Aits 2324 FT Vii Jeea Paper 1 Offline
Aits 2324 FT Vii Jeea Paper 1 Offline
Aits 2324 FT Vii Jeea Paper 1 Offline
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
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3 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
4. When a piece of wire is held diametrically in a screw gauge [pitch = 1mm, number of divisions
on circular scale = 100]. The readings obtained are as shown: Now if we measure the same with
help of vernier callipers [1 MSD = 1mm, 10 divisions of vernier coinciding with 9 divisions of main
scale] having a negative zero error of 0.5 mm, then find which of the following figures correctly
represents the reading
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4
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5 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
9. There is a sufficient friction between object A & B (of same mass) to avoid any sipping between
them and ground is smooth
List – I List – II
(System) (Net force on object A)
(P) (1) 2
Solid A F
sphere 9
B F
(Q) (2) 7
Solid A F F
sphere 9
(R) (3) F
A
2
B F
(S) (4) F
B F
4
Solid A
cylinder
(5) 3F
4
(A) (P) (3), (Q) (1), (R) (1), (S) (4)
(B) (P) (2), (Q) (3), (R) (4), (S) (1)
(C) (P) (1), (Q) (2), (R) (3), (S) (4)
(D) (P) (4), (Q) (1), (R) (2), (S) (3)
10. An autotransformer consists of a single coil with a ferromagnetic core. Three connections are
provided. Between connections T1 and T2 there are 200 turns and between T2 and T3 there are
800 turns. Any two connections can be used as primary and any two can be used as secondary.
List – I List – II
(P) Vsecondary (1) 0.8
For setup transformer maximum value of
Vprimary
(Q) Vsecondary (2) 0.2
For stepdown transformer maximum value of
Vprimary
(R) Vsecondary (3) 1.25
For step up transformer minimum value of
Vprimary
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6
11. In a List-l certain graph(s) are shown which depict the situation shown in List II
List – I List – II
(P) (1) uniformly charged sphere, distance from
centre = x, potential = y
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.
12. Electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as E = C1 (C2 + C3 cos ωt)
cos ω0t, here C1, C2 and C3 are constants, is incident on lithium and liberates photoelectrons. If
the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 2.6 eV, the work function of lithium is (in eV).
15 14 ̶ 34
[Take: ω0 = 2.4 π x 10 rad/sec and ω = 8π x 10 rad/sec planks constant h = 6.6 x 10 MKS].
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7 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
13. Bacteria can be knocked out in the presence of radiation from green kryptonite, which has a very
long half-life. If 150 g of it can knock out the bacteria in just 1.5 minutes, how long can the
bacteria withstand the radiation if there is 4.5 kg of slab of green kryptonite? Assume that
kryptonite obeys radioactive obeys radioactive decay law. Express your answer in power of 10 ̶ 2
minutes.
14. Two parallel conducting rails are connected to a source of emf E and
internal resistance r. Another conducting rod of length having
negligible resistance lies at rest and can slide without friction over the
rails. At t = 0, the rod is pulled along the rails by applying a force F.
The velocity of the rod is observed to be v = v0
cos (ωt) then find the power (in watt) spent by the forcer over 1 cycle.
(Given B = 2 Tesla, r = 2 x 10 Ω, v0 = 2 ms , = 1cm)
̶4 ̶1
st
15. In a pipe open at two ends a diatomic gas is oscillating in 1 harmonic. The length of the tube is π
m and the maximum pressure variation is 1.4 Pa. The maximum displacement of gas particles
̶6 5
which are a distance of m from one end is x x 10 m. The value of x is: (Take 1 atm = 10 Pa)
3
17. Two identical metal balls connected at the ends of a light spring of force constant k from a
dumbbell like structure. The dumbbell rests on a frictionless horizontal floor and the third identical
ball is placed at distance l from the right ball of the dumbbell. All the three balls are in a line A
fourth identical ball moving with velocity u collides with left ball of the dumbbell. If all collisions are
m
elastic and the rightmost ball acquires a velocity u. The minimum value of l is u . Find
xk
x____.
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
18. An aromatic dibasic acid anhydride on reaction with benzene in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
gives a compound A. The compound A on treatment with PCl5 followed by reaction with H2 and
Rosenmund catalyst gives compound B. Compound B reacts with hydrazine in slightly acidic
conditions to give a cyclized product C, (C14H10N2). Which of the following is/are correct
statement(s)?
O COOH
(A) The compound ‘A’ is
Ph
Ph
(B) The compound ‘C’ is
N
N
O COCl
(C) The compound 'B’ is
Ph
Ph
19. Which of the following reactions correctly matched with major product?
HCl Cl
H3C
H3C
O
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9 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
O
MeOH PhCHO
HO
H+
'A' H+
'B'
HO
OH
HO
OH
O
(A) The compound ‘A’ is HO
HO
OH
OMe
OH
O
(B) The compound ‘A’ is HO OMe
HO
OH
Ph O
O O
(C) The compound ‘B’ is
HO
OH
OMe
OH
O
(D) The compound ‘B’ is O OMe
O
OH
Ph
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
21. Which statement is/are most likely to be correct about astatine, At?
(A) AgAt(s) reacts with excess of dilute aqueous ammonia to form a solution of a soluble
complex.
(B) At2 and KCl (aq.) react to form KAt (aq.) and Cl2.
(C) KAt (aq.) and dil. H2SO4 react to form white fumes of HAt(g).
(D) NaAt(s) and conc. H2SO4 acid react to form At2.
22. Two liquids X and Y form are ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing
1 mole of X and 3 mole of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mole of Y is further
added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure
(in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be respectively.
(A) 200 and 300 (B) 300 and 400
(C) 400 and 600 (D) 500 and 600
23. The number of species having symmetrical electron distribution in their HOMO and paramagnetic
in nature are_
2 2 2
(A) O2 , B2 , C2 , N 2 (B) O2 , B2 , N 2 , He
2 2
(C) CN , He , C2 , NO (D) C2 , N 2 , CN , He
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10
N CH3
H3C
O CH3
NH2
(B) O
N CH3
O
CH3
H3C
O
NH2
(C) O
CH3
O
H3C N
O
H3C
NO 2
(D) O
H 2N CH3
O
HO
SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
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11 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
(5) r vs A order 1
(A) (P) (2); (Q) (2), (4); (R) (3), (4); (S) (5)
(B) (P) (1); (Q) (2), (4); (R) (3); (S) (5)
(C) (P) (1); (Q) (2) (4); (R) (1), (3); (S) (1), (5)
(D) (P) (3); (Q) (4); (R) (5), (3); (S) (1), (2)
27. Matrix Match Type
List-I List-II
(P) Ligands that cannot produce synergic bonding (1) NMe3
(Q) Species, which can act as an ambidentate (2) CN–
ligand
(R) Species, which have the ability to form synergic (3) PR3
*
bonding due to vacant M. O.
(S) Species, which can act as chelating ligand (4) Glycinate
(5) CO
(A) (P) (3); (Q) (1); (R) (2), (5); (S) (4)
(B) (P) (1), (4); (Q) (2); (R) (2), (5); (S) (4)
(C) (P) (3), (1); (Q) (4); (R) (1); (S) (5)
(D) (P) (1), (4); (Q) (2); (R) (3); (S) (2)
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 12
(A) (P) (2), (5); (Q) (3); (R) (3); (S) (4)
(B) (P) (3), (5); (Q) (4), (5); (R) (2); (S) (1), (3)
(C) (P) (3), (4); (Q) (2), (3); (R) (4); (S) (1), (5)
(D) (P) (2), (5); (Q) (2), (3); (R) (4); (S) (1), (4)
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.
29. Calculate the number of chemical entities given below, in which central atom has d x2 y 2 orbital in
hybridized state?
3 2
Cr NH 3 6 , XeF5 , Ni CO 4 , Ni CN 4 , Cr2O72 , IF5 , Pt Br 2 en. , SF4 ,
Ni dmg 2 , Fe CO 5
30. How many of the following metallurgical process are matched correctly:
(1) Matte 98% Cu S 2% FeS 2
(2) Van Arkel method Purification of metals like Ti and Zr.
(3) Poling Purification of metal containing impurity of oxide of same
metal.
(4) Leaching Chemical method of concentration of ores like Au and
Ag.
(5) Froth floatation Argentite, copper pyrite
(6) Electro refining of aluminium Electrolyte is molten alumina mixed with cryolite and
AlCl3
(7) Blister copper Purest form of copper
(8) Electrolytic reduction for Mg Electrolysis of mixture of 4:1 ratio of MgCl2(aq.) &
NaCl(aq.).
(9) Blast furnace in extraction of Zone of heat absorption is at temperature around 1800K
Iron
(10) Cyanide process Extraction of silver ore to obtain crude Ag in absence of
air.
31. Fe7 S8 is an iron sulphide containing iron as Fe2 and Fe3 . If the percentage of cation
vacancies relative to Fe 2 ions present initially (as ideal crystal of FeS) is ‘a’. Then the value of
‘2a’ is___.
32. The solubility of SO2 in water at 298K is 1.5 mol/ltr, when pressure of SO2 over water is 1 atm.
On a certain day the average concentration of SO2 in the atmosphere is 10 ppm at an average
temperature of 298K. the pKa of H2SO3 is 2, then the pH of rainwater on that day is ‘x’. The
value of 100x is____.
(Given: If 1 is greater than 0.90, consider it 1 and ignore 2 for H2SO3, log2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)
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13 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
, ,
CH3 D
C C C C
H3 C D
Cl
H
+
N CH3 N
H3C Et , H N , H3C Et
H H
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 14
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
35. Let X be a square matrix of order 4 such that 16X4 96X3 + 216X2 + 81I = O and det(X) = 16,
then which of the following can be true?
(A) det adj 2I 3X 1 36
(B) adj adjX 28.X
(C) adj adj adjX 2 .X 28 1
(D) det adj 2I 3X 1 212
36. The position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of a tetrahedron ABCD are i j k,iand3i
respectively. The altitude form vertex D to the opposite face ABC meets the median line through
A of the triangle ABC at a point E. If the length of edge AD is 4 units and volume of tetrahedron is
2 2
units, then the possible position vectors (s) of point E is/are
3
(A) i 3j 3k (B) 2j 2k
(C) 3i j k (D) 3i j k
2
dy 2 dy
x y xy 0 represents (C1, C2 are
2
37. The solution of the differential equation xy
dx
dx
constant of integration)
(A) x 2
y2 C1 2x 2 3y2 C2 0
(B) xy C1 x 2 y2 C2 0
(C) A conic with eccentricity 2
(D) A circle and an ellipse
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
1 1 1 1 1 1
38. Let P = cos sin2 cos3 sin4 sin6 cos7 ...
2 4 8 16 64 128
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Q = 1 sin cos2 sin3 cos 4 sin5 sin6 cos7 ... So that
2 4 8 16 32 64 128
P 2 2
, then number of possible values of in interval 3 ,3 is equal to
Q 7
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 12 (D) 18
39. The number of order pairs (a, b) of integers such that logab + 6 logba = 5, 2 a 2021 and
2 b 2021 , is equal to
(A) 43 (B) 47
(C) 54 (D) 57
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15 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
n n
40. If k where k, n N; then C 2k is equal to (assume P C q = 0 if p < q)
2
n n
r n n r n r
(A) 1 . C . C r 2k (B) 1 . C . C r 2k .3nr
r0 r 0
n n
n r 2k n r r 3k
(C) Cr .r C2k .3nr. 2 (D) n
Cr .r C 3k . 3 . 1
r0 r 0
SECTION – A
(Matching List Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Type Questions. Each question has FOUR statements in
List-I entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and FIVE statements in List-II entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). The
codes for lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
answer.
value of iz z0 is
(S) 1 (4) 2
If a complex z lies on a circle of radius ,
2
then the complex number 1 4z lies on
a circle radius
(5) 1
(A) (P) 4; (Q) 5; (R) 1; (S) 5 (B) (P) 3; (Q) 1; (R) 2; (S) 4
(C) (P) 4; (Q) 1; (R) 1; (S) 5 (D) (P) 3; (Q) 5; (R) 2; (S) 4
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AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 16
(R) (3) 3
2
x cos x sinx tan1
4
0 x2 sinx dx is equal to
(S) 1 3
x (4) 2 3
3
dx is less than or equal
1 1 x 3 1 x 18
to
(5) 3
3
(A) (P) 4; (Q) 4; (R) 3; (S) 4 (B) (P) 4; (Q) 2; (R) 3; (S) 2
(C) (P) 5; (Q) 2; (R) 1; (S) 4 (D) (P) 5; (Q) 4; (R) 1; (S) 2
f(x) =
x 1 is
x x 3 x2 x 1
4
(R) (3) 1
Let f(x) = ab sin x + 1 a2 cosx + c, where
|a|, |b|< 1, then the maximum difference of
maximum and minimum value of f(x) is
(S) (4) 2
If u = 4 cos2 sin2 4 sin2 cos2 , then
the difference between maximum and
minimum value of u2 is
(5) 0
(A) (P) 2; (Q) 1; (R) 4; (S) 3 (B) (P) 3; (Q) 5; (R) 3; (S) 4
(C) (P) 2; (Q) 5; (R) 4; (S) 3 (D) (P) 3; (Q) 1; (R) 3; (S) 4
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17 AITS-FT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024
2y 1 2
6x is
3 2
2 1
2 1 2 k
then k =
(S) If the area bounded by the graph of y = (4) 4
1
xe ax (a > 0) and the abscissa axis is then
9
the value of a is
(5) 3
(A) (P) 4; (Q) 3; (R) 4; (S) 2 (B) (P) 3; (Q) 2; (R) 1; (S) 5
(C) (P) 4; (Q) 2; (R) 4; (S) 5 (D) (P) 3; (Q) 3; (R) 1; (S) 2
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.
46. If there exist a chord a parabola y = ax 2 + bx, a, b R,a 0,b 0 , such that the end points of the
chord are (p, q) and (q, p) for some p, q R and p q then the least possible positive integral
value of b is
3 3 3
47. The number of solutions of the equation x [x ] x [x] where [x] denotes the greatest integer
less that than or equal to x, [1, 10) is
99
n 1
10 n
1
48. If S = 99
then the value of S is
S
n 1
10 n
n cos 2.31. o
n cos 3.2 1
49. Let an = where α = 18 and bn where β = 36o then the value
1 sin 3 1 cos 2
of a2021 + b2020 is
50. The number of ordered quadruples of real numbers (a, b, c, d) such that
1 1 1 1
a 2b, b 2c,c 2 dand d 2a is___
a b c d
51. In a 8 x 8 chess board, let P be the probability of selecting two squares such that a white queen
and a black knight can be placed there in non attacking position. The value of 36 P is (Note:
Queen can attack in the same row, column and diagonally. A knight can attack by moving 2
squares horizontally and one square vertically and vice- verse in a single move)
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