FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA

UNIVERSITY

FINAL COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR 2020-2021

FCE for three programs under Business Administration

department will be done from 70 questions. Students will be
provided with a pool of multiple-choice questions and the
topics for the open questions. The exam will contain fields
taken as compulsory courses during the education.

PROGRAM OF BUSINESS INFORMATICS

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Economics (Introduction to Economics I & Introduction to

Economics II)

1. The central problem in economics is that of:

a. comparing the success of command versus market
economies
b. guaranteeing that production occurs in the most efficient
manner
c. guaranteeing a minimum level of income for every citizen
d. allocating scarce resources in such a manner that society's
unlimited needs or wants are satisfied as well as possible

2. In a free-market economy the allocation of resources is

determined by
a. votes taken by consumers.
b. a central planning authority
c. By consumer preferences

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d. the level of profits of firms

3. What are the three problems of societies have to solve?

a. What, how and where is produced?
b. What, how and for you is produced?
c. Why, what and how is produced?
d. What, how is produced and for whom it will be produced?

4. Which of the following shows the relationship between the price

of a good and the amount of that good that consumers want at that
price?
a. supply curve
b. demand curve
c. supply schedule
d. production possibilities frontier

5. Which of the following is not a determinant of demand for good

X?
a. Average income.
b. input prices
c. Tastes and preferences.
d. Price of good X.

6. Which of the following factors will cause the supply curve to

shift?
a. Changes in technology.
b. Changes in input prices.
c. Changes in the prices of related goods.
d. All

7. Other things held equal, if demand increases, equilibrium price

will __________ and equilibrium quantity will __________.

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However, if supply increases, equilibrium price will _________ and

equilibrium quantity will ________, other things held equal.
a. decrease; decrease; increase; increase
b. increase; increase; decrease; increase
c. decrease; decrease; increase; decrease
d. increase; increase; decrease; decrease

8. Which of the following situations leads to a lower equilibrium

price?
a. A decrease in demand accompanied by an increase in supply
b. A decrease in supply accompanied by an increase in demand
c. A decrease in supply, without a change in demand
d. An increase in demand, without a change in supply

9. When the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than

the percentage change in price:
a. There is little responsiveness in quantity demanded to changes in
price.
a. There are few substitutes for the good in question.
b. The demand curve is relatively steep.
c. The value of demand elasticity is greater than one.
d. All of the above.

10. We get fewer and fewer additional units as we add more and
more units of the inputs to production process. We call this fact the:

a. law of diminishing marginal utility.

b. law of diminishing returns.
c. law of supply.
d. law of demand.
11.______ means that as inputs are added to the production process,
output increases proportionally.

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a. constant returns to scale

b. decreasing returns to scale
c. economies of scale
d. increasing returns to scale.

12. The cost of producing 5 units is $567. The cost of producing 6

units is $768. The marginal cost of producing the sixth unit is:

a. $128
b. $113
c. $201
d. $768

13. Which of the following formulas is correct?

a. AVC = (TC-FC)/Q
b. AVC = FC/Q
c. AVC = TC/Q
d. AVC = (MC*Q-FC)/Q

14. When marginal cost is above average cost, average cost is

_______. Marginal cost will cross average cost at the point where:
_______.
a. decreasing; average cost is at its minimum
b. increasing; average cost is at its maximum
c. increasing; average cost is at its minimum
d. decreasing; average cost is at its maximum
15. Using three units of labor, the firm can produce 1500 units of the
good. Using four units of labor, the firm can produce 2400 units of
the good. What is the average product of the fourth unit of labor?
a. 400

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b. 450
c. 500
d. 600

16. Which of the following fits the definition of GDP?

a. The value of all final goods and services produced
within a given period.
b. The market value of a country’s output.
c. The value of output produced by factors of
production located within a country.
d. The market value of all final goods and services
produced within a given period in a country.

17. An increase of 10% in nominal GDP indicates that:

a. Both real GDP and the price level could have
contributed to that increase.
b. The aggregate price level has increased by 10%.
c. Real output and the aggregate price level have
increased by 5% each.
d. Real output has increased by 10%.

18. Which of the following is a measure of the overall price

level?
a. Nominal GDP.
b. The GDP deflator.
c. The inflation rate.
d. Real GDP.
19. In 2003, the consumer price index (CPI) was 184.0. In
2004, the CPI rose to 188.9. Using these CPI figures, what was
the rate of inflation between these two years?
a. 188.9%.
b. 2.66%.

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c. 2.59%.
d. 4.9%.
20. GDP=
a. C+I+G
b. C+G+X
c. C+I+G+X
d. none of the above
21. Perfect competition is found when:
a. A large number of firms produce slightly
differentiated products.
b. A single firm produces the entire output of an
industry.
c. No firm is large enough to affect the market
price.
d. An industry is dominated by few firms.

22. The zero-profit point will occur where:

a. MC=P
b. MC=MU
c. AC=P
d. AC=MP

23. In monopolistic competition there is/are:

a. Many sellers who each face a downward, sloping
demand curve.
b. A few sellers who each face a downward, sloping
demand curve.
c. Only one seller who faces a downward, sloping
demand curve.
d. Many sellers who each face a perfectly elastic
demand curve.

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24. If a perfectly competitive firm cannot avoid economic

losses, it should continue to operate in the short run as long as
a. price exceeds average variable cost
b. price exceeds average total cost
c. the market price exceeds average total cost
d. marginal revenue exceeds average fixed cost

25. Suppose, in 2010, you purchased a house built in 2003.

Which of the following would be included in the gross
domestic product for 2010?
a. the value of the house in 2010
b. the value of the house in 2003
c. the value of the house in 2010 minus depreciation
d. the value of the services of the real estate agent

26. Equilibrium output can be found arithmetically at the level

where GDP equals ____________.
a. output
b. planned consumption
c. planned spending
d. planned savings
27. If the economy would produce just two products:
Tomatoes at a level of 2000 kg at price $1.00 and Ketchup of
300 kg at $4.00. Assume one half of the tomatoes are used in
making the ketchup and the other half of the tomatoes are
purchased by households. Nominal GDP is?
a. 3400
b. 2200
c. 3000
d. 3200

28. The Central Bank:

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a. Distributes coin and currency.

b. Operates a nation-wide payments system.
c. Supervises and regulates banks in its district.
d. does all of the above

29.If nominal GDP was $360 (billion) in 2012 and if the price
level rose by 20 percent from 2010 to 2012, then the 2012
GDP, measured in 2010 prices, was (in billions):
a. a.$300
b. b.$320
c. c.$340
d. d.$360
30. What happens to export and import of that country, if
domestic currency appreciates?
a. export rises, import falls
b. export falls, import rises
c. both export and import rise
d. both export and import fall

Statistics (Statistics I, Statistics II)

1. Quantitative data refers to data obtained with a(n)
a) ordinal scale
b) nominal scale
c) either interval or ratio scale
d) only interval scale

2. The scale of measurement that has an inherent zero value

defined is the
a) ratio scale
b) nominal scale

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c) ordinal scale
d) interval scale

3. A characteristic of interest for the elements is called a(n)

a) sample
b) data set
c) variable
d) None of these alternatives is correct.

4. Statistical studies in which researchers do not control

variables of interest are
a) experimental studies
b) uncontrolled experimental studies
c) not of any value
d) observational studies

5. Statistical inference
a) refers to the process of drawing inferences about the sample based on the
characteristics of the population
b) is the same as Data and Statistics
c) is the process of drawing inferences about the population based on the
information taken from the sample
d) is the same as a census

The following information regarding the top eight

Fortune 500 companies was presented in an issue of
Fortune Magazine.

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Sales Sales Profits Profits

Company $ Millions Rank $ Rank
General Motors 161,315 1 2,956
Millions 30
Ford Motor 144,416 2 22,071 2
Wal-Mart Stores 139,208 3 4,430 14
Exxon 100,697 4 6,370 5
General Electric 100,469 5 9,269 3
Int'l Business 81,667 6 6,328 6
Citigroup
Machines 76,431 7 5,807 8
Philip Morris 57,813 8 5,372 9
Boeing 56,154 9 1,120 82
AT&T 53,588 10 6,398 4

6. The measurement scale used for each variable (in order

starting from left to right) is:
a) nominal, ratio, ratio, ordinal, ordinal
b) interval, order, ratio, ratio, nominal
c) nominal, ratio, ordinal, ratio, ordinal
d) nominal, interval, ordinal, ratio, ratio

7. In a cumulative frequency distribution, the last class

will always have a cumulative frequency equal to:
a) One
b) 100%
c) The total number of elements in the data set
d) None of these alternatives is correct

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Exhibit 2-3: Michael's Compute-All, a national

computer retailer, has kept a record of the number of
laptop computers they have sold for a period of 80
days. Their sales records are shown below:
Number of Laptops Sold Number of Days
0 - 19 5
20 - 39 15
40 - 59 30
60 - 79 20
80 - 99 10
Total 80

8. Refer to Exhibit 2-3. The class width of the above

distribution is:
a) 0 to 100
b) 20
c) 80
d) 5
9. Refer to Exhibit 2-3. If one develops a cumulative
frequency distribution for the above data, the last class will
have a frequency of:
a) 10
b) 100
c) 0 to 100
d) 80

10. Refer to Exhibit 2-3. The number of days in which the

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company sold less than 60 laptops is:

a) 20
b) 30
c) 50
d) 60

11. Refer to Exhibit 2-3. The percentage of days in which the

company sold at least 40 laptops is
a) 37.5%
b) 62.5%
c) 90.0%
d) 75.0%

12. Below you are given the examination scores of 20 students

52 99 92 86 84
63 72 76 95 88
92 58 65 79 80
90
75 74 56 99
The relative frequency of students that scored between 80 and
89 is:
a) 0.15
b) 0.20
c) 0.25
d) 0.30

Exhibit 2-4: A sample of 15 children shows their favorite

restaurant
McDonalds Luppi's Mellow Mushroom

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Friday's McDonalds McDonalds

Pizza Hut Taco Bell McDonalds
Mellow Mushroom Luppi's Pizza Hut
McDonalds Friday's McDonalds

13. Refer to Exhibit 2-4. The frequency distribution for these

data is:
a) McDonalds 4, Friday’s 3, Pizza Hut 1, Mellow Mushroom 4,
Luppi’s 3, Taco Bell 1
b) McDonalds 6, Friday’s 2, Pizza Hut 2, MellowMushroom 2,
Luppi’s 2, TacoBell 1
c) McDonalds 6, Friday’s 1, Pizza Hut 3, Mellow Mushroom 1,
Luppi’s 2, Taco Bell 2
d) McDonalds 2, Friday’s 6, Pizza Hut 3, Mellow Mushroom 1,
Luppi’s 2, Taco Bell 2

14. When the smallest and largest percentage of items are removed
from a data set and the mean is computed, the mean of the
remaining data is
a) the median
b) the mode
c) the trimmed mean
d) any of the above

15. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a) mode
b) standard deviation
c) range

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d) interquartile range

16. What type of error occurs if you fail to reject H0 when, in

fact, it is not true?
a. Type II
b. Type I
c. either Type I or Type II, depending on the level of significance
d. either Type I or Type II, depending on whether the test is one
tail or two tail

17. The p-value is a probability that measures the support (or lack
of support) for the
a. null hypothesis
b. alternative hypothesis
c. either the null or the alternative hypothesis
d. sample statistic

18. For a lower bounds one-tailed test, the test statistic z is

determined to be zero. The p-value for this test is
a. zero
b. -0.5
c. +0.5
d. 1.00

19. For a two-tailed test at 86.12% confidence, Z =

a. 1.96
b. 1.48
c. 1.09
d. 0.86

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20. A two-tailed test is performed at 95% confidence. The p-value

is determined to be 0.09. The null hypothesis
a. must be rejected
b. should not be rejected
c. could be rejected, depending on the sample size
d. has been designed incorrectly

21. The average manufacturing work week in metropolitan

Chattanooga was 40.1 hours last year. It is believed that the
recession has led to a reduction in the average work week.
To test the validity of this belief, the hypotheses are
a. H0: μ < 40.1 Ha: μ ≥ 40.1
b. H0: μ ≥ 40.1 Ha: μ < 40.1
c. H0: μ > 40.1 Ha: μ ≤ 40.1
d. H0: μ = 40.1 Ha: μ ≠ 40.1

22. The academic planner of a university thinks that at least 35%

of the entire student body attends summer school.
The correct set of hypotheses to test his belief is
a. H0: P > 0.35 Ha: P ≥ 0.35
b. H0: P ≤ 0.35 Ha: P > 0.35
c. H0: P ≥ 0.35 Ha: P < 0.35
d. H0: P > 0.35 Ha: P ≤ 0.35
Exhibit 9-1 n = 36 𝑥 = 24.6 S = 12 H0: μ ≤ 20 Ha: μ > 20

23. Refer to exhibit 9.1 the test statistic is

a. 2.3
b. 0.38

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c. -2.3
d. -0.38

24. Refer to exhibit 9.1 the p-value in between is

a. 0.005 to 0.01
b. 0.01 to 0.025
c. 0.025 to 0.05
d. 0.05 to 0.10

Exhibit 9-8
The average gasoline price of one of the major oil companies in
Europe has been $1.25 per liter. Recently, the company has
undertaken several efficiency measures in order to reduce
prices. Management is interested in determining whether their
efficiency measures have actually reduced prices. A random
sample of 49 of their gas stations is selected and the average
price is determined to be $1.20 per liter. Furthermore, assume
that the standard deviation of the population (σ) is $0.14.

25. Refer to Exhibit 9-8. The standard error has a value of

a. 0.14
b. 7
c. 2.5
d. 0.02

26. Refer to Exhibit 9-8. The value of the test statistic for this
hypothesis test is
a. 1.96
b. 1.645

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c. -2.5
d. -1.645

27. Refer to Exhibit 9-8. The p-value for this problem is

a. 0.4938
b. 0.0062
c. 0.0124
d. 0.05
28. If we are interested in testing whether the mean of items in
population 1 is larger than the mean of items in population 2, the
a. null hypothesis should state μ1 - μ2 < 0
b. null hypothesis should state μ1 - μ2 > 0
c. alternative hypothesis should state μ1 - μ2 > 0
d. alternative hypothesis should state μ1 - μ2 < 0

29. Independent simple random samples are taken to test the

difference between the means of two populations whose variances
are not known, but are assumed to be equal. The sample sizes are
n1 = 32 and n2 = 40. The correct distribution to use is the
a. t distribution with 73 degrees of freedom
b. t distribution with 72 degrees of freedom
c. t distribution with 71 degrees of freedom
d. t distribution with 70 degrees of freedom

30. In the analysis of variance procedure (ANOVA), "factor" refers to

a. the dependent variable
b. the independent variable

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c. the level of confidence

d. the critical value of F

General Business (Introduction to Business, Management

and Organization)

1. In 2016, Microsoft announced that it would buy LinkedIn

for $26.2 billion, in an all cash deal, making it the 6th largest
deal if its kind on record. This is an example of:

a. a hostile takeover
b. an acquisition
c. a partnership
d. a licensing agreement

2.Partnerships have several advantages over sole

proprietorships including:

a. partners are provided with certain marketing

materials and support including training.
b. the partners are not liable for business debts.
c. partnerships are significantly less likely to fail
than sole proprietorships.
d. the partners bring diverse skills and perspectives.

3. Which of the following is a legal entity completely separate

from the entities who own it?

a. sole proprietorship
b. limited liability partnership

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c. corporation
d. general partnership

4. A general partnership:
a. assumes profit, liability and management duties
are divided equally among partners.
b. is similar to a corporation because the business
has to pay corporate taxes.
c. requires one partner to manage the business (a
general manager) and other partners contribute
skills and financing to support the business.
d. a board of directors resolves disputes among the
partners.

5. Which of these alternatives does not classify a company

according to their function:
a. Manufacturing companies
b. Small and Medium Enterprises
c. Service companies
d. Marketing and Retail Companies

6.There are many ways that a business can reach the global
market, the most intensive approach is through:

a. Licensing Agreement.
b. Franchise Agreement.
c. exporting goods.
d. Foreign Direct Investment.

7. In your country rubber trees are abundant and you can

trade them very profitably for technology products,

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which you cannot produce profitably in your country.

Your abundant rubber trees give you:
a. absolute advantage.
b. economies of scale.
c. a stable economy.
d. a comparative advantage

8. The point of a business cycle fluctuation during which

growth slows, unemployment increases, and pricing
pressures subside is called a(n):
a. expansion.
b. contraction
c. peak.
d. trough.

9. When more goods and services are imported than

exported it is known as a:
a. Trade surplus
b. Balance of trade
c. Trade Imbalance
d. Trade deficit

10. What does Gross Domestic Product measure?

a. Unemployment rate
b. Budget surplus
c. Value of goods and services produced by a
country
d. Budget deficit

11. You are employed by an automaker specializing in

electric cars. As a production line supervisor your technical
management skills will include:

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a. understanding self-awareness.
b. formulating strategies, objectives, and policies.
c. developing relationships with your team
members.
d. understanding electricity storage in batteries.

12. What is one of the benefits of specialization in labor?

a. Workers who specialize in certain tasks often
learn to produce more quickly and with higher
quality.
b. It allows workers to understand the overall
process of producing a product or service.
c. Employees working on a variety of tasks will find
that they are better at some than at others.
d. Specialization in labor leads to lower
employment costs.

13. In a functional structure, communication generally occurs

within each functional department and is transmitted
across departments through:

a. the CEO.
b. Chief Communication Officer.
c. team leads.
d. department heads.

14. An approach of open communication and collaborative

decision making suggests which type of leadership?

a. autocratic leadership
b. laissez-faire leadership
c. democratic leadership

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d. delegative leadership

15. The first three steps in the controlling process include:

a. comparing performance to standards; setting

standards; taking corrective action.
b. measuring performance; taking corrective action;
revising performance standards.
c. reviewing current processes, comparing
processes to industry benchmarks, taking
corrective action.
d. setting standards; measuring performance;
comparing performance to standards.

16. The organizing function of managers involves:

a. not allocating resources needed to perform

assigned activities.
b. assigning activities identified in the planning
process to some person, team or department.
c. determining strategic priorities for the
organization as a whole.
d. determining how to most effectively utilize
financial resources.

17. Humans need to feel a sense of belonging and

acceptance, whether it comes from a large group or a
small network of family and friends. Maslow labeled this
as
a. Social needs.
b. Self-esteem needs
c. Self-actualization.

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d. Safety needs.

18. When a need is met, Maslow argues that

a. Self-esteem will become more important.

b. Self-actualization will become more important.
c. Social needs become more important.
d. it will no longer serve a motivating function.

19.Involuntary termination is:

a. resigning from your job—the employee quits the

job.
b. resigning from your job in order to start working
a different job.
c. being put on leave pending an internal or
external investigation.
d. losing your job—the employer fires the
employee.

20. Today is Jerry’s first day at his new job as a cashier at

the local grocery store. When he arrives in the morning
one of his new colleagues explains that Jerry will spend
some time watching his colleague use the cash register
while the colleague explains what he is doing. Then,
after break time, it will be Jerry’s turn to start acting as
cashier, with his colleague right next to him to show him
how to use the machine properly and conduct
transactions with customers. Once he feels confident and
learns this new skill, Jerry will be able to operate the
cash register on his own. This is an example of:
a. on-the-job training.

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b. off-the-job training.
c. professional development.
d. personal development.

21.________ is the process of identifying suitable

candidates and encouraging them to apply for job
openings in the organization.

a. Firing
b. Recruiting
c. Training
d. Hiring

22. The ________ is a system of organizations, people,

activities, information, and resources involved in moving
a product or service from supplier to customer.

a. retail channel
b. wholesale channel
c. supply chain
d. distribution channel

23. An airplane manufacturer assembles a plane in one

location and the workers and equipment go to the
airplane when they need to work on it. This is an
example of a ________.

a. cellular layout
b. product layout
c. process layout
d. fixed-position layout

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24. ________ is an inventory strategy that companies

employ to increase efficiency and decrease waste by
receiving goods only when they are needed in the
production process.
a. Just-in-time (JIT) inventory control
b. Material-requirements planning (MRP)
c. Product layout
d. Economic order quantity (EOQ)

25. Mass-produced products generally are:

a. Prepaid, unique projects

b. Produced only after ordered
c. Semi-produced and completed upon order
d. Held in inventory until sold

26. During the ________ of the product life cycle, companies

need to devote a significant marketing budget to create
broad awareness and educate the public about the new
product.

a. introduction stage
b. growth stage
c. maturity stage
d. decline stage

27. ________ play an important role as intermediaries acting

as a link in the distribution process to help move goods
between producers and retailers.

a. Agents
b. Retailers

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c. Direct distributors
d. Wholesalers

28. When consumers purchase products from amazon.com

or a bakery, it is an example of ________.

a. agent channel
b. direct channel
c. retail channel
d. indirect channel

29. Which of the following is not part of the marketing mix?

a. Price
b. Promotion
c. Popularity
d. Place

30. Accounting allows businesses to communicate

information about a company’s financial performance to
the following groups of users:

a. internal users, external users, and suppliers

b. consumers, suppliers, and the government
c. internal users, the government, and suppliers
d. internal users, external users, and the
government

31. Financial accountants:

a. provide information to external entities that
allows them to evaluate business performance.

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b. have a primary focus on providing managers

within the organization with reports to make good
business decisions.
c. summarize the company’s production activities
in a way that allows managers to make decisions.
d. work with government lobbyists to push for
more favorable accounting regulations.

32.The ________ provides a snapshot of the company’s

financial position at a specific point in time.

a. income statement
b. statement of cash flows
c. profit and loss statement
d. balance sheet

33. Alia, the manager of a pet store, notices that most of the
goods that come to her store are packed in high-quality
cardboard boxes which are later discarded. She comes up
with a plan and instructs her employees to use the cardboard
boxes for making scratching boards for cats. She then sells
the scratching boards at a price much lower than the other
branded versions available in the market. Which of the
following describes Alia’s planning?
a. Action oriented
b. Priority oriented
c. Advantage oriented
d. Change oriented

34. Tim places an online order for a smartphone. Instead, he is

shipped a dishwashing liquid from a brand named Bling by the

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seller. Tim posts this incident on a social networking site and

it is soon picked up by the media. Richard, the sales manager
of Bling, hears about this incident and plans to use it as an
opportunity for creating brand awareness of Bling products.
Accordingly, he makes arrangement to send Tim the
smartphone that he had originally ordered along with two
more bottles of Bling dishwashing liquid. When this news
reaches the media, people applaud Bling’s gesture and
Richard achieves his goal of creating brand awareness. Which
of the following plans did Richard use in the scenario?
a. Financial plan
b. Facilities plan
c. Tactical plan
d. Production plan

35. Sally, a manager at Purple Inc., has just been told that the
funds which were left unused in the previous year’s budget
will not carry over into the current year. Thus, Sally will most
likely have to use a __________.
a. project budget
b. flexible budget
c. fixed budget
d. zero-based budget

36. At Home Décor Inc., the production manager demands zero

defects on all raw materials received from its vendors.
Which of the following concepts does this scenario
illustrate?
a. Output standard
b. Feedback control
c. Input standard
d. Historical standard

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37. UPS carefully measures the routes and routines of its drivers
to establish the time expected for each delivery. When a
delivery manifest is scanned as completed, the driver’s time is
registered in an electronic performance log that is closely
monitored by supervisors. In this scenario, UPS uses
__________.
a. historical comparisons
b. engineering comparisons
c. local comparisons
d. relative comparisons

38. Which of the following scenarios illustrates concurrent

control?
a. Susan, the customer care manager in an
amusement park, actively seeks feedback
from visiting tourists.
b. Jean, the manager in a restaurant, ensures that
the vegetables used in cooking are organic.
c. Rebecca, the supervisor in a toy factory, gives
suggestions to workers when they look for
new designs.
d. Joshua, the stock manager in a steel factory,
checks every evening whether adequate
stocks are available for the next day’s
operations.

39. Your roommate wants to learn about organization charts.

You can tell her that an organization chart can tell you all of
the following about an organization EXCEPT its:
a. division of work.
b. formal structure.
c. reporting relationships.
d. control mechanisms.

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40. Community Bank Inc. currently operates with a functional

structure. A lack of communication across functional
departments has affected the performance of the employees.
This scenario illustrates the concept of:
a. matrix structure.
b. top-down structure.
c. functional chimneys.
d. cross-functional team.

41. Maria, the vice-president of operations at Choco Candy, Inc.

(CCI), plans to create new divisions of CCI in China, India,
and Malaysia. In this scenario, Maria develops a _______ for
CCI.
a. product structure
b. geographical structure
c. team structure
d. service structure

42. ABC Inc. uses information technology to connect with outside

suppliers and service contractors. In this scenario, which of
the following structures does ABC Inc. use?
a. A cross-functional structure
b. A matrix structure
c. A network structure
d. A horizontal structure

43. ABC and XYZ, two organizations in the same industry, have
come together to pursue areas of mutual interest. This scenario
exemplifies a(n):
a. unethical venture.
b. acquisition.
c. corporate takeover.
d. strategic alliance.

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44. Netflix turned movie rental into a subscription business; eBay

earns revenues by connecting users of its online marketplace;
Google thrives on advertising revenues driven by ever-expanding
Web technologies. These are all examples of __________.
a. process innovations
b. virtual innovations
c. business model innovations
d. green innovations

45. Gene pursues creative and innovative ways to solve social

problems. Hence, we can say that Gene participates in
__________.
a. social responsibility
b. social entrepreneurship
c. green innovation
d. commercializing innovation

46. If ABC, Inc. is focusing on a major and comprehensive

redirection of the company, it is called a(n) ___________
change.
a. innovative
b. planned
c. transformational
d. incremental

47. Jake is a change leader who is responsible for bringing

about a transformational change in his organization. He
forces resisters to accept change by threatening them with a
variety of undesirable consequences if they do not cooperate.
Which of the following approaches is used by Jake to deal
with the resistance to change?
a. Education and communication
b. Participation and involvement
c. Manipulation and cooptation
d. Explicit and implicit coercion

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48. Mary’s manager has told her that if she can complete her
project on time, she will get an extra bonus of $10,000.
Mary’s manager is using __________.
a. expert power
b. reward power
c. manipulative power
d. referent power

49. Jason, a manager, directs the efforts of others through tasks,

rewards, and structures. He uses the __________ approach
to leadership.
a. transformational
b. participative
c. human relations
d. transactional

50. Your manager says that he will refuse your request for the
weekend off to attend a concert unless you work the night
shift for the rest of the week. In this case, he is using
________.
a. legitimate power
b. reward power
c. expert power
d. coercive power

51. Susan, a manager at ABC International, focuses on

authority and obedience, delegates little, and acts in a
unilateral command-and-control fashion. Susan can be
described as a(n) __________.
a. democratic leader
b. human relations leader
c. laissez-faire leader
d. autocratic leader

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52. When Mira offers pay raises, bonuses, special assignments,

and compliments as incentives to her subordinates, she is
utilizing which of these?
a. Legitimate power
b. Expert power
c. Coercive power
d. Referent power
e. Reward power

53. According to the law of contingent reinforcement, to have

maximum reinforcement value, a reward must be
delivered only __________.
a. by an employee’s superior
b. if it is coupled with public recognition
c. if the employee receiving the reward is in the
presence of other coworkers
d. if it has a monetary value
e. if the desired behavior is exhibited

54. One of the rules for giving constructive feedback is

to make sure that it is always_______.
a. general rather than specific
b. indirect rather than direct
c. given in small doses
d. delivered at a time convenient for the sender

55. When a worker receives an e-mail memo from the

boss with information about changes to his job
assignment and ends up confused because he doesn’t
understand it, the boss has erred by making a bad
choice of ______________for communicating the
message.

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a. words
b. channels
c. nonverbal
d. filters

56. When dealing with proxemics as a silent language of

culture, what is the issue of most concern?
a. How people use the spoken word to communicate.
b. How people use nonverbal to communicate.
c. How people use time to communicate.
d. How people use space to communicate.

57. Pluralism and the absence of discrimination and

prejudice in policies and practices are two important
hallmarks of________________________.
a. the glass ceiling effect
b. a multicultural organization
c. quality circles
d. affirmative action

58. (Open Question) Improving Team Decisions

59. ( Open Question) Diversity

60. (Open Question) Job Design, Job Enrichment

Accounting and Finance (Introduction to Accounting,

Fundamentals of Corporate Finance)

1. Which of the following statements about users of

accounting information is incorrect?

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(a) Management is an internal user.

(b) Taxing authorities are external users.
(c) Present creditors are external users.
(d) Regulatory authorities are internal users.

2. Liabilities of a company would not include

accounts receivable.
accounts payable
notes payable
salaries and wages payable

3.All of the financial statements are for a period of

time except the
(a) income statement.
(b) statement of financial position.
(c) statement of cash flows.
(d) retained earnings statement.

4. The financial statement that reports assets, liabilities, and

equity is the:
(a) income statement.
(b) retained earnings statement.
(c) statement of financial position.
(d) statement of cash flows.

5. As of December 31, 2014, Stoneland Company has assets

of €3,500 and equity of €2,000. What are the liabilities for
Stoneland Company as of December 31,2014?
(a) €1,500.
(b) €1,000.
(c) €2,500.
(d) €2,000.

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6. Credits
increase both assets and liabilities.
decrease both assets and share capital.
increase liabilities and decrease assets.
decrease both assets and liabilities.

7. Accounts that normally have debit balances are:

(a) assets, expenses, and revenues.
(b) assets, expenses, and share capital—ordinary.
(c) assets, liabilities, and dividends.
(d) assets, dividends, and expenses.

8. Which of the following statements about a journal is false?

(a) It is not a book of original entry.
(b) It provides a chronological record of transactions.
(c) It helps to locate errors because the debit and credit
amounts for each entry can be readily compared.
(d) It discloses in one place the complete effect of a
transaction.

9. A ledger:
(a) contains only asset and liability accounts.
(b) should show accounts in alphabetical order.
(c) is a collection of the entire group of accounts
maintained by a company.
(d) is a book of original entry.

10. The purchase of supplies on account should result in:

(a) a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Cash.
(b) a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Supplies.
(c) a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Payable.

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(d) a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts

Receivable.

11. Posting:
(a) normally occurs before journalizing.
(b) transfers ledger transaction data to the journal.
(c) is an optional step in the recording process.
(d) transfers journal entries to ledger accounts.

12. Before posting a payment of €5,000, the Accounts

Payable of Senator Company had a normal balance of
€16,000. The balance after posting this transaction was:
(a) €21,000.
(b) €5,000.
(c) €11,000.
(d) Cannot be determined.

13. The trial balance of Clooney Corporation had accounts

with the following normal balances: Cash $5,000, Service
Revenue $85,000, Salaries and Wages Payable $4,000,
Salaries and Wages Expense $40,000, Rent Expense $10,000,
Share Capital— Ordinary $42,000, Dividends $15,000, and
Equipment $61,000. In preparing a trial balance, the total in
the debit column is:
(a) $131,000.
(b) $216,000.
(c) $91,000.
(d) $116,000.

14.The revenue recognition principle states that:

(a) revenue should be recognized in the accounting
period in which a performance obligation is satisfied.

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(b) expenses should be matched with revenues.

(c) the economic life of a business can be divided into
artificial time periods.
(d) the fiscal year should correspond with the calendar
year.

15. Adjusting entries are made to ensure that:

(a) expenses are recognized in the period in which they
are incurred.
(b) revenues are recorded in the period in which services
are provided.
(c) statement of financial position and income statement
accounts have correct balances at the end of an
accounting period.
(d) All the responses above are correct.

16. For a bond selling at face value, the following is

always true:
a. YTM > Cr
b. YTM = Cr
c. YTM < Cr
d. None of them

17. The receivables turnover is 10 times; accounts receivable is

$24,000; costs are $80,000, and Earnings before Taxes
(EBT) is -$20,000. The Operating Cash Flow for this
company are:
a. $140,000
b. $160,000
c. $180,000

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d. $200,000

18. If Current Ratio is 1.5 and Net Working Capital is $5,000;

then Current Assets are:
a. $5,000
b. $10,000
c. $15,000
d. $20,000

19. If Total Debt Ratio is 0.6; then the Equity Multiplier is:
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 4.5

20. What is your tax bill if you have a wage of 250,000 leke:

Taxable Income (leke) Tax Rate

0-30,000 0%
30,000-130,000 13%
Above 130,000 23%

a. 13,000
b. 27,600
c. 40,600
d. 50,600

21. You deposit $5,000 in Raiffeisen Bank. The bank pays you
8% simple interest. How much will you have after 15 years:
a. $3,000
b. $6,000

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c. $9,000
d. $11,000

22. You want to get a loan worth $200,000. In order to get this
loan, the bank requires you to have 20% of the loan’s value
in deposits. If, you currently have only 35,000$ in an
account that pays 10% interest, in how many years you can
get the loan?
a. 0.4 years
b. 1.4 years
c. 2.4 years
d. 3.4 years

23. You deposit $2,000 in BKT. If your account pays 6% for

the first year, 7% for the next year, and 8% for all
consecutive years, how much will you have after 10 years?
a. $2,198.65
b. $3,198.65
c. $4,198.65
d. $8,587.05

24. You will receive $1,000 in four years, $2,000 in five years
and $3,000 in six years. With an interest rate of 10%, what
is the present value of these cashflows (their value at year
0)?
a. $3,618.28
b. $4,618.28
c. $6,000
d. $6,618.28

25. Which of the following is the best investment option as a

depositor:

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a. 12 % compounded monthly
b. 12.3% compounded quarterly
c. 12.5 % compounded annually

26. The present value of a perpetuity making monthly

payments of $500 with an interest rate of 6% compounded
monthly is:
a. $8,333
b. $10,000
c. $83,333
d. $100,000

27. The current price of a zero-coupon bond with a YTM of

7% and 10 years to maturity is:
a. $499
b. $508
c. $614
d. $1082

28. (Open Question) Defining Accounting Equation

Accounts

29. Open Question) Journalising Transactions.

30 . (Open Question) Preparing Financial Statements.

Operations Management (Operations Management,

Operations Research)

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1) Operations Management is responsible for increasing

the organization’s efficiency, which means the company
will be able to __________.

a. add to the engineering process

b. take for granted current operations
c. increase the number of positions under the manager’s
position
d. eliminate activities that do not add value

2) The total of all outputs produced by the transformation

process divided by the total of the inputs is:
a. utilization.
b. greater in manufacturing than in services.
c. defined only for manufacturing firms.
d. multifactor productivity.

3) Which is NOT true regarding differences between

goods and services?
a. Services are generally produced and consumed
simultaneously; tangible goods are not.
b. Services tend to be more knowledge-based than goods.
c. Services tend to have a more inconsistent product
definition than goods.
d. Goods tend to have higher customer interaction than
services.

4) Maria's House of Pancakes uses four months moving

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average method to forecast pancake sales. If sales

amounted to 1500 pancakes in April1000 pancakes in
May, 2200 pancakes in June, and 3000 pancakes in July,
what should be the forecast for August?
a. 2400
b. 2511
c. 2067
d. 1925

5) Given forecast errors of -1, 5, 8, 1 and -3, what is the

mean absolute deviation?
a. 20
b. 3.6
c. 4
d. 8

6) Which of the following nets the largest productivity

improvement?
a. increase output 15%
b. decrease input 15%
c. increase both output and input by 5%
d. increase output 10%, decrease input 3%

7) Productivity can be improved by:

a. increasing inputs while holding outputs steady.
b. decreasing outputs while holding inputs steady.
c. increasing inputs and outputs in the same proportion.
d. decreasing inputs while holding outputs steady.

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8)Which of the following are among the 10 strategic

operations management decisions?
I. design of goods and services
II. managing quality
III. layout strategy
IV. marketing
V. pricing of goods and services

a. I, II, V
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, V
d. I, II, III

9) Operations management is applicable:

a. mostly to the service sector.
b. to services exclusively.
c. mostly to the manufacturing sector.
d. to all firms, whether manufacturing or service.

10) Which of the following are the primary functions of

all organizations?
a. production/operations, marketing, and human
resources
b. marketing, human resources, and finance/accounting
c. sales, quality control, and production/operations
d. marketing, production/operations, and
finance/accounting

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11) Which one of the following products is most likely

made in a job shop environment?
a. rolls of newsprint
b. customized furniture
c. television sets
d. cigarettes

12) A work system has five stations that have process

times of 5, 9, 4, 9, and 8. What is the throughput time of
the system?
a. 4
b. 9
c. 18
d. 35

13) An employee produces 15 parts during a shift in which

he made $60. What is the labor cost per unit of the
product?
a. $90
b. $5
c. $6
d. $4

14) A product-oriented layout would be MOST

appropriate for which one of the following businesses?
a. fast food
b. steel making

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c. insurance sales
d. clothing alterations

15) Process A has fixed costs of $1000 and variable costs

of $5 per unit. Process B has fixed costs of $500 and
variable costs of $15 per unit. What is the crossover point
between process A and process B?
a. 50 units
b. 200 units
c. $2,500
d. $5,000

16) Which of the following companies uses a mass

customization approach?
a. Dell
b. Harley Davidson
c. Frito-Lay
d. Arnold Palmer hospital

17) Break-even is the number of units at which:

a. total revenue equals price times quantity.
b. total revenue equals total cost.
c. total revenue equals total fixed cost.
d. total profit equals total cost.

18) A full-service restaurant is considering opening a new

facility in one of two new cities. The table below shows
its ratings of four factors at each of two potential sites.

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Factor Weight Gary Mall Belt Line

Affluence of local population .20 30 30
Traffic flow .40 50 20
Parking availability .20 30 40
Growth potential .20 10 30

The score for Gary Mall is ________

a. 120
b. 22
c. 18
d. 34

19) A fleet repair facility has the capacity to repair 800

trucks per month. However, due to scheduled maintenance
of their equipment, management feels that they can repair
no more than 600 trucks per month. Last month, two of
the employees were absent several days each, and only
400 trucks were repaired.
What is the utilization of the repair shop?
a. 86.4%
b. 95%
c. 80%
d. 50%

20) A product-focused process is commonly used to

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produce:
a. high-volume, high-variety products.
b. low-volume, high-variety products.
c. high-volume, low-variety products.
d, high-volume products of either high- or low-variety.

21) Frito-Lay is to ________ focus as Harley Davidson is

to ________ focus.
a. process; repetitive
b. product; repetitive
c. repetitive; product
d. process; product

22) Which of the statements below best describes office

layout?
a. positions workers, their equipment, and spaces/offices
to provide for movement of information
b. addresses the layout requirements of large, bulky
projects such as ships and buildings
c. seeks the best personnel and machine utilization in
repetitive or continuous production
d. allocates shelf space and responds to customer
behavior

23) Which of the following statements regarding fixed

costs is TRUE?
a. Fixed costs rise by a constant amount for every added
unit of volume.

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b. While fixed costs are ordinarily constant with respect

to volume, they can "step" upward if volume
increases result in additional fixed costs.
c. Fixed costs are those costs associated with direct labor
and materials.
d. Fixed costs equal variable costs at the break-even point.

24) A product has a demand of 4000 units per year.

Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per
year. Find the cost-minimizing solution for this product is
to order.
a.200
b.190
c.210
d. 400

25) For a given product demand, the time-series trend

equation is 53 + 4x. The positive sign on the slope of the
equation:
a. is an indication that product demand is increasing
b. is an indication that the forecast is biased, with forecast
values lower than actual values.
c. is an indication that product demand is declining.
d. implies that the coefficient of determination will also
be negative.

26) Standardization is an appropriate strategy in which

stage of the product life cycle?

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a. introduction
b. growth
c. maturity
d. decline

27) Process X has fixed costs of $10,000 and variable

costs of $2.40 per unit. Process Y has fixed costs of $9,000
and variable costs of $2.25 per unit. Which of the
following statements is TRUE?
a. The crossover point is approximately 6667 units.
b. It is impossible for one process to have both of its costs
lower than those of another process.
c. Process Y is cheaper than process X at all volumes.
d. Process X should be selected for very large production
volumes.

28. Linear programming involves the planning of

activities to obtain an optimal result.
a. True
b. False

29. Any problem whose mathematical model fits the very

general format for the linear programming model is a
linear programming problem.
a. True
b. False

30. A slack variable is added to the constraint functions to

convert them from greater or equal to less or equal than
right-side values.
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a. True
b. False

31. The tableau method applies straight away to the

minimization LP problems.
a. True
b. False

32. In the simplex tableau method, the pivot column

determines the variable IN, while the pivot row
determined the variable OUT.
a. True
b. False

33. Other alternative names of Operations Research include:

a. Management science
b. Decision analysis
c. Decision science
d. All the above

34. What is an optimal solution to a certain problem?

a. A solution to the model that maximizes or minimizes
some measure of merit over all feasible solutions.
b. A solution to the model that only maximizes some
measure of merit over all feasible solutions.
c. A solution to the model that only minimizes some
measure of merit over all feasible solutions.
d. None of the above

35. Which of the following is not a phase of the OR Problem

Solving Process?
a. Formulating the model

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b. Testing the model

c. Weekly scheduling
d. None of the above

36. The following should be taken in consideration when

constructing a model?
a. Problem must be translated from qualitative to
quantitative terms
b. Form a logical model with a series of rules
c. Define relationships between various factors of the
problem.
d. All the above

37. A solution for which all constraints are satisfied is called:

a. Infeasible solution
b. Feasible solution
c. Optimal solution
d. None of the above

38. A feasible solution that has the most favorable value of

the objective function is called:
a. Infeasible solution
b. Feasible solution
c. Optimal solution
d. None of the above

39. When defining a problem in OR, all the following should

be considered, EXCEPT:
a. Short run over long-run profit maximization
b. Long run over short-run profit maximization
c. Ensuring the appropriate objectives
d. Social responsibility to stakeholders

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Questions 20 – 23 apply to the following linear

programing problem:

40. X1 and X2 variables in the above model represent:

a. Constraints
b. Decision variables
c. Objective function
d. Profit variables

41. Equation Z = 10X1 + 20X2 in the above model represents:

a. Constraints
b. Decision variables
c. Objective function
d. Profit variables

42. Equation 5X1 + 3X2 ≤ 45 in the above model represents:

a. Constraint
b. Decision variables
c. Objective function
d. Profit variables

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43. What is the optimal solution in the following graphical

solution of an LP problem?

a. (0,0)
b. (0,10)
c. (10,20)
d. (25,0)

44. What is the optimal solution in the following graphical

solution of an LP problem?

a. (0,0)

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b. (0,5)
c. (2,4)
d. All points in the line between from (0,5) until (2,4)

45. What is the next step in solving the following problem by

Simplex Tableau Method, after adding the slack
variables?

a. Solution a

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b. Solution b

46. What is the dual form of the following LP problem?

a. Formulation a

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b. Formulation b

47. Given the following data, what is the correct formulation

of the linear programming model for this problem?

a. Formulation a

b. Formulation b

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Questions apply to the following transportation problem:

48. Which table represents the optimal solution through North

West Corner approach?
a. Table a

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b. Table b

49. What is the total cost of the optimal solution found in

Question 51?
a. 3900
b. 4700
c. 3500
d. 4500

50. Which table represents a better solution through Least

Cost Method?
a. Table a

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b. Table b

51. What is the total cost of the optimal solution found in

Question 53?
a. 3900
b. 4100
c. 4800
d. 4900

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52. Which transportation assignment method offers a better

transportation solution?
a. North West Corner approach
b. Least Cost Method

Questions apply to the following project management

problem:
Table: A sample set of Project Activities

Task/Activity Predecessor(s) Duration

(days)
A - 2
B - 3
C A 2
D B 5
E B 6
F C, D 5
G E 2

Given the above listed activities, how do you find the

following statements?
53. Activities A and B are independent; therefore, they can
start simultaneously.
a. True
b. False

54. Activity F may start without finishing Activities C and

D.
a. True
b. False

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55. What is the correct AON network of the above sampled

project?
a. Figure a

b. Figure b

56. (Open Questions) Linear Programming

57. (Open Questions) Linear Programming

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58. ( Open Question) 10 strategic decisions that

operations managers take
59. (Open Question) Productivity Measurement;
60. (Open Question) Quality Management.

Computer Engineering (Introduction to Algorithms and

Programming, Object Oriented Programming, Web
Technologies, Web Programming)
i. What is the printout of the second println statement in the
main method?

a. f2.i is 2 f2.s is 1
b. f2.i is 2 f2.s is 2
c. f2.i is 1 f2.s is 2
d. f2.i is 1 f2.s is 1

ii. To prevent a class from being instantiated, _____

i. donʹt use any modifiers on the constructor.

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ii. use the static modifier on the constructor.

iii. use the private modifier on the constructor.
iv. use the public modifier on the constructor

iii. What is displayed by the following code?

a. Welc me to Java
b. Welc me t Java
c. Welcome t Java
d. Welcome to Java

iv. The JDK command to compile a class in the file

Test.java is
a. java Test
b. java Test.java
c. JAVAC Test.java
d. javac Test
e. javac Test.java

v. Which of the following are correct ways to declare

variables? (Choose all that apply.)
a. int length, width;
b. int length; int width;
c. int length; width;
d. int length, int width;

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vi. What is y displayed in the following code?

a. y is 4.
b. y is 3.
c. y is 2.
d. y is 1

vii. Suppose income is 4001, what is the output of the

following code:

a. Income is greater than 3000

b. no output
c. Income is greater than 4000 followed by Income is greater
than 3000
d. Income is greater than 4000
e. Income is greater than 3000 followed by Income is greater
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than 4000

viii. Analyze the following statement:

a. The program compiles and runs fine.

b. The program has a compile error because the control variable
in the for loop cannot be of the double type.
c. The program has a compile error because the adjustment is
missing in the for loop.
d. The program runs in an infinite loop because d<10 would
always be true

9. (int)(Math.random() * (65535 + 1)) returns a random

number ________.
a. between 1 and 65535
b. between 0 and 65536
c. between 0 and 65535
d. between 1 and 65536

10.Analyze the following code

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a. The program has a runtime error because s

is not initialized, but it is referenced in the
println statement.
b. The program has a compilation error
because s is not initialized, but it is
referenced in the println statement.
c. The program compiles and runs fine.
d. The program has a runtime error because s
is null in the println statement.

11.What is y displayed?

a. y is 3.
b. y is 2.
c. y is 4.
d. y is 1

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12.Analyze the following code.

a) The code has a compile error because xMethod is

not declared static.
b) The code prints n is 3.
c) The code prints n is 1.
d) The code prints n is 2.
e) The code has a compile error because xMethod
does not return a value.

13.The expression ʺJava ʺ + 1 + 2 + 3 evaluates to

________.

a. Java123
b. java 123
c. Java6
d. Java 123
e. Illegal expression

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14.Which of the following is the correct expression that

evaluates to true if the number x is between 1 and 100 or
the number is negative?

a. ((x < 100) && (x > 1)) && (x < 0)

b. 1 < x < 100 && x < 0
c. (1 > x > 100) || (x < 0)
d. ((x < 100) && (x > 1)) || (x < 0)

15.What is the correct HTML for inserting an image?

a. <img href="image.gif" alt="MyImage">
b. <image src="image.gif" alt="MyImage">
c. <img alt="MyImage">image.gif</img>
d. <img src="image.gif" alt="MyImage">

16.What is the difference between XML and HTML?

a. HTML is used for exchanging data, XML is not.
b. XML is used for exchanging data, HTML is not.
c. HTML can have user defined tags, XML cannot
d. Both B and C above

17.Each list item in an ordered or unordered list has

which tag?
a. list tag
b. ls tag
c. li tag
d. ol tag

18.What are <div> tags used for?

a. To replace paragraphs. i.e. p tags
b. To logically divide the paragraphs

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c. To logically divide the document

d. To provide space between tables

19.What are meta tags used for?

a. To store information usually relevant to browsers
and search engines.
b. To only store information usually relevant to
browsers
c. To only store information about search engines.
d. To store information about external links

20.What does the following code do: “<u><a

name=”text”></a>text</b></u>”?
a. Only underlines "text"
b. Create an anchor and underline "text"
c. Create an anchor and italicize "text"
d. Create a link and underline "text"

21.What is the correct HTML for referring to an external

style sheet?
a. <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"
href="mystyle.css">
b. <stylesheet>mystyle.css</stylesheet>
c. <style src="mystyle.css">
d. None of above
e. All of above

22.Which is the correct CSS syntax?

a. {body:color=black;}
b. body {color: black;}
c. body:color=black;
d. {body;color:black;}

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23.What is the correct CSS syntax for making all the <p>
elements bold?
a. p {font-weight:bold;}
b. p {text-size:bold;}
c. <p style="font-size:bold;">
d. <p style="text-size:bold;">

24.How do you display hyperlinks without an underline?

a. a {text-decoration:none;}
b. a {decoration:no-underline;}
c. a {underline:none;}
d. a {text-decoration:no-underline;}

25.How do you display a border like this:

The top border = 10 pixels
The bottom border = 5 pixels
The left border = 20 pixels
The right border = 1pixel?

a. border-width:10px 5px 20px 1px;

b. border-width:10px 1px 5px 20px;
c. border-width:10px 20px 5px 1px;
d. border-width:5px 20px 10px 1px;

26.How do you select an element with id "demo"?

a. *demo
b. demo
c. #demo
d. .demo

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27.How do you select all p elements inside a div

element?
a. div p
b. div + p
c. div.p
d. div#p

28.Which of the following property is used to underline,

overline, and strikethrough text?
a. text-indent
b. text-align
c. text-decoration
d. text-transform

29.Which of the following property allows you to control

the shape or appearance of the marker of a list?
a. list-style-type
b. list-style-position
c. list-style-image
d. list-style

30.Which of the following is correct about CSS?

a. Style sheets allow content to be optimized for
more than one type of device.
b. CSS can store web applications locally with the
help of an offline catche.
c. Using CSS, we can view offline websites.The
cache also ensures faster loading and better
overall performance of the website.
d. All of the above.

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31.What is the correct JavaScript syntax to change the

content of the HTML element below?
<p id="demo">This is a demonstration.</p>
a. document.getElementById("demo").innerHTML
= "Hello World!";
b. document.getElementByName("p").innerHTML
= "Hello World!";
c. document.getElement("p").innerHTML = "Hello
World!";
d. #demo.innerHTML = "Hello World!";

32.Which event occurs when the user clicks on an

HTML element?
a. onmouseclick
b. onclick
c. onmouseover
d. onchange

33.What does DTD stand for?

a. Dynamic Type Definition
b. Direct Type Definition
c. Document Type Definition
d. Do The Dance

34.What does XSL stand for?

a. extra style language
b. expandable style language
c. extensible stylesheet language
d. extensible style listing

35.What is a correct way of referring to a stylesheet

called "mystyle.xsl" ?

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a. <link type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" />

b. <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl"
href="mystyle.xsl" ?>
c. <stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="mystyle.xsl" />
d. none of above

36.Suppose a div element in a document has

id="answerbox". If a JavaScript function sets
d=document.getElementById("answerbox"), then which
of the following is the preferred (best style) way to add a
paragraph containing the word “Hello” as a child of that
div?
a. d.innerhtml = "<p>hello</p>";
b. p = createelement("p");
p.innerhtml = "hello";
d.appendchild(p);
c. answerbox.innerhtml = "hello";
d. d.appendchild("<p>hello</p>");

37.Which statement about the Document Object Model

(DOM) is false?
a. a tag and the html it encloses is one example of a
dom node.
b. every node in the dom, including text nodes, may
have child nodes.
c. the dom regards the document as a hierarchical
tree of objects.
d. each node of the dom is an object with attributes
and methods.

38.Which of the following is true about typeof operator

in JavaScript?

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a. the typeof is a unary operator that is placed

before its single operand, which can be of any
type.
b. its value is a string indicating the data type of the
operand.
c. both of the above.
d. none of the above.

39.What is the correct jQuery code to set the background

color of all p elements to red?
a. $("p").layout("background-color","red");
b. $("p").manipulate("background-color","red");
c. $("p").style("background-color","red");
d. $("p").css("background-color","red");

40.With jQuery, look at the following selector:

$("div.intro"). What does it select?
a. All div elements with class="intro"
b. The first div element with class="intro"
c. The first div element with id="intro"
d. All div elements with id="intro"

41.Look at the following selector: $(":disabled"). What

does it select?
a. All disabled input elements
b. All elements that does not contain the text
"disabled"
c. All hidden elements
d. All elements containing the text "disabled"

42.What is the output of this piece of code?

var myObject = { 'Paris' : '10',

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'London' : '7',
'Berlin' : '5' }
for (var property in myObject) {
document.write(property + '=' +
myObject[property]+'&');
}
a. Paris=10
b. Paris=10&London=7&Berlin=5
c. Paris=10&London=7&Berlin=5&
d. No output is generated

43.What is the outcome of this piece of code?

<html><head></head><body>
<p id="a1">look at me<p>
<script type="text/javascript">
document.getElementById("a1").innerHTML= 'hello
world';
</script>
<body></html>
a. look at me
b. hello world
c. nothing is returned
d. Error message

44.What is the console output?

var shop = [
{product: 'Apple', price: 2.3},
{product: 'Peach', price: 3.3},
{product: 'Banana', price: 1.3},
];
shop.sort(function(a, b) {
if (a.product > b.product) {

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return -1;
}
if (a.product < b.product) {
return 1;
}
return 0;
});
var sorted = [];
for (item in shop) {
sorted.push(shop[item].product);
}
console.log(sorted);
a. ["Peach", "Banana", "Apple"]
b. [ "Apple", "Peach", "Banana"]
c. []
d. [ "Apple", "Banana", "Peach"]

45.In what event is HTTP status code 404 returned in

response to a certain request?
a. The server can be reached but the request is
denied.
b. The server can be reached but server can not find
what was requested.
c. An internal server error is generated
d. The server cannot be reached

46.What is name-based virtual hosting?

a. Name-based virtual hosting is a server
configuration allowing multiple IP numbers for
every domain name.
b. Name-based virtual hosting is a server
configuration allowing multiple users run a

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private server with the characteristics of a

dedicated server.
c. Name-based virtual hosting is a server
configuration allowing multiple domain names
running on a single IP number
d. Name-based virtual hosting is a server
configuration allowing multiple services (http,
pop) running on a single server.

47.Which of the following alterinatives provides to us a

port based Virtual Host?
a. Listen 6001
<VirtualHost *:6001>
ServerName internal.site1.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site1
</VirtualHost>
b. <VirtualHost *:80>
ServerName internal.site2.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site2
</VirtualHost>
c. <VirtualHost 192.168.0.50:80>
ServerName internal.site3.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site3
</VirtualHost>
d. None.

48.Which of the following alterinatives provides to us an

ip-based Virtual Host?
a. Listen 6001
<VirtualHost *:6001>
ServerName internal.site1.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site1

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</VirtualHost>
b. <VirtualHost *:80>
ServerName internal.site2.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site2
</VirtualHost>
c. <VirtualHost 192.168.0.50:80>
ServerName internal.site3.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site3
</VirtualHost>
d. None.

49.Which of the alternatives shown below are providing

name-based Virtual Host?
I. Listen 6001
<VirtualHost *:6001>
ServerName internal.site1.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site1
</VirtualHost>
II. <VirtualHost *:80>
ServerName internal.site2.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site2
</VirtualHost>
III. <VirtualHost 192.168.0.50:80>
ServerName internal.site3.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/site3
</VirtualHost>
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. All of them
e. None of them

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50.What is the correct way to include the file "time.inc" ?

a. <!-- include file="time.inc" -->
b. <?php include "time.inc"; ?>
c. <?php include file="time.inc"; ?>
d. <?php include:"time.inc"; ?>

51.What is the correct way to open the file "time.txt" as

readable?
a. open("time.txt");
b. open("time.txt","read");
c. fopen("time.txt","r");
d. fopen("time.txt","r+");

52.How do you create an array in PHP?

a. $cars = array["Volvo", "BMW", "Toyota"];
b. $cars = "Volvo", "BMW", "Toyota";
c. $cars = array("Volvo", "BMW", "Toyota");
d. $cars = {“Volvo”,”BMW”,”Toyota”};

53.Which of the following is used to check if session

variable is already set or not in PHP?
a. session_start() function
b. $_SESSION[]
c. isset() function
d. session_destroy() function

54. Which of the following method connect a MySql

database using PHP?
a. mysql_connect()
b. mysql_query()
c. mysql_close()
d. None of the above

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55.Which of the following is used to set cookies?

a. setcookie() function
b. $_COOKIE variable
c. $HTTP_COOKIE_VARS variable
d. isset() function

56.Using which of the following way can you embed

PHP code in an HTML page?
a. <?php PHP code goes here ?>
b. <? PHP code goes here ?>
c. <script language="php"> PHP code goes here
</script>
d. All of the above.

57.Which of the following is correct about constants?

a. Unlike with variables, you do not need to have a
constant with a $.
b. Only scalar data (boolean, integer, float and
string) can be contained in constants.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

58.Which of the following function is used to locate a

string within a string?
a. search()
b. locate()
c. strpos()
d. None of the above.

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59.Which of the following is an array containing

information such as headers, paths, and script locations?
a. $GLOBALS
b. $_SERVER
c. $_COOKIE
d. $_SESSION

60.Which of the following is used to delete a cookie?

a. setcookie() function
b. $_COOKIE variable
c. isset() function
d. None of the above.

61.Which of the following method can be used to create

a MySql database using PHP?
a. mysql_connect()
b. mysql_query()
c. mysql_close()
d. None of the above

62.Which of the following method acts as a constructor

function in a PHP class?
a. class_name()
b. __construct
c. constructor
d. None of the above.

63.Which of the following can be used to get information

sent via get/post method in PHP?
a. $_REQUEST
b. $REQUEST
c. $REQUEST_PAGE

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d. None of the above

64.Which of the following is true about php.ini file?

a. The PHP configuration file, php.ini, is the final
and most immediate way to affect PHP's
functionality.
b. The php.ini file is read each time PHP is
initialized.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.

65.What is the output

class OO {
public function foo() {
return "Hello World!";
}
public function __call($name, $arguments){
return $name;
}
}
$class = new OO;
echo $class->bar('do','re','mi');
a. a fatal error
b. bar
c. doremi
d. Hello World

66.What is the output?

$a = 'b';
echo " the letter $a ";
echo ' the letter $a ';
a. the letter the letter $a

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b. the letter $a the letter b

c. the letter b the letter $a
d. the letter b the letter b
67.What is the output?
class Bank {
public $deposit = 100;
function &getDeposit() {
return $this->deposit;
}
}
$bank = new Bank;
$stack = &$bank->getDeposit();
$bank->deposit = 110;
echo $stack;
a. 110
b. 100
c. Nothing
d. Error

68.What is the value of $answer?

$a = 1;
$b = 0;
$c = 3;
if( !(!$a && $b) ){
if($c > 3 || $b){
$answer = 9;
} else {
$answer = 12;
}
} else {
if($b > 1 || $c){
$answer = 10;

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} else {
$answer = 7;
}
}
a. 7
b. 12
c. 10
d. 9

69.What is the outcome of this piece of code?

class Transport
{
private $units = 100;
protected $capacity = 100;
}
class Train extends Transport
{
private $units = 300;
protected $capacity = 1000;
public function getU()
{
return $this->units;
}
public function getC()
{
return $this->capacity;
}
}
$train = new Train();
echo $train->getU()*$train->getC();

a. 300000

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b. 10000
c. 30000
d. Nothing

70.What is the outcome of this piece of code?

class b {
public $c = 10;
public function &getCount() {
return $this->c;
}
}
$obj = new b;
$var = &$obj->getCount();
$obj->c = 22;
echo $var;
a. null
b. 10
c. 22
d. Fatal Error

71.What is the content of variable $brand?

class road {
private $data = array();
protected $car = "fiat";
public function __get($name) {
if (array_key_exists($name, $this->data)) {
return $this->data[$name]." car"; }
}
public function __set($key, $value) {
$this->data[$key] = $value; }
public function __call($name, $arguments) {
return 'volvo';

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}
}
$road = new road;
$road->car = 'porsche';
$brand = $road->getCar();

a. volvo car
b. volvo
c. porsche car
d. porsche

72.In what way can you echo the content of

www.google.com?
a. echo fopen('http://www.google.com/');
b. fopen('http://www.google.com/');
c. echo include('http://www.google.com');
d. echo readfile('http://www.google.com');
e. echo
file_get_contents('http://www.google.com/');

73.What is the outcome of this piece of code:

function calc($i)
{
if($i > 0)
{
echo $i + 12;
}
else
{
throw new Exception(
"value must be an integer");
}

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calc('nine');

a. Fatal error: Uncaught exception with message

value must be an integer
b. value must be an integer
c. 21
d. 12

74.What is the outcome of this piece of code:

preg_match('/Nov 10(th)?/', 'Today is Nov 10th, 2010',
$referers);
var_export($referers);
a. array ( 0 => 'Nov 10th', )
b. array ()
c. array ( 0 => 'Nov 10th', 1 => 'th', )
d. array ( 0 => 'Nov 10', )

75.Analyze the following code:

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
int[ ] x = {1, 2, 3, 4};
int[ ] y = x;
x = new int[2];
for (int i = 0; i < y.length; i++)
System.out.print(y[i] + ʺ ʺ);
}
}
a. The program displays 1 2 3 4
b. The program displays 0 0
c. The program displays 0 0 0 0

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d. The program displays 0 0 3 4

76.Analyze the following code:

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
int[ ] oldList = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
reverse(oldList);
for (int i = 0; i < oldList.length; i++)
System.out.print(oldList[i] + ʺ ʺ);
}
public static void reverse(int[ ] list) {
int[ ] newList = new int[list.length];
for (int i = 0; i < list.length; i++)
newList[i] = list[list.length - 1 - i];
list = newList;
}
}
a. The program displays 1 2 3 4 5 and then raises an
ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException.
b. The program displays 5 4 3 2 1 and then raises an
ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException.
c. The program displays 5 4 3 2 1.
d. The program displays 1 2 3 4 5.

77.Analyze the following code.

// Program 1:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
Object a1 new A();
Object a2 new A();
System.out.println(a1.equals(a2));
}

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}
class A {
int x;
public boolean equals(A a) {
return this.x==a.x;
}
}
// Program 2:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
A a1=new A();
A a2=new A();
System.out.println(a1.equals(a2));
}
}
class A {
int x;
public boolean equals(A a) {
return this.x==a.x;
}
}

a. Program 1 displays true and Program 2 displays

false
b. Program 1 displays false and Program 2 displays
false
c. Program 1 displays false and Program 2 displays
true
d. Program 1 displays true and Program 2 displays
true

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78.The getValue() method is overridden in two ways.

Which one is correct?
I:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
A a=new A();
System.out.println(a.getValue());
}
}
class B {
public String getValue() {
return “Any object”;
}
}
class A extends B {
public Object getValue() {
return “A string”;
}
}

II:
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
A a=new A();
System.out.println(a.getValue());
}
}
class B {
public Object getValue() {
return “Any object”;
}
}

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class A extends B {
public String getValue() {
return “A string”;
}
}

a. I
b. II
c. Both I and II
d. Neither

79.Show the output of running the class Test in the

following code:
interface A {
void print();
}
class C {}
class B extends C implements A {
public void print() { }
}
public class Test {
public static void main(String[] args) {
B b = new B();
if (b instanceof A)
System.out.println("b is an instance of A");
if (b instanceof C)
System.out.println("b is an instance of C");
}
}

a. Nothing.
b. “b is an instance of A”

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c. “b is an instance of C”
d. “b is an instance of A” followed by “b is
an instance of C”.
80.Given the following code, find the compile error.
(Choose all that apply.)
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
m(new GraduateStudent());
m(new Student());
m(new Person());
m(new Object());
}
public static void m(Student x) {
System.out.println(x.toString());
}
}
class GraduateStudent extends Student {
}
class Student extends Person {
public String toString() {
return “Student”;
}
}
class Person extends Object {
public String toString() {
return “Person”;
}
}
a. m(new Object()) causes an error
b. m(new Person()) causes an error
c. m(new Student()) causes an error
d. m(new GraduateStudent()) causes an error

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81.Given the following classes and their objects:

class C1 {};
class C2 extends C1 {};
class C3 extends C1 {};
C2 c2=new C2();
C3 c3=new C3();
Analyze the following statement:
c2 = (C2) ((C1) c3);
a. The statement is correct.
b. c3 is cast into c2 successfully.
c. You will get a runtime error because you cannot
cast objects from sibling classes.
d. You will get a runtime error because the Java
runtime system cannot perform multiple casting
in nested form.

82.Analyze the following code:

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
String s new String(“Welcome to Java”);
Object o s;
String d=(String)o;
}
}
a. When assigning s to o in Object o s, a new object
is created.
b. s, o, and d reference the same String object.
c. When casting o to s in String d (String)o, the
contents of o is changed.
d. When casting o to s in String d (String)o, a new
object is created.

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83.What is displayed on the console when running the

following program?
class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
try {
method();
System.out.println(“After the
method call”);
} catch (RuntimeException ex) {
System.out.println(“RuntimeExce
ption”);
} catch (Exception ex) {
System.out.println(“Exception”);
}
}
static void method() throws Exception {
try {
String s=”5.6”;
Integer.parseInt(s); // Cause a
NumberFormatException
int i=0;
int y=2 / i;
System.out.println(“Welcome to
Java”);
} catch (NumberFormatException ex) {
System.out.println(“NumberForma
tException”);
throw ex;
} catch (RuntimeException ex) {
System.out.println(“RuntimeExce
ption”);

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}
}
}
a. The program displays NumberFormatException
followed by RuntimeException.
b. The program displays NumberFormatException
followed by After the method call.
c. The program displays NumberFormatException
twice.
d. The program has a compilation error.

83. The printout from the following code is ________.

java.util.ArrayList list new java.util.ArrayList();
list.add(“New York”);
java.util.ArrayList list1=list;
list.add(“Atlanta”);
list1.add(“Dallas”);
System.out.println(list1);

a. [New York, Dallas]

b. [New York]
c. [New York, Atlanta]
d. [New York, Atlanta, Dallas]

84.What is the output of the following code:

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
String s1=new String(“Java”);
String s2=new String(=Java”);
System.out.print((s1==s2) +” “ +
(s1.equals(s2)));
}

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}
a. false true
b. true true
c. false false
d. true false

85.What is the output of running class C?

class A {
public A() {
System.out.print(“The default constructor
of A is invoked ”);
}
}
class B extends A {
public B() {
System.out.print(“The default constructor
of B is invoked”);
}
}
public class C {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
B b=new B();
}
}
a. The default constructor of A is invoked The
default constructor of B is invoked
b. The default constructor of B is invoked The
default constructor of A is invoked
c. The default constructor of B is invoked
d. The default constructor of A is invoked
e. Nothing displayed

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86.What is the output of running class Test?

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
new Circle9();
}
}
public abstract class GeometricObject {
protected GeometricObject() {
System.out.print(“A”);
}
protected GeometricObject(String color, boolean
filled) {
System.out.print(“B”);
}
}
public class Circle9 extends GeometricObject {
public Circle9() {
this(1.0);
System.out.print(“C”);
}
public Circle9(double radius) {
this(radius, white , false);
System.out.print(“D”);
}
public Circle9(double radius, String color,
boolean filled) {
super(color, filled);
System.out.print(“E”);
}
}
a. BACD
b. CBAE

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c. ABCD
d. BEDC

87.What exception type does the following program

throw?
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
Object o = null;
System.out.println(o);
}
}
a. NullPointerException
b. ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
c. ArithmeticException
d. StringIndexOutOfBoundsException
e. No exception

88.What exception type does the following program

throw?
public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
Object o = null;
System.out.println(o.toString());
}
}
a. ClassCastException
b. NullPointerException
c. ArithmeticException
d. ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

89.What is the output of the following code:

public class Test {

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public static void main(String[ ] args) {

String s1 = new String(ʺJavaʺ);
String s2 = new String(ʺJavaʺ);
System.out.print((s1 == s2) + ʺ ʺ +
(s1.equals(s2)));
}
}
a. false true
b. true true
c. false false
d. true false

90.What is displayed on the console when running the

following program?
class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
try {
method();
System.out.println(ʺAfter the
method callʺ);
}
catch (RuntimeException ex) {
System.out.println(ʺRuntimeExcep
tionʺ);
}
catch (Exception ex) {
System.out.println(ʺExceptionʺ);
}
}
static void method() throws Exception {
try {
String s = ʺ5.6ʺ;

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Integer.parseInt(s); // Cause a
NumberFormatException
int i = 0;
int y = 2 / i;
System.out.println(ʺWelcome to
Javaʺ);
}
catch (RuntimeException ex) {
System.out.println(ʺRuntimeExcep
tionʺ);
}
catch (Exception ex) {
System.out.println(ʺExceptionʺ);
}
}
}
a. The program displays Exception followed
by RuntimeException.
b. The program displays RuntimeException
twice.
c. The program displays RuntimeException
followed by After the method call.
d. The program displays Exception twice.

91.What is displayed on the console when running the

following program?
class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
try {
System.out.println(ʺWelcome to
Javaʺ);
int i = 0;

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int y = 2/i;
System.out.println(ʺWelcome to
Javaʺ);
}
catch (RuntimeException ex) {
System.out.println(ʺWelcome to
Javaʺ);
}
finally {
System.out.println(ʺEnd of the
blockʺ);
}
}
}
a. The program displays Welcome to Java three
times.
b. The program displays Welcome to Java two
times.
c. The program displays Welcome to Java three
times followed by End of the block.
d. The program displays Welcome to Java two times
followed by End of the block.

92.What is the output of the following code:

public class Test {
public static void main(String[ ] args) {
Object o1 = new Object();
Object o2 = new Object();
System.out.print((o1 == o2) + ʺ ʺ +
(o1.equals(o2)));
}
}

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a. false false
b. true true
c. true false
d. false true

93. Which of the following statements is false?

a. A private method cannot be accessed by a class in
a different package.
b. A protected method can be accessed by a subclass
in a different package.
c. A method with no visibility modifier can be
accessed by a class in a different package.
d. A public class can be accessed by a class from a
different package.
94.Object oriented programming allows you to derive
new classes from existing classes. This is
called ________.
a. inheritance
b. encapsulation
c. generalization
d. abstraction

95.Which of the following classes cannot be extended?

a. class A { private A();}
b. final class A { }
c. class A { }
d. class A { protected A();}

96.Given the declaration Circle[] x = new Circle[10],

which of the following statement is most accurate.
a. x contains an array of ten int values.

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b. x contains a reference to an array and each

element in the array can hold a Circle object.
c. x contains an array of ten objects of the Circle
type.
d. x contains a reference to an array and each
element in the array can hold a reference to a
Circle object.

97.A class design requires that a particular member

variable must be accessible by any subclasses
of this class, but otherwise not by classes which are not
members of the same package.What
should be done to achieve this?
a. The variable should be marked public.
b. The variable should be marked private and an
accessor method provided.
c. The variable should be marked private.
d. The variable should have no special access
modifier.
e. The variable should be marked protected.

98.Which of the following statements regarding abstract

methods is false?
a. An abstract class can be used as a data type.
b. An abstract class can have instances created using
the constructor of the abstract class.
c. A subclass can override a concrete method in a
superclass to declare it abstract.
d. An abstract class can be extended.
e. A subclass of a non-abstract superclass can be
abstract.
99.Polymorphism means ________.

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a. that data fields should be declared private

b. that a class can contain another class
c. that a class can extend another class
d. that a variable of supertype can refer to a subtype
object

100.The visibility of these modifiers increases in this

order:
a. private, protected, none (if no modifier is used),
and public.
b. private, none (if no modifier is used), protected,
and public.
c. none (if no modifier is used), protected, private,
and public.
d. none (if no modifier is used), private, protected,
and public.

101.A class design requires that a particular member

variable must be accessible by any subclasses
of this class, but otherwise not by classes which are not
members of the same package. What
should be done to achieve this?
a. The variable should be marked public.
b. The variable should be marked private and an
accessor method provided.
c. The variable should be marked private.
d. The variable should have no special access
modifier.
e. The variable should be marked protected.

102.Which of the following statements will not convert a

string s into i of int type? (Choose all that

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apply.)
a. i = Integer.parseInt(s);
b. i = (new Integer(s)).intValue();
c. i = (int)(Double.parseDouble(s));
d. i = Integer.valueOf(s);
e. i = Integer.valueOf(s).intValue();

103.Which of the statements regarding the super

keyword is incorrect?
a. You can use super.super.p to invoke a method in
superclassʹs parent class.
b. You can use super to invoke a super class
method.
c. You can use super to invoke a super class
constructor.
d. You cannot invoke a method in superclassʹs
parent class.

104.Which of the following statements is false?

a. Dynamic binding can apply to instance methods.
b. You can always pass an instance of a subclass to
a parameter of its superclass type. This feature is
known as polymorphism.
c. The compiler finds a matching method according
to parameter type, number of parameters, and
order of the parameters at compilation time.
d. A method may be implemented in several
subclasses. The Java Virtual Machine
dynamically binds the implementation of the
method at runtime.
e. Dynamic binding can apply to static methods.

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105.Which of the following statements are false?

a. An anonymous inner class is an inner class with a
name.
b. An anonymous inner class is compiled into a
class named OuterClassName$n.class.
c. An anonymous inner class must always extend a
superclass or implement an interface, but it
cannot have an explicit extends or implements
clause.
d. An anonymous inner class must implement all the
abstract methods in the superclass or in the
interface.
e. An anonymous inner class always uses the no-arg
constructor from its superclass to create an
instance. If an anonymous inner class implements
an interface, the constructor is Object().

106.Which of the following is true?

a. You can insert an element anywhere is an
arraylist.
b. You should use an array list if your application
does not require adding and remove an element
anywhere in a list.
c. You can use a linked list to improve efficiency
for adding and remove an element anywhere in a
list.
d. You can insert an element anywhere is a linked
list
e. All of the above are true

107.Which is the advantage of encapsulation?

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a. It changes a classʹs contract without changing the

implementation and causes no consequential
changes to other code.
b. Making the class final causes no consequential
changes to other code.
c. Only public methods are needed.
d. It changes the implementation without changing a
classʹs contract and causes no consequential
changes to other code.

108.The extension name of a Java bytecode file is

a. .obj
b. .exe
c. .class
d. .java

109.The extension name of a Java source code file is

a. .java
b. .exe
c. .class
d. .obj

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