(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-12

WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination
Offline Mock Test-12
: English Grammar:
Q.1) Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

A. Unpretensious
B. Incriminating
C. Cancellation
D. Embodiment
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Unpretensious'.
 Among the given options, 'Unpretensious' is incorrectly spelt.
 Its correct spelling is 'Unpretentious'.
o It means 'not trying to appear more special or important than you really are'.
o Example: Although she was wealthy, she lived in an unpretentious house.
 Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option A.
Correct Answer: Unpretensious.
Q.2) Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
―How beautiful she is!‖ said Betty.
A. Betty exclaimed with joy she is very beautiful.
B. Betty exclaimed with joy that she was very beautiful.
C. Betty exclaimed with joy how beautiful she was.
D. Betty exclaimed with joy how beautiful she is.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Betty exclaimed with joy that she was very beautiful'.
 The given sentence is in direct Speech. As per the question, we have to change it
into indirect Speech.
 The process of transformation is as follows:
o The transformation of Exclamatory Sentence:
o The notion of these kinds of sentences is 'joy, sorrow, surprise, applause, detest,
hate, etc.'
o Reporting Verbs are changed according to the notion of Reported
Speech. These verbs are: 'exclaimed with surprise, exclaimed with sorrow,
exclaimed with joy, exclaimed with contempt, etc.'
o 'That' is used in place of 'Inverted commas'.
o 'Tense, Pronoun, and Adverbials' are changed according to assertive sentences.
o Example:
 Nitin said, "What a match it was!". (Direct Speech)
 Nitin exclaimed that it was a good match. (Indirect Speech)
o 'said' will be changed into 'exclaimed with joy' because the notion of the given
sentence is joy.
o 'is' will be changed into 'was'.
 Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option B.
Correct Sentence: Betty exclaimed with joy that she was very beautiful.
Q.3) Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Munch
A. Chew
B. Flew
C. Burp
D. Drew
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Chew'.
 The word 'Munch' means 'to bite and eat something noisily.' The synonyms of the
word 'munch' are "chew, champ, chomp, masticate, crunch, scrunch, eat, chumble,
manducate, triturate".
 From the synonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'Chew' is the most
similar in meaning.
 The word 'Chew' means 'to bite something continuously with the back teeth.'
 Hence, the correct answer is Option A. Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
Words Meaning
Flew (used about a bird, insect, aircraft, etc.) to move through the air.
Burp to make a noise with the mouth when air rises from the stomach and is forced out.
to do a picture or diagram of something with a pencil, pen, etc. but not paint.
Drew
Q.4) Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Termination
A. Conduction
B. Conviction
C. Conclusion
D. Consolation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Conclusion'.
 The word 'Termination' means 'the action of terminating something or the fact of being
terminated.'
 The synonyms of the word 'Termination' are "bound, boundary, cap, ceiling, confines, end,
extent, limit, limitation, line, conclusion, etc.".
 From the synonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'Conclusion' is the most
similar in meaning.
 The word 'Conclusion' means 'an end to something.'
Hence, the correct answer is Option C. Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
Words Meaning
Conduction the process by which heat or electricity passes through a material.
Conviction the action of finding somebody guilty of a crime in a court of law.
Consolation a thing or person that makes you feel better when you are sad
Q.5) Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Stalwart
A. Firm
B. Cowardly
C. Stout
D. Robust
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Cowardly'.
 The word 'Stalwart' means 'loyal, reliable, and hard-working; a loyal, reliable, and hard-
working supporter of or participant in an organization or team.'
 The antonyms of the word 'stalwart' are 'chicken, chickenhearted, chicken-livered,

coward, cowardly, craven, dastardly, fainthearted, fearful, gutless, lily-livered, milk-
livered [archaic], nerveless, poltroon, poor-spirited, pusillanimous, spineless, spiritless,
timorous, cowardly, uncourageous, ungallant, unheroic, weakhearted, yellow'.
 From the antonyms of the given word, we can say that the word 'Cowardly' is
the opposite in meaning.
 The word 'Cowardly' means 'lacking courage.'
 Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
 Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
Words Meaning
Firm able to stay the same shape when pressed; quite hard.
Stout strong and thick.
Robust strong and healthy.
Q.6) Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Slur
A. Insult
B. Mixture
C. Compliment
D. Assortment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Compliment'
 The word 'Slur' means 'an unfair comment or an insult that could damage people‘s
opinion of somebody/something.'
 The antonyms of the word 'Slur' are 'accolade, commendation, compliment, acclaim,
applause, praise, adulation, flattery'.
 From the antonyms of the given word, we can say that the word 'Compliment' is
the opposite in meaning.
 The word 'Compliment' means 'a statement or action that shows admiration for
somebody.'
Hence, the correct answer is option C. Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
Words Meaning
Insult to speak or act rudely to somebody.
Mixture a combination of different things.
Assortment a group of different things or of different types of the same thing; a mixture.
Q.7) Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Social isolation, overcrowding, the ______ of our society, and several other factors are
responsible for stress.
A. cheapness
B. attractiveness
C. competitiveness
D. affordability
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'competitiveness'.
 The most appropriate word to fill in the given blank is 'competitiveness'.

 The word 'competitiveness' means 'possession of a strong desire to be more successful
than others.'
o Example: A lot of people get wrapped up in competitiveness and jealousy.
 Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option C.
Correct Answer: Social isolation, overcrowding, the competitiveness of our society, and several
other factors are responsible for stress.
Q.8) Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
right order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. But in snapping at the supposed treasure, he dropped the bit he was carrying, and so lost all.
B. When he was crossing a river on his way home, he saw his own shadow reflected in the stream
below.
C. Thinking that it was another dog with another piece of meat, he resolved to make himself master of
that also.
D. A dog had stolen a piece of meat out of a butcher's shop
A. BDCA
B. DACB
C. DBCA
D. ACDB
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'DBCA'.
 The given question is an example of a Para Jumble.
 We know that the first statement of a sentence jumbled question is usually an
independent general statement, a noun, a universal fact, starting off a story, starting of
an incident or an event, or it starts with 'most' or 'once'.
 Sentence D in the given question is the starting of a story. The author is talking about a dog
who had stolen a piece of meat from a butcher's shop.
 Sentence B will be the next sentence because it is connected with Sentence D as it tells what
the dog did after stealing the piece of meat.
 Sentence C will be the next sentence because it further explains the dog's activity on his
way home.
 Lastly, Sentence A will be used as it tells about the consequences of the dog's actions.
 Thus, the sequence becomes:
o D: A dog had stolen a piece of meat out of a butcher's shop.
o B: When he was crossing a river on his way home, he saw his own shadow reflected
in the stream below.
o C: Thinking that it was another dog with another piece of meat, he resolved to make
himself master of that also.
o A: But in snapping at the supposed treasure, he dropped the bit he was carrying, and
so lost all.
Correct Sequence: A dog had stolen a piece of meat out of a butcher's shop. When he was crossing a
river on his way home, he saw his own shadow reflected in the stream below. Thinking that it was
another dog with another piece of meat, he resolved to make himself master of that also. But in
snapping at the supposed treasure, he dropped the bit he was carrying, and so lost all.
Q.9) Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The man bought a parrot that could speak five languages.
A. A parrot that could spoke five languages bought the man.
B. A parrot that spoke five languages was bought by the man.
C. A parrot that spoke five languages had been bought by the man.
D. A parrot that spoken five languages was bought by the man.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 'A parrot that spoke five languages was bought by the man'.
 The given sentence is in the passive voice.
 The sentence is very tricky we need to understand this from the basics. Here, in the sentence,
"A parrot that could speak" is an ability of a parrot which was in the past tense. These are
skills or talents a person once had. In the past tense, English speakers almost always use
―could.‖
o Example: In high school, she could beat anyone in a running race.
 Again, we are talking about general skills or talents – not about a specific occasion. In this
case, we don't have to use could instead we can use was/were/ or the past tense.
o Example:- We were able to get a really good price on the car.
 Now, coming back to the question the parrot had the ability in the past hence, we can
represent it with the past tense as well.
 In the given sentence, the main clause 'bought' will change into 'was bought'. The rest of the
rules will remain the same in the question.
Correct Sentence: A parrot that spoke five languages was bought by the man
Q.10) Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
One who studies the occult meanings of numbers and their supposed influence on human life
A. Astronomer
B. Prophet
C. Astrologer
D. Numerologist
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Numerologist'.
 The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Numerologist'.
 It means 'an expert in numerology (= the study of numbers in the belief that they have a
special importance in people's lives)'.
o Example: Throughout history, there have been patterns to thrill the numerologist.
 Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option D.
Correct Answer: Numerologist.
Q.11) Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Having no boundaries or limits
A. Colossal
B. Enormous
C. Infinite
D. Tremendous
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Infinite'.
 The most appropriate word for the given group of words is 'Infinite'.
o It means 'without limits; that never ends.'
o Example: Supplies of oil are not infinite.
Correct Answer: Infinite.
Q.12) Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

A. Bouquet
B. Pledge
C. Acquarium
D. Abridge
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'Acquarium'.
 Among the given options, the incorrectly spelled word is 'Acquarium'.
 Its correct spelling is 'Aquarium'.
o It means 'a glass container filled with water, in which fish and water animals are
kept.'
o Example: The aquarium has many tanks of fish.
Correct Answer: Aquarium
Q.13) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Twiddling one‘s thumbs
A. Feeling angry
B. Feeling sad
C. Feeling bored
D. Feeling hungry
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Feeling bored.
 Let‘s look at the meaning and example of the given idiom:
o Twiddling one‘s thumbs: be bored or idle because one has nothing to do.
o Example: I have been sitting here for goodness knows how long twiddling my
thumbs
Hence, the correct choice is option C.
Q.14) Direction: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Crowds of tourists ______ across the square all day long.
A. flowed
B. prodded
C. rectified
D. maintained
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'flowed.'
 The meaning of the phrase 'flow across something' is to stream or glide across something.
 Phrase 'flow across something'
 Example: The floodwaters flowed across the fields and ruined the spring
planting.
 Therefore, the correct answer is 'flowed.'
 Correct sentence: Crowds of tourists flowed across the square all day long.
 Let us see the meanings of the given words:
Word Meaning
Prodded to push or press somebody/something with your finger or a pointed object
Rectified to correct something that is wrong
Maintained to make something continue at the same level, standard, etc.
Q.15) Direction: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
He said to me, "It was raining all day."
A. He told me it is raining all day
B. He told me it was raining all day.
C. He told me that it had been raining all day.
D. He told me it has been raining all day.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'He told me that it had been raining all day.'
 The rules for changing Direct Speech to Indirect Speech:
o The given sentence is in Past Continuous Tense.
o Past Continuous Tense changes to Past Perfect Continuous Tense.
o Reporting verb is changed according to the form and sense of the sentence.
o Inverted commas are removed in the indirect speech.
o Connective word is used at the beginning of the reported speech.
o The verb of the reported speech is changed according to the form and sense of the
sentence.
o Persons & Helping Verbs of the reported speech are changed.
 Example: He said, ―I was living in Delhi.‖(Direct speech)
He said that he had been living in Delhi. (Indirect speech)
 Therefore, the correct answer is 'He told me that it had been raining all day.'
Q.16) Direction: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
I was given a robot by him.
A. He gave me a robot
B. A robot by him was given to me
C. A robot was given to me by him
D. A robot by him was given to I
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'He gave me a robot.'
 The given sentence is in Simple Past Tense and Passive Voice.
 The rule for changing a Simple Past Tense from Passive voice to Active voice:
o Interchange the object and subject with each other, i.e. object of the active sentence
become the subject of the passive sentence.
o Structure: Object+ was/were V3 + by + subject (Passive Voice)
Subject + V2 + object (Active Voice)
 Example: The floor was cleaned by Reema. (Passive Voice)
Reema cleaned the floor. (Active Voice)
 Therefore, the correct answer is 'He gave me a robot.'
Q.17) Direction: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
It was ______ to everyone present that the patient would not survive if immediate help was not
received.
A. hidden
B. unseen
C. apparent
D. unnoticed
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'apparent.'
 Let us discuss the meanings of the given options:

o Hidden: not easy to find.
o Unseen: that cannot be seen.
o Apparent: clear; easy to see.
o Unnoticed: not noticed or seen.

o Here, the sentence is talking about clarity.
 Therefore, the correct answer is 'apparent.'
 Correct sentence: It was apparent to everyone present that the patient would not survive if
immediate help was not received.
Let us see the synonyms of the given words:
Word Synonym
Hidden Concealed
Unseen Unnoticed
Q.18) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Out of the blue
A. Completely unexpectedly
B. Beat someone black and blue
C. Loves to wear only blue colour clothes
D. Completely honestly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Completely unexpectedly
 Let‘s look at the meaning and example of the given idiom:
o Out of the blue: suddenly; unexpectedly
o Example: I didn‘t hear from him for years and then this letter came out of the blue.
Hence, the correct choice is option A.
Q.19) Directions: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
My neighbor was admitted to the hospital when he developed an allergic _______ to some
medicine he took.
A. result
B. retort
C. rejoinder
D. reaction
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is 'reaction.'
 The given sentence is talking about an allergy caused by some medicine.
 Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'reaction'.
 The word 'reaction' means a bad effect that your body experiences because of something
that you have eaten, touched, or breathed.
o Example: He had an allergic reaction to something in the food.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Complete Sentence: My neighbor was admitted to the hospital when he developed an
allergic reaction to some medicine he took.
Q.20) Directions: Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
A bad egg
A. Someone who is dishonest and unreliable
B. Someone who regularly makes mistakes
C. Someone who doesn't like eggs
D. Someone who likes to break eggs
Correct Answer: A
The correct answer is 'Someone who is dishonest and unreliable.'
o Given Idiom: A bad egg means someone who is dishonest and unreliable.
o Example: At first I trusted him, but soon I found he's a bad egg.
 From the given options, the first option is the most appropriate meaning of the given
idiom.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Credit card _______ has increased in recent years.
A. fraud
B. flake
C. freed
D. fluke
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'fraud.'
 The given sentence is talking about the increase in the act of credit card cheating.
 Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'fraud'.
 The word 'fraud' means an act of cheating somebody in order to get money, etc. illegally.
o Example: Tax fraud costs the country millions in lost revenue.

Complete Sentence: Credit card fraud has increased in recent years.
It was difficult to _______ Gopal to watch a horror movie.
A. persuade
B. consult
C. dissuade
D. confer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is 'persuade.'
 The given sentence is talking about the difficulty in influencing Gopal to watch a horror
movie.
 Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'persuade'.
 The word 'persuade' means to make somebody do something by giving him or her good
reasons.
o Example: He would not listen to anyone who tried to persuade him to stay at home.

Q.23) Directions: Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
I am paid weekly by my organisation.
A. My organisation will pay me weekly.
B. My organisation pays me weekly.
C. My organisation paid me weekly.
D. My organisation would pay me weekly.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is 'My organisation pays me weekly.'
 In Active Voice, a sentence emphasizes the subject, performing an action.

 In Passive Voice, a sentence emphasizes the action or the object of the sentence.
 The given sentence is in the passive voice and it is in the present simple tense.
 When we convert this sentence into an active voice, the subject 'I' of
the passive voice becomes the object 'me', the object 'my organisation' becomes
the subject.
 The passive format "am + V3 (paid)" should be converted into the active format
"V1 (pays)".
 This is the active and passive voice rule for the present simple tense.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
She knew that to apologize would be ______ to admitting she had failed.
A. tandem
B. tangible
C. tantamount
D. tantalizing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is 'tantamount.'
 The given sentence is talking about the belief that apologizing is equal to failure.
 Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'tantamount'.
 The word 'tantamount' means having the same effect or value as something, especially
something bad.
o Example: The king's request was tantamount to a command.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Q.25) Directions: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence. If no substitution is required, select ‗No substitution‘.
Fifty liters of milk are donated by the committee to the orphanage every week.
A. are donated by a committee
B. No substitution
C. are being donated by the committee
D. is donated by the committee
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is 'is donated by the committee.'
 In the underlined segment, the plural form of the verb 'are' is incorrect.
 In the given sentence, the noun 'milk' is an uncountable (non-countable) noun like water,
snow, and rice.
 With fractions, percentages, and indefinite quantifiers, the verb agrees with the
preceding noun or clause:
o With a singular or non-count noun or clause, use a singular verb.
o With a plural noun, use a plural verb.
 Therefore, the singular form of the verb 'is' should be used in place of the plural form 'are'.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Correct sentence: Fifty liters of milk is donated by the committee to the orphanage every week.
: Indian History:
Q.26) Sarnath is in the state of

[A] Kerala
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Gujarat
[D] Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sarnath is located 13 kilometers north-east of Varanasi, in Uttar Pradesh.
Q.27) Which of the following subjects are dealt in by Kalpa Sutras?

[A] Sacrifices
[B] Family ceremonies
[C] Varnas, Ashramas
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Under Kalpa Sutras ,Shravta Sutras deal with the sacrifices,Grihya Sutras deal with the
family ceremonies, Dharma Sutras deal with Varnas, Ashramas.
Q.28) With which among the following Vedas, the Shatapatha Brahmana is related to ?
[A] Rigveda
[B] Yajurveda
[C] Samaveda
[D] Atharvaveda
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Yajurveda is the book of sacrificial prayers.The world‗s oldest prose literature of the
Indo-Europeans is contained in Yajurveda.. There are two primary versions or Samhitas of the
Yajurveda : Shukla(white) and Krishna(black) This implies that the Krishna Yajurveda includes the
Brahmana prose discussions within the Samhita (no Brahman) while the Shukla Yajurveda has
separately a Brahmana text, Shatapatha.
Q.29) The 13th Rock edict of Asoka which is longest among all the rock edicts describes which of the
following?
[A] Policy of Dhamma
[B] Kalinga war
[C] Toleration among sects
[D] Purpose of rock edicts
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: : The 13th rock edict talks about the conquest of Kalinga at the eastern coast of
India by Ashoka (268-233) in the year 261 BC. It was an event of greatest historical importance for
India and world history.
Q.30) The Bijak Inscription is related to which among the following kings?
[A] Samudra Gupta
[B] Ashoka
[C] Pulkesin II
[D] Chandra Gupta
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Bijak Inscription is related to King Ashoka.
Q.31) Which among the following places have given the earliestevidence of agriculture in
Indian subcontinent?
[A] Pratapgarh
[B] Mehrgarh
[C] Quetta
[D] Kalat
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The earliest evidence of Agriculture in Indian subcontinent is found at Mehrgarh, which
is located in Baluchistan state of Pakistan.
Q.32) Which of the following term is used for a ―school‖ of learning and teaching the branches
of Vedas?
[A] Shakha
[B] Charna
[C] Ratha
[D] Yajna
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: Charana refers to the Guru-pupil lineage or school for teaching and learning of Vedas
in ancient India.
Q.33) Which of the following is not a correct feature of Rig-Vedic economy?

[A] Primarily pastoral economy
[B] Cultivation of multiple cereals
[C] Abundance of wage earners
[D] Sedentary agriculture society
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: There are no evidences of wage earners in agriculture in Rig-Vedic Economy.
Q.34) In context with the Mahayana Buddhism faith, the future Buddha is ?
[A] Basistha Muni
[B] Krakuchanda
[C] Maitreya
[D] Kanak Muni
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Maitreya is a future Buddha. . According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor of
the historic Sakyamuni Buddha, who in the Buddhist tradition is to appear on Earth, achieve complete
enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.
Q.35) The Mahasamghika School arose at which among the following places?
[A] Bodha Gaya
[B] Rajagriha
[C] Sravasti
[D] Vaisali
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: Also known as Mahasamghika, Mahasanghika, or Mahasanghika. »Great monastic
community. »One of first schools of Nikaya Buddhism »Result of (the first schism at) the Second
Council at Vaishali where they were outvoted and seceded. »The teachings of this school concerning
the nature of Buddhas and Bodhisattvas.
Q.36) Rulers of which of the following dynasties maintained diplomatic relations with distant
countries such as Syria in the West ?
[A] Maurya
[B] Gupta
[C] Pallava
[D] Chola
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mauryan Emperor Bindusara had friendly relations with the Greek King Antiochos-I of
Syria. Deimachos was a Syrian Ambassador who came in the court of Bindusara. Mauryan Emperor
Ashoka the Great: In his rock edict 13th mentions the names of 5 Hellenic kings– Antiochus II of
Syria, Ptolemy II of Egypt, Antigonus of Messedonia, Magas of Syrina, Alexander of Epirus .He sent
missionaries to all of them. This shows that Mauryan dynasty maintained the diplomatic relations with
distant countries like Syria in the West.
Q.37) Who among the following was the ruler of Kanchi during the time of Samudragupta ?
[A] Hastivarman
[B] Mantaraja
[C] Nilaraja
[D] Vishnugopa
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: King Vishnugopa (Pallava dynasty ) of Kanchi is mentioned in the list of rulers of the
South defeated by Samudra Gupta. It is mentioned in the Allahabad Pillar inscription of Samudra
Gupta.
Q.38) Parnadatta was appointed the Provincial Governor of Saurashtra by______?

[A] Chandragupta Maurya
[B] Rudradaman
[C] Chandragupta II
[D] Skandagupta
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Skandgupta‘s Junagarh Inscription: It states that Skandagupta appointed Parnadatta as
goptri (governor) of Surashtra (Saurashtra).
Q.39) Which of the following Chola kings was the first to capture Maldives?
[A] Rajaraja Chola I
[B] Rajendra I
[C] Harihar
[D] Rajendra II
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Rajaraja Chola I laid the foundation for the growth of the Chola kingdom into an
empire, by conquering the kingdoms of southern India and the Chola Empire expanded as far as Sri
Lanka in the south, and Kalinga (Orissa) in the northeast. He conquered Sri Lanka, the Maldives,
Sumatra and other places in Malay Peninsula. The naval conquest of the ‗old islands of the sea
numbering 12,000‘, the Maldives marked one of the conquests of Rajaraja. Rajaraja I built a strong
navy with the aim of controlling the sea.
Q.40) Which one of the following method of revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara
Empire?
[A] Chauth
[B] Ryotwari
[C] Rae Rekho
[D] Sardeshmukhi
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Sardeshmukhi' is an additional 10% tax levied upon the collected 'Chauth'. The reasons
for the additional tax was due to the King claiming hereditary rights upon the tax collection. This
revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara Empire.
Q.41) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[A] Diwan-i-Bandagan - Firoz Shah Tughlaq
[B] Diwan-i-Mustakharaj - Balban
[C] Diwan-i-Kohi – Alauddin Khalji
[D] Diwan-i-Arz – Muhammad Tughlaq
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Diwan-i-Bandagan or the Department of Slaves was created by Feroz Shah Tughlaq.
Q.42) Diwan-i-Arz department was associated with?

[A] Royal correspondence
[B] Foreign
[C] Defence
[D] Finance
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Diwan-i-arz was the Ministry of Defence headed by Arz-i Mamlik. He was responsible
for organization and maintenance of the royal army. The review of the army and branding of the
horses was done by Arz-i-mamlik.
Q.43) Who among the following defeated Babur in the Battle of Sar-e-Pul?
[A] Abdullah Khan Uzbek
[B] Shaibani Khan
[C] Ubaydullah Khan
[D] Juni Beg
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The battle of Sar-e-Pul (April-May 1501) was an early defeat suffered by Babur after
he captured the city of Samarkand. The city then fell to the Uzbek leader Muhammad Shaibani Khan
in 1500, but later in the same year Babur managed to capture the city after a surprise attack made with
only 200 men.
Q.44) The policy or 'security cell‘ is related with

[A] Warren Hastings
[B] Lord Dalhousie
[C] Lord Caning
[D] Lord Hastings
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The policy of ‗Security Cell‖ is related to Warren Hastings and Wellesley. Warren
Hastings fought with Mysore and Marathas to achieve status equivalent to other Indian states. During
this time the company tried to form buffer state (also known as Ring Fence) with an aim to protect its
state from Afghans and Marathas. Thus, they agreed to protect Awadh on the condition that the
Nawab of Awadh will bear the expenses. The main aim of Wellesley was to enforce Indian states to
rely on his army power.
Q.45) At the time of the establishment of Asiatic Society in Calcutta, who was the Governor-
General of Bengal?
[A] Lord Cornwallis
[B] Lord warren Hastings
[C] Lord Wellesley
[D] Lord Bentinck
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The society was founded shortly after his arrival. The Asiatic Society had the support
and encouragement of Warren Hastings, the governor-general (1772–85) of Bengal, though he
declined its presidency.
Q.46) The roots of the 1857 revolt lay in

[A] Blatantly discriminatory policies
[B] Exploitative land revenue policy
[C] The policy of greased cartridges
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The British ruled over India for about two centuries. They started interference in the
religious matters and other social practices of Hindus and Muslims and it infuriated the Indians and
their anger resulted in the armed revolt of 1857. The roots of the 1857 revolt lay in Blatantly
discriminatory policies, exploitative land revenue policy and the policy of greased cartridges.
Q.47) Whose statement is that - "If any government director ignores the elements, then it will
surely have to be liable to the public for this"?
[A] Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
[D] Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The quote If any government director ignores the elements, then it will surely have
to be liable to the public for this was said by Dr B. R. Ambedkar.
Q.48) Who said "Heavy Industry is a Synonym of development"?

[A] Jawahar lal Nehru
[B] Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
[C] Prof Mahalanobis
[D] Doctor Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru said, "Heavy Industry is a Synonym of development".
Q.49) ―Sanitation is more important than independence‖ — Who said this?

[A] C Rajagopalachari
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Subhash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi said ―Sanitation is more important than political independence,‖
while leading a non-violent movement for India‘s independence in 1947.
Q.50) Census of India was started for the first-time during rule of –
[A] Lord Mayo
[B] Lord Lytton
[C] Lord Ripon
[D] Lord Curzon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: While it has been undertaken every 10 years, beginning in 1872 under British Viceroy
Lord Mayo, the first complete census was taken in 1881.
: Indian National Movement:
Q.51) An important event of Lord Dufferin's tenure as Viceroy was –

[A] establishment of Ramakrishna Mission
[B] establishment of Muslim League in Dhaka
[C] establishment of Indian National Congress
[D] beginning of the first Census
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Establishment of Indian National Congress. Indian National
Congress, a major event of the tenure of Viceroy Lord Dufferin.
Q.52) Who among the following had not participated in the Second Round Table Conference?
[A] Mahadev Desai
[B] Pyarelal Nayyar
[C] Madan Mohan Malaviya
[D] Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian
women. Jawaharlal Nehru did not participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
Q.53) The resolution of total independence of India passed was during the tenure of –
[A] Lord Chelmsford
[B] Lord Wavell
[C] Lord Irwin
[D] Lord Willington
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In the Lahore session of 1929 which was presided by Jawaharlal Nehru, the congress
passed a Poorna Swarajya Resolution for complete independence. During this time the Governor-
general of India was Lord Irwin.
Q.54) Sir Michael O'Dwyer was shot dead on 13th March, 1940 in London by -
[A] Madan Lal Dhingra
[B] M.P.T. Acharya
[C] V. D. Savarkar
[D] Udham Singh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: O'Dwyer, aged 75, was shot dead at a joint meeting of the East India Association and
the Central Asian Society (now Royal Society for Asian Affairs) in Caxton Hall in Westminster,
London, on 13 March 1940, by an Indian revolutionary, Udham Singh, in retaliation for the
massacre in Amritsar.
Q.55) Who was the Prime Minister of England when the Montague-Chelmsford Act was passed
in 1919?
[A] Lloyd George
[B] George Hamilton
[C] Sir Samuel Hoare
[D] Lord Salisbury
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lloyd George was the Prime Minister of England when the Montague-Chelmsford Act
was passed in 1919.
Q.56) First Indian elected to the British House of Commons was Dada-bhai Naoroji who
contested on the ticket of –
[A] Liberal Party
[B] Labour Party
[C] Conservative Party
[D] Communist Party
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In 1892, Naroji was elected to the British Parliament on the leberal ticket from Central
Firsbury. Naoroji moved to Britain once again and continued his political involvement. Elected for the
Liberal Party in Finsbury Central at the 1892 general election, he was the first British Indian MP.
Q.57) Who is known as father of Dyarchy?

[A] Lord Clive
[B] Hector Munaro
[C] Sir Leonil Cartis
[D] Lord Macaulay
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Sir Lionel Curtis.
 Sir Leonil Curtis was a British officer and writer
 Sir Lionel Curtis is known as the father of Dyarchy.
 Dyarchy was an important democratic constitutional reform for British India.
Q.58) 'Hindustan Socialist Republican Army' was founded in the year –

[A] 1919
[B] 1927
[C] 1916
[D] 1928
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ‗Hindustan Socialist Republican Army‘ was founded in 1928. Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association (HSRA) was a revolutionary organisation, also known as the Hindustan
Socialist Republican Army, established at Feroz Shah Kotla in New Delhi by Chandrasekhar Azad,
Ashfaqulla Khan, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee.
Q.59) Who of the following was the President of ‗All Parties‘ Conference held in February
1928?
[A] Motilal Neharu
[B] Dr. M. A. Ansari
[C] Subhaschandra Bose
[D] M.K Gandhi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: M. A. Ansari was the President of 'All Parties' Conference which was held in February
1928. Dr. Mukhtar Ahmed Ansari was an Indian nationalist and political leader, and former president
of the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
Q.60) In which of the following year Chhattisgarh became a division of the central provinces?
[A] 1860
[B] 1862
[C] 1863
[D] 1865
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Chhattisgarh became a division of the central provinces in 1862.
Q.61) Who among the following was the President of the Central legislative Assembly in August
1925?
[A] C. R. Das
[B] Motilal Nehru
[C] M. R. Jayakar
[D] Vitthal Bhai Patel
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Vitthal Bhai Patel was an Indian legislator and political leader, co-founder of the
Swaraj Party and elder brother of Sardar Patel in 1923 he was elected to the Central Legislative
Assembly, a Chamber of elected and appointed Indian and British representatives with limited
legislative powers and in 1925 became the Assembly's president, or speaker.
Q.62) The institution of local self-government got a fillip during the Viceroyalty of
[A] Lord Mayo
[B] Lord Ripon
[C] Lord Dufferin
[D] Lord Dufferin
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The most important work of the period of Lord Ripon was the government at proposal
for local government. He wanted to develop Municipal Boards of the country. According to him the
political education of the country will begin from it. He is also called as the father of local self-
governance.
Q.63) Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
[A] Surendranath Banerjee
[B] C. R. Das
[C] Ashutosh Mukherjee
[D] Rabindra nath Tagore
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Surendranath Banerjee and Krishna Kumar Mitra led the agitation against Bengal
partition in 1905.
Q.64) The National Leader who was elected President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative
Assembly in 1925 was
[A] Motilal Nehru
[B] C.R. Das
[C] Vallabhbhai Patel
[D] M.N Roy
Correct Answer:C
Explanation: Vithalbhai Patel was the political leader and co-founder of Swaraj Party with
Chinaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. He was elected to Central Legislative Assembly in 1925.
Q.65) The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for

[A] Continuity of British rule
[B] Transfer of power
[C] Partition of the country
[D] Solution of communal problems
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for the Partition of the country. Lord
Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India and was assigned the task of a speedy transfer of power by
the then British Prime Minister Clement Atlee.
Q.66) After the formation of ministries in the provinces in 1937, Congress rule lasted for
[A] 28 months
[B] 29 months
[C] 30 months
[D] 31 months
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per Government of India Act 1935, elections were held in provinces and congress
emerged victorious. The party remain in the power for nearly 28 months between 1937 to 1939.
Q.67) When were High Courts established in Bombay, Madras and Calcutta?
[A] 1861
[B] 1851
[C] 1871
[D] 1881
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta High Courts were established in 1861 by the Indian
High Courts Act of 1861.
Q.68) Who of the following had pleaded from the side of Indian National Army officers in their
Red Fort trial?
[A] C. R. Das
[B] Motilal Nehru
[C] M. A. Jinnah
[D] Sir T. B. Sapru
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru led the defense counsel in Red Fort Trail.
Q.69) Who among the following had resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council protesting
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
[A] Rabindranath Tagore
[B] Madan Mohan Malviya
[C] Shankaran Nair
[D] All three an above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Former president of Indian National Congress (Amravati, 1897) and a member of
Viceroy's Executive Council, resigned from the council following Jalianwala Bagh massacre on April
13, 1919.
Q.70) In which of his following books did Mahatma Gandhi call British Parliament as sterile
and prostitute?
[A] Sarvodaya or Universal dawn
[B] An Autobiography or the story of my experiments with truth
[C] Hind Swaraj
[D] The Story of a Satyagrahi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi in his book Hind Swaraj called the British Parliament as sterile and
prostitute. Hind Swaraj was written by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi in 1909.
Q.71) The task of drafting Congress Inquiry Committee report on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
was entrusted to
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Mahatma Gandhi
[C] C. R. Das
[D] Fazlul Haq
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was entrusted the task of drafting Congress Inquiry Committee report
on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre,
took place on 13 April 1919.
Q.72) Along with Mahatma Gandhi who amongst the following Muslims did lift the bier of Bal
Gangadhar Tilak?
[A] Shaukat Ali
[B] Muhammad Ali
[C] Maulana A.K. Azad
[D] M. A. Ansari
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Among others who shouldered the bier by turn were Mahatma Gandhi, Lala Lajpat Rai,
Shaukat Ali.
Q.73) Mahatma Gandhi's remark, 'A post—dated on a crumbling bank' is regarding the
proposals
[A] Simon Commission
[B] Cripps Mission
[C] Cabinet Mission
[D] Wavells Plan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi's remark, 'A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank' is regarding the
proposals of cripps mission .
Q.74) Which one of the following Observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of
1942?
[A] It was a non-violent movement
[B] It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
[C] It was a spontaneous movement
[D] It did not attract the labour class in general
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Quit India Movement or the India August Movement, was a movement launched at
the Bombay session of the All- India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942,
during World War II, demanding an end to British Rule of India. The movement was accompanied by
a mass protest on non-violent lines .
Q.75) The famous INA trails took place in the Red Fort, Delhi in—
[A] 1945
[B] 1946
[C] 1944
[D] 1947
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian National Army trials, which are also called the Red Fort trials, were the
British Indian trial by courts-martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army (INA)
between November 1945 and May 1946, for charges variously for treason, torture, murder and
abetment to murder during World War II .
: Indian & West Bengal Geography:
Q.76) India is situated between which of the following coordinates?

[A] 37° 17'53" North and 8° 6'28" South
[B] 36° 17'53" North and 8° 6'28" West
[C] 37° 18'53" North and 8° 6'28" East
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: India is situated north of the equator between 8° 04' to 37° 06' North latitude and 68°07'
to 97°25' East longitude. None of the option is correct, hence option (D) is correct.
Q.77) The time difference between the western most village of Gujarat and the eastern most
village of Arunachal Pradesh is -
[A] 1 hour
[B] 2 hours
[C] 3 hours
[D] ½ hours
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gujarat extends 68°16' to 74°48' East Longitude and Arunachal Pradesh extends from
91°30' to 97°30' East Longitude. The longitudinal difference is 97°37'-68°4' = 29°26'. The difference
between each longitude is 4 min thus 29°26' x 4 = 118 minutes (approximately 2 hours).
Q.78) Which of the following Longitude is known as Standard Meridian in India?

[A] 87°30‘E
[B] 85°30‘E
[C] 84°30‘E
[D] 82°30‘E
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 82°30' East longitude is defined as the Standard Meridian of India. It passes through
Naini, Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.
Q.79) The Ganga river is an example of -

[A] Antecedent Drainage System
[B] Consequent Drainage
[C] Superimposed Drainage System
[D] Subsequent Drainage System
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Antecedent rivers are those that existed before the upheaval of Himalayas. Antecedent
river is a river which follows their own path, without changing their course and pattern. Example:
Ganga, Satluj, Indus.
Q.80) In Bangladesh, River Ganga is known as -

[A] Meghana
[B] Padma
[C] Bhagirithi
[D] Mahaganga
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After entering Bangladesh, River Ganga is known as Padma which is joined by Jamuna
river, largest distributary of the River Brahmaputra and Meghna proceeding as Padma Meghna river
system in Bangladesh.
Q.81) Along which of the following rivers bank, famous temple of Badrinath is located?
[A] Alaknanda
[B] Bhagirithi
[C] Mandakini
[D] Ganga
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The sacred Badrinath Temple, which is also the part of major Chardham circuit is
situated along the banks of River Alaknanda at an elevation of 3,133 m in the state of Uttarakhand.
Q.82) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the State of

[A] Kerala
[B] Karnataka
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Andhra Paradesh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, now also declared a Tiger
Reserve, lies on the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills (Blue Mountains), in Nilgiri District, about
150 km (93 mi) north-west of Coimbatore in the westernmost part of Tamil Nadu, on the interstate
boundaries with Karnataka and Kerala states in South India. Mudumalai, which means ‗first hills‘, is
one of the first wildlife sanctuaries established in India.
Q.83) First Agriculture University in India was established in the year?

[A] 1955
[B] 1960
[C] 1961
[D] 1970
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The first state agriculture university of India was G.B. Pant University of Agriculture
and Technology, established in Pantnagar (then in Uttar Pradesh, now in Uttarakhand) in the year
1960.
Q.84) As per 2011 census, the State in India with the largest rural population ?
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Punjab
[D] Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh has the largest rural population of 155.11 million (18.62% of the
country's rural population) whereas Maharashtra has the highest urban population of 50.83 million
(13.48% of country's urban population) in the country.
Q.85) Coochbehar was a part of which kingdom of Assam?

[A] Kamarupa
[B] Kamata
[C] Bhuyan
[D] Khen
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: - The name Cooch Behar – derived – name Koch or Rajbanshi tribes
- The word – „Behar‟ – derived from Sanskrit – „vihara‟
- Coochbehar – formed part of – Kamrupa kingdom of Assam
- At that time – Koch tribe – became very powerful – established Koch dynasty
The Koch dynasty ruled parts of eastern Indian subcontinent in present-day Assam and Bengal.
Established by Biswa Singha, the dynasty came to power in the erstwhile Kamata kingdom which
had emerged from the decaying Kamarupa kingdom.
Q.86) Which river flows to the western side of the town Coochbehar?
[A] Teesta
[B] Torsa
[C] Jaldhaka
[D] Kaljani
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Torsa has been the - „sorrow of Coochbehar‟
The river enters Coochbehar from - north between taluks Latabari in Mathabhanga and Bakshibos –
Putimari in Coochbeharsadar
Q.87) Singalila National Park located in which of the districts of West Bengal?
[A] Darjeeling
[B] Alipurduar
[C] Cooch Bihar
[D] Uttar Dinajpur
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Singalila National Park is a national park of India located on the Singalila Ridge at an
altitude of more than 7000 feet above sea level, in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.
Q.88) Name the pass in Uttarakhand which is used by pilgrims to Kailash-Mansarovar Yatra.
[A]Pensi La
[B]Lipu Lekh
[C]Banihal Pass
[D] Khardung La
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:LipuLekh pass, in Uttarakhand, is used by pilgrims to Kailash- MansarovarYatra. Itis
situated at a sub district of Pithoragarh, district in Kumaon region where it links the valley with Nepal
and Tibet. Pensi-la is a mountain pass in the Ladakh union territory of India. Banihal Pass is a
mountain pass. It connects the Kashmir Valley in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir
Khardung La is a mountain pass in the Leh district of the Indian union territory of Ladakh.
Q.89) The Nanda Devi Peak is located in

[A]Sikkim
[B]Jammu and Kashmir
[C]Uttarakhand
[D] Assam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:The Nanda Devi Peak : is part of the Garhwal Himalayas, and is located in Chamoli
district of Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga valley on the west and the Gorigangavalleyonthe east.
Q.90) Which connects Sikkim with Tibet, was closed after the Chinese aggression on India in 1962
but was reopened in 2006 as the goverments of the two countries decided to enhance their trade
through land routes.
[A]Imis la
[B]Pensi La
[C]Lanak La
[D] Nathu La
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:Nathu La which connects Sikkim with Tibet, was closed after the Chinese aggression
on Indiain 1962 but was reopened in 2006 as the governments of the two countries decided to enhance
their trade through land routes. Imis La - between Ladakh(India) and Tibet(China) Pensi La - at
Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, a gateway to Zaskar. Lanak La- is in Tibet Autonomous
Region.
Q.91) The Musi and Bhima are tributaries of the river .

[A]Mahanadi
[B]Krishna
[C]Kaveri
[D] Brahmaputra
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:T he Krishna River is one of the major sources of irrigation for Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. The Krishna river's source is at Mahabaleshwar near the Jor village in
Satara District, Maharashtra in the west and empties into the Bay of Bengal at Hamsaladeevi (near
Koduru) in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast.
 Tributaries: Left: Bhima, Dindi, Peddavagu ,Musi, Paleru, Munneru
 Right: Veena, Koyna, Panchganga, Dudhaganga, ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Tungabhadra
Q.92) Baglihar Dam is constructed on which river?

[A]Chenab
[B]Ravi
[C]Sutlej
[D] Indus Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Baglihar Dam is built on Chenab River in the Doda district of Jammu & Kashmir. The
hydro power project ' BagliharHydroelectric Power Project', is a run-of-the-river power project on the
Chenab River. This project was conceived in 1992, approved in 1996 and construction began in 1999.
Q.93) In India, the Project Tiger was started in .

[A]1979
[B]1973
[C]1992
[D] 1982
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Project Tiger was started in April 1973 by the Government of India during the
tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi from Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. The project
aims at ensuring a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats, protecting them from
extinction.
Q.94) The Tata Iron and Steel company (TISCO) was established by Dorabji Tata in :
[A]1919
[B]1913
[C]1907
[D] 1911
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Tata Iron and Steel Company was founded by Jamsetji Tata and established by Dorabji
Tata on 26 August 1907, and began producing steel in 1912 as a branch of Jamsetji's Tata Group. By
1939, it operated the largest steel plant in the British Empire.
Q.95) Rammam hydroelectric power is located in

[A]Purulia
[B]Bankura
[C]Jalpaiguri
[D] Darjeeling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Darjeeling.
 Rammam hydroelectric power project is a run of the river-based hydel project.
 Rammamriver flows through the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.
 It originates from the Singalila range in Darjeeling.
The Lodhoma river is a tributary of the Rammam river.
 Ramman river merges with the Rangeet river near Jorethang at the end of its course
Q.96) Which of the following passes connects Tawang with Lhasa?

[A]Chankan Pass
[B]Bum La Pass
[C]Hpungan Pass
[D] Kumjung Pass
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Bum La is situated at an elevation of 2600 m to the east of Bhutan in the Greater
Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh at the Indo-China border. It connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa,
Tibet. ChankanChankanPass :Chaukan Pass is on the Myanmar- India border.
Q.97) The Almatti dam project on the Krishna River was an issue between which states?
[A]Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
[B]Karnataka and Goa
[C]Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
[D] Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:The Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric project on the Krishna River at the Bagalkot district
in North Karnataka. It is an issue between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Q.98) Which of the following is a trans-Himalayan river?

[A]Ganga
[B]Yamuna
[C]Sutlej
[D] Ravi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sutlej is a trans-Himalayan river. The Trans-Himalayan Rivers originate beyond the
Great Himalayas. These are the Indus, the Sutlej and the Brahmaputra rivers. Himalayan rivers are
those which originate in theHimalayas and flow through the Northern Plains, e.g., the Ganga, the
Yamuna and their tributaries.
Q.99) Botanical Survey of India(BSI) Headquarter is located in which city?

[A]Assam
[B]New Delhi
[C]Kolkata
[D] Bhopal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:Botanical Survey ofIndia (BSI) located in Kolkata, West Bengal, India. The Botanical
Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of
the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue.
Q.100) In which state is the Mundra Power Plant located?
[A]Gujarat
[B]Madhya Pradesh
[C]Chattisgarh
[D] Odisha
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:Mundra Thermal Power Station is located at Mundra in Kutch district in the Indian state
of Gujarat. The power plant is one of the coal-based power plants of Adani Power. The coal for the
power plant is imported primarily from Bunyu, Indonesia. Source of water for the power plant is sea
water from the Gulf of Kutch
: Indian Polity & Indian Economy:
Q.101) In the context of recruitment of civil servants during British rule in India, the open
competition for selection and recruitment of civil servants was started by:
[A] Charter Act of 1833
[B] Charter Act of 1853
[C] Indian Council Act of 1861
[D]Government of India Act 1858
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Charter Act of 1853 introduced the open competition for selection and recruitment of
civil servants. The higher posts in civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also.
Q.102) The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the provision of
[A] Indian Independence Act, 1947
[B] Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
[C] August offer 1940
[D] Cripps mission 1942
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly of India came into existence as per the provisions of Cabinet
Mission Plan of May 1946. Its task was to formulate constitution/s for facilitating appropriate transfer
of sovereign power from British authorities to Indian hands.
Q.103) The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from:
[A] American revolution
[B] French revolution
[C] Russian revolution
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble were borrowed from the French
revolution. The French Revolution refers to the period that began with the Estates General of 1789
and ended in November 1799 with the formation of the French Consulate. Many of its ideas are
considered fundamental principles of Western liberal democracy.
Q.104) In 1953, the Government created the first linguistic state in India, this state was
[A] Gujarat
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Bombay
Correct Answer:B
Explanation: In October, 1953, the Government of India was forced to create the first linguistic state,
known as Andhra state, by separating the Telugu speaking areas from the Madras state. This followed
a prolonged popular agitation and the death of Potti Sriramulu, a Congress person of standing, after a
56-day hunger strike for the cause.
Q.105) The concept of single citizenship has been borrowed from which country?
[A] England
[B] U.S.A
[C] Canada
[D] France
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Constitution borrowed such features as parliamentary form of government,
introduction of Speaker & his role, concept of single citizenship, Rule of law, procedure of
lawmaking, etc from England. The Indian citizenship& nationality law & Constitution of India
provide single citizenship for all of India.
Q.106) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth
is mentioned in which Article?
[A] Article 12
[B] Article 15
[C] Article 17
[D] Article 16
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ARTICLE 15 has the provision of Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, and place of birth. According to Article 15, the State shall not discriminate against
any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them.
Q.107) Which Articles of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?

[A] Articles 12-35
[B] Articles 12-50
[C] Articles 13-35
[D] Articles 15-35
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Articles 12-35 of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights. Right to Life,
Right to Dignity, Right to Education etc. all come under one of the six main fundamental rights.
Q.108) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the Uniform Civil
Code?
[A] Article 43
[B] Article 44
[C] Article 45
[D] Article 46
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Uniform Civil Code (Article 44) has been a point of debate for decades with a view to
replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious community in India
with a common set of rules for every citizen. It expects the state to apply these rules while formulating
policies for the country.
Q.109) In which part of the Indian Constitution are centre-state relations mentioned?
[A] Part IV (Article 227 to 234)
[B] Part XI (Article 245 to 255)
[C] Part X (Article 234 to 240)
[D] Part XII (Article 265 to 277)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The centre-state relations are divided into three parts, which are as follows:
(A) Legislative Relations (Article 245-255)
(B) Administrative Relations (Article 256-263)
(C) Financial Relations (Article 268-293)
Q.110) Balance of Payments (BoP) refers to —

[A] Transactions in the flow of capitals
[B] Transactions relating only to export and import
[C] Transaction relating to receipts and payment of invisibles
[D] Systematic record of all economic transactions a between residents and the rest of the world in a
certain period
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Balance of Payment is a systematic record of all economic transactions between
residents of a country and the rest of the world in a certain period.
Q.111) Which of the following leads to Inflation?

[A] Increase in money supply
[B] Increase in money supply and fall in production
[C] Fall of production
[D] Decrease in money supply and fall in production
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Inflation means there is a sustained increase in the price level. The main Causes of
inflation are either excess aggregate demand (economic growth being too fast) or cost push factor
(supply side factor or fallin production).
Q.112) Which of the following functions are being performed by the Reserve Bank of India?
[A] Regulation of Banks in India
[B] Regulation of Foreign Direct Investment in India
[C] Foreign Currency Management in India
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All of the above are functions of Reserve Bank of India.
Q.113) During which Five Year Plan the price level in Indian Economy showed a decline?
[A] Plan I
[B] Plan II
[C] Plan IV
[D] Annual Plans
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: During First Five Year Plan (1951-56) the price level in Indian Economy showed a
decline because of rapid agricultural development and measures to control inflation as there was
disequilibrium due to Second World War and partition of Economy.
Q.114) Fiscal Policy in India is laid down and executed by -

[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] ASSOCHAM
[C] Reserve Bank of India
[D] FICCI
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Fiscal policy is an estimate of taxation and spending by the government for
stabilization or growth of the economy.
The fiscal policy is formulated by the Ministry of Finance.
The objective of fiscal policy is to maintain the condition of full employment level, economic stability
and to stabilize the rate of growth.
Q.115) Economic survey is published by which of them?

[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] RBI
[C] CSO
[D] Indian Statistical Institute
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Department of Economic Affairs, Finance Ministry presents the economic survey.
It is prepared under the guidance of chief economic adviser. It is a flagship annual document of
Ministry of Finance which reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the past financial
year, summarizes the performance on major development programmes and highlights the policy
initiatives of the government and the prospects of the economy in the short to medium term.
Q.116) In the context of Indian economy, Open Market operations refers to?
[A] Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
[B] Lending by commercial banks to Industry and Trade
[C] Purchase & sale of government securities by the RBI
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Open Market Operations (OMO) is the sale and purchase of the government securities
by RBI.OMO is one of the monetary policy tools that RBI uses to smoothen liquidity conditions
through the year and regulate money supply in the market.
Q.117) The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is?

[A] Growth and stability
[B] Reduce poverty and achieve stability
[C] Overall Monetary Stability
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The main objective of the Monetary policy in India is rapid economic growth and to
maintain price stability. The other objectives of the monetary policy are exchange rate stability, to
maintain Balance of payment equilibrium, to generate employment, equal income distribution etc.
Q.118) In India Agriculture Income is calculated by

[A] Output Method
[B] Input Method
[C] Expenditure Method
[D] Commodity Flow Method
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In India Agriculture Forestry and Logging Fishing Mining and Quarrying registered
manufacturing and construction units are included in Category A. The Output Method is applied to
Category A. The Value Added by this category is found by subtracting the value of raw materials and
other inputs from the aggregate of commodity wise output.
Expenditure Method: This method measure National Income sum total of final expenditure incurred
by household business firm Government and Foreigners.
Commodity Flow Method- This method is used to estimate purchase of commodity by intermediate or
final users. This method generally begins with an estimate of the total supply of a commodity
available for domestic users.
Q.119) Which of the following Countries is NOT a member of the World Trade Organization?
[A] Israel
[B] Iran
[C] Guinea
[D] Norway
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Iran has an observer status at the World Trade Organization (WTO) since 2005. The
United States has consistently blocked Iran's bid to join the WTO.All other are the member of the of
WTO Israel is a member since 21 april Guinea is a member since 25 october 1995And Norway has
been a member Since 1 january 1995.
Q.120) The period of high inflation, low economic growth and high unemployment is termed as?
[A]Stagnation
[B]Take offstage in economy
[C]Stagflation
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Stagflation is a condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment
accompanied by rising prices or inflation.
Q.121) The Slogan of Poverty Abolition was given in which Five Year Plan?
[A]Second Plan
[B]Fourth Plan
[C]Fifth Plan
[D] Sixth Plan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:The Slogan of Poverty Abolition was given by Indira Gandhi in 1971 and it was
implemented during the Fifth Five Year Plan 1974-78. Gandhi promised to reduce poverty by
targeting the consumption levels of the poor and enact wide ranging social and economic reforms.
1ST Plan- Development of Primary Sector 2nd Plan- Rapid Industrialization 3rd Plan- Agriculture
Production.
Q.122) Interest on public debt is a part of?

[A]Transfer payments by the enterprises
[B]Transfer payments by the Government
[C]National Income
[D] Interest payments by households
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Public debt refers to a part of the total borrowing by the Union Government which
includes items such as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills, special loans and securities
issued by the Reserve Bank. It also includes outstanding external debt. The interest on public debt is a
part of transfer payments by the government.
Q.123) The break-even point is where?

[A]Marginal revenue equals marginal cost
[B]Average revenue equals average cost
[C]Average revenue equals average cost
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Break-even point is the price level at which market price of a security is equal to the
original cost or it is the point at which total cost equals total revenue. There is no net loss or profit.
The main purpose is to determine the minimum output that must be exceeded for a business to profit.
Q.124) Which of the following is not a quantitative credit control technique?

[A]Bank Rate
[B]Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
[C]Increase of Interest Rate on saving deposit
[D] Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Credit control is done by RBI to maintain monetary stability in the economy. There are
two methods to control credit that are Qualitative and Qualitative Credit control method. The
Quantitative is used to control the volume of the total credit through open market operations,
CRR,SLR, Repo Rate, Bank Rate etc.
Q.125) An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is?

[A]Open market operations
[B]Credit Rationing
[C]Change in Reserve ratio
[D] Bank Rate
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Qualitative credit control method is used to control the flow of credit through direct
actions like, moral suasion, marginal requirement, Consumer Credit Regulations, Rationing of credit
etc.
: General Science:
Q.126) Epithelial tissues are

[A] protective
[B] single layered
[C] tightly packed and form a continuous sheet
[D] All of these
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Epithelial tissue cells are tightly packed and form a continuous sheet, They have a
small amount of cementing material between them and almost no intercellular spaces. It is separated
from underlying tissue by an extracellular fibrous basement membrane.
Q.127) What are the main functions of blood?

[A] Transport
[B] Protection
[C] Regulation
[D] All the above
Correct Answer:D
Explanation: The three main functions of blood are transport, protection and regulation.
Q.128) Balanced diet

[A] contains all nutrients in proper amounts
[B] is proteinaceous diet
[C] contains vitamins and minerals
[D] contains vitamins only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The diet which contains all the nutrients, i.e., carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and
minerals in proper amount, along with water is called balanced diet. A balanced diet is required for
proper growth and maintenance of the body.
Q.129) Reproduction is
[A] production of new offspring
[B] continuation of race of species
[C] a biological process
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reproduction is the biological process by which new offspring (individual organisms)
are produced from their ‗parents‘. It is a fundamental feature of all known life. Each individual
organism exist as the result of reproduction. The two main types of reproduction are sexual and
asexual. In plants, asexual reproduction is called as vegetative reproduction.
Q.130) Respiration is an reaction.

[A] oxidation
[B] reduction
[C] redox
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Respiration is the process of making energy available to organism by oxidation of
organic molecules. it is of two types
Aerobic Respiration It is the respiration, which uses oxygen as an oxidant. Here release of energy is
much higher than in aerobic respiration.
Anaerobic Respiration It is the respiration, which does not use oxygen to breakdown respiratory
substances. It often occurs in muscles where lactic acid is formed as a product. Lactic acid
accumulates in muscles which is the major cause of muscular cramp. It is also occur in yeast where
ethanol and CO2 are formed.
Q.131) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the endocrine glands?

[A] They are known as ductless glands
[B] Their secretions are called hormones
[C] Hormones are secreted through ducts in the bloodstream
[D] These glands lack ducts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, known as ductless glands. Their secretions
are called hormones. As these glands do not have ducts, therefore they release their secretions directly
into the bloodstream.
Q.132) Metabolic activities that produce wastes are removed by the process of
[A] gaseous; respiration
[B] gaseous; photosynthesis
[C] nitrogenous; respiration
[D] nitrogenous; excretion
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Excretion is a process in which metabolic waste is eliminated from an organism. In
vertebrates this is primarily carried out by the lungs, kidneys, and skin. This is in contrast with
secretion, where the substance may have specific tasks after leaving the cell.
Q.133) A physical quantity is one Which

[A] cannot be measured
[B] can be measured
[C] is a scalar quantity
[D] is a vector quantity
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A physical quantity is a property of a material or system that can be quantified by
measurement. A physical quantity can be expressed as the combination of a numerical value and a
unit. For example, the physical quantity mass can be quantified as n kg, where n is the numerical
value and kg is the unit.
Q.134) A body is said to be in motion, it its position changes continuously w.r.t. a fixed reference
point called
[A] Positive
[B] negative
[C] origin
[D] axis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A body is said to be in motion when it changes its position with reference to a fixed
reference point called the origin. Uniform Motion is a motion in which equal distance is covered in
equal time intervals.
Q.135) The product of the magnitude of force applied on a body and the distance by which the
body is moved because of the force applied, is called
[A] motion
[B] energy
[C] work
[D] power
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Work is defined as the force which is required to cause a displacement in the object. It
is the product of force acting and the displacement caused in the direction of the force. The unit of
work is Newton meter of Joule.
Q.136) An object when thrown upwards reaches a certain height and then falls downward. Give
the reason behind it.
[A] Centripetal force
[B] Gravitational force of the earth
[C] Mass of the object
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gravitational force of the earth acts on every object having mass. When an object is
thrown upwards the gravitational force of the earth acts against the velocity of the object and pulls
the object downwards, i.e, towards itself. thus the object returns back towards the earth.
Q.137) What type of waves are Sound Waves?

[A] Latitudinal waves
[B] Longitudinal waves
[C] Latitudinal mechanical waves
[D] None of the Above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sound Waves are longitudinal mechanical waves. Sound waves in air (and any fluid
medium) are longitudinal waves because particles of the medium through which the sound is
transported vibrate parallel to the direction that the sound wave moves.
Q.138) The nucleus of an atom

[A] has very bigger size and shares negligible mass of the atom
[B] has negligible size and shares most of the mass of the atom
[C] has negligible size and shares negligible mass of the atom
[D] occupies most of the space and shares most of mass of the atom
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The nucleus of an atom has negligible size and shares most of the mass of the atom
Q.139) The acid is a substance which

[A] accepts (gains) proton
[B] donates electron
[C] provides (donates) proton
[D] donates OH- ion
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: An acid is a substance that donates protons (in the Brønsted-Lowry definition) or
accepts a pair of valence electrons to form a bond (in the Lewis definition). A base is a substance
that can accept protons or donate a pair of valence electrons to form a bond. Bases can be thought of
as the chemical opposite of acids.
Q.140) What happens when a chemical bond is

[A] Energy is always absorbed
[B] Energy is always released
[C] More energy is released than is absorbed
[D] Energy is neither released nor absorbed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The attractive force which holds various constituents (atoms! molecules/ions) of a
substance together is called a chemical bond. Bond formation is always exothermic (energy is
released) while bond breaking is always endothermic (energy is absorbed). It is because, whenever
two atoms approach each other, they experience two types of forces
(i) Force of attraction between the nucleons of one and electrons of other. (ii) Force of repulsion
between two nuclei or between electrons of two atoms.
Attractive forces always decrease energy and stabilise the system while repulsive forces increase
energy and destabilise the system. Generally, for bond formation, attractive force must be larger than
repulsive force.
Hence net energy of the system must be decreased, i. e., excess energy must be liberated. Hence, bond
formation is exothermic. On the other hand, while breaking any bond, we need to supply energy equal
to bond dissociation energy, i. e., system absorbs energy, hence is endothermic.
Q.141) In which group and period does hydrogen exist?

[A] Group 2 and period 1
[B] Group 1 and period 2
[C] Group 2 and period 2
[D] Group 1 and period 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Although hydrogen is placed at the top of Group 1A in most versions of the periodic
table, it is very different from the other members of the alkali metal group. In its elemental form,
hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, extremely flammable gas at room temperature, consisting of
diatomic molecules of H2.
Q.142) The early attempt to classify elements as metals and non-metals was made by
[A] Mendeleev
[B] Newlands
[C] Lavoisier
[D] Henry Moseley
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The earliest attempt to classify the elements was in 1789, when Antoine Lavoisier
grouped the elements based on their properties into gases, non-metals and metals.
Q.143) Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?

[A] Burning of paper
[B] Digestion of food
[C] Conversion of water into steam
[D] Burning of coal
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: One way to think about physical changes is that they are reversible since they do not
affect a substance's chemical identity. These include changes in size, shape, texture or state. A good
example of physical change is ice melting into water.
Q.144) In which of the following animals, open circulatory system found?

[A]Prawn
[B]Earthworm
[C]Toad
[D] Man
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Arthropods (prawn) and molluscs have open circulatory system The open circulatory
system is a system in which fluid in a cavity called the haemocoel which bathes the organs directly
with oxygen and nutrients and there is no distinction between blood and interstitial fluid: this
combined fluid is called Haemolymph or hemolymph.
Q.145) The property of the body, by virtue of which it recovers its original shape and size when
the external forte is removed, is called
[A]viscosity
[B]surface tension
[C]elasticity
[D] plasticity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Elasticity is the property due to which the body regains its original shape and size
after the removal of deforming force.
Q.146) Which of the following is considered to be a simplest type of motion

[A]motion along straight line
[B]motion in 2-D
[C]motion in 3-D
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The simplest type of motion consist of motion with constant velocity. This type of
motion occurs in everyday life whenever an object slides over a horizontal, low friction surface: e.g.,
a puck sliding across a hockey rink.
Q.147) Newton's law of gravitation states that

[A]the force of interaction acting among any two bodies is directly proportional to their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
[B]the force of interaction acting among any two bodies is inversely proportional to their masses and
directly proportional to the distance between them
[C]the force of interaction acting among the two bodies is directly proportional to their masses and the
distance between them
[D] the force of interaction acting among two bodies is inversely proportional to their masses and the
distance between them
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Newton's law of universal gravitation states that every point mass in the universe
attracts every other point mass with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their
masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Q.148) Which of the following is/ are not applications of Ultrasonic Waves?
(a) For measuring the depth of Sea.
(b) In sterilizing of a liquid.
(c) In Ultrasonography
(d) In sterilizing a needle.
Options are: [A]Both (a) and (b) Only (b)
[B]Only (d)
[C]Both (c) and (d)
[D] Only (b)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Applications of Ultrasonic Waves are: sending signals, for measuring the depth of sea,
for cleaning cloths, aeroplanes, machinery parts of clocks, for removing lamp-shoot from the chimney
of factories, in sterilizing of liquid and in Ultrasonography.
Q.149) When long dry hair are brushed, the strands often move away from each other, because
while brushing
[A]air is being blown through the strands
[B]static electric charges are being induced on the hair
[C]mechanical energy is being transferred into heat energy
[D] the gravitational attraction among the strands becomes smaller
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When long dry hair is brushed the strands often move away from each other
because while brushing. air is being blown through the strands. static electric charges are being
induced on the hair. mechanical energy is being transferred into heat energy
Q.150) The chemical formula of carbonic acid is

[A]H2C03
[B]C6FH5COOH
[C]C6H5OH
[D] C6H5CH2OH
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Carbonic acid, (H2CO3), a compound of the elements hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen. It
is formed in small amounts when its anhydride, carbon dioxide (CO2), dissolves in water. HCO3− +
OH− ⇌ CO32− + H2O (fast) Between pH values of 8 and 10, all the above equilibrium reactions are
significant.
: Math & Reasoning:
Q.151) What is the sum of all prime numbers between 60 and 80?
A. 272
B. 284
C. 351
D. 414
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Prime numbers between 60 and 80 are 61, 67, 71, 73, and 79
Their sum can be written as 61 + 67 + 71 + 73 + 79 = 351
∴ The sum of all prime numbers between 60 and 80 is 351
Q.152) A trader allowed a discount of 15% on a trolley bag having list price of Rs 1360 and
earns a profit of 15.6%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the trolley bag?
A. 1000
B. 1005
C. 1050
D. 1156
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let the cost price be Rs. y
Selling price of article = 15% discount on 1360 = 1360 × (1 - 15/100) = 0.85 × 1360 = Rs. 1156
Profit of 15.6% can be written as
⇒ y(1 + 15.6/100) = 1.156 y = Rs. 1156
⇒ 1.156y = 1156
⇒ y = 1000
∴ The cost price is Rs. 1000
Q.153) The average weight of 100 students is 32 kg. The average weight of first 49 students is 30
kg and of last 50 students is 34 kg. What is the weight (in kg) of the 50th student?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 32
D. 33
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: According to the question
Sum of weight of all 100 students/100 = 32
Sum of weight of all 100 students = 3200
Now the average weight of first 49 students is 30 can be written as
Sum of weight of first 49 students/49 = 30
⇒ sum of weight of first 49 students = 30 × 49 = 1470
Given that the average weight of last 50 students is 34 can be written as
sum of weight of last 50 students/50 = 34
⇒ sum of weight of last 50 students = 34 × 50 = 1700
Weight of 50th student can be written as = sum of age of all students – sum of age of first 49 students
– sum of last 50 students
⇒ Weight of 50th student can be written as = 3200 – 1470 – 1700 = 30
∴ The weight of 50th student is 30 years
Q.154) By selling 90 pens for Rs 80 a man loses 20%. What should be the selling price (in Rs) of
90 pens for 20% profit?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Let the cost price be y
According to the problem statement
⇒ y(1 - 20/100) = 80
⇒ 0.8y = 80
⇒ y = 100
For 20% profit, he should sell 90 pens at
⇒ 100(1 + 20/100) = 100 × 1.2 = 120
∴ He should sell 90 pens at Rs. 120
Q.155) Raman spends 80% of his income. If his income is increased by 25% and the
expenditure increase by 10%, then what will be the percentage increase in his savings?
A. 17
B. 70
C. 77
D. 85
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Let the income of Raman be Rs. 100
According to the problem statement
Amount to be spend by Raman can be given as
Amount spent = 100 × (80/100) = Rs. 80
Now the savings is 100 – 80 = Rs. 20
If income increased by 25%, new income will be
New income = 100 × (1 + 25/100) = Rs. 125
Expenditure increased by 10% can be given as
⇒ final expenditure = 80 × (1 + 10/100) = 80 × 1.1 = Rs. 88
Savings can be given as 125 – 88 = 37
Increase in saving is 37 – 20 = Rs. 17
⇒ percentage increase in savings can be given as = 17 × 100/20 = 85%
∴ The increase in savings is 85%
Q.156) Which one is the largest among the fractions (5/113), (7/120), (13/145) and (17/160)?
A. 5/113
B. 7/120
C. 13/145
D. 17/160
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: We know that
⇒ 5/113 = 0.044
⇒ 7/120 = 0.058
⇒ 13/145 = 0.089
⇒ 17/160 = 0.106
∴ 17/160 is the largest.
Q.157) Nirmit can do 2/3 of a job in 18 days. Kashish is twice as efficient as Nirmit. In how
many days Kashish will complete the job?
A. 29/4
B. 27/2
C. 31/2
D. 13/2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Since Kashish is twice as efficient as Nirmit
⇒ Kashish can do 2/3 of work in 18/2 days
⇒ 2/3 of work can be done in 9 days
⇒ whole work can be done in 9 × (3/2)
∴ Kashish can do whole work in 27/2 days
Q.158) 40 men took a dip in a pool 30 m long and 25 m broad. If the average water displaced by
a man is 5m3, then what will be the rise (in cm) in level of the pool?
A. 25
B. 26.66
C. 27.33
D. 28
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ⇒ Total volume displaced by 40 men = 40 × 5 = 200 m3
volume displaced by 40 men = volume of water displaced by pool
⇒ 30 × 25 × h = 200
⇒ h = 8/30 m
⇒ h = 8 × 100/30 cm
∴ Height raised is 26.66 cm
Q.159) Average age of a team having 12 players is 23 years. If the age of the coach is also
included, then the average age increases by 2 years. What is the age (in years) of the coach?
A. 41
B. 47
C. 49
D. 51
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Average is given as sum of ages of all players/12 players
⇒ 23 = sum of ages of all players/12
⇒ sum of ages of all players = 12 × 23
⇒ sum of ages of all players = 276 … (i)
After adding the age of coach average is 25(23 + 2)
⇒ (sum of ages of all players + age of coach)/13 = 25 Using (i)
⇒ 276 + age of coach = 25 × 13
⇒ Age of coach = 49
∴ coach‘s age is 49 years
Q.160) The simple interest on a sum of money for 10 years is Rs. 3130. If the principal becomes
5 times after 5 years, then what will be the total interest (in Rs.) obtained after 10 years?
A. 6260
B. 1565
C. 9390
D. 7825
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The principle gives 3130 as interest in 10 years. Implies it gives 1565 interest in 5
years.
After 5 years the principle is 5 time. The interest for remaining 5 years is also 5 times = 5 × 1565 =
7825.
Total interest we get at the end of 10 years= 7825 + 1565= 9390
Q.161) A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
100, -20, 4, _____ (?), .16, -0.032
A. .8
B. 1
C. -1
D. -0.8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Each term is obtained by dividing the previous term by -5.
Missing term = 4/-5 = - 0.8
Hence, -0.8 is the missing term
Q.162) From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word.
ORDINALS
A. DINAR
B. ADORN
C. SALON
D. IDEAL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The given word does not have ‗E‘ in it, therefore the word ‗IDEAL‘ cannot be formed
using the letters of the given formed.
Q.163) In a certain code language, '+' represents '×', '-' represents '+', '×' represents '÷' and '÷'
represents '-'. What is the answer to the following question?
42 × 7 ÷ 7 + 9 - 62 = ?
A. 5
B. 87
C. 22
D. 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Converting the given equation according to the code language:
42 × 7 ÷ 7 + 9 – 62 = 42 ÷ 7 – 7 × 9 + 62 = 6 – 63 + 62 = 5
Q.164) A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
Pension, Aptitude, Captain, Tropical, Survive, ?
A. Parrot
B. Apply
C. Trap
D. Tetrapod
Correct Answer: 4D
Explanation: If we look at the series closely, we will find that there is a pattern. First word has seven
letters, second word has eight letters, third word has again seven letters and then fourth word has eight
letters and so on …
According to the above pattern the sixth word will have eight letters and there is only option which
has seven letters in it i.e. Tetrapod.
Q.165) Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Nylon
B. Wool
C. Silk
D. Cotton
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: All except nylon are types of fabric.
Q.166) Chirag's birthday is on Thursday 1st June. On what day of the week will be Reyansh's
Birthday in the same year if Reyansh was born on 3 rd December?
A. Wednesday
B. Sunday
C. Friday
D. Saturday
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Total number of days from 1st June to 1st December = 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 =
183
When we divide 183 by 7 we get remainder 1, that means 1st December is Friday. (As the quotient is
21 in this case, means there are 21 weeks from 1st June and 30th November and it further implies
30th November is Thursday.)
Hence, 2nd December is Saturday and 3rd December is Sunday.
Q.167) If QUICKLY is coded as OSGAIJW, then how will HUE be coded as?
A. ZMA
B. FSC
C. HZK
D. HNI
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 17 (Q) – 2 → 15 (O)
21 (U) – 2 → 19 (S)
9 (I) – 2 → 7 (G)
3 (C) – 2 → 1 (A)
11 (K) – 2 → 9 (I)
12 (L) – 2 → 10 (J)
25 (Y) – 2 → 23 (W)
Similarly,
8 (H) – 2 → 6 (F)
21 (U) – 2 → 19 (S)
5 (E) – 2 → 3 (E)
Hence, code for HUE is FSC.
Q.168) If 17@1 = 8; 9@1 = 4; 6@4 = 1; then what is the value of 8@2 =?

A. 3
B. 26
C. 23
D. 47
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 17@1 = (17 – 1) ÷ 2 = 16 ÷ 2 = 8
9@1 = (9 – 1) ÷ 2 = 8 ÷ 2 = 4
6@4 = (6 – 4) ÷ 2 = 2 ÷ 2 = 1
Similarly,
8@2 = (8 – 2) ÷ 2 = 6 ÷ 2 = 3
Q.169) Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

FDH : LJN :: RPT : ?
A. XYZ
B. WUY
C. XVZ
D. SUV
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation: 6 (F) + 6 = 12 (L); 4 (D) + 6 = 10 (J); 8 (H) + 6 = 14 (N)
Similarly,
18 (R) + 6 = 24 (X); 16 (P) + 6 = 22 (V); 20 (T) + 6 = 26 (Z)
Hence, XVZ is the correct answer.
Q.170) Select the related number from the given alternatives.

39 : 52 :: 51 : ?
A. 53
B. 40
C. 68
D. 38
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 39 + 39/3 = 52
Similarly,
51 + 51/3 = 68
Q.171) Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Tongue : Taste :: Nose : ?
A. Smell
B. Face
C. Touch
D. Chin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As tongue is required to feel the taste similarly, nose is required to feel the smell.
Q.172) Select the missing number from the given responses
23 114 204
45 25 36
68 89 ?
A. 157
B. 168
C. 21
D. 15
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The highest digit in each column is sum of rest two digits
In first column → 23 + 45 = 68
In second column → 89 + 25 = 114
In third column → 36 + ? = 204 → 204 - 36
= 168
Hence, answer is 168.
Q.173) A truck travels 36 km North, then it turns West and travels 9 km, then it turns South
and travels 50 km, then it turns to its left and travels 9 km. Where is it now with reference to its
starting position?
A. 14 km North
B. 86 km South
C. 86 km North
D. 14 km South
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Q.174) In the Following figure, square represents Artists, triangle represents Military officers,
circle represents Collectors and rectangle represents Fathers. Which set of letters represents
collectors who are either military officers or fathers?
A. F, C
B. D, E
C. A, B, G
D. H, E, D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Hence, the answer is A, B, G.
Q.175) Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. WVU
B. QPO
C. GED
D. LKJ
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: All the three except GED is written in reverse order as per English alphabet series.
Hence, the answer is GED.
: Current Affairs:
Q.176) Who became 1st female to operate Vande Bharat Express train?
A. Asmat Ara
B. Surekha Yadav
C. Sonakhsi Sharma
D. Arpita Singh
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Surekha Yadav piloted the Vande Bharat Express train between Solapur station and
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus (CSMT) in Mumbai on March 13, becoming the first women
loco pilot in Asia to run Vande Bharat train. Surekha Yadav started her career as an assistant driver in
1989.
Q.177) Who has been appointed as Controller General of Accounts (CGA)

A. Amit Singhania
B. S.S. Dubey
C. Deepak Mishra
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shri Dubey is the 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Ministry of Finance,
Government of India. Shri Dubey, a 1989-batch Indian Civil Accounts Service (ICAS) officer, is
appointed by the Government of India as the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) with effect from
6th March, 2023.
Q.178) Who Has Been Awarded with 32nd Vyas Samman Award
A. Dr. Asghar Wajahat
B. Wali Rahman
C. Sankar Singh
D. Gyan Chaturvedi
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Renowned Hindi writer Dr Gyan Chaturvedi's 2018 satirical Novel 'Pagalkhana' has
been selected for the 32nd Vyas Samman 2022. The annual Vyas Samman is given to an outstanding
Hindi literary work by an Indian citizen published during the last 10 years. It has prize money of Rs 4
lakh.
Q.179) Who has Been Honoured With ―Saraswati Samman, 2022‖

A. Ramdarash Mishra
B. Ranan Prasad
C. Sivasankari
D. Deepak Mishra
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Recently Saraswati Honors for the year 2022 have been announced by KK Birla
Foundation. Shiva Shankari has been honored with Saraswati Samman for the year 2022.
Q.180) Which state became 1st in India to induct Robotic Elephant for ritual duties
A. Assam
B. Sikkim
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Kerala
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Kerala temple become India's first to induct robotic elephant for ritual duties. The
Irinjadappilly Sree Krishna Temple in Kerala's Thrissur district has become the first in the country to
use a mechanical, lifelike elephant for temple rituals.
Q.181) Who has been awarded with the ―Abel Prize 2023‖
A. Dennis P. Sullivan
B. Rober Henry
C. Luis Caffarelli
D. Philip David
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Abel Prize 2023 has been awarded to the mathematician Luis A. Caffarelli of the
University of Texas at Austin, USA, for his work on what you can think of as the mathematics of
change. The Abel Prize is one of the highest accolades in mathematics. Awarded annually by the
Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters, it comes with a prize money of 7.5 million Norwegian
Kroner (over £575,000). Caffarelli is the 26th mathematician to receive the prize since its
establishment in 2002.
Q.182) Which Team Won The Title Of „2022–23 Santosh Trophy‟

A. Meghalaya
B. Uttrakhand
C. Karnataka
D. Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Karnataka beat Meghalaya in the Santosh Trophy 2022-23 final on March 4 in Saudi
Arabia. Get results and group standings! The Santosh Trophy 2022-23 concluded on March 4 with
Karnataka beating Meghalaya in the final at the King Fahd Stadium in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
Q.183) World‟s 1st Bamboo Crash Barrier Installed In Which State?

A. Odisha
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Tripura
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: India has tested bamboo crash barrier as an environmental friendly alternative to steel.
Union minister Nitin Gadkari said the "world's first" 200-meter-long bamboo crash barrier has been
installed on a highway connecting Chandrapur and Yavatmal districts in Maharashtra.
Q.184) Which Film Won „Best Film‟ award at the Oscar‟s Awards 2023
A. CODA
B. Everything Everywhere All at Once
C. RRR
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Best Picture Winner of Oscar 2023: The surreal superhero comedy 'Everything
Everywhere All at Once' won the Best Picture award at the 95th Academy Awards, along with seven
other Oscars on Sunday night.
Q.185) Who Won ―Pritzker Architecture Prize 2023‖

A. David Chipperfield
B. Philip Johnson
C. Diébédo Francis Kéré
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Civic architect, urban planner and activist, Sir David Alan Chipperfield has been
selected as the 2023 Laureate of The Pritzker Architecture Prize, the award that is regarded
internationally as architecture's highest honor.
Q.186) Who Is The Author Of „Bipin: The Man Behind the Uniform‟
A. Chetan Bhagat
B. Rachna Singh
C. Rachna Biswat Rawat
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Written by bestselling author Rachna Bisht Rawat and featuring in-depth interviews
with Bipin Rawat's friends, family members and comrades, this book is a befitting
tribute to one of India's greatest and most controversial Generals.
Q.187) Which State Declared Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary as the 18th wildlife
sanctuary?
A. Gujarat
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karanataka
D. Kerala
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The government of Tamil Nadu has decided to declare Thanthai Periyar Wildlife
Sanctuary as the 18th wildlife sanctuary in the state. The government of Tamil Nadu has decided to
declare Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary as the 18th wildlife sanctuary in the state.
Q.188) When Is National Science Day Celebrated Every Year

A. 28th Feb
B. 26th Feb
C. 27th Feb
D. 25th Feb
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: National Science Day is celebrated in India on February 28 each year to mark the
discovery of the Raman effect by Indian physicist Sir C. V. Raman on 28 February 1928. For his
discovery, Sir C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
Q.189) Manik Saha sworn in as 13th CM of Which State?

A. Tripura
B. Assam
C. Manipur
D. Meghalaya
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: AGARTALA: Manik Saha, a dental surgeon-turned-politician, took oath as the 13th
Tripura chief minister for the second time at Vivekananda Stadium on Wednesday.
Q.190) Who Is The Author Of The Book 'Mundaka Upanishad: The Gateway to Eternity‟
A. Chetan Bhagat
B. Dr. Karan Singh
C. Jagdeep Dhankar
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: 'Mundaka Upanishad: The Gateway to Eternity', written by former MP Dr. Karan
Singh, is released.
Q.191) Kanak Rele Passed Away Recently, She Was Belong To Which Dance Form?
A. Kathak
B. Bharatnatyam
C. Mohiniyattam
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Born in Gujarat on 11 June 1937, Rele spent a part of her childhood in Santiniketan and
in Kolkata with her uncle. At Santiniketan she had the opportunity to watch Kathakali and
Mohiniyattam performances, which she claimed helped shape her artistic sensibilities.
Q.192) Who has won Asian Billiards Title Recently?

A. Pankaj Advani
B. Brijesh Damani
C. Geet Sethi
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Pankaj Advani retains Asian Billiards title defeating Damani. Current Affairs » Current
Affairs Sports 2023 » Pankaj Advani retains Asian Billiards title.
Q.193) Who has been appointed in „Order of Australia‟ for distinguished service
A. Shri Ratan Tata
B. Azim Premji
C. Adani
D. Mukesh Ambani
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Industrialist Shri Ratan Tata appointed in 'Order of Australia' for distinguished
service.
Q.194) Which Bank Signed a $1 Billion Program to Support India‟s Health Sector?
A. ADB
B. World Bank
C. AIIB
D. Singapore Bank
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World Bank Signs a $1 Billion Program to Support India's Health Sector for Pandemic
Preparedness and Enhanced Health Service Delivery. NEW DELHI, March 3, 2023—The
Government of India and the World Bank today signed two complementary loans of $500 million
each to support and enhance India's health sector development.
Q.195) Mauganj will be the 53rd district of which state?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mauganj was declared as 53rd district of Madhya Pradesh by Shivraj Singh Chouhan,
the chief minister of Madhya Pradesh. Mauganj is a tehsil of the Rewa district.
Q.196) Vo Van Thuong Became New President Of Which Country?

A. Thialand
B. Japan
C. Vietnam
D. Laos
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The National Assembly(NA) of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam elected Vo Van
Thuong(Võ Văn Thưởng) (52 years old) as the new President of Vietnam for a term running until
2026.
Q.197) When Is ―World Wildlife Day‖ Celebrated Every Year?

A. 20 Oct
B. 10 March
C. 3rd March
D. 2nd March
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: On 20 December 2013, the Sixty-eighth session of the United Nations General
Assembly decided to proclaim 3 March as World Wildlife Day to celebrate and raise awareness of the
world‘s wild fauna and flora. The date is the day of the adoption of the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973, which plays an important
role in ensuring that international trade does not threaten the species‘ survival.
Q.198) Which team has won ―Ranji Trophy 2023‖ Title

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Saurashtra
C. Maharashtra
D. Odisha
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Ranji Trophy 2023 Final: Saurashtra beat Bengal by 9 wickets; Unadkat reveals team's
success secret! Saurashtra defeated Bengal by 9 wickets to lift the Ranji Trophy title for the second
time here at the Eden Gardens on Sunday.
Q.199) Yaya Tso became Which State/UT‟s 1 st biodiversity heritage site?

A. Ladakh
B. UP
C. Puducherry
D. Gujarat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Yaya Tso, known as birds' paradise for its beautiful lake located at an altitude of 4,820
metres, has been proposed as Ladakh's first biodiversity heritage site (BHS).
Q.200) Shahabuddin Chuppu elected 22nd President of which country?

A. Bangladesh
B. Iran
C. Nepal
D. Pakistan
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Muhammad Shahabuddin Chuppu (born 10 December 1949) is a Bangladeshi jurist,
politician and freedom fighter who is the President-elect of Bangladesh. He was nominated by the
ruling Bangladesh Awami League as their candidate for the 2023 presidential election.

(Answer) WBCS (Prelims) Mock Test-12

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WBCS 2023 (Preliminary) Examination

Offline Mock Test-12

Q.1) Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

Correct Answer: Unpretensious.

Q.4) Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Q.5) Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

 The antonyms of the word 'stalwart' are 'chicken, chickenhearted, chicken-livered,

Q.6) Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Q.7) Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

 The most appropriate word to fill in the given blank is 'competitiveness'.

Correct Answer: Numerologist.

Q.12) Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word

Q.13) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

 Let us discuss the meanings of the given options:

o Unnoticed: not noticed or seen.

Q.18) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

 In Active Voice, a sentence emphasizes the subject, performing an action.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Q.26) Sarnath is in the state of

Q.27) Which of the following subjects are dealt in by Kalpa Sutras?

Q.33) Which of the following is not a correct feature of Rig-Vedic economy?

Q.38) Parnadatta was appointed the Provincial Governor of Saurashtra by______?

Q.41) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Q.42) Diwan-i-Arz department was associated with?

Q.44) The policy or 'security cell‘ is related with

Q.46) The roots of the 1857 revolt lay in

Q.48) Who said "Heavy Industry is a Synonym of development"?

Q.49) ―Sanitation is more important than independence‖ — Who said this?

: Indian National Movement:

Q.51) An important event of Lord Dufferin's tenure as Viceroy was –

Q.57) Who is known as father of Dyarchy?

Q.58) 'Hindustan Socialist Republican Army' was founded in the year –

Q.65) The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for

: Indian & West Bengal Geography:

Q.76) India is situated between which of the following coordinates?

Q.78) Which of the following Longitude is known as Standard Meridian in India?

Q.79) The Ganga river is an example of -

Q.80) In Bangladesh, River Ganga is known as -

Q.82) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the State of

Q.83) First Agriculture University in India was established in the year?

Q.85) Coochbehar was a part of which kingdom of Assam?

Q.89) The Nanda Devi Peak is located in

Q.91) The Musi and Bhima are tributaries of the river .

Q.92) Baglihar Dam is constructed on which river?

Q.93) In India, the Project Tiger was started in .

Q.95) Rammam hydroelectric power is located in

Q.96) Which of the following passes connects Tawang with Lhasa?

Q.98) Which of the following is a trans-Himalayan river?

Q.99) Botanical Survey of India(BSI) Headquarter is located in which city?

: Indian Polity & Indian Economy:

Q.107) Which Articles of Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?

Q.110) Balance of Payments (BoP) refers to —

Q.111) Which of the following leads to Inflation?