straight wire along the Z-axis carries I in
r
the negative Z-direction. The induced magnetic
field B at a point having coordinate (x, y) is –
i
 0 I (xiˆ  yj)
ˆ  0 I (xjˆ  yi)
ˆ Glass
(1) (2) (1) (4/3) sin i (2) 1 / sin i
2 (x 2  y 2 ) 2 (x 2  y 2 )
(3) 4/3 (4) 1
 0 I (xiˆ  yj)
ˆ  0 I (yiˆ  xj)
ˆ Q.53 A convex lens is in contact with concave lens.
(3) (4)
2 (x 2  y 2 ) 2 (x 2  y 2 ) The magnitude of the ratio of their focal length
Q.88 An electromagnetic wave propagating along is 2/3. Their equivalent focal length is 30cm.
north lies its electric field vertically upward. Their individual focal lengths in cm will be:-
The magnetic field vector points towards – (1) –75, 50 (2) –10, 15
(1) downward (2) east (3) 75, 50 (4) 10, –15
(3) north (4) south Q.56 When a plane mirror is rotated through an angle
Q.90 For a LCR series circuit with an A.C. source of  then the reflected ray turns through the angle
angular frequency . 2 then the size of the image :-
1 (1) Is doubled (2) In halved
(1) circuit will be capacitive if   (3) Remains the same (4) Becomes infinite
LC Q.58 The ratio of angle of minimum deviation
1
(2) circuit will be inductive if   produced by a thin prism (µ = 3/2) in air to that
LC in liquid of refractive index 9/7 is :
(3) power factor of circuit will by unity if (1) 1/3 (2) 3
capacitive reactance equals inductive (3) 1/4 (4) 4
reactance Q.62 An object and a screen are fixed on the uprights
1 of an optical bench. The distance between them
(4) current will be leading voltage if   is 100 cm. A convex lens is placed in between
LC
the object and the screen and the position of the
Q.47 A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm
lens is so adjusted that the image of the object
from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm.
is formed on the screen at two conjugate
The image will form at :-
positions of the lens. The distance between
(1) infinity
these conjugate positions of the lens is 40 cm.
(2) pole
What is the focal length of the lens :-
(3) focus
(1) 15 cm (2) 18 cm
(4) 15 cm behind the mirror
(3) 21 cm (4) 24 cm

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.63 A fish and a bird are moving as shown in figure. Q.76 Two light waves of intensity I & 4I superpose
Find the velocity of bird as observed by fish. at Point A with zero phase difference & at point
12 m/s
B with phase difference of /2. Calculate
difference of resultant intensities of point A &
B :-
µ = 4/3 24 m/s (1) 2I1 (2) 5I
(3) 4I (4) 9I
Q.78 Diffraction of sound waves is more evident
(1) 8 m/s upwards (2) 9 m/s downwards than light waves in daily life as :-
(3) 9 m/s upwards (4) 9 m/s downwards (1)  sound >  light
Q.64 A diverging lens with magnitude of focal (2)  sound <  light
length 25cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm (3)  sound = light
from a converging lens of magnitude of focal (4) Sound waves are longitudinal but light
length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on waves are transverse
the diverging lens. The final image formed is : Q.82 Which of the following waves can not be
(1) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the polarised?
divergent lens. (1) Radio waves (2) Ultraviolet waves
(2) real and at a distance of 6 cm from the (3) Infrared waves (4) Ultrasonic waves
convergent lens.
Q.83 The refractive index of a medium is 3. If the
(3) real and at a distance of 40 cm from
convergent lens. unpolarised light is incident on it at the
(4) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from polarizing angle of the medium, then angle of
convergent lens. refraction is :-
Q.67 A parallel beam of light travelling in water (1) 60º (2) 45º
(refractive index = 4/3) is refracted by a (3) 30º (4) 0º
spherical air bubble of radius 2cm situated in Q.85 The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60º
water. Assuming the light rays to be paraxial, what will be critical angle for this ?
the position of the image due to refraction at the (1) sin 1 3
first surface is - (2) tan 1 3
(1) 6 cm from the first surface
(2) 12 cm from the first surface (3) cos1 3
(3) 3 cm from the first surface (4) sin 1 1/ 3
(4) 10 cm from the first surface Q.87 In the diagram, a prism of angle 30° is used. A
Q.69 Resultant intensity at centre of screen due to ray PQ is incident as shown. An emergent ray
two coherent sources is I0. If sources are RS emerges perpendicular to the second face.
incoherent, then intensity at the same point will The angle of deviation is :-
be : A
(1) 4I0 (2) 2I0
30°
(3) I0 (4) I0 / 2
Q.72 Two light waves of same intensity superpose at
Q
point P with phase difference of /3. The R
S
resultant intensity at point P will be ? 30°
(1) I0 (2) 2I0
P B C
(3) 3I0 (4) 4I0 (1) 0° (2) 60°
Q.74 In Y.D.S.E. using light of wavelength , (3) 30° (4) 45°
intensity of light at a point on the screen with Q.90 In Y.D.S.E. using red & blue lights of
path difference  is M unit. Calculate intensity wavelengths 7800 Å and 5200 Å nth red fringe
of light at a point where path difference is  / 3 coincides with (n + 1)th blue fringe value of n
is :- is
(1) M/2 (2) M/4 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) M/8 (4) M/16 (3) 4 (4) 5

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.46 The work function of metal is 1eV. Light of Q.64 Fission of nuclei is possible because the
wavelength 3000 Å is incident on this metal binding energy per nucleon in them :-
surface. The velocity of emitted photo- (1) Increases with mass number at high mass
electrons will be :- numbers.
(1) 10 m/s (2) Decreases with mass number at high mass
(2) 1 × 103 m/s numbers.
(3) 1 × 104 m/s (3) Increases with mass number at low mass
(4) 1 × 106 m/s numbers.
Q.47 The number of photo-electrons emitted per (4) Decreases with mass number at low mass
second from a metal surface increases when :- numbers.
(1) The energy of incident photons increases Q.65 Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of
(2) The frequency of incident light increases a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy
(3) The wavelength of the incident light B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass
increases. M(N,Z) of the nucleus is given by (c is the
(4) The intensity of the incident light velocity of light) :-
increases. (1) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
Q.52 When the momentum of a proton is changed by (2) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
an amount p0, the corresponding change in the
(3) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
de-Broglie wavelength is found to be 0.25%.
Then, the original momentum of the proton (4) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
was- Q.67 Radiation coming from transitions n = 2 to n=
(1) p0 1 of hydrogen atoms fall on He+ ions in n = 1
(2) 100 p0 and n = 2 states. The possible transition of
(3) 400 p0 helium ions as they absorb energy from the
radiation is
(4) 4 p0
(1) n = 1  n = 4
Q.54 The kinetic energy of electron and proton is (2) n = 2  n = 4
10–32 J. Then the relation between their de- (3) n = 2  n = 5
Broglie wavelengths is :- (4) n = 2  n = 3
(1) p < e Q.73 The series corresponding to minimum
(2) p > e wavelength transition in H-atom –
(3) p = e (1) Balmer series
(2) Lyman series
(4) p = 2e
(3) Paschen series
Q.57 The curves (1), (2) (3) and (4) show the (4) Brackett series
variation between the applied potential Q.75 Two photons of energy 2.5 eV and 3.5 eV fall
difference (V) and the photoelectric current (i) on a metal surface of work function 1.5 eV. The
,at two different intensities of light (I 1 > I2). In ratio of the maximum velocities of the
which figure is the correct variation shown :- photoelectrons emitted from the metal surface
i Intensity I i is
1 Intensity I1
Intensity I2 (1) 1 : 4
Intensity I2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
–V0 V –V0 V
(4) 1 : 2
(1) (2) Q.76 According to Bohr's model of hydrogen atom,
i relation between principal quantum number n
Intensity I1
i
Intensity I1
and radius of stable orbit is –
(1) r 1/n
Intensity I2
Intensity I2 (2) r  n
(3) r  1/n2
–V0 V –V0 V
(4) r  n2
(3) (4)
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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.78 Consider two particles of different masses. In Q.88 If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is
which of the following situations the heavier of 0.3%, then energy released in fusion of 1 kg mass
the two particles will have smaller de Broglie (1) 27 × 1010 J
wavelength? (2) 27 × 1011 J
(i) Both have a free fall through the same (3) 27 × 1012 J
height. (4) 27 × 1013 J
(ii) Both move with the same kinetic energy. Q.81 The photoelectric threshold frequency of a
(iii) Both move with the same linear metal is . When light of frequency 4 is
momentum. incident on the metal, the maximum kinetic
(iv) Both move with the same speed. energy of the emitted photoelectron is
Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(1) 4 h
correct?
(2) 3 h
(1) ii, iii, iv (2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iv (4) i, ii, iv (3) 5 h
Q.79 What is the shortest wavelength present in the  (4) (5/2) h
Paschen series of spectral lines of hydrogen Q.80 The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28eV,
atom? 2.30eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their
(1) 6199 Å (2) 5199 Å respective threshold frequencies would be
(3) 8199 Å (4) 7199 Å (1) Pt > Al > K
Q.82 The graph between the stopping potential (V0) (2) Al > Pt > K
(3) K > Al > Pt
and wave number (1/) is as shown in the (4) Al > K > Pt
figure.  is the work function, then Q.46 Which of the following statements is true for an
V0

Metal 1 Metal 2 Metal 3 N-type semiconductor :-

1 2 3 (1) The donor level lies closely below the
  
bottom of the conduction band.
0.001 0.002 0.004 1/ (2) The donor level lies closely above the top
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 4 of the valence band.
(2) 1 : 2 : 3 = 4 : 2 : 1 (3) The donor level lies at the halfway mark of
(3) Violet light (= 400nm) can be used to the forbidden energy gap.
light photoelectrons from metal 2 (4) None of above
(4) Both (1) and (3) Q.47 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron
Q.83 The radius of the shortest orbit of a single (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of
electron system is 18 pm. This system may be 1.5×1016m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to
(1) H (2) D 4.5 × 1022m–3. The doped semiconductor is of:
(3) He+ (4) Li++ (1) n-type with electron concentration
Q.85 A hydrogen atom rises from its n = 1 state to ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
the n = 4 state by absorbing energy. If the
(2) p-type having electron concentration
potential energy of the atom in the n = 1 state
ne = 5 × 109 m–3
be –13.6eV, then potential energy in the n = 4
state will be - (3) n-type with electron concentration
(1) 3.4 eV (2) –1.54 eV ne = 5 × 1022 m–3
(3) 0.85 eV (4) – 0.85 eV (4) p-type with electron concentration
Q.86 The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a ne = 2.5 × 1010 m–3
hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet Q.49 A P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels
radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in 57meV above the valence band. The maximum
the transition from - wavelength of light required to create a hole is
(1) 2  1 (Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s):-
(2) 3  2 (1) 57 Å
(3) 4  2 (2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(4) 5  4 (3) 217100 Å
(4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å

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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.50 The dominant mechanism for motion of charge Q.57 The truth table for the following logic circuit
carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon is:-
P-N junction are :- A
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse B
bias B
Y
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse A
bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias A B Y A B Y
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
0 0 0 0 0 0
Q.52 In the given figure, which of the diodes are
forward biased :- (1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
+10V 1 0 1 1 0 1
+5V
1 1 0 1 1 1
R
(a) (b)
+5V A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
–12V (3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
(c) –10V (d) R
1 0 1 1 0 0
–5V 1 1 0 1 1 1
Q.58 The circuit diagram shows a logic combination
with the states of outputs X, Y and Z given for
(e) R inputs P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When input P
–10V and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S still
(1) a, b, c at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z change to-
(2) b, d, e P(1) X(1)
(3) a, c, d Q(1)
(4) b, c, d
Y
Q.54 Assuming the diodes to be of silicon with
forward resistance zero, the current I in the R(1)
Y(1)
following circuit is :- S(1)
I 2 k
(1) 1, 0, 0
(2) 1, 1, 1
E = 20V (3) 0, 1, 0
(4) 0, 0, 1
Q.59 In the diagram, the input is across the terminals
(1) 0 A and C and the output is across the terminals
(2) 9.65 mA B and D, then the output is :
(3) 10 mA B
(4) 10.36 mA
Q.55 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal
to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit
shown in figure. The current through the diode A C
is :-
+ +
250 
20V 15V 1k D
(1) zero
– – (2) Same as input
(1) 20 mA (3) Full wave rectifier
(2) 5 mA (4) Half wave rectifier
(3) 10 mA
(4) 15 mA
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Most Expected Physics Questions for NEET-2024 Mock Test
Q.61 Truth table for system of four NAND gates as Q.69 In a p-n junction diode, the thickness of
shown in figure is :- depletion layer is 2 × 10–6 m and barrier
A D potential is 0.3 V. The intensity of the electric
field at the junction is
C Y (1) 0.6 × 10–6 Vm–1 from n to p side
B
E (2) 0.6 × 10–6 Vm–1 from p to n side
(3) 1.5 × 105 Vm–1 from n to p side
A B Y A B Y (4) 1.5 × 105 Vm–1 from p to n side
Q.71 An n-type semiconductor is –
0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) neutral
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1 (2) positively charged
1 0 1 1 0 1 (3) negatively charged
(4) negatively or positively charged depending
1 1 0 1 1 1
on the amount of impurity added.
Q.75 The inputs to the digital circuit are shown. The
A B Y A B Y output Y is
A
0 0 1 0 0 1 B
Y
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0 C
1 0 0 1 0 0 (1) A  B  C (2) (A  B) C
1 1 1 1 1 1 (3) A  B  C (4) A  B  C
Q.64 In the following circuit PN-junction diodes D1, Q.79 If an intrinsic semiconductor is heated, the ratio
D2 and D3 are ideal for the following potentials of free electrons to holes is
of A and B. (1) greater than one
(i) –10V, –5V (ii) –5V, –10V (iii) –4V, –12V (2) less than one
D1 (3) equal to one
R
(4) decreases and becomes zero
D2 R Q.81 The breakdown in a reverse biased p–n junction
diode is more likely to occur due to
D3 R I. large velocity of the minority charge carriers
R R if the doping concentration is small.
4 4 II. large velocity of the minority charge carriers
if the doping concentration is large.
A B
III. strong electric field in a depletion region if
The correct increasing order of resistance
the doping concentration is small.
between A and B will be :-
IV. strong electric field in the depletion region
(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
if the doping concentration is large.
(2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(1) I and IV (2) II and III
(3) (ii) = (iii) < (i)
(3) I and III (4) II and IV
(4) (i) = (iii) < (ii)
Q.85 The given truth table is of
Q.68 In the given circuit, the potential difference
A 0 1
between A and B is –
10k A X 1 0
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate
10k
(3) NOT gate (4) None of above
30V 10k
Q.88 A gate has the following truth table
P 1 1 0 0
B
Q 1 0 1 0
(1) 0
(2) 5 volt R 1 0 0 0
(3) 10 volt The gate is
(4) 15 volt (1) NOR (2) OR
(3) NAND (4) AND

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 ANSWERS

Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 3 41 3 81 3 121 4 161 4
2 1 42 2 82 4 122 2 162 4
3 3 43 1 83 2 123 1 163 3
4 4 44 2 84 1 124 4 164 1
5 2 45 4 85 4 125 1 165 2
6 2 46 1 86 1 126 4 166 2
7 2 47 4 87 2 127 2 167 3
8 1 48 3 88 3 128 1 168 2
9 3 49 1 89 2 129 2 169 2
10 4 50 4 90 2 130 3 170 4
11 2 51 2 91 2 131 3 171 4
12 3 52 2 92 3 132 3 172 4
13 3 53 3 93 2 133 3 173 3
14 4 54 4 94 1 134 1 174 4
15 4 55 2 95 2 135 2 175 4
16 2 56 4 96 1 136 2 176 4
17 1 57 1 97 2 137 1 177 4
18 3 58 2 98 2 138 4 178 4
19 2 59 1 99 2 139 2 179 2
20 1 60 1 100 4 140 3 180 1
21 3 61 2 101 3 141 4 181 1
22 2 62 3 102 3 142 1 182 2
23 3 63 1 103 2 143 2 183 3
24 2 64 1 104 1 144 4 184 2
25 2 65 2 105 4 145 3 185 2
26 2 66 3 106 4 146 2 186 3
27 3 67 2 107 3 147 3 187 2
28 4 68 3 108 2 148 1 188 1
29 2 69 4 109 4 149 3 189 3
30 1 70 3 110 2 150 1 190 3
31 2 71 2 111 4 151 4 191 1
32 1 72 1 112 1 152 3 192 3
33 4 73 3 113 1 153 2 193 3
34 3 74 2 114 4 154 3 194 3
35 2 75 1 115 4 155 1 195 1
36 1 76 2 116 3 156 4 196 3
37 4 77 4 117 2 157 3 197 3
38 3 78 4 118 3 158 4 198 1
39 1 79 1 119 3 159 3 199 3
40 3 80 4 120 4 160 1 200 4

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 Rough Work

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