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1. (Refer to Figure 4.) If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was
subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be

A. 3,000 pounds.

B. 4,000 pounds.

C. 12,000 pounds.

The load factor in a 60° bank is 2 Gs. Load factor = G load x aircraft weight.
Therefore, 2,000 x 2 = 4,000 pounds.

2. (Refer to Figure 5.) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents
the

A. ultimate load factor.

B. positive limit load factor.

C. airspeed range for normal operations.

C to E is the maximum positive load limit. In this case it is 3.8 Gs, which is
appropriate for normal category airplanes.

3. To hold an airplane in level flight at airspeeds from very slow to very fast, a pilot
must coordinate thrust and

A. angle of incidence.

B. gross weight.

C. angle of attack.

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 Straight-and-level flight may be sustained at a wide range of speeds. The pilot
coordinates angle of attack and thrust in all speed regimes if the aircraft is to be
held in level flight.

4. To maintain a standard rate turn as the airspeed increases, the bank angle of the
aircraft will need to

A. remain constant.

B. increase.

C. decrease.

As airspeed is increased in a constant bank angle the rate of turn will decrease.
For example, in a 30 degree bank at 100 knots your rate of turn will equal 6.5
degrees per second. If you maintain the 30 degree bank angle and increase speed
to 150 knots your rate of turn will decrease to 4.4 degrees per second. Therefore,
to maintain a standard rate turn of either 3 or 1.5 degrees per second (high-speed
aircraft), as airspeed is increased bank angle will need to be increased.

5. A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall

first at the

A. wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.

B. wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.

center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and
C.
tip.

A rectangular wing has a tendency to stall first at the wing root with the stall
pattern progressing outward to the tip. This type of stall pattern decreases
undesirable rolling tendencies and increases lateral control when approaching a
stall.

6. If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to

maintain altitude? The angle of attack

A. and angle of bank must be decreased.

B. must be increased or angle of bank decreased.

C. must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

To compensate for added lift which would result if the airspeed were increased
during a turn, the angle of attack must be decreased, or the angle of bank
increased, if a constant altitude is to be maintained.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because either the angle of attack can be decreased or the
angle of bank increased to maintain altitude as airspeed is increased. Answer (B) is
incorrect because to maintain constant altitude in a turn as the airspeed increases,
the angle of bank must decrease.

7. What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude

while the airspeed is being decreased?

A. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag.

B. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift.

C. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag.

As the airplane slows down, the decreasing airspeed or velocity requires

increasing the angle of attack to produce the constant lift needed to maintain
altitude.

Answer (A) is incorrect because if you are generating more lift than drag, an
increase in the angle of attack will cause the airplane to climb. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the angle of attack must be increased in order to maintain
altitude, if airspeed is being decreased.

8. To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the
airplane requires

A. a lower angle of attack.

B. the same angle of attack.

C. a greater angle of attack.

If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will
experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The
reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift
distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a
significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.

9. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?

At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to
A.
maintain altitude.

There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to

B.
generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in
C. weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain

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 altitude.
To maintain the lift and weight forces in balance, and to keep the airplane straight-
and-level in a state of equilibrium, as velocity increases, angle of attack must be
decreased. Conversely, as the airplane slows, the decreasing velocity requires the
angle of attack be increased enough to create sufficient lift to maintain flight.
Therefore, for every angle of attack, there is a corresponding indicated airspeed
required to maintain altitude in steady, unaccelerated flight - all other factors being
constant.

Answer (A) is incorrect because to provide sufficient lift, the angle of attack must
be increased as the airspeed is reduced. Answer (C) is incorrect because the angle
of attack must be increased to compensate for the decreased lift.

10. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in
steady-state level flight?

A. These forces are equal.

B. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.

C. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

During straight-and-level flight at a constant airspeed, thrust and drag are equal
and lift and weight are equal.

11. In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed
is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be

A. the same as at the lower speed.

B. two times greater than at the lower speed.

C. four times greater than at the lower speed.

Lift is proportional to the square of the airplane's velocity. For example, an airplane
traveling at 200 knots has four times the lift as the same airplane traveling at 100
knots, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant.

Answer (A) is incorrect because as airspeed doubles, lift will be four times greater
than at the lower speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because as airspeed doubles, lift
will be four times greater than at the lower speed.

12. (Refer to Figure 3.) The L/D ratio at a 2° angle of attack is approximately the same
as the L/D ratio for a

A. 9.75° angle of attack.

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 B. 10.5° angle of attack.

C. 16.5° angle of attack.

The glide ratio (L/D) at a 2° angle of attack is about 7.6:1, which is the same glide
ratio (L/D) as at a 16.5° angle of attack.

13. For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a
coordinated constant-altitude turn

A. is constant and the stall speed increases.

B. varies with the rate of turn.

C. is constant and the stall speed decreases.

In an airplane at any airspeed, if a constant altitude is maintained during the turn,

the load factor for a given degree of bank is the same, which is the resultant of
gravity and centrifugal force. Load supported by the wings increases as the angle
of bank increases. Stall speeds increase in proportion to the square root of the
load factor.

Answer (B) is incorrect because rate of turn does not affect the load factor. Answer
(C) is incorrect because stall speed will increase with an increase in bank.

14. When transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a constant airspeed climb, the
angle of attack and lift

A. are increased and remain at a higher lift-to-weight ratio to maintain the climb.

B. remain the same and maintain a steady state lift-to-weight ratio during the climb.

C. are momentarily increased and lift returns to a steady state during the climb.

When transitioning from level flight to a climb, the forces acting on the airplane go
through certain changes. The first change, an increase in lift, occurs when back
pressure is applied to the elevator control. This initial change is a result of the
increase in the angle of attack which occurs when the airplane's pitch attitude is
raised. This results in a climbing attitude. When the inclined flight path and the
climb speed are established, the angle of attack and the corresponding lift
stabilize at approximately the original value.

15. If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be
operated in which of the following maneuvers?

A. Limited acrobatics, excluding spins.

B. Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).

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 C. Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins.

Utility category airplanes can do all normal category maneuvers plus limited
acrobatics, including spins (if approved).

Answer (A) is incorrect because the utility category includes spins. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the normal category prohibits acrobatics and spins.

16. To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to
compensate for the decrease in the

A. forces opposing the resultant component of drag.

B. vertical component of lift.

C. horizontal component of lift.

Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other
horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain
altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle
increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce
sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane's weight. The increased back elevator
pressure provides the increased angle of attack.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the phrase 'the resultant component of drag' has
no meaning. Answer (C) is incorrect because as the horizontal component of lift
decreases, the vertical component of lift increases, therefore the angle of attack
must be decreased.

17. The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of
an aircraft in flight is known as

A. load factor and directly affects stall speed.

B. aspect load and directly affects stall speed.

C. load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

Load factor is the ratio between the total airload imposed on the wings of an
airplane and the gross weight of the airplane. An increased load factor increases
stalling speed and a decreased load factor decreases stalling speed.

18. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease
A.
drag.

B. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

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 C. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase
drag.

Air striking the underside of the wing is deflected downward, producing an

opposite reaction which pushes (lifts) the wing upward. To increase lift, the wing is
tilted upward, increasing the angle of attack and deflecting more air downward.
The larger the angle of attack, the more the lift force tilts toward the rear of the
aircraft, increasing drag.

19. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground
effect, lift will

A. increase, and induced drag will decrease.

B. decrease, and parasite drag will increase.

C. increase, and induced drag will increase.

If the airplane is brought into ground effect with a constant angle of attack, it will
experience an increase in lift coefficient and a reduction in the thrust required. The
reduction of the wing-tip vortices due to ground effect alters the spanwise lift
distribution and reduces the induced flow. The reduction in induced flow causes a
significant reduction in induced drag, but has no direct effect on parasite drag.

20. If the airspeed is increased from 89 knots to 98 knots during a coordinated level
45° banked turn, the load factor will

A. decrease, and the radius of turn will decrease.

B. remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase.

C. increase, but the rate of turn will decrease.

When a turn is made at a higher true airspeed at a given bank angle, the inertia is
greater and the horizontal lift component required for the turn is greater, causing
the turning rate to become slower. Therefore, at a given angle of bank, a higher
true airspeed will make the radius of turn larger because the airplane will be
turning at a slower rate. This compensates for added centrifugal force, allowing
the load factor to remain the same.

21. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2.5
G's if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?

A. 62 knots.

B. 84 knots.

C. 96 knots.

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 From a load factor of 2.5, go horizontally to the curved line labeled "Load Factor."
From that point of intersection, go up to the curve labeled "Stall Speed Increase."
From there, go to the left and read the increase: 60%. The new accelerated stall
speed will be 160%, or 1.6 times the original value.
60 x 1.6 = 96 knots.

22. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the

A. angle of incidence of the wing.

B. amount of airflow above and below the wing.

C. distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

The angle of attack of an airfoil directly controls the distribution of pressure below
and above it. By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control lift, airspeed,
and drag.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the angle of incidence is a fixed angle between the
chordline of the aircraft and the aircraft's longitudinal axis. Answer (B) is incorrect
because the amount of airflow above and below the wing stays constant.

23. Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during
a turn? To compensate for the

A. loss of the vertical component of lift.

B. loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.

C. rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other
horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain
altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle
increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce
sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane's weight. The increased back elevator
pressure provides the increased angle of attack.

Answer (B) is incorrect because this describes a skidding turn. Answer (C) is
incorrect because slight opposite aileron pressure may be required to compensate
for the overbanking tendency, not to maintain altitude.

24. Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices
you should fly

A. at the same altitude as the large aircraft.

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 B. below the altitude of the large aircraft.

C. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

Fly above the jet's flight path whenever possible, because the vortices descend.
Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft's path.

25. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

A. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.

B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy,
C.
clean, and fast.
Vortices sink at 400 to 500 fpm. Vortex generation begins when lift is being
produced at takeoff. Greatest vortex strength is produced when the airplane is
heavy, clean, and slow. The primary hazard is loss of control due to induced roll
caused by the spinning vortices.

Answer (A) is incorrect because vortex generation begins at the rotation point
when the airplane takes off. Answer (C) is incorrect because the greatest vortex
strength is when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

26. Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon
the

A. rate of turn.

B. angle of bank.

C. true airspeed.

For any given angle of bank, the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. If the angle
of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will
decrease. Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given
bank angle. Therefore, the load factor remains the same. Load factor varies with
changing bank angle and increases at a rapid rate after the angle of bank reaches
50°.

Answer (A) is incorrect because rate of turn and true airspeed do not have an
impact on wing loading in a coordinated turn. Answer (C) is incorrect because rate
of turn and true airspeed do not have an impact on wing loading in a coordinated
turn.

27. Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

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 A. Altitude.

B. Airspeed.

C. Angle of attack.

The maximum range condition is obtained at maximum L/D ratio which occurs at a
particular angle of attack and lift coefficient. As gross weight decreases, the
airspeed for maximum L/D decreases.

Answer (A) is incorrect because as weight decreases, the maximum range altitude
may increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because angle of attack does not play a role
in determining maximum range factor.

28. In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall
speed to

A. increase.

B. decrease.

C. not vary.

There is a direct relationship between the load factor imposed upon the wing and
its stalling characteristics. The stalling speed increases in proportion to the square
root of the load factor.

29. Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated
by an aircraft?

A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.

The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and
B.
slow.
When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and
C.
offer little danger.

The strength of a vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and the shape of the
wing of the generating aircraft. Maximum vortex strength occurs when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.

30. While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied
the load factor would

A. remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.

vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies
B.
proportionately.

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 C. vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.

For any given angle of bank the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. In other
words, if the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate
of turn will decrease; or if the airspeed is decreased, the rate of turn will increase.
Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank.
Therefore, the load factor remains the same.

Answer (B) is incorrect because rate of turn will vary based on airspeed with a
constant angle of bank. Answer (C) is incorrect because load factor varies based
on the resultant load vector.

31. Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

A. center of gravity moves aft.

B. center of gravity moves forward.

C. elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as
its center of gravity moves aft.

32. (Refer to Figure 3.) How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 statute miles of
gliding at an angle of attack of 8°?

A. 440 feet.

B. 880 feet.

C. 1,320 feet.

To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 8°, move upward from the angle
of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find the
value located on the L/D scale. This gives a 12:1 glide ratio. The question only
deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio, the
airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 12 feet covered horizontally.
L ÷ D = 12 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
12 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (3 SM) ÷ X
X = 1,320 feet.

33. If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the
elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

A. positive dynamic stability.

B. positive static stability.

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 C. neutral dynamic stability.

Static stability deals with initial tendencies. Positive static stability is the initial
tendency of the airplane to return to its original state after being disturbed.

34. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2
Gs if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?

A. 66 knots.

B. 74 knots.

C. 84 knots.

From a load factor of 2, go horizontally to the curved line labeled 'Load Factor.'
From that point of intersection, go up to the curve labeled 'Stall Speed Increase.'
From there, go to the left and read the increase: 40%. The new accelerated stall
speed will be 140%, or 1.4 times, the original value. 60 x 1.4 = 84 knots.

35. If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked
turn, the load factor will

A. increase as well as the stall speed.

B. decrease and the stall speed will increase.

C. remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

At a given angle of bank, a higher airspeed will make the radius of the turn larger
and the airplane will be turning at a slower rate. This compensates for added
centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.

36. In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag
will become

A. twice as great.

B. half as great.

C. four times greater.

Parasite drag has more influence at high speed, and induced drag has more
influence at low speed. For example, if an airplane in a steady flight condition at
100 knots is then accelerated to 200 knots, the parasite drag becomes four times
as great.

37. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's

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 A. lift, airspeed, and drag.

B. lift, airspeed, and CG.

C. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

By changing the angle of attack, the pilot can control lift, airspeed, and drag.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the angle of attack does not affect the CG.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the angle of attack also determines drag.

38. While executing a 60 degree level turn, your aircraft is at a load factor of 2.0. What
does this mean?

A. The total load on the aircraft's structure is two times its weight..

B. The load factor is over the load limit.

C. The gust factor is two times the total load limit.

Load factor is the ratio between the total airload supported by the wing to the total
weight of the airplane; the total load supported by the wings divided by the total
weight of the airplane.

39. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel
to the

A. chord line.

B. flightpath.

C. longitudinal axis.

Lift acts upward and perpendicular to the relative wind. Drag acts parallel to and in
the same direction as the relative wind, which is parallel to the flightpath.

Answer (A) is incorrect because there is not a fixed relationship between lift and
drag with respect to the airplane's chord line or longitudinal axis. Answer (C) is
incorrect because there is not a fixed relationship between lift and drag with
respect to the airplane's chord line or longitudinal axis.

40. As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift

A. decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases.

B. increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases.

C. decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant.

Lift during a bank is divided into two components, one vertical and the other

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 horizontal. The vertical component of lift must be equal to the weight to maintain
altitude. Since the vertical component of lift decreases as the bank angle
increases, the angle of attack must be progressively increased to produce
sufficient vertical lift to support the airplane's weight. The increased back elevator
pressure provides the increased angle of attack.

41. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

A. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.

vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's
B.
surface.

higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the
C.
wing's surface.
The wing is designed to provide actions greater than its weight by shaping it to
develop a relatively positive high-pressure lifting action from the air mass below
the wing and a negative low-pressure lifting action from lowered pressure above
the wing. The increased speed of the air over the top of the airfoil produces the
drop in pressure. The pressure difference between the upper and lower surface
does not account for all the lift produced. Air also strikes the lower surface of the
wing, and the reaction of this downward-backward flow results in an upward-
forward force on the wing.

42. The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

A. changes in air density.

B. variations in flight altitude.

C. variations in airplane loading.

The indicated stalling speed is most affected by load factor. The airplane's stalling
speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor, whereas a
change in altitude (air density) has no effect on the indicated stalling speed.

43. In theory, if the airspeed of an aircraft in level flight is cut in half while in level flight,
parasite drag will become

A. one-third as much.

B. one-half as much.

C. one-fourth as much.

Parasite drag increases as the square of the airspeed.

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 44. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for
vortex avoidance?

A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.

C. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

Stay at or above the large aircraft's final approach flight path. Note the touchdown
point and land beyond it.

45. Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

A. bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

B. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

C. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

Longitudinal stability, or pitching about the lateral axis, is considered to be the

most affected by certain variables in various flight conditions. A longitudinally
unstable airplane has a tendency to dive or climb progressively into a steep dive or
climb which may result in a stall. A longitudinally unstable airplane is difficult and
sometimes dangerous to fly.

Answer (A) is incorrect because roll oscillations refer to lateral stability. Answer (C)
is incorrect because roll oscillations refer to lateral stability.

46. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio,
total drag of an airplane

A. decreases because of lower parasite drag.

B. increases because of increased induced drag.

C. increases because of increased parasite drag.

Parasite drag is greatest at higher airspeeds. Induced drag is the by-product of lift
and becomes a greater influence at higher angles of attack and slower airspeeds.
It increases in direct proportion to increases in the angle of attack. Any angle of
attack lower or higher than that for L/D(MAX) reduces the lift-drag ratio and
consequently increases the total drag.

Answer (A) is incorrect because total drag increases when airspeed decreases
below L/D(MAX) due to increased induced drag. Answer (C) is incorrect because
parasite drag decreases with speeds below L/D(MAX).

47. Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

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 A. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.

B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

C. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

If flaps are raised, the stall speed increases.

Answer (A) is incorrect because flaps decrease the stall speed. Answer (C) is
incorrect because raising the flaps decreases the lift provided, therefore, back
pressure is required to maintain altitude.

48. (Refer to Figure 1.) At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the
airplane will

A. have its maximum L/D ratio.

B. have its minimum L/D ratio.

C. be developing its maximum coefficient of lift.

At point A, the total drag curve is at its lowest point. When an aircraft is flown at
the airspeed and angle of attack that results in the lowest total drag possible, then
the resulting L/D ratio is at its maximum.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the minimum L/D ratio occurs when parasite drag
is very high, a result of high airspeeds. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
maximum coefficient of lift occurs at slower airspeeds, which results in higher
induced drag and a lower L/D ratio.

49. If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is
pressed forward and released, the airplane displays

A. neutral longitudinal static stability.

B. positive longitudinal static stability.

C. neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

Neutral static stability is the initial tendency of the airplane to remain in the new
condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed. When an airplane's attitude is
momentarily displaced and it remains at the new attitude, it is displaying neutral
longitudinal static stability. Longitudinal stability makes an airplane stable about its
lateral axis (pitch).

Answer (B) is incorrect because positive longitudinal static stability is the initial
tendency of the airplane to return to its original attitude after the elevator control is
pressed forward and released. Answer (C) is incorrect because neutral longitudinal
dynamic stability is the overall tendency for the airplane to remain in the new

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 condition over a period of time.

50. A load factor of 1.2 means the total load on an aircraft's structure is 1.2 times its

A. gross weight.

B. load limit.

C. gust factor.

In aerodynamics, load factor is the ratio of the maximum load an aircraft can
sustain to the gross weight of the aircraft. For example, a load factor of 1.2 means
the total load on an aircraft's structure is 1.2 times its gross weight.

51. An airplane will stall at the same

A. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.

B. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.

C. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.

The definition of a stall is when the airplane exceeds the critical angle of attack.
This happens because the smooth airflow over the airplane's wing is disrupted
and the lift degenerates rapidly. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude,
with any power setting.

52. During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize
the hazard of wingtip vortices by
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its
A.
wake.

B. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.

C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point.

Vortices begin to form when the jet rotates. Plan to be off the runway prior to
reaching the jet's point of rotation, then fly above or turn away from the jet's flight
path.

53. (Refer to Figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds.

A. Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear and flaps down.

B. In a 60° bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up.

C. Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks.

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 Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds than power-off stalls because of
increased airflow over the wing and because some lift is produced by the vertical
component of thrust, reducing the lift needed to be produced by velocity. Power-
on or -off stalls occur at a lower airspeed in a shallower bank.

Answer (A) is incorrect because stall speed is lower with power-off stalls, with gear
and flaps down. Answer (B) is incorrect because the gear position alone will not
affect stall speed in a 60° bank.

54. (Refer to Figure 3.) If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10°, how much
altitude will it lose in 1 mile?

A. 240 feet.

B. 480 feet.

C. 960 feet.

To find the glide ratio (L/D) at an angle of attack of 10°, move upward from the
angle of attack scale to the L/D curve. Then move horizontally to the right to find
the value located on the L/D scale. This gives an 11:1 glide ratio. The question
only deals with glide ratio, so that is the only scale needed. With this glide ratio,
the airplane will descend 1 foot of altitude for every 11 feet covered horizontally.
L ÷ D = 11 ÷ 1 = horizontal distance ÷ vertical distance
11 ÷ 1 = 5,280 feet (1 SM) ÷ X
X = 480 feet

55. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed
prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become
airborne?

A. Past the point where the jet touched down.

B. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

C. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

Vortices cease to be generated when the aircraft lands. Plan to become airborne
beyond this point.

56. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

A. force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

B. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.

reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil,
C.
which acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

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 Lift opposes the downward force of weight. It is produced by the dynamic effect of
the air acting on the wing, and acts perpendicular to the flight path (relative wind)
through the wing's center of lift.

57. (Refer to Figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The
airplane will stall

10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and
A.
flaps down.
25 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down,
B.
wings-level configuration.
10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall than in a wings-level stall with flaps
C.
up.
The stalling speed (in knots) for a power-on 60° bank, with gear and flaps up is 76
knots. For a power-on, 60° bank, and gear and flaps down, the stalling speed is 66
knots, which is 10 knots slower.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the airplane will stall 35 knots higher (not 25) in
this specified configuration. Answer (C) is incorrect because this configuration is
not specified in the question.

58. While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an
increase in airspeed will

A. decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.

B. decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

C. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

For any given angle of bank the rate of turn varies with the airspeed. In other
words, if the angle of bank is held constant and the airspeed is increased, the rate
of turn will decrease; or if the airspeed is decreased, the rate of turn will increase.
Because of this, there is no change in centrifugal force for any given bank.
Therefore, the load factor remains the same.

Answer (A) is incorrect because load factor remains the same at a constant angle
of bank. Answer (C) is incorrect because the rate of turn in a constant angle of
bank will decrease with an increase in airspeed, and the load factor will remain the
same.

59. What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the airplane?

A. How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver.

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 B. Amount of pressure required to operate the controls.

C. Airspeed when pulling out of a descent.

Load factor can be detected by noting how firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat
during a maneuver. If an aircraft is pulled up from a dive, subjecting the pilot to 3
Gs, they would be pressed down into the seat with a force equal to three times
their own weight.

60. Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent?
The sum of all

A. upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.

B. rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces.

C. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.

In steady-state flight, the sum of the opposing forces is equal to zero. The sum of
all upward forces equals the sum of all downward forces. The sum of all forward
forces equals the sum of all backward forces.

61. Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time

A. divided by the total weight of the aircraft.

B. multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.

C. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

Load factor is the ratio between the total airload supported by the wing to the total
weight of the airplane; the total load supported by the wings divided by the total
weight of the airplane.

Answer (B) is incorrect because load factor multiplied by airplane weight equals
required lift. Answer (C) is incorrect because load factor is lift divided by the total
weight of the airplane.

62. In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the

A. CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.

B. CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.

C. spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

The recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes progressively more difficult as
its center of gravity moves aft. This is particularly important in spin recovery, as
there is a point in rearward loading of any airplane at which a 'flat' spin will

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 develop.

Answer (A) is incorrect because rotation is around the CG in a spin. Answer (C) is
incorrect because an airplane must first stall in order to spin.

63. (Refer to Figure 5.) The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the
airspeed indicator by the

A. upper limit of the yellow arc.

B. upper limit of the green arc.

C. blue radial line.

V(NE) (never exceed airspeed), the vertical line from point E to F, is marked on
airspeed indicators with a red radial line, the upper limit of the yellow arc.

64. The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of

A. weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.

B. dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.

C. weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

When the angle of attack becomes so great that the air can no longer flow
smoothly over the top wing surface, it becomes impossible for the air to follow the
contour of the wing. This is the stalling or critical angle of attack. For any given
airplane, the stalling or critical angle of attack remains constant regardless of
weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. These factors will affect
the speed at which the stall occurs, but not the angle.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the stall speed varies with weight and bank angle.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the stall speed varies with weight and bank angle.

65. Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a
coordinated turn at a constant altitude?

A. For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary.

To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the
B.
airspeed is decreased.
The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn
C.
regardless of the angle of bank.
At a specific angle of bank and a specific airspeed, the radius of the turn and the
rate of turn would remain constant if the altitude were maintained. Rate of turn
varies with airspeed, or bank angle. If the angle of bank is held constant and the

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 airspeed is increased, the rate of turn will decrease and the radius of turn will
increase. To maintain a constant rate of turn as the airspeed is increased, the
angle of bank must be increased.

Answer (B) is incorrect because you must decrease the angle of bank when the
airspeed is decreased if you are to maintain a steady rate of turn. Answer (C) is
incorrect because for a given bank angle a faster airspeed gives a slower rate of
turn.

66. If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about
its

A. vertical axis.

B. lateral axis.

C. longitudinal axis.

Lateral stability is controlled by the CG along the longitudinal axis. An airplane will
become less laterally stable as the CG is moved further rearward along the
longitudinal axis. Longitudinal stability (pitching) is stability about the lateral axis.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the CG has little to do with the vertical axis.
Answer (C) is incorrect because lateral stability is not greatly affected by the CG
location.

67. (Refer to Figure 1.) At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot
can expect to obtain the airplane's maximum

A. endurance.

B. glide range.

C. coefficient of lift.

Point B represents the airspeed that results in the greatest L/D ratio. At this point
the aircraft will have its maximum glide range.

Answer (A) is incorrect since only jet aircraft will obtain maximum endurance at
L/D(MAX). Answer (C) is incorrect because the critical angle of attack and the
maximum coefficient of lift occur at the same point, where total drag is also high
because of an increase in induced drag.

68. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream.
The spiraling slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to
the

A. right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

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 B. left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.

C. left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

The slipstream strikes the vertical fin on the left causing a yaw to the left, at the
same time it causes a rolling moment to the left, the opposite of the direction the
propeller is spinning.

69. (Refer to Figure 4.) What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of
bank were increased from 60° to 80°?

A. 3 Gs.

B. 3.5 Gs.

C. 4 Gs.

Proceed vertically along the line above 60° angle of bank to where it intersects the
curve labeled 'Load Factor.' Next, proceed along this line to the left to the
corresponding load factor or 'G' unit, which is 2 Gs in this case. Now, repeat the
procedure using 80° of bank, which should yield a load factor of 6, which is a
difference of 4 Gs.

70. A sweptwing airplane with weak static directional stability and increased dihedral
causes an increase in

A. Mach tuck tendency.

B. Dutch roll tendency.

C. longitudinal stability.

When the dihedral effect is large in comparison with static direction stability, the
dutch roll motion has weak dampening and is increased.

Answer (A) is incorrect because Mach tuck tendency occurs when going through
the sound barrier. Answer (C) is incorrect because longitudinal stability is not
affected by directional stability or dihedral.

71. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a

propeller-driven airplane? Maximum

A. gain in altitude over a given distance.

B. range and maximum distance glide.

C. coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

Maximum range condition would occur where the proportion between speed and

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 power required is greatest. The maximum range condition (of propeller driven
airplanes) is obtained at maximum lift-drag ratio (L/D(MAX)). The best angle of
glide is one that allows the airplane to travel the greatest distance over the ground
with the least loss of altitude. This is also the airplane's maximum L/D and is
usually expressed as a ratio. This implies that the airplane should be flown at
L/D(MAX) to obtain the greatest glide distance.

72. An airplane leaving ground effect will

A. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.

B. experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

C. require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

As the wing encounters ground effect and is maintained at a constant lift

coefficient, there is a reduction in the upwash, downwash, and wing-tip vortices.
This causes a reduction in induced drag. While in ground effect, the airplane
requires less thrust to maintain lift. It will also require a lower angle of attack. When
an airplane leaves ground effect, there is an increase in drag which will require a
higher angle of attack. Additional thrust will be required to compensate for the
loss.

Answer (A) is incorrect because ground friction is reduced when breaking ground.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a higher angle of attack is required to maintain the
same lift coefficient when leaving the ground.

73. Stall speed is affected by

A. weight, load factor, and power.

B. load factor, angle of attack, and power.

C. angle of attack, weight, and air density.

The indicated stalling speed is affected by:

1. Weight. As the weight is increased, the stall speed also increases.
2. Bank angle (load factor). As the bank angle increases, so does the stalling
speed.
3. Power. An increase in power will decrease the stalling speed.
A change in density altitude (air density) or angle of attack has no effect on the
indicated stalling speed, since for a given airplane, the stalling or critical angle of
attack remains constant.

74. To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be
flown at

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 A. the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack.

B. a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack.

C. a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

In order to maintain its lift at a higher altitude, an airplane must fly at a greater true
airspeed for any given angle of attack.

Answer (A) is incorrect because true airspeed must be increased as altitude

increases to generate the same amount of lift. Answer (B) is incorrect because true
airspeed must be increased as altitude increases to generate the same amount of
lift.

75. If the airspeed is decreased from 98 knots to 85 knots during a coordinated level
45 degree banked turn, the load factor will

A. remain the same, but the radius of turn will decrease.

B. decrease, and the rate of turn will decrease.

C. remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase.

At a given angle of bank, a lower airspeed will make the radius of the turn smaller
and the airplane will be turning at a faster rate. This compensates for the reduced
centrifugal force, allowing the load factor to remain the same.

76. To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot
should

A. maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.

B. increase the bank and increase airspeed.

C. increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

The horizontal component of lift will equal the centrifugal force of steady, turning
flight. To increase the rate of turn, the angle of bank may be increased and the
airspeed may be decreased.

Answer (A) is incorrect because although at a given angle of bank a decrease in

airspeed will increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius, it will not be as
effective as steepening the bank and decreasing the airspeed. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the pilot should decrease airspeed to decrease the turn radius.

77. The need to slow an aircraft below V(A) is brought about by the following weather
phenomenon:

A. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.

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 B. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.

C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

When severe turbulence is encountered, the airplane should be flown at or below

maneuvering speed. This is the speed least likely to result in structural damage to
the airplane, even if full control travel is used, and yet allows a sufficient margin of
safety above stalling speed in turbulent air. When an airplane is flying at a high
speed with a low angle of attack and suddenly encounters a vertical current of air
moving upward, the relative wind changes to an upward direction as it meets the
airfoil. This increases the angle of attack on the wings and has the same effect as
applying a sharp back pressure on the elevator control. It increases the load factor
which in turn increases the stall speed.

Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated stall speed is not affected by changes in
density altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because the higher load factors imposed
on the aircraft by turbulence increases stall speed.

78. (Refer to Figure 5.) What does the intersection of the dashed line at point C
represent?

A. Va.

B. Negative limit load factor.

C. Positive limit load factor.

Point C represents the intersection of the positive limit load factor and the line of
maximum positive lift capability. The airspeed at this point is the minimum
airspeed at which the limit load can be developed aerodynamically. Any airspeed
greater than this provides a positive lift capability sufficient to damage the aircraft.
Conversely, any airspeed less than this does not provide positive lift capability
sufficient to cause damage from excessive flight loads. This point is commonly
referred to as maneuvering speed or V(A).

79. Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its

A. rudder.

B. elevator.

C. ailerons.

Longitudinal stability or pitching is the motion around the lateral axis. Pitch is
controlled by the elevator.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the rudder affects directional stability. Answer (C)
is incorrect because the ailerons affect lateral stability.

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 80. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to

A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

B. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.

C. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.

Extending the flaps increases wing lift and also increases induced drag. The
increased drag enables the pilot to make steeper approaches without an increase
in airspeed.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the flaps will increase the angle of descent without
increasing the airspeed. Answer (C) is incorrect because the flaps increase lift and
induced drag.

81. An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

A. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the airfoil's surface.

vacuum below the airfoil's surface and greater air pressure above the airfoil's
B.
surface.
higher air pressure below the airfoil's surface and lower air pressure above the
C.
airfoil's surface.
The highest velocity is at the top of the airfoil with the lowest velocity at the
bottom. Because there is a difference of velocity above and below the wing, the
result is a higher pressure at the bottom of the wing and a lower pressure on the
top of the wing. This low-pressure area produces an upward force known as the
Magnus effect, the physical phenomenon whereby an object's rotation affects its
path through a fluid, including air.

82. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is
known as

A. instantaneous combustion.

B. detonation.

C. pre-ignition.

When a cylinder head gets too hot, it can ignite the fuel/air mixture before the
spark. This condition is called preignition.

Answer (A) is incorrect because detonation is an instantaneous combustion of the

fuel/air mixture, which is caused by using too lean a mixture, using too low a grade
of fuel, or operating with temperatures that are too high. Answer (B) is incorrect
because detonation is an instantaneous combustion of the fuel/air mixture, which
is caused by using too lean a mixture, using too low a grade of fuel, or operating

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 with temperatures that are too high.

83. In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally aspirated

engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the
engine components? When power is being

A. decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.

B. increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.

increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold

C.
pressure.
Power change procedure on a constant-speed propeller is to increase RPM before
manifold pressure. To decrease power, reduce manifold pressure before reducing
RPM. This will help avoid placing undue stress on the engine components.

Answer (A) is incorrect because when power is being decreased, the manifold
pressure should be reduced before reducing the RPM. Answer (C) is incorrect
because when power is being decreased, the manifold pressure should be
reduced before reducing the RPM.

84. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.

B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.

C. throttle is advanced very abruptly.

If the fuel/air mixture is too rich, excessive fuel consumption, rough engine
operation, and appreciable loss of power will occur. Because of excessive fuel, a
cooling effect takes place which causes below normal temperatures in the
combustion chambers. This cooling results in spark plug fouling. Unless the
mixture is leaned with a gain in altitude, the mixture becomes excessively rich.

Answer (B) is incorrect because descending without a mixture adjustment

(operating with an excessively lean mixture) would result in overheating, rough
engine operation, a loss of power, and detonation. Answer (C) is incorrect because
advancing the throttle abruptly may cause the engine to hesitate or stop.

85. During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special
attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by

A. congealed oil from the crankcase.

B. moisture from the outside air which has frozen.

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 C. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen.

The crankcase breather requires special consideration when preparing for cold
weather. Frozen breather lines can create numerous problems. When crankcase
vapors cool, they may condense in the breather line and subsequently freeze it
closed. Special care is recommended during the preflight to ensure that the
breather system is free of ice.

Answer (A) is incorrect because oil that lays in the bottom of the crankcase never
gets into the breather lines. Answer (B) is incorrect because a low air temperature
is usually associated with a low moisture content.

86. Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The
engine continues to run with no interruption; this
is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-
A.
off.

B. should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.

C. is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong.

If the magneto switch ground wire is disconnected, the magneto is ON even

though the ignition switch is in the OFF position. The engine could fire if the
propeller is moved from outside the airplane.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the engine should stop when the ignition key is
turned to the OFF position. Answer (C) is incorrect because this indicates there is
a faulty ground wire.

87. Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed

propeller?
As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of
A.
the propeller blades to remain unchanged.
A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more
B.
engine power for takeoffs.

C. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.

The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn, the propeller RPM.
The RPM is registered on the tachometer.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the prop governor causes the pitch angle of the
prop blades to change to help maintain a specified airspeed. Answer (B) is
incorrect because a high blade angle will increase propeller drag with less engine
power.

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 88. Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off

A. leans the mixture for more power on takeoff.

B. will decrease the takeoff distance.

C. will increase the ground roll.

Use of carburetor heat enriches the mixture, which tends to reduce the output of
the engine and also increases the operating temperature. Therefore, the heat
should not be used when full power is required (such as during takeoff) or during
normal engine operations except to check for the presence of, or removal of
carburetor ice. A decrease in engine output will increase distance required to
reach lift off speed. Therefore, it will increase ground roll.

89. Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude
because the amount of fuel

A. decreases while the volume of air decreases.

B. remains constant while the volume of air decreases.

C. remains constant while the density of air decreases.

Fuel flow remains constant if no adjustments are made. The same volume of air
goes into the carburetor, but the weight and density of the air is less, causing an
excessively rich mixture, which causes spark plug fouling and decreased power.

90. What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of

A. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster airspeed at touchdown.

B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.

C. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.

In this situation, the pilot should aim at the near end of the runway, because of the
tailwind increasing the aircraft's ground speed.

91. Your aircraft has an exhaust manifold type heating system. The exhaust manifold
should be periodically inspected to avoid

A. carbon monoxide poisoning.

B. overheating in the cockpit.

C. extremely cold temperatures in the cabin.

Carbon monoxide poisoning from exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit from a

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 faulty exhaust manifold has been linked to several fatal aircraft accidents.

92. Consider a reciprocating aircraft engine. Detonation can be caused by

A. a 'rich' mixture.

B. low engine temperatures.

C. using a lower grade of fuel than recommended.

Detonation is a sudden explosion or shock to a small area of the piston top, rather
than the normal smooth burn in the combustion chamber. It can be caused by low
grade fuel or a lean mixture.

93. What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude
increases?
The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel
A.
decreases.
The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel
B.
increases.
The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel
C.
remains constant.
Fuel flow remains constant if no adjustments are made. The same volume of air
goes into the carburetor, but the weight and density of the air is less, causing an
excessively rich mixture, which causes spark plug fouling and decreased power.

94. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

A. a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter.

B. the circulation of lubricating oil.

C. the proper freon/compressor output ratio.

Lubricating oil serves two purposes:

1. It furnishes a coating of oil over the surfaces of the moving parts, preventing
metal-to-metal contact and the generation of heat; and
2. It absorbs and dissipates, through the oil cooling system, part of the engine
heat produced by the internal combustion process.

Answer (A) is incorrect because although cowl flaps aid internal cooling, they are
not the primary cooling source. Answer (C) is incorrect because the proper
freon/compressor output ratio controls cabin cooling.

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 95. To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set
to a blade angle that will produce a

A. large angle of attack and low RPM.

B. small angle of attack and high RPM.

C. large angle of attack and high RPM.

Smaller angle of attack makes the blades take smaller amounts of air, which in
turn allows the engine to run at higher RPM, producing more power.

96. To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed

propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing
manifold pressure and

A. increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.

B. decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle.

C. decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle.

A low-pitch, high RPM setting is utilized to obtain maximum power for takeoff.
Then, after the airplane is airborne, an increasing blade angle/pitch will cause
lower RPM which provides adequate thrust and better economy while maintaining
the proper airspeed.

Answer (A) is incorrect because RPM is decreased to reduce power, by increasing

propeller blade angle. Answer (B) is incorrect because blade angle must be
increased to decrease RPM.

97. A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to

A. idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off.

B. add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition.

C. run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure.

If the magneto switch ground wire is disconnected, the magneto is ON even

though the ignition switch is in the OFF position. The engine could fire if the
propeller is moved from outside the airplane.

Answer (B) is incorrect because it is not necessary to add full power when
performing the check. Answer (C) is incorrect because the way to detect a broken
magneto ground wire is to turn the ignition to the OFF position; if the engine
continues to run, the problem is confirmed.

98. Propeller efficiency is the

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 A. ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.

B. actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.

C. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch.

Since the efficiency of any machine is the ratio of useful power output to actual
power input, propeller efficiency is the ratio of thrust horsepower to brake
horsepower.

Answer (B) is incorrect because effective pitch is the actual distance a propeller
advances in one revolution. Answer (C) is incorrect because the ratio of geometric
pitch to effective pitch is called slippage.

99. A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may

be caused by

A. rapid opening and closing of the throttle.

B. carburetor ice forming on the throttle valve.

C. operating with an excessively rich fuel/air mixture.

Rapid throttle operation can induce detonation, which may detune the crankshaft.

Answer (B) is incorrect because carburetor ice can cause the engine to stop
running, but it will not affect the engine crankshaft counterweights. Answer (C) is
incorrect because operating with an excessively rich mixture fouls the spark plugs,
but does not affect the crankshaft.

100. The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which

A. cylinder head temperatures are the coolest.

B. the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.

a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle
C.
setting.
The throttle setting determines the amount of air flowing into the engine. The
mixture control is then adjusted to get the best fuel/air ratio, resulting in the best
power the engine can develop at this particular throttle setting.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the cylinder heads will be the coolest when
mixture is richest. Answer (C) is incorrect because this describes the highest
power setting.

101. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the

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 A. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

B. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.

C. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.

The mixture control is used to change the fuel to air mixture entering the
combustion chamber (cylinder). Fuel-to-air ratio is the weight of fuel to a given
weight of air.

Answer (A) is incorrect because, as altitude increases, the amount of air in a fixed
volume decreases. Answer (C) is incorrect because the carburetor is where the
fuel/air ratio is established prior to entering the cylinders.

102. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to

A. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.

decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air
B.
density.
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in
C.
pressure and density of the air.
Fuel flow remains constant if no adjustments are made. The same volume of air
goes into the carburetor, but the weight and density of the air is less, causing an
excessively rich mixture, which causes spark plug fouling and decreased power.

103. At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the

A. engine to overheat.

B. fouling of spark plugs.

C. engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

Fuel flow remains constant if no adjustments are made. The same volume of air
goes into the carburetor, but the weight and density of the air is less, causing an
excessively rich mixture, which causes spark plug fouling and decreased power.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a lean mixture will cause the engine to overheat.
Answer (C) is incorrect because an engine runs smoother when the mixture is
adjusted for the altitude.

104. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A. there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture.

B. the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring.

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 C. the unburned fuel/air charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous
combustion.
Detonation is a sudden explosion or instantaneous combustion of the fuel/air
mixture in the cylinders, producing extreme heat and severe structural stresses on
the engine.

Answer (A) is incorrect because detonation is caused by too lean a mixture.

Answer (B) is incorrect because detonation does not have anything to do with the
wiring.

105. A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination
of

A. altitude and RPM.

B. airspeed and RPM.

C. airspeed and altitude.

Fixed-pitch propellers are most efficient only at a given combination of airspeed

and RPM.

Answer (A) is incorrect because altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.
Answer (C) is incorrect because altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

106. Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations?

A. The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated.

B. The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters.

C. Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes.

Low temperatures may cause a change in the viscosity of engine oils, batteries
may lose a high percentage of their effectiveness, and instruments may stick.
Because of this, preheating the engines as well as the cabin before starting is
desirable in low temperatures. Extreme caution should be used in the preheat
process to avoid fire.

107. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is
that it
permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising
A.
flight.

B. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight.

C. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.

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 Twisting, or variations in the geometric pitch of the blades, permits the propeller to
operate with a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising
flight.

Answer (A) is incorrect because variations in geometric pitch permit a constant

angle of attack along its length. Answer (B) is incorrect because the propeller tips
would be stalled during cruising flight if there was no variation in geometric pitch.

108. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the engine

A. will not operate on one magneto.

B. cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position.

C. could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.

If the magneto switch ground wire is disconnected, the magneto is ON even

though the ignition switch is in the OFF position. The engine could fire if the
propeller is moved from outside the airplane.

Answer (A) is incorrect because both magnetos remain on when the ground wire is
disconnected. Answer (B) is incorrect because the engine can still be started, and
the magnetos cannot be turned off.

109. Applying carburetor heat will

A. not affect the mixture.

B. lean the fuel/air mixture.

C. enrich the fuel/air mixture.

Use of carburetor heat enriches the mixture which tends to reduce the output of
the engine and also increases the operating temperature.

110. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has
been turned off is

A. carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.

B. a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.

C. a broken magneto ground wire.

If the magneto switch ground wire is disconnected, the magneto is ON even

though the ignition switch is in the OFF position. The engine could fire if the
propeller is moved from outside the airplane.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because glowing carbon deposits is a result of preignition.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a magneto ground wire should be in contact with
the engine casing to provide grounding.

111. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and
A.
evenly.

B. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.

C. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

Detonation or knock is a sudden explosion or shock to a small area of the piston

top, rather than the normal smooth burn in the combustion chamber.

Answer (B) is incorrect because detonation may occur with an excessively lean
fuel mixture and a loss in power. Answer (C) is incorrect because this describes
preignition.

112. For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a

A. small angle of attack and high RPM.

B. large angle of attack and low RPM.

C. large angle of attack and high RPM.

Smaller angle of attack makes the blades take smaller amounts of air, which in
turn allows the engine to run at higher RPM, producing more power.

113. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

A. throttle.

B. manifold pressure.

C. mixture control.

The fuel/air ratio of the combustible mixture delivered to the engine is controlled
by the mixture control.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the throttle regulates the total volume of fuel and
air entering the combustion chamber. Answer (B) is incorrect because the manifold
pressure indicates the engine's power output.

114. Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor
heat?

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 A. It enriches the fuel/air mixture.

B. It leans the fuel/air mixture.

C. It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture.

Use of carburetor heat enriches the mixture which tends to reduce the output of
the engine and also increases the operating temperature.

115. The mixture control can be adjusted, which

A. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.

B. regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor's venturi.

C. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.

As the aircraft climbs, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer and the excessive fuel
causes the engine to lose power and to run rougher. The mixture control provides
a means for the pilot to decrease fuel to compensate for this imbalance in mixture
as altitude increases.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the throttle regulates the airflow through the
carburetor's venturi. Answer (C) is incorrect because the fuel/air ratio becomes
richer as the aircraft climbs.

116. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A. a defective bearing.

B. the oil level being too low.

C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

The oil pressure indication varies inversely with the oil temperature. High
temperature and low-pressure usually indicate low oil level.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a defective bearing will increase metal particles in
the oil, but will not significantly affect the oil temperature. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a rich mixture results in lower engine operating temperatures; therefore, it
would not increase engine oil temperature.

117. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed in a specified configuration?

A. V(S).

B. V(S1).

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 C. V(S0).

V(S1) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a
specific configuration.

Answer (A) is incorrect because V(S) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady
flight speed at which the airplane is controllable. Answer (C) is incorrect because
V(S0) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing
configuration.

118. You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data
computer fails. What instrument is affected?

A. ADS-B In capability.

B. Airspeed indicator.

C. Attitude indicator.

The pitot-static inputs are received by the air data computer (ADC). If the ADC
fails, the airspeed indicator will be affected.

119. What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

A. Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.

B. 29.92 "Hg.

C. Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.

Each person operating an aircraft shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level
of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set, when operating at or above
18,000 feet MSL, to 29.92 "Hg.

120. Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in
severe turbulence?

A. Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed.

Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of
B.
altitude.

Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed,

C.
maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
In severe turbulence, set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below
maneuvering speed; this helps avoid exceeding the aircraft's maximum load
factor. Attempt to maintain constant attitude, and accept airspeed and altitude

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 variations caused by gusts.

Answer (A) is incorrect because it is not possible to maintain a constant airspeed

in severe turbulence. Answer (B) is incorrect because it is not possible to maintain
a constant airspeed in severe turbulence.

121. 14 CFR Part 1 defines V(F) as

A. design flap speed.

B. flap operating speed.

C. maximum flap extended speed.

V(F) is the design flap speed.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the flap operating range is indicated by the white
arc on the airspeed indicator. Answer (C) is incorrect because V(FE) is the
maximum flap extended speed.

122. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for

A. installation and instrument error.

B. instrument error.

C. non-standard temperature.

Calibrated airspeed is the indicated airspeed corrected for position (or installation),
and instrument errors.

123. The ratio of an airplane's true airspeed to the speed of sound in the same
atmospheric conditions is

A. equivalent airspeed.

B. transonic airflow.

C. mach number.

Mach number means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound.

124. What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum
system for other gyroscopic instruments?

A. It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure.

B. It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators.

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 C. It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators.

An electric turn coordinator provides a backup in case the vacuum system fails.

Answer (B) is incorrect because both the vacuum-driven and electrically driven
indicators are reliable, and both can tumble. Answer (C) is incorrect because both
the vacuum-driven and electrically driven indicators are reliable, and both can
tumble.

125. 14 CFR Part 1 defines V(NE) as

A. maximum nose wheel extend speed.

B. never-exceed speed.

C. maximum landing gear extended speed.

V(NE) is the never-exceed speed.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this speed is not defined in 14 CFR Part 1. Answer
(C) is incorrect because this is V(LE).

126. Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane
can be operated during

A. abrupt maneuvers.

B. normal operations.

C. flight in smooth air.

The maximum structural cruising speed (V(NO)) is the speed at which exceeding
the load limit factor may cause permanent deformation of the airplane structure.
This is the maximum speed for normal operation.

Answer (A) is incorrect because design maneuvering speed (V(A)) is the maximum
speed for abrupt maneuvers. Answer (C) is incorrect because the yellow arc
identifies the range where flight is only recommended in smooth air.

127. An airplane is located at an airport with an elevation of 5,000 feet MSL and a
temperature of 90 degrees F. The altimeter is set to airport elevation. Later that
night the temperature plummets to 50 degrees F. Unless the altimeter setting is
changed, it will read

A. 4,800 feet.

B. 5,000 feet.

C. 5,200 feet.

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 A decrease in air temperature will increase the density of the air and decrease the
density altitude of a given airport. If the altimeter setting isn't adjusted for the
change in pressure, the altimeter will read higher than the field elevation.

128. 14 CFR part 1 defines V(NO) as

A. maximum structural cruising speed.

B. normal operating speed.

C. maximum operating speed.

V(NO) means maximum structural cruising speed.

129. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed at which the airplane is controllable?

A. V(S).

B. V(S1).

C. V(S0).

V(S) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane
is controllable.

Answer (B) is incorrect because V(S1) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady
flight speed obtained in a specified configuration. Answer (C) is incorrect because
V(S0) is the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing
configuration.

130. 14 CFR Part 1 defines V(LE) as

A. maximum landing gear extended speed.

B. maximum landing gear operating speed.

C. maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.

V(LE) is the maximum landing gear extended speed.

Answer (B) is incorrect because V(LO) is the maximum landing gear operating
speed. Answer (C) is incorrect because maximum leading edge flaps extended
speed is not defined in 14 CFR Part 1.

131. Why should flight speeds above V(NE) be avoided?

A. Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure.

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 B. Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered.

C. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable.

Any speed above V(NE) can cause damage; therefore, flight above this speed
should be avoided even in smooth air.

Answer (A) is incorrect because induced drag decreases with increased airspeed.
Answer (C) is incorrect because control effectiveness increases with increased
airspeed.

132. Newer airplanes have a design maneuvering speed that can generally be
calculated as follows:

A. 1.2 Vso.

B. 1.7 Vso.

C. half the stall speed.

The maximum speed at which an aircraft may be stalled safely is now determined
for all new designs. This speed is called the "design maneuvering speed" (VA) and
must be entered in the AFM/POH of all recently designed aircraft. For older
general aviation aircraft, this speed is approximately 1.7 times the normal stalling
speed. For example, an older aircraft which normally stalls at 60 knots must never
be stalled at above 102 knots (60 knots x 1.7 = 102 knots). An aircraft with a
normal stalling speed of 60 knots stalled at 102 knots undergoes a load factor
equal to the square of the increase in speed, or 2.89 Gs (1.7 x 1.7 = 2.89 Gs).

133. A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported.
Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?

A. Maintain altitude and airspeed.

B. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

C. Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed.

In an area where significant clear air turbulence (CAT) has been reported or is
forecast, it is suggested that the pilot adjust the speed to fly at the recommended
rough air speed on encountering the first ripple, since the intensity of such
turbulence may build up rapidly.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the appropriate action is to adjust airspeed to

design maneuvering speed (V(A)). Answer (C) is incorrect because the appropriate
action is to adjust airspeed to design maneuvering speed (V(A)).

134. What is a consideration when using a hand-held GPS for VFR navigation?

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 A. Position accuracy may degrade without notification.

B. RAIM capability will be maintained for entire flight.

C. Waypoints will still be accurate even if database is not current.

While a hand-held GPS receiver can provide excellent navigation capability to VFR
pilots, be prepared for intermittent loss of navigation signal, possibly with no RAIM
warning to the pilot.

135. Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air at speeds above

A. V(NO).

B. V(A).

C. V(NE).

Any speed above V(NE) can cause damage; therefore, flight above this speed
should be avoided even in smooth air.

136. What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-
slip indicator? The turn coordinator

A. is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven.

indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and
B.
coordination.
indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator
C.
indicates rate of turn and coordination.
The turn coordinator indicates roll rate in addition to rate of turn and coordination.
The turn-and-slip indicator only indicates rate of turn and coordination.

Answer (A) is incorrect because both these instruments are usually electrically
driven. Answer (B) is incorrect because a turn coordinator does not indicate bank
angle.

137. What could be one result of exceeding critical Mach number?

A. Propeller stall.

B. Reduction in drag.

C. Aircraft control difficulties.

Critical Mach number is the boundary between subsonic and transonic flight.
When shock waves form on the aircraft, airflow separation followed by buffet and
aircraft control difficulties can occur. Shock waves, buffet, and airflow separation

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 take place above critical Mach number.

138. If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the
airspeed to

A. minimum control speed.

B. design-maneuvering speed.

C. maximum structural cruising speed.

Design maneuvering speed (V(A)) is the maximum speed at which the maximum
load limit can be imposed (either by gust or full deflection of the control surfaces)
without causing structural damage.

Answer (A) is incorrect because in turbulence, minimum control speed would result
in the airplane stalling or significant control problems. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the maximum structural cruising speed is faster than V(A).

139. (Refer to Figure 5.) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the
airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the

A. green arc.

B. yellow arc.

C. white arc.

The high speed limit of the green arc is the maximum speed for normal operation.
This is designated as maximum structural cruising speed (V(NO)), which is line D
to G.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the high speed limit of the yellow arc is the never
exceed speed (V(NE)), which is line E to F. Answer (C) is incorrect because the high
speed limit of the white arc is the maximum flap extended speed (V(FE)), which is
not indicated on the chart.

140. 14 CFR Part 1 defines V(Y) as

A. speed for best rate of descent.

B. speed for best angle of climb.

C. speed for best rate of climb.

V(Y) is the speed for best rate of climb.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this is not defined in 14 CFR Part 1. Answer (B) is
incorrect because this is V(X).

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 141. True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for

A. installation or instrument error.

B. non-standard temperature.

C. altitude and non-standard temperature.

True airspeed is indicated airspeed after it has been corrected for nonstandard
temperature and pressure altitude.

142. Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

A. Power, pitch, bank, and trim.

B. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides.

C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

Maneuvering the airplane is divided into four flight fundamentals:

1. Straight-and-level
2. Turns
3. Climbs
4. Descents

143. If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?

A. 1 minute.

B. 2 minutes.

C. 3 minutes.

A standard rate turn means the aircraft is turning at a rate of 3° per second. 360°
divided by 3° per second is equal to 120 seconds, or 2 minutes.

144. Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an
airspeed indicator?

A. The never-exceed speed.

B. The power-off stall speed.

C. The maneuvering speed.

Maneuvering speed is not color-coded on airspeed indicators.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the never-exceed speed is identified by the red
line at the high-speed end of the yellow arc. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
power-off stall speed is identified by the low-speed end of the white arc for

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 landing configuration (V(SO)), and the low-speed end of the green arc for clean
configuration (V(S1)).

145. To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to

A. the current altimeter setting.

B. 29.92'' Hg and the altimeter indication noted.

C. the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.

Pressure altitude can be determined by setting the altimeter to 29.92 ''Hg and
reading the altimeter indication.

Answer (A) is incorrect because these would indicate field elevation, or true
altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because these would indicate field elevation, or
true altitude.

146. Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation

A. varies over time as the agonic line shifts.

B. varies for different headings of the same aircraft.

C. is the same for all aircraft in the same locality.

Deviation depends, in part, on the heading of the aircraft. The difference between
the direction indicated by a magnetic compass not installed in an airplane, and
one that is installed in an airplane, is deviation.

Answer (A) is incorrect because variation varies over time as the agonic line shifts.
Answer (C) is incorrect because deviation varies from aircraft to aircraft.

147. What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined
by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?

A. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

B. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

C. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury.

"Serious injury" means any injury requiring hospitalization for more than 48 hours,
commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.

148. To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a

person is required to

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 A. receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane.

obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to
B.
operate such an airplane.
receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an
C.
airplane.
To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an
engine of more than 200 horsepower), the person must receive and log ground
and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane and
has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane. In addition,
the pilot must receive a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an
authorized instructor who certifies that the person is proficient to operate a high-
performance airplane. The training and endorsement is not required if the person
has logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane prior to
August 4, 1997.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the required flight and ground training must be
given by an authorized instructor, not a qualified pilot. Answer (B) is incorrect
because the required flight and ground training must be given by an authorized
instructor, not a qualified pilot.

149. The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is

A. not authorized in a 'utility' category aircraft.

B. not authorized in a 'limited' category aircraft.

C. authorized in 'restricted' category aircraft.

Operations for compensation or hire are not authorized in limited category aircraft,
experimental aircraft, and restricted category aircraft. Operations using utility
category aircraft (such as Cessna 152) are authorized.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the carriage of passengers for hire is permitted in
normal and utility category aircraft. Answer (C) is incorrect because the carriage of
passengers for hire is not permitted in restricted category aircraft.

150. During preflight, you discover one of the passenger seats has a defective shoulder
harness. All of the seats will be occupied. This flight is

A. allowed.

B. not allowed.

C. allowed so long as the passenger is notified of the defective shoulder harness.

No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, takeoff, or land a U.S.- registered

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 civil aircraft unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has
been notified to fasten their safety belt and, if installed, their shoulder harness.

151. No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a
lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft
Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK within how many hours
of its execution?

A. 24.

B. 48.

C. 72.

The lessee must mail a copy of the lease to the Aircraft Registry Technical Section,
Box 25724, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma, 73125, within 24 hours of its execution.

152. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to
submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

A. within 7 days.

B. within 10 days.

C. only if requested to do so.

A written report of an incident need be filed only if requested by the NTSB.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 7 days is the time limitation for reporting overdue
(missing) aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because 10 days is the limitation on filing
a report for accidents.

153. You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an
overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate
decision?

A. No maintenance is available so you wait until after the trip to comply with the AD.

B. You make the flight because you can overfly an AD by 10 hours.

C. You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance.

No person may operate a product to which an AD applies, except in accordance

with the requirements of that AD.

154. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar
with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must

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 A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing
B.
performance at the destination airport.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports,
C.
fuel requirements, the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be
familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives
available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays
of which the pilot has been advised by ATC. For any flight, the pilot must be
familiar with runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff
and landing distance information: For civil aircraft for which an approved airplane
or rotorcraft flight manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required,
the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein.

Answer (A) is incorrect because only pilots filing an IFR flight must be familiar with
the instrument approaches at their destination airport and possible alternates.
Answer (B) is incorrect because an alternate is not required if weather is VFR at the
destination.

155. To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing
gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6
A.
months.
receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a
B.
logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.

C. hold a multiengine airplane class rating.

No person may act as PIC of a complex airplane (an airplane that has a retractable
landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller), unless the person has
received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a
complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is
representative of a complex airplane, and has been found proficient in the
operation and systems of the airplane; and received a one-time endorsement in
the pilot's logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies the person is
proficient to operate a complex airplane.

156. A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the
process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is
grounds for
a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700)
A.
not later than 60 days after the conviction.

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 notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within
B.
60 days after the conviction.
suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under
C.
14 CFR Part 61.
A conviction for the violation of any federal or state statute relating to the growing,
processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or
importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or
substances is grounds for: (1) denial of an application for any certificate, rating, or
authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2)
suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

157. During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft
#2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of
aircraft

A. #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.

B. #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1.

C. #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same
altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the
right-of-way. The green light indicates aircraft #1 is looking at the right wing of
aircraft #2, which means aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

158. Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?

A. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection.

B. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.

An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been

C.
approved.
The annual is considered the more rigorous inspection and can be substituted for
the 100-hour, not vice versa.

Answer (A) is incorrect because an annual inspection may be substituted for a

100-hour inspection. Answer (C) is incorrect because a progressive inspection can
be done in place of an annual inspection.

159. In what type of operation, not regulated by 14 CFR Part 119, may a commercial
pilot act as pilot in command and receive compensation for services?

A. Part-time contract pilot.

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 Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry persons for intentional
B.
parachute jumps.

C. Nonstop flights within a 25 SM radius of an airport to carry cargo only.

Part 119 does not apply to nonstop flights conducted within a 25 SM radius of the
airport of takeoff carrying persons or objects for the purpose of conducting
intentional parachute operations.

Answer (A) is incorrect because these operations are regulated by Part 119.
Answer (C) is incorrect because these operations are regulated by Part 119.

160. Required flight crewmembers' safety belts must be fastened

A. only during takeoff and landing.

B. while the crewmembers are at their stations.

C. only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

Required flight crewmembers must keep their safety belts fastened while at their
stations.

161. Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or
communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft
being flown

A. along Federal airways.

B. within the U.S.

C. in air carrier operations.

Portable electronic devices may not be operated on aircraft operated by a holder

of an air carrier operating certificate.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this rule pertains only to IFR and commercial
flights. Answer (B) is incorrect because this rule pertains only to IFR and
commercial flights.

162. Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a

pilot?

A. A record of preventive maintenance is not required.

B. A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.

Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight

C. manual.

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 A person holding at least a Private Pilot Certificate may approve an aircraft for
return to service after performing preventative maintenance under the provisions
of 14 CFR §43.3(g) and shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that
maintenance.

163. To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required
to have
a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of
A. ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and
procedures for safe towing of gliders.
at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft, and
B. made and logged at least three flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed
by an airplane.
a logbook record of having made at least three flights as sole manipulator of the
C.
controls of a glider being towed by an airplane.
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider, a person must have a
logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the person
has received ground and flight training in gliders and is proficient in the techniques
and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed
limitations.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the PIC must have logged at least three flights as
the sole manipulator of the controls, not as an observer, of an aircraft towing a
glider or simulating glider-towing flight procedures while accompanied by an
authorized pilot. Answer (C) is incorrect because any person who, before May 17,
1967, has made and logged 10 or more flights as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider
in accordance with a certificate of waiver need not comply with this rule.

164. Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?

A. Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace.

B. A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.

A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength not less than
C.
80% of the aircraft's gross weight.

A certificate of waiver is required for towing objects other than gliders.

Answer (A) is incorrect because approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace
is only required in IFR conditions. Answer (C) is incorrect because the towline
breaking strength requirement is for towing gliders.

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 165. Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to

A. the specific duties of any required crewmember.

B. acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.

C. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Operational control, with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over
initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Answer (A) is incorrect because assigning specific duties to a crew member is only
a small part of exercising operational control. Answer (B) is incorrect because
acting as sole manipulator of an aircraft is a flight crew responsibility.

166. Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or
communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being
operated

A. under IFR.

B. in passenger carrying operations.

C. along Federal airways.

Any portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined
could cause interference with the navigation or communication systems may not
be used on any aircraft operated under IFR.

167. You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel
range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must

A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing
B.
performance at the destination airport.

C. obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight.

Before beginning a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, each
PIC shall become familiar with all available information concerning that flight,
including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, available alternatives if
the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the
pilot in command has been advised by ATC.

168. You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another. Which of
the following actions must the pilot in command take?

A. Ensure each passenger has a legible photo identification.

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 B. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.

C. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.

No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:

1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate, displayed at the cabin or
cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
2. A registration certificate issued to its owner.
3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any
combination of these, showing the operating limitations of the aircraft.

169. Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

A. not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found
B.
competent in formation.
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot
C.
in command of each aircraft in the formation.

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a

collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by
arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No
person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

170. Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating
when operating any

A. aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.

B. aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.

C. multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.

A person may not act as pilot-in-command of any of the following aircraft unless
they hold a type rating for that aircraft:
1. A large aircraft (except lighter-than-air), more than 12,500 pounds maximum
certificated takeoff weight.
2. A helicopter, for operations requiring an airline transport pilot certificate.
3. A turbojet-powered airplane.
4. Other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate
procedures.

171. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace,
shall report as soon as practical to ATC when

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 A. climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications

B.
equipment, occurring in flight.

C. requested to contact a new controlling facility.

The pilot-in-command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR

shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational,
approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

172. What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B
airspace? A transponder

A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.

with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet
B.
AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.

C. is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.

Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft

in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with an operating
transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment that has an operable
coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, or
a Mode S capability, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude
reporting equipment having a Mode C capability.

173. Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They are

not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a
A.
collision hazard.
not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found
B.
competent in formation.
authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot
C.
in command of each aircraft in the formation.
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a
collision hazard. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by
arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation. No
person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

174. Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must
submit a request for a deviation from the

A. ATC facility no less than 24 hours before the proposed operation.

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 B. nearest FSDO 24 hours before the proposed operation.

C. controlling ATC facility at any time prior to entering the controlled airspace.

Mode C (encoding) transponders are required in Class A, B, and C airspace.

175. Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

A. ADs are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.

B. Noncompliance with ADs renders an aircraft unairworthy.

C. Compliance with ADs is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.

No person may operate a product to which an AD applies, except in accordance

with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.

Answer (A) is incorrect because ADs are mandatory. Answer (C) is incorrect
because compliance with ADs, along with other maintenance regulations, is the
responsibility of the owner/operator.

176. Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each
aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,

A. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.

B. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.

C. more than 50 statute miles from shore.

Approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant is required on each

aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance
from shore. 'Shore' is defined as the area of the land adjacent to the water that is
above the high water mark, excluding land areas which are intermittently under
water.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the flotation gear requirement applies to all aircraft
operated for hire when flying beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Answer (C) is incorrect because flotation gear is not required if the aircraft remains
within power-off gliding distance from shore.

177. To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot
must

A. log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor.

pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized

B.
instructor.

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 receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a
C.
logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person
proficient in a tailwheel airplane.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person
has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel
airplane and received an endorsement in the person's logbook from an authorized
instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane.

178. If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no

person may operate that aircraft

A. after sunset to sunrise.

B. after dark.

C. 1 hour after sunset.

No person may during the period from sunset to sunrise operate an aircraft that is
equipped with an anticollision light system, unless it has lighted anticollision lights.
However, the anticollision lights need not be lighted when the pilot in command
determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of
safety to turn the lights off.

179. Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the

A. applicable airworthiness certificate.

B. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.

C. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.

Each registered owner or operator shall keep records containing the following
information: the current status of life-limited parts of each airframe, engine,
propeller, rotor, and appliance.

180. Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified
immediately?

A. In-flight fire.

B. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch.

Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other
C.
property of more than $25,000.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means
available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any inflight fire.

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 Answer (B) is incorrect because the regulation specifies inflight fires only. Answer
(C) is incorrect because the regulation specifies inflight fires only.

181. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of
landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A. at the higher altitude.

at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
B.
front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or
C.
overtake the other aircraft.
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing,
the lower aircraft has the right-of-way. However, a pilot shall not take advantage of
this rule to overtake or cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach to
land.

182. While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the
helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-
way, and why?

A. The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.

B. The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.

C. The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.

When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same
altitude (except head-on, or nearly so) the aircraft to the other's right has the right-
of-way. Aircraft and rotorcraft are treated as equally maneuverable, so neither
aircraft has right-of-way over the other.

183. The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be
operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is

A. 30 minutes.

B. 45 minutes.

C. 60 minutes.

ELT batteries must be replaced or recharged when the transmitter has been in use
for more than one cumulative hour.

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 184. What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes
above 15,000 feet MSL?

A. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.

B. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.

C. The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.

No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:

1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000
feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses
supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more
than 30 minutes duration;
2. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required
minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the
entire flight time at those altitudes; and
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the
aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the flight crew must use oxygen above 14,000 feet
MSL. Answer (B) is incorrect because oxygen requirements apply to all aircraft.

185. On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an
elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken.
According to NTSB 830, you

A. must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.

B. should notify the NTSB within 10 days.

C. must file a NASA report immediately.

Immediate notification is required by the operator of any civil aircraft when a flight
control system malfunction or failure occurs.

186. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night
flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your
altitude? The other aircraft is

A. headed away from you.

B. crossing to your left.

C. approaching you head-on.

The pilot is seeing the rotating beacon and the white light on the tail. The other
aircraft is headed away.

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 Answer (B) is incorrect because you would see a steady red light if the other
aircraft was crossing to your left. Answer (C) is incorrect because you would see
both the red and green wing-tip position lights if the other aircraft were
approaching you head-on.

187. What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the
airplane?

A. Certificate holder.

B. Pilot in command.

C. Airplane owner/operator.

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final

authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

188. Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

A. Anticollision light system.

B. Gyroscopic direction indicator.

C. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.

An approved anticollision light system is required for flight under VFR between
sunset and sunrise.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a gyroscopic direction indicator and gyroscopic

bank-and-pitch indicator is required for IFR flights. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a gyroscopic direction indicator and gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator
is required for IFR flights.

189. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

A. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass.

B. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

C. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and each pilot of an
overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

190. To act as PIC of a high performance airplane, which training or experience would
meet the additional requirements?

A. Logged at least five hours as SIC in a high performance or turbine-powered

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 airplane in the last 12 calendar months.
Received and logged ground and flight training in an airplane with retractable
B.
landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller.
Received and logged ground and flight training in a high performance airplane and
C.
a received a logbook endorsement.
To act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane (an airplane with an
engine of more than 200 horsepower), the pilot must receive and log ground and
flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane and
must be found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane. In addition,
the pilot must receive a one-time endorsement in the pilot's logbook from an
authorized instructor who certifies that the pilot is proficient in operating a high-
performance airplane. The training and endorsement is not required if the pilot has
logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane prior to
August 4, 1997.

191. Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?

A. Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.

B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.

C. Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.

Aircraft class ratings, with respect to airmen, include single-engine land, multi-
engine land, single-engine sea, and multi-engine sea, helicopter, gyroplane,
airship, and free balloon.

Answer (A) is incorrect because these are aircraft categories with respect to the
certification of aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because these are categories of
aircraft with respect to airmen.

192. What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated Commercial Pilot-Airplane, if

that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers
for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited
A.
for day flights.

B. or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.

for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or for hire at night is

C.
prohibited.
A person who applies for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane category
and does not hold an Instrument Rating in the same category and class will be
issued a Commercial Pilot Certificate that contains the limitation 'The carriage of
passengers for hire in (airplanes) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at

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 night is prohibited.'

193. When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by

regulation to be available in the aircraft?

A. A manufacturer's Operations Manual.

B. A current, approved Airplane (or Rotorcraft) Flight Manual.

C. An Owner's Manual.

No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:

1. An appropriate and current Airworthiness Certificate, displayed at the cabin or
cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
2. A Registration Certificate issued to its owner.
3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any
combination of these, showing the operating limitations of the aircraft.

194. No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless
the

A. other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.

B. pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.

other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot
C.
certificate and is appropriately rated.
No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless the
other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least a private
pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being
flown.

195. A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
1. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above
10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).

A. 1.

B. 2.

C. Both 1 and 2.

Mode C (encoding) transponders are required in Class A, B, and C airspace.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a transponder is required in all airspace of the 48

contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL,

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 excluding airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
transponder is required in all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of
Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding airspace at and below 2,500
feet AGL.

196. Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA
Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of
their pilot certificate for a period of

A. 30 days.

B. 60 days.

C. 90 days.

The holder of a pilot or flight instructor certificate who has made a change in their
permanent mailing address may not after 30 days from the date they moved,
exercise the privileges of their certificate unless they have notified the FAA.

197. After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned
to service, an appropriate notation should be made

A. on the airworthiness certificate.

B. in the aircraft maintenance records.

C. in the FAA-approved flight manual.

Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall have that aircraft inspected as

prescribed by regulations and shall, between required inspections, have
discrepancies repaired as prescribed in Part 43. In addition, each owner or
operator shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the
aircraft maintenance records indicating that the aircraft has been approved for
return to service.

198. A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an
aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person
holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience
A.
requirements of 14 CFR Part 61.
is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and with the applicable parts that
B.
apply to the operation.
is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR Part 61 and has passed a pilot competency
C.
check given by an authorized check pilot.
Not only must the pilot be qualified in accordance with Part 61, the pilot must also

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 comply with Part 91, the regulations which govern the operation of the flight.

199. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in
their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when

A. piloting for hire only.

B. carrying passengers only.

C. acting as pilot in command.

No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required

pilot flight crew member of a civil aircraft unless a current pilot certificate and,
except for glider and balloon pilots, an appropriate current medical certificate is in
his/her possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because having the appropriate pilot and medical
certificates is required regardless of the type of operation. Answer (B) is incorrect
because having the appropriate pilot and medical certificates is required
regardless of the type of operation.

200. If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and
found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on
its use?

A. Its use is not permitted.

B. It may be used when in Class G airspace.

C. It may be used for VFR flight only.

No person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar
months, that ATC transponder has been tested, inspected and found to comply
with regulations.

201. You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in
the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC
recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?

A. Multi or single-engine land.

B. Single-engine land airplane.

C. Multi-engine land airplane.

No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers unless, within the
preceding 90 days, he/she has made three takeoffs and landings as the sole
manipulator of the controls in an aircraft of the same category, class and type (if

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 required).

202. For the purpose of airworthiness, a dealer registration certificate is the same as
the owner's certificate when

A. the aircraft is old and moved.

B. traveling more than 150 NM.

C. required for flight testing.

A dealer's aircraft registration certificate may be used in lieu of the owner's

registration if the flight is required for flight testing or is aircraft o necessary for, or
incident to, the sale of the aircraft.

203. You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to
use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should
explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he use the shoulder harness
A.
during takeoff, landing, and movement on the surface.

B. allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness.

allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness
C.
while en route.
If installed, a shoulder harness must be worn during movement on the surface,
takeoff, and landing.

204. If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport
on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first
airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly
thereafter for

A. 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.

B. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

C. 1 hour at normal cruising speed.

Civil airplanes in IFR conditions must have sufficient fuel (considering weather
reports, forecasts, and conditions) to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
then to an alternate, then to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

205. With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during
movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for

A. safe operating practice, but not required by regulations.

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 B. each person over 2 years of age on board.

C. commercial passenger operations only.

No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, takeoff, or land a U.S.- registered
civil aircraft unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has
been notified to fasten their safety belt and, if installed, their shoulder harness. A
person who has not reached their second birthday may be held by an adult.

206. When may an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out not operate in transmit mode?

A. Anytime the aircraft is operating in Class G airspace.

If the aircraft is being operated for law enforcement purposes and transmitting
B.
would jeopardize the safety of the mission.

C. If the aircraft was not originally certificated with an electrical system.

If transmitting would jeopardize the safety or security of a law enforcement

mission, the FAA may approve the flight to be conducted without ADS-B Out
equipment in transmit mode.

Answer (A) is incorrect because regardless of airspace or whether the aircraft was
originally certificated with an electrical system, it must operate any installed ADS-
B Out equipment in transmit mode. Answer (C) is incorrect because regardless of
airspace or whether the aircraft was originally certificated with an electrical
system, it must operate any installed ADS-B Out equipment in transmit mode.

207. No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness

certificate

A. under instrument flight rules (IFR).

B. when carrying property for hire.

C. when carrying persons or property for hire.

No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate while

carrying persons or property for compensation or hire.

208. Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

A. Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire.

B. An electric landing light if the flight is for hire.

C. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

An electric landing light is required only if the night flight is for hire.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because there is no specific requirement for flashlights and
the color of the lens. Answer (C) is incorrect because sensitive altimeters are only
required for IFR flight.

209. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, which airspace requires the appropriate
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed?

A. Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C Airspace

Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace up to
B.
10,000 feet MSL.

C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be
equipped with an ADS-B Out system. ADS-B is required when operating within 30
NM of an airport listed in appendix D of Part 91 from the surface up to 10,000 feet
MSL.

210. Which of the following preflight actions is the pilot in command required to take in
order to comply with the United States Code of Federal Regulations regarding day
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A. File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.

B. Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.

C. Verify approved position lights are not burned out.

No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:

1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate, displayed at the cabin or
cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
2. A registration certificate issued to its owner.
3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any
combination of these, showing the operating limitations of the aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because it is not mandatory to file a flight plan. Answer (C)
is incorrect because regulations only specify approved position lights must be
installed.

211. When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned
flight cannot be completed?

A. IFR flights only.

B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

C. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

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 For a flight under IFR or flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot must be
familiar with weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives
available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays
of which the pilot has been advised by ATC.

212. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 91, a commercial

pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a
proficiency check within the preceding

A. 6 calendar months.

B. 12 calendar months.

C. 24 calendar months.

No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding

24 calendar months, that person has accomplished a flight review, completed a
pilot proficiency check, or has completed one or more phases of an FAA-
sponsored pilot proficiency award program.

213. In accordance with 14 CFR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the
required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin
pressure altitudes of

A. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.

B. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.

No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry:

1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000
feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses
supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more
than 30 minutes duration;
2. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required
minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the
entire flight time at those altitudes; and
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the
aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.

214. Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness
fastened

A. during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.

while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform

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 B. required duties.

C. during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.

Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during

takeoff and landing, keep their shoulder harness fastened while at their assigned
duty station. This rule does not apply if the seat at the crewmember's station is not
equipped with a shoulder harness, or the crewmember would be unable to
perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the shoulder harness must be used on takeoff and
landing regardless of the passenger complement. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the regulation specifies shoulder harness use during takeoff and landing.

215. While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, wheel, and tire are damaged
by striking ground equipment. What action would be required to comply with
NTSB Part 830?
An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the
A.
nearest NTSB field office.

B. A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days.

C. No notification or report is required.

An accident is defined as the occurrence of a fatality or serious injury or

substantial damage to the aircraft. Substantial damage specifically excludes
damage to the landing gear, wheels and tires. ^

Answer (A) is incorrect because no notification is required due to damaged landing

gear alone. Answer (B) is incorrect because notification of an overdue aircraft
requires a report within 7 days if the aircraft is still missing, not damage to the
landing gear.

216. You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection
of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may

A. depart if you get a special flight permit.

B. depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements.

C. not depart until a new inspection is conducted.

ELTs must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection.

217. An airplane is converging with a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A. The aircraft on the left.

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 B. The aircraft on the right.

C. The faster of the two aircraft.

If aircraft of the same category (or an airplane and rotorcraft) are converging, the
aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way.

218. A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of

alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person's faculties, is grounds for a

written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700)
A.
not later than 60 day after the conviction.

written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days
B.
after the conviction.
denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under
C.
14 CFR part 61.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8
hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence
of alcohol, while using any drug that affects the person's faculties in any way
contrary to safety; or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the
blood. Committing any of these acts is grounds for: (1) denial of an application for
a certificate, rating, or authorization for a period of up to 1 year after the date of
that act; or (2) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

219. What flight time must be documented and recorded, by a pilot exercising the
privileges of a commercial certificate?
Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for
A.
a certificate, rating, or flight review.

B. All flight time flown for compensation or hire.

Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is
C.
necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
The aeronautical training and experience needed to meet the requirements for a
certificate or rating, and/or the recent flight experience requirements, must be
documented and recorded. The logging of other flight time is not required.

220. A transponder will become unserviceable when it is off by more than

A. 125 feet.

B. 50 feet.

C. 25 feet.

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 The difference between the automatic reporting output and the altitude displayed
at the altimeter shall not exceed 125 feet.

221. To serve as second-in-command of an airplane that is certificated for more than

one pilot crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must
receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of
A.
airplane for which privileges are requested.

B. hold at least a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane category rating.

within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and
C. perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are
requested.

Under Part 91 no person may serve as SIC of an aircraft type certificated for more
than one required pilot flight crewmember unless that person has within the
previous 12 calendar months become familiar with information for the specific type
aircraft for which SIC privileges are requested and performed and logged pilot
time in the type of aircraft or in a flight simulator that represents the type of aircraft
for which SIC privileges are requested. Also, no person may serve as a SIC of an
aircraft type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember unless
that person holds at least a current Private Pilot Certificate with the appropriate
category and class rating.

222. What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying
Class B airspace?

A. 156 knots.

B. 200 knots.

C. 230 knots.

No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, or

in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, at an indicated airspeed of
more than 200 knots (230 mph).

223. What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14
CFR Part 91?

Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District
A.
Office.

B. Advise ATC of the pilot-in-command's intentions.

Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to
C.
the Administrator.

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 Each pilot-in-command who deviates from a rule in an emergency shall, upon
request, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

224. You are acting as a commercial pilot, but are not operating under the regulations
of 14 CFR Part 119. Which of these operations are you authorized to conduct?

A. Aerial application and aerial photography.

B. On-demand, passenger carrying flights of nine persons or less.

C. On-demand cargo flights.

Part 119 does not apply to crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and bird chasing.

Answer (B) is incorrect because these operations are regulated by Part 119.
Answer (C) is incorrect because these operations are regulated by Part 119.

225. Does a Commercial Pilot Certificate have a specific expiration date?

A. No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.

B. Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued.

No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily

C.
completed each 12 months.
Any pilot certificate, other than a Student Pilot Certificate, is issued without a
specific expiration date.

226. Regulations which refer to "commercial operators" relate to that person who

A. is the owner of a small scheduled airline.

for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of

B.
persons or property, as an air carrier.
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of
C.
persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
A commercial operator is a person who, for compensation or hire, engages in the
carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air
carrier.

227. A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required
to provide a written report to the
nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such
A.
action.

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 B. FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.

C. FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.

Each person holding a pilot certificate shall provide a written report of each motor
vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), not later than
60 days after the motor vehicle action.

228. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A. A certificated aircraft mechanic.

B. The pilot in command.

C. The owner or operator.

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is responsible for determining whether that

aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot shall discontinue the flight when
unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

229. If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or

repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for
return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being operated

A. under VFR or IFR rules.

B. with passengers aboard.

C. for compensation or hire.

No person may carry any person (meaning passengers) other than crewmembers
in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may
have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its
operation in flight, until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot
Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance
performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.

230. Which list accurately reflects some of the documents required to be current and
carried in a U.S. registered civil airplane flying in the United States under day
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
Proof of insurance certificate, VFR flight plan or flight itinerary, and the aircraft
A.
logbook.

VFR sectional(s) chart(s) for the area in which the flight occurs, aircraft logbook,
B.
and engine logbook.

Airworthiness certificate, approved airplane flight manual, and aircraft registration

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 C. certificate.

No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it:

1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate, displayed at the cabin or
cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.
2. A registration certificate issued to its owner.
3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any
combination thereof, which show the operating limitations of the aircraft.

231. According to 14 CFR Part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be
operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?
In congested areas, you must maintain 500 feet over obstacles, and no closer than
A.
500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

In uncongested areas, 1,000 feet over any obstacle within a horizontal radius of
B.
2,000 feet.
An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power
C.
unit fails.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft
below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without
undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Answer (A) is incorrect because except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no
person may operate an aircraft over any congested area of a city, town, or
settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000
feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the
aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because except when necessary for takeoff or
landing, no person may operate an aircraft over other than congested areas below
an altitude of 500 feet above the surface except over open water or sparsely
populated areas. In that case, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500
feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

232. A Second Class Medical Certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this
year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?

A. Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.

B. Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.

C. Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.

A Second Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of:
1. The 12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the
certificate, for operations requiring a Commercial Pilot Certificate or an Air Traffic

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 Control Tower Operator Certificate, and
2. The 24th or 60th (depending on the applicant's age) month after the month of
the date of examination shown on the certificate, for operations requiring a
Private, Recreational, or Student Pilot Certificate.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a Second Class Medical Certificate is valid for
commercial operations for 12 months, and expires on the last day of the month.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a Second Class Medical Certificate is valid for
private pilot operations for 24 or 60 months (depending on the applicant's age).

233. When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating
appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

A. All solo flights.

B. On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.

C. On flights when carrying another person.

Unless a person holds a category, class, and type rating (if a class and type rating
is required) that applies to the aircraft, that person may not act as pilot-in-
command of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for
compensation or hire.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot can solo an aircraft with an authorized
instructor's logbook endorsement. Answer (B) is incorrect because a pilot may act
as pilot-in-command when testing for a category and class rating with a duly
authorized examiner.

234. What flight time may a pilot log as second-in-command?

All flight time while acting as second-in-command in aircraft configured for more
A.
than one pilot.

All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft
B.
that requires more than one pilot.
Only that flight time during which the second-in-command is the sole manipulator
C.
of the controls.
A person may log SIC time only for that flight time during which that person is
qualified in accordance with the SIC requirements of this part, and occupies a
crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the
aircraft's type certificate.

235. Who is responsible for filing a Near Midair Collision (NMAC) Report?

A. A passenger on board the involved aircraft.

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 B. Local law enforcement.

C. Pilot and/or Flight Crew of the aircraft involved in the incident.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and/or flight crew to determine whether a near
midair collision did actually occur and, if so, to initiate an NMAC report.

236. During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver
wire. What action is required by regulations?

A. No notification or report is required.

A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA Flight
B.
Standards District Office within 48 hours.
An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field
C.
office.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means
available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any in-flight fire.

Answer (A) is incorrect because only an in-flight fire requires immediate

notification. Answer (B) is incorrect because no report to the avionics inspector is
required.

237. No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather
conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within
the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument
conditions, at least
six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses,
A. or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the
aircraft category.

B. three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instruments.

C. six instrument flights and six approaches.

To act as pilot-in-command under IFR, the pilot must, within the preceding six
calendar months, have performed and logged under actual or simulated
instrument conditions at least six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and
intercepting and tracking of courses through the use of navigation systems.

238. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?

A. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.

B. Pilot in command or operator.

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 C. Owner or operator of the aircraft.

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that

aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Airworthiness
Directives.

Answer (A) is incorrect because mechanics work under the advisement of the
owner/operator. Answer (B) is incorrect because the pilot is only responsible for
determining airworthiness before flight.

239. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the

A. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft.

B. pilot in command of that aircraft.

C. owner or operator of that aircraft.

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that

aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with Part 39, Airworthiness
Directives.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilots are responsible for determining
airworthiness before flight, and the mechanics work under the advisement of the
owner/operator. Answer (B) is incorrect because the pilots are responsible for
determining airworthiness before flight, and the mechanics work under the
advisement of the owner/operator.

240. Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage

A. which requires repairs to landing gear.

B. to an engine caused by engine failure in flight.

C. which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means
available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An
aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft
which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the
intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any
person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial
damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight
characteristics of the aircraft.

241. The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is
applicable to

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 A. any flight conducted for compensation or hire.

B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.

C. IFR flights only.

Before beginning a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, each
PIC shall become familiar with all available information concerning that flight,
including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if
the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the
pilot in command has been advised by ATC.

242. Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC)
occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately
by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an
A.
emergency.

B. to local law enforcement.

C. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.

The primary purpose of the NMAC Reporting Program is to provide information for
use in enhancing the safety and efficiency of the National Airspace System. Pilots
and/or flight crew members involved in NMAC occurrences are urged to report
each incident immediately by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or
FSS.

243. An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and
found to comply with regulations within the preceding

A. 30 days.

B. 12 calendar months.

C. 24 calendar months.

No person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar
months, that ATC transponder has been tested, inspected, and found to comply
with regulations.

244. If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and
official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is

A. 1959 CST.

B. 1900 CST.

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 C. 1800 CST.

No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period
beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the
preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings
to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour
before sunrise.

245. What type of ADS-B equipment is required for aircraft operating in class A
airspace?

A. 1090-ES.

B. Universal Access Transceiver.

C. 1090-ES or Universal Access Transceiver.

For flights at and above 18,000 feet MSL in Class A airspace, the aircraft must be
equipped with 1090-ES and meet the performance requirements outlined in 14
CFR 91.227. For flights below 18,000 feet MSL, either 1090-ES or UAT equipment
can be used.

246. In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an
operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all
airspace above

A. 10,000 feet MSL.

B. 12,500 feet MSL.

C. 14,500 feet MSL.

With some balloon, glider, and no-electrical-system exceptions, Mode C

(encoding) transponders are required in all airspace above 10,000 feet MSL
excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL.

247. A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the
manufacturer must include previous

A. operating hours of the engine.

B. annual inspections performed on the engine.

C. changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.

Each manufacturer or agency that grants zero time to an engine rebuilt by it shall
enter, in the new record, each change made as required by Airworthiness
Directives.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because a rebuilt engine is considered to start with zero
time. Answer (B) is incorrect because a record of previous maintenance is not
required for a rebuilt engine.

248. How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest
NTSB field office?

A. 2.

B. 7.

C. 10.

The operator of an aircraft shall file a report within 10 days after an accident.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 2 days is not a reporting requirement in NTSB Part
830. Answer (B) is incorrect because 7 days is the limitation with respect to an
overdue aircraft that is missing.

249. To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have
accomplished, within the preceding 24 months, at least

A. three actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot.

B. three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.

C. ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.

To act as PIC, the pilot must make at least three actual or simulated glider tows
while accompanied by a qualified pilot or make at least three flights as pilot-in-
command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

250. Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be
notified immediately?

A. Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.

B. Cabin door opened in flight.

C. Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Immediate notification is required by the operator of any civil aircraft when a flight
control system malfunction or failure occurs.

Answer (A) is incorrect because neither a cargo compartment door malfunction nor
a cabin door opening would require immediate notification to the NTSB, unless
substantial damage affecting the structural integrity of the aircraft resulted. Answer
(B) is incorrect because neither a cargo compartment door malfunction nor a cabin
door opening would require immediate notification to the NTSB, unless substantial

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 damage affecting the structural integrity of the aircraft resulted.

251. Regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who

A. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft.

B. is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.

C. causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

Operate, with respect to aircraft, means use, cause to use, or authorize to use
aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot-in-command may not necessarily be the
operator of the aircraft. Answer (B) is incorrect because the sole manipulator may
not necessarily be the operator of the aircraft.

252. Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a 'primary' category airplane?
A 'primary' category airplane is limited to a specified operating radius from its
A.
home base.
No person may operate a 'primary' category airplane carrying passengers or
B.
property for compensation or hire.

A pilot of a 'primary' category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate

C.
when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.
No person may operate a primary category aircraft carrying persons or property
for compensation or hire.

253. When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was
substantial damage and no injuries?

A. Immediately.

B. Within 10 days.

C. Within 30 days.

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means
available, notify the nearest NTSB field office when an aircraft accident occurs. An
aircraft accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft
which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the
intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any
person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial
damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight
characteristics of the aircraft.

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 Answer (B) is incorrect because 10 days is the time specified to file a detailed
aircraft accident report with the NTSB. Answer (C) is incorrect because 30 days is
not a deadline specified in NTSB Part 830.

254. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.

B. Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.

C. Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted

under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by
each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft. Each
aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking
aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

255. If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight

A. at sunset.

B. 30 minutes after sunset.

C. 1 hour after sunset.

No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise (or, in Alaska, during the
period a prominent unlighted object cannot be seen from a distance of 3 SM or
the sun is more than 6° below the horizon) operate an aircraft unless it has lighted
position lights.

256. If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the
maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR Part 91, the
operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling
A.
agency.

B. aircraft may be operated at that speed.

C. operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.

If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the
maximum speed prescribed in Part 91, the aircraft may be operated at that
minimum speed.

257. An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the

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 A. FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.

B. owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer.

aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any
C.
combination thereof.
As required by 14 CFR 21.5, no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil unless
there is a current approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and
placards, or any combination thereof available in the aircraft.

258. NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?

A. Engine failure for any reason during flight.

B. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing.

Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of
C.
illness.
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means
available, notify the nearest NTSB field office of the inability of any required flight
crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness.

Answer (A) is incorrect because these are not considered substantial damage
requiring immediate notification. Answer (B) is incorrect because these are not
considered substantial damage requiring immediate notification.

259. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed
permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport
within Class C or D airspace is

A. 180 knots.

B. 200 knots.

C. 230 knots.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an

aircraft within 4 NM of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace at an indicated
airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 mph).

260. Under what condition could an aircraft's engine logbook show no previous
operating history?

A. If the aircraft had been imported from a foreign country.

B. This would indicate an error by maintenance personnel.

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 C. After the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer.

The owner or operator may use a new maintenance record without previous
operating history for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer or by an agency
approved by the manufacturer.

261. The holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate while exercising commercial pilot
privileges is restricted from operating under BasicMed

A. at anytime.

B. for flights over 18,000 feet MSL.

C. if carrying more than 5 passengers.

A Third Class Medical Certificate or compliance with BasicMed does not authorize
the PIC to exercise commercial pilot privileges. To operate as a commercial pilot
you are required to hold either a First or Second Class Medical Certificate.

262. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by
the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is

A. 2,000 feet over all terrain.

B. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000
C.
feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
At a minimum, IFR flight must remain at 2,000 feet AGL in mountainous areas and
1,000 feet AGL elsewhere.

263. A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped
from that aircraft in flight

A. if it creates a hazard to persons and property.

B. unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.

C. unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.

No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from an

aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this does
not prohibit the dropping of objects if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid
injury or damage to persons or property.

264. An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every

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 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be
operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?
The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not
A.
exceeded 110 hours.
The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours
B.
has not been exceeded at the time it departs.
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary
C.
to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary
to reach a place the inspection can be done. The excess time, however, is
included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the 10-hour grace period only applies to ferrying
an aircraft to a maintenance facility, for the 100-hour inspection. Answer (B) is
incorrect because the 10-hour grace period only applies to ferrying an aircraft to a
maintenance facility, for the 100-hour inspection.

265. As a commercial pilot, you decide to start a small business flying non-stop tours
to look at Christmas lights during the holiday season. What authorizations, if any,
are required to conduct Christmas light tours?
No authorizations or approvals are required if you hold the appropriate category
A.
and class rating for the aircraft that will be flown.
You must apply for and receive a Letter of Authorization from a Flight Standards
B.
District Office.
You must apply to the FAA to receive an exemption to carry passengers at night
C.
within a 50 mile radius of your departure airport.

A Letter of Authorization (LOA) must be obtained from your local Flight Standards
District Office (FSDO) prior to conducting commercial air tours. These regulations
can be found under 14 CFR 91.146 and 91.147.

266. Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a 'restricted' category

airplane?
A pilot of a 'restricted' category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot
A.
certificate.
A 'restricted' category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its
B.
home base.
No person may operate a 'restricted' category airplane carrying passengers or
C.
property for compensation or hire.

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 No person may operate a restricted category civil aircraft carrying persons or
property for compensation or hire.

267. Operations in Class A airspace require the aircraft be equipped with

A. ADS-B and FIS-B.

B. ADS-B and TIS-B.

C. ADS-B.

No person may operate an aircraft in Class A airspace unless that aircraft is

equipped with an extended squitter ADS-B and TIS-B operating on the radio
frequency 1090 MHz.

268. To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot
crewmember, and operated under Part 91, a person must

A. complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.

B. receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.

complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar

C.
months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.
To serve as PIC of an aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required
pilot flight crewmember, a person must complete a PIC proficiency check in the
aircraft that is type certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember
within the preceding 12 calendar months. Additionally, the pilot must complete a
PIC proficiency check in the particular type of aircraft in which that person will
serve as PIC within the preceding 24 calendar months.

269. What regulations are in the terms and conditions of a Standard Airworthiness
Certificate?

A. Parts 21, 31, 43, and 91.

B. Parts 21, 61, and 91.

C. Parts 21, 43, and 91.

A Standard Airworthiness Certificate is issued for aircraft type certificated in the

normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport categories, and manned free
balloons. The airworthiness certificate is in effect indefinitely if the aircraft is
maintained in accordance with 14 CFR Parts 21, 43, and 91, and the aircraft is
registered in the United States.

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 270. While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire.
What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830?

A. No notification or report is required.

A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office
B.
within 48 hours.
An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the
C.
nearest NTSB field office.

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately and by the most expeditious means
available notify the nearest NTSB field office of any inflight fire. This rule specifies
inflight fires only.

Answer (B) is incorrect because an immediate report is only required if certain

items occur, such as an inflight fire, and reports are made to the NTSB, not the
FAA. Answer (C) is incorrect because an immediate report is only required if
certain items occur, such as an inflight fire, and reports are made to the NTSB, not
the FAA.

271. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching

from the left. Which pilot should give way?

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is
A.
to its right.
The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the
B.
left.

C. Each pilot should alter course to the right.

When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same
altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the
right-of-way.

272. Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot-in-command must have

accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in

A. any category aircraft.

B. the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

C. the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).

No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers during

the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise unless
within the preceding 90 days, that person has made at least three takeoffs and
three landings to a full stop during that period in the same category, class, and
type (if a type rating is required) of aircraft to be used.

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 273. A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft
receives

A. required maintenance and inspections.

B. an annual inspection.

C. an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.

No person may operate an aircraft unless, within the preceding 12 calendar

months, it has had an annual inspection and has been approved for return to
service by an authorized person or an inspection for the issuance of an
Airworthiness Certificate. No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers
for hire or give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides,
unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service the aircraft has received
an annual or 100-hour inspection. An aircraft inspected in accordance with an
approved aircraft progressive inspection program may be authorized as compliant.

274. Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are

authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot
A.
in command of each aircraft in the formation.

B. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.

C. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight.

Answer (A) is incorrect because when carrying passengers for hire, formation
flights are prohibited. Answer (B) is incorrect because formation flights are
authorized regardless of visibility.

275. Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes require that during
movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness
(if installed) must be properly secured about each

A. flight crewmember only.

B. person on board.

C. flight and cabin crewmembers.

No pilot may cause to be moved on the surface, takeoff, or land a U.S.-registered

civil aircraft unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person
on board (over two years of age) has been notified to fasten their safety belt and, if
installed, their shoulder harness.

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 276. A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired
by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a
written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the
A.
motor vehicle action.
written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than
B.
60 days after the conviction.
notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later
C.
than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Each person holding a pilot certificate shall provide a written report of each motor
vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700), not later than
60 days after the motor vehicle action.

277. An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves

A. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.

B. understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'

C. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.

Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory
Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying.

278. Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively
counteracted by

A. early recognition of hazardous thoughts.

B. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.

C. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.

Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes

with an appropriate antidote thought.

279. The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in
good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot

A. making a rational evaluation of the required actions.

B. developing the 'right stuff' attitude.

C. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

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 Steps for good decision making are: identifying personal attitudes hazardous to
safe flight, learning behavior modification techniques, learning how to recognize
and cope with stress, developing risk assessment skills, using all resources in a
multicrew situation, and evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills.

280. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at
night, which is required?
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped
A. for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR
minimums.

B. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.

The pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for
C.
instrument flight.
No person may operate an airplane in Class D airspace under Special VFR at night
unless that person is instrument rated, and the airplane is equipped for instrument
flight.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the airplane must be equipped for instrument
flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no such designation as 'night SVFR
area.'

281. The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates

A. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

B. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.

C. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast

pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (1
m) wide and yellow, since it is not located on the runway.

282. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the
taxiway directional sign?

A. Indicates direction to take-off runway.

B. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

C. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

The taxiway directional sign identifies the designation(s) of the intersecting

taxiway(s) leading out of the intersection that a pilot would normally be expected
to turn onto or hold short of.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the runway location sign.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the purpose of the destination sign.

283. (Refer to Figure 54, point 6.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland
International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

B. 10,000 feet MSL.

C. 2,100 feet AGL.

The letter 'T' denotes the ceiling of the Class C airspace which extends up to, but
does not include the floor of the overlying Class B airspace. The Class C airspace
normally extends upward to 4,000 feet AGL. However, in this case the Class C
airspace extends upward to the base of the Class B airspace. The overlying Class
B airspace has bases of 2,100 feet MSL, and 3,000 feet MSL.

Answer (B) is incorrect because 10,000 feet is the ceiling of the Class B airspace
over OAK. Answer (C) is incorrect because the Class C airspace ceiling on the
west side of OAK is 2,100 feet MSL, and the ceiling on the east side is 3,000 feet
MSL.

284. (Refer to Figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion
with other aircraft?

A. Illustration D.

B. Illustration G.

C. Illustration H.

Illustration D prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. This sign would typically
be located on one-way taxiways or a vehicle roadway. Thus, this sign does not
directly address runway incursions with other aircraft.

Answer (B) is incorrect because Illustration G is used to indicate when you are
clear of the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because Illustration H is used to
indicate when you are clear of the ILS critical area.

285. You attended a party last night and consumed several glasses of wine. You are
planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours
have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if
you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is

A. below .04%.

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 B. below .08%.

C. 0.0%.

It is against regulations to operate an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol

or drugs, or with an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or above, or within 8
hours of consuming alcohol.

286. Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend
from

A. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.

Each Federal airway includes that airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet
above the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. Federal airways for
Hawaii have no upper limits.

287. (Refer to Figure 53, area 4.) You plan to depart on a day VFR flight from the
Firebaugh (F34) airport. What is the floor of controlled airspace above this airport?

A. 1,200 feet above the airport.

B. 700 feet above the airport.

C. 1,500 feet above the airport.

Firebaugh (F34) is inside the magenta shading, which indicates the Class E
airspace begins at 700 feet AGL.

288. When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability
and status of

A. all VORs to be used en route.

B. airport rotating light beacons.

C. destination airport lighting systems.

It is recommended that prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night

flight, the pilot check the availability and status of lighting systems at the
destination airport.

289. What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision
Making (ADM)?

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 Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking),
A.
macho (I can do it).

B. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements.

C. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.

ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes: antiauthority (don't tell
me!), impulsivity (do something quickly!), invulnerability (it won't happen to me),
macho (I can do it), resignation (what's the use?).

290. (Refer to Figure 61.) Ground control has instructed you to taxi Alfa to Foxtrot to the
active runway. According to the sign in the figure, which direction would you turn
at this intersection to comply with ATC?

A. No turn is required.

B. The turn will be made to the right.

C. The turn will be made to the left.

Orientation of signs is from left to right. Left turn signs are on the left of the
location sign and right turn signs are on the right side of the location sign. Figure
61 indicates taxiway Foxtrot will be a left turn from Alfa.

291. The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse
effect on safety, by

A. a total disregard for any alternative course of action.

generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and
B.
may lead to a mishap.

C. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions.

Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to

complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally
demonstrate that they have the 'right stuff.' These tendencies ultimately may lead
to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.

292. When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in

Class G airspace, the pilot should

A. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.

B. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

C. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.

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 When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in a
Class G airspace area each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane
to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings
indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must
make all turns to the right.

293. (Refer to Figure 53.) What is indicated by the star next to the "L" in the airport
information box for the MADERA (MAE) airport north of area 2?

A. Special VFR is prohibited.

B. There is a rotating beacon at the field.

C. Lighting limitations exist.

The "L" with an asterisk indicates lighting limitations exist. Pilots should refer to
the Chart Supplement U.S. for this airport for details on these limitations.

294. (Refer to Figure 53, point 1.) This thin black shaded line is most likely

A. an arrival route.

B. a military training route.

C. a state boundary line.

The thin black shaded line is most likely a Military Training Route (MTR). MTRs are
normally labeled on sectional charts with either IR (IFR operations) or VR (VFR
operations), followed by either three or four numbers.

Answer (A) is incorrect because arrival routes are found on IFR charts. Answer (C)
is incorrect because state boundaries are indicated by a thin black broken line.

295. (Refer to Figure 52, area 8). The traffic pattern altitude at the Auburn Airport (AUN)
is 1,000 feet AGL. May you practice landings under VFR when the AWOS is
reporting a ground visibility of 2 miles?

A. Yes, you will be operating in a combination of Class E and G airspace.

B. No, the reported ground visibility must be at least 3 miles.

C. No, the Class E airspace extends to the airport surface.

Auburn is inside the magenta shading, which indicates that the Class E airspace
begins at 700 feet AGL. Therefore you are operating in a combination of Class E
and G airspace since the traffic pattern altitude is given to be 1,000 feet AGL. With
no other visibility information given, other than 2 SM reported by the AWOS you
will need to assume that visibility in the Class E airspace above AUB will be less

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 than the prescribed 3 SM minimum for VFR flight.

296. (Refer to Figure 60.) Sign "1" is an indication

A. of an area where aircraft are prohibited.

B. that the taxiway does not continue.

C. of the general taxiing direction to a taxiway.

The black and yellow diagonal striped sign is a taxiway ending marker, which
indicates the taxiway does not continue.

297. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body
requires about

A. 1 hour.

B. 2 hours.

C. 3 hours.

As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can
impair flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in
the breath and blood for at least 3 hours.

298. (Refer to Figure 53.) You are planning a VFR westbound flight departing the
FRESNO CHANDLER EXECUTIVE (FCH) airport and you will be passing through
the active Lemoore C and A MOAs. What action should you take?

A. Exercise extreme caution while in the boundaries of the MOA.

B. Avoid the MOA, VFR, and IFR flights are prohibited during day light hours.

C. Contact the aircraft operating in the MOA on the Guard frequency of 121.5.

Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an
MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active/inactive)
of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSS within
100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA
hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the
controlling agency for traffic advisories.

299. The runway holding position sign is located on

A. runways that intersect other runways.

B. taxiways protected from an aircraft approaching a runway.

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 C. runways that intersect other taxiways.

Mandatory instruction signs are used to denote an entrance to a runway or critical

area and areas where an aircraft is prohibited from entering. The runway holding
position sign is located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway
or on runways that intersect other runways.

300. A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the
passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross
weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives
best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction?

A. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.

B. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA.

C. He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time.

The resignation attitude is found in pilots who think, 'what's the use?' They do not
see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens
to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that's good luck. When
things go badly, the pilot may feel someone is out to get them, or attribute it to
bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes,
such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a 'nice guy.'

301. When operating an airplane for the purpose of landing or takeoff within Class D
airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what
visibility are required?

A. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

B. 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

C. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR
unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the cloud clearance for Special VFR is clear of
clouds. Answer (C) is incorrect because if ground visibility is not reported, flight
visibility during landing or takeoff must be at least 1 SM.

302. For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the

A. pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes.

rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30

B.
minutes.

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 cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5
C.
minutes.
When entering a dark room, it is difficult to see anything until the eyes become
adjusted to the darkness. After approximately 5 to 10 minutes, the cones become
adjusted to the dim light and the eyes become 100 times more sensitive to the
light than they were before the dark room was entered. Much more time, about 30
minutes, is needed for the rods to become adjusted to darkness; but when they
do adjust, they are about 100,000 times more sensitive to light than they were in
the lighted area.

303. When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by
applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for
ANTIAUTHORITY hazardous attitude?

A. Not so fast. Think first.

B. It won't happen to me. It could happen to me.

C. Don't tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.

The antiauthority (don't tell me!) attitude is found in people who do not like anyone
telling them what to do. The antidote for this attitude is: follow the rules, they are
usually right.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the antidote for the impulsivity attitude.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the antidote for the invulnerability attitude.

304. Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on
Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in
A.
blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in
B.
magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in
C.
blue.

Airports having control towers (Class B, C, D or E airspace) are shown in blue. All
others are shown in magenta.

305. What is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions when
operating VFR at night?
Ground lights begin to take on an appearance of being surrounded by a halo or
A.
glow.

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 B. A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground.

C. Cockpit lights begin to take on an appearance of a halo or glow around them.

Generally, at night it is difficult to see clouds and restrictions to visibility,

particularly on dark nights or under overcast. Usually, the first indication of flying
into restricted visibility conditions is the gradual disappearance of lights on the
ground.

Answer (A) is incorrect because ground (not cockpit) lights taking on the
appearance of a halo or glow indicate ground fog. Answer (C) is incorrect because
ground (not cockpit) lights taking on the appearance of a halo or glow indicate
ground fog.

306. Light beacons producing red flashes indicate

A. end of runway warning at departure end.

B. a pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling.

C. obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.

Beacons producing red flashes indicate obstructions or areas considered

hazardous to aerial navigation.

307. (Refer to Figure 57.) You are directed to taxi to runway 10. You see this sign at a
taxiway intersection while taxiing. Which way should you proceed?

A. Left.

B. Right.

C. Straight ahead.

This destination sign indicates Runway 10 is straight ahead.

308. What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous?

A. Avoid developing this hazardous thought.

B. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action.

Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the
C.
corresponding learned antidote.
When a pilot recognizes a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label that
thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding
antidote.

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 309. (Refer to Figure 53, point 2.) The 1^6 indicates

A. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL.

B. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.

C. the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle.

The number 1^6 is a maximum elevation figure (MEF) which approximate and
round-up from the highest known feature within each quadrangle.

Answer (A) is incorrect because antennas are identified by obstruction symbols

with the height above ground given in parentheses. Answer (C) is incorrect
because minimum safe altitudes are not depicted on sectional charts.

310. (Refer to Figure 54.) What is the ceiling of the Class D Airspace of the Byron (C83)
airport (area 2)?

A. 2,900 feet.

B. 7,600 feet.

C. Class D Airspace does not exist at Byron (C83).

Byron airport is surrounded by magenta shading, indicating Class E airspace with

floor 700 feet above the surface.

311. (Refer to Figure 54, area 3.) What is the significance of R-2531? This is a restricted
area

A. for IFR aircraft.

B. where aircraft may never operate.

C. where often invisible hazards exist.

Restricted Areas denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to

aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of
restricted areas without authorization of the using or controlling agency may be
extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

312. What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at
your destination airport?

A. All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume.

That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on
B.
the runway.

C. Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.

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 Land and hold short operations (LAHSO) is an air traffic control procedure to
balance the needs for increased airport capacity and system efficiency, consistent
with safety.

Answer (A) is incorrect because LAHSO clearances are also available to aircraft
operating VFR. Answer (C) is incorrect because LAHSO are found at high density
airports and are not due to IFR conditions.

313. At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not
reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are

A. not authorized.

B. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.

C. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace under Special VFR
unless they remain clear of clouds and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, flight visibility during landing or
takeoff must be at least 1 SM.

Answer (A) is incorrect because Special VFR is authorized if flight visibility is at

least 1 SM. Answer (C) is incorrect because the visibility requirement for Special
VFR is 1 SM.

314. (Refer to Figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You
receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8 departure.
Which way should you turn when first taxiing on to the runway for takeoff?

A. Left.

B. Right.

C. Need more information.

The runway holding position sign contains the designation of the intersecting
runways. The runway numbers are arranged to correspond to the respective
runway threshold. For example, "26-8" indicates that the threshold for Runway 26
is to the left and the threshold for Runway 8 is to the right.

315. When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by
stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for
MACHO?

A. Follow the rules. They are usually right.

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 B. Not so fast. Think first.

C. Taking chances is foolish.

Macho (I can do it) pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than
anyone else are thinking 'I can do it - I'll show them.' Pilots with this type of
attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others.
While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally
susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this is the antidote for an anti-authority attitude.
Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the antidote for an impulsivity attitude.

316. What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and
hold short" clearance?

A. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

B. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.

C. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.

Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of
1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of having 'basic' VFR weather
conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and
ground vehicle operations.

317. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk
management and Aeronautical Decision Making?

A. Detect.

B. Identify.

C. Evaluate.

The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the

pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: detect, estimate, choose,
identify, do, and evaluate.

318. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

A. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.

B. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

C. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

Hypoxia is the result of insufficient oxygen in the bloodstream going to the brain.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because hypoxia is a lack of oxygen in the bloodstream.
Answer (C) is incorrect because excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream is
not a symptom of hypoxia.

319. Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk
management and Aeronautical Decision Making?

A. Estimate.

B. Evaluate.

C. Eliminate.

The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the

pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: detect, estimate, choose,
identify, do, and evaluate.

320. (Refer to Figure 50.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

A. left-hand for runway 36 and right-hand for runway 18.

B. left-hand for runway 18 and right-hand for runway 36.

C. right-hand for runway 9 and left-hand for runway 27.

The traffic pattern indicators on a segmented circle are used to indicate the
direction of turns. The traffic pattern indicators, shown as extensions from the
segmented circle, represent the base and final approach legs.

321. (Refer to Figure 51.) Illustration D would most likely be found

A. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.

B. at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.

C. near the approach end of ILS runways.

This sign prohibits an aircraft from entering an area. Typically, this sign would be
located on a taxiway intended to be used in only one direction or at the
intersection of vehicle roadways with runways, taxiways, or aprons where the
roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway or other aircraft movement surface.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this refers to Illustration G. Answer (C) is incorrect
because this refers to Illustration H.

322. The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at
an altitude of

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 A. 14,500 feet MSL.

B. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.

C. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.

The only area requiring 5 SM visibility is 10,000 feet MSL and up (when above
1,200 feet AGL).

323. What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?

A. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.

B. Dealing with improper judgment.

C. Recognition of hazardous thoughts.

Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively

counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can
be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them
in the ADM process.

324. You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would
you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"

A. Call the Automated Flight Service Station.

B. In the Chart Supplements U.S.

C. In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.

A hot spot is defined as a location on an airport movement area with a history of

potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by
pilots and drivers is necessary. Hot spots are depicted on airport charts in the
Chart Supplements U.S.

325. Who has the final authority to accept or decline any "land and hold short" (LAHSO)
clearance?

A. ATC tower controller.

B. ATC approach controller.

C. Pilot-in-Command.

The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and
hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the
responsibility of the pilot.

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 326. (Refer to Figure 51.) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear
of the ILS critical area when short of which sign?

A. Illustration H.

B. Illustration D.

C. Middle yellow.

Illustration H is located adjacent to the ILS holding position marking on the

pavement and can be seen by pilots leaving the critical area. The sign is intended
to provide pilots with another visual cue which they can use as a guide in deciding
when they are clear of the ILS critical area.

Answer (B) is incorrect because this is the sign prohibiting aircraft entry into an
area. Answer (C) is incorrect because this is a runway boundary sign.

327. (Refer to Figure 52, point 8.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of
Auburn is

A. 1,200 feet MSL.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.

Auburn is inside the magenta shading, which indicates the Class E airspace
begins at 700 feet AGL.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet
AGL (not MSL) if the airport were outside the magenta shaded area. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet AGL (not MSL) if
the airport were outside the magenta shaded area.

328. To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should

A. rely on body sensations.

B. increase the breathing rate.

C. rely on aircraft instrument indications.

Spatial disorientation can be prevented only by visual reference to reliable fixed

points on the ground or to flight instruments.

Answer (A) is incorrect because body sensations must be ignored. Answer (B) is
incorrect because an increase in breathing rate could cause hyperventilation.

329. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

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 A. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.

B. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.

Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small

C.
amounts of alcohol.
As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine can
impair flying skills.

Answer (A) is incorrect because all mental and physical activities will be decreased
with even small amounts of alcohol in the bloodstream. Answer (B) is incorrect
because the adverse effects of alcohol are increased as altitude is increased.

330. A pilot flying in a fatigued state is a hazard because

A. flying fatigued is flying impaired.

B. the pilot will hurry through checks and neglect items.

C. the pilot will exceed aircraft limitations to complete the flight.

Fatigue means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance

capability resulting from lack of sleep or increased physical activity that can
reduce a flightcrew member's alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or
perform safety-related duties.

331. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a

systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently

A.
determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks
B.
associated with each flight.
mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a
C.
timely decision on what action to take.
ADM is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to
consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of
circumstances.

332. When planning for an emergency landing at night, on of the primary considerations
should include

A. landing without flaps to ensure a nose-high landing attitude at touchdown.

B. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for the landing.

C. selecting a landing area close to public access, if possible.

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 If the engine fails at night, one of the primary considerations includes selecting an
emergency landing area close to public access if possible. This may facilitate
rescue or help, if needed.

333. Once a pilot-in-command accepts a 'land and hold short' (LAHSO) clearance, the
clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC clearance, unless

A. an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.

B. the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases.

C. Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases.

Once accepted, a LAHSO must be adhered to unless an amended clearance is

obtained or an emergency occurs.

334. To cope with spatial disorientation, pilots should rely on

A. body sensations and outside visual references.

B. adequate food, rest, and night adaptation.

C. proficient use of the aircraft instruments.

Spatial disorientation cannot be completely prevented, but it can and must be

ignored or sufficiently suppressed by developing absolute reliance upon what the
flight instruments are telling about the attitude of the aircraft.

335. As hyperventilation progresses, a pilot can experience

A. decreased breathing rate and depth.

B. heightened awareness and feeling of well being.

C. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

The common symptoms of hyperventilation are dizziness, nausea, hot and cold
sensations, tingling of the hands, legs and feet, sleepiness, and finally,
unconsciousness.

Answer (A) is incorrect because hyperventilation is an increase of the breathing

rate and depth. Answer (B) is incorrect because heightened awareness and feeling
of well-being are symptoms of hypoxia.

336. To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should

A. swallow or yawn.

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 B. slow the breathing rate.

C. increase the breathing rate.

Hyperventilation can be relieved by consciously slowing the breathing rate. Talking

loudly or breathing into a bag to restore carbon dioxide will effectively slow the
breathing rate.

Answer (A) is incorrect because swallowing or yawning is used to relieve ear block.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the breathing rate should be slowed to increase
the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood.

337. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?

A. Drowsiness.

B. Decreased breathing rate.

C. A sense of well-being.

The common symptoms of hyperventilation are dizziness, nausea, hot and cold
sensations, tingling of the hands, legs, and feet, sleepiness, and finally
unconsciousness.

Answer (B) is incorrect because hyperventilation is an increase of the breathing

rate. Answer (C) is incorrect because a feeling of well-being, or euphoria, is a
symptom of hypoxia.

338. (Refer to Figure 53.)

GIVEN:
Location Madera Airport (MAE)
Altitude 1,000 ft AGL
Position 7 NM north of Madera (MAE)
Time 3 p.m. local
Flight visibility 1 SM
You are VFR approaching Madera Airport for a landing from the north. You

A. are in violation of the CFRs; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR.

are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL to remain clear of Class E airspace
B.
and may continue for landing.
may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace
C.
and continue to the airport.

At 7 NM north of Madera, you are outside the magenta shading, which indicates
the floor of the Class E airspace is 1,200 feet AGL. At 1,000 feet, you are in Class
G airspace. During daylight hours, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight is 1
SM. Inside the magenta shading, the floor of the Class E airspace drops to 700

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 feet. Therefore, to remain VFR, you must remain in Class G airspace, which
requires you to descend below 700 feet before entering the Class E airspace to
continue for landing.

Answer (A) is incorrect because only 1 SM visibility is necessary to remain VFR in

Class G airspace at 1,000 feet AGL during daylight hours. Answer (C) is incorrect
because you must descend below 700 feet AGL before entering Class E airspace
to remain VFR.

339. (Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM
east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the
airport elevation?

A. 376 feet.

B. 827 feet.

C. 1,135 feet.

1,245 feet MSL obstruction height - 297 feet AGL = 948 feet MSL terrain height at
obstruction - 121 feet MSL airport elevation = 827 feet terrain height higher than
airport elevation.

340. (Refer to Figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the
aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft

A. passes the red symbol shown in illustration D.

B. is on the dashed-line side of Illustration G.

C. is past the solid-line side of Illustration G.

After landing, the pilot generally calls ground control when the aircraft is
completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft is on the solid-line side of
Illustration G. The solid lines always indicate the side on which the aircraft is to
hold.

Answer (A) is incorrect because Illustration D prohibits aircraft entry into an area.
Answer (B) is incorrect because you are still on the runway if you are on the
dashed-line side of Illustration G.

341. What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the
control tower at that airport is not in operation?

A. Class D, which then becomes Class C.

B. Class D, which then becomes Class E.

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 C. Class B.

Class D airspace exists only when the control tower is operating. It reverts to
Class E when the tower closes if there is an instrument approach and a weather
observer.

Answer (A) is incorrect because Class D airspace will revert to Class E airspace
when the control tower closes. Answer (C) is incorrect because the primary airport
of Class B airspace will have a control tower that operates full-time.

342. When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?

A. Only when the tower controller concurs.

B. If runway surface is contaminated.

C. When it will compromise safety.

Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will

compromise safety.

343. You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The
controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter
the Class B airspace?
You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific
A.
clearance.

B. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions.

You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the
C.
aircraft is ADS-B equipped.
No. You are not to enter the Class B airspace until you have received authorization
from ATC. "Standby" simply means the controller has your request, it does not
give you permission to enter the airspace.

344. The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical
way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:

A. Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.

B. Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate.

C. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate.

The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six step process, is intended to provide the
pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making: detect, estimate, choose,
identify, do, and evaluate.

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 345. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying

A. at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.

B. more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.

C. at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.

In level cruise at more than 3,000 feet AGL, magnetic course determines proper
altitude.

Answer (A) is incorrect because VFR cruising altitudes are based on magnetic
course and apply for flights above 3,000 feet AGL. Answer (C) is incorrect because
VFR cruising altitudes are based on magnetic course and apply for flights above
3,000 feet AGL.

346. When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what can a pilot
do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions?

A. Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the gear to air-dry.

B. Immediately retract the landing gear so it can be heated in the gear wells.

Fly at a speed above the green arc of the airspeed indicator can remove the snow
C.
and slush.

If departing from an airstrip with wet snow or slush on the takeoff surface, the gear
should not be retracted immediately so that any wet snow or slush is allowed to
air-dry.

347. What should you consider when planning to land at another airport?

A. land and hold short procedures.

B. check for airport and touchdown markings.

C. airport lighting using continuous wiring.

As part of a pilot's preflight planning process, pilots should determine if their

destination airport has LAHSO. If so, their preflight planning process should
include an assessment of which LAHSO combinations would work for them given
their aircraft's required landing distance. Good pilot decision making is knowing in
advance whether one can accept a LAHSO clearance if offered.

348. Risk management by the pilot

A. applies only on passenger/cargo IFR flights.

requires continuing education and certified academic training to understand the

B.

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 principles.

C. is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools.

Pilot management of risk is improved with practice and consistent use of basic
and practical risk management tools.

349. When should pilots decline a "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance?

A. When it will compromise safety.

B. If runway surface is contaminated.

C. Only when the tower controller concurs.

Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will

compromise safety.

350. To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should

A. slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals.

B. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.

use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas
C.
of the sky into the central visual field.
Because the eyes can focus on only a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is
accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring
successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a pilot should systematically concentrate on

different segments. Answer (B) is incorrect because peripheral movement is not
easily detected, especially under adverse conditions; therefore this would not be
an effective scanning technique.

351. While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet
of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO'
reaction?

A. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright.

B. He flies a little closer, just to show him.

C. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision.

The Macho attitude is found in people who are always trying to prove they are
better than anyone else. They are always thinking 'I can do it, I'll show them.'
Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order

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 to impress others.

352. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument
A.
rated.

B. The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless the
operator receives an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for
that area before operating an aircraft in that area.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a Private Pilot Certificate without an instrument

rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because
with the proper training and endorsements a student pilot may operate in Class B
airspace.

353. Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are:
trying to

A. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority.

B. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior.

complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and

C.
demonstrate the 'right stuff.'
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known
to fall. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try
to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally
demonstrate that they have the 'right stuff.'

Answer (A) is incorrect because promoting situation awareness and then

necessary changes in behavior and asserting PIC authority are positive pilot
behaviors. Answer (B) is incorrect because promoting situation awareness and
then necessary changes in behavior and asserting PIC authority are positive pilot
behaviors.

354. When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart,
it will depict the boundary of

A. Special VFR airspace.

B. Class B airspace

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 C. Class D airspace.

Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue
segmented lines.

Answer (A) is incorrect because no special VFR airspace is designated by a 'NO

SVFR' notation in the airport data block of the sectional. Answer (B) is incorrect
because Class B airspace is depicted by a solid blue line.

355. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an
operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication
A.
with the ATC serving facility.

B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.

Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling
C.
facility.
No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C
airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns.
Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility
providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain
those communications while within that airspace.

Answer (B) is incorrect because unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC,

no person may operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is
equipped with an operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment; from a
satellite airport without an operating control tower within Class C airspace, the
pilot must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the
controlling ATC facility as soon as practicable after departing. Answer (C) is
incorrect because unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may
operate an aircraft in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an
operable transponder and altitude reporting equipment; from a satellite airport
without an operating control tower within Class C airspace, the pilot must
establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the controlling ATC
facility as soon as practicable after departing.

356. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your
aircraft?

A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.

B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other
C.
aircraft.

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 It is essential to remember that if another aircraft appears to have no relative
motion, it is likely to be on a collision course with you. If the other aircraft shows
no lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.

357. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it
is important to

A. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic.

exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR
B.
from other directions.
pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the
C.
opposite direction on the same radial.
Pilots should exercise increased caution when entering high use airspace; this
includes the airspace around VORs.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 90° turns are not appropriate while en route.
Answer (C) is incorrect because you should try to maintain the center of the radial.

358. Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at
some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must
be identified and eliminated include:

A. Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations.

Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional
B.
problems.
Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situation awareness, and
C.
operating without adequate fuel reserves.
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known
to fall. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified
and eliminated, include: peer pressure, mind set, get-there-itis, duck-under
syndrome, scud running, continuing visual flight rules into instrument conditions,
getting behind the aircraft, loss of positional or situation awareness, operating
without adequate fuel reserves, descent below the minimum enroute altitude,
flying outside the envelope, neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections,
checklists, etc.

359. (Refer to Figure 52, area 6.) What is the purpose of the star that follows the CT-
120.65 in the information box for Sacramento Mather Airport (MHR)?

A. It means that the control tower has limited hours of operation.

B. The airport has maintenance facilities.

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 C. There is a rotating beacon on the field.

The star symbol indicates that control tower operation is part time only.

360. An alert area is an area in which

A. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.

B. the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity,
C.
neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot
training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert
in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes a Restricted Area. Answer (B) is
incorrect because this describes a Prohibited Area.

361. (Refer to Figure 52, point 1.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown
Airport (Q61) is at

A. the surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 3,823 feet MSL.

Georgetown Airport is outside the magenta shaded area, which indicates the floor
of Class E airspace is at 1,200 feet AGL. The airport elevation is given in the
airport data as 2,623 feet MSL. Therefore, the Class E airspace above Georgetown
Airport is 3,823 feet MSL (2,623 + 1,200).

Answer (A) is incorrect because Class E airspace only begins at the surface when
surrounded by a magenta segmented circle. Answer (B) is incorrect because Class
E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL inside the magenta shaded areas.

362. What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a "land and
hold short" clearance?

A. 3 statute miles and 1,000 feet.

B. 3 nautical miles and 1,000 feet.

C. 3 statute miles and 1,500 feet.

Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of
1,000 feet and 3 SM visibility. The intent of having 'basic' VFR weather conditions

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 is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle
operations.

363. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that
clearance, unless the pilot

A. requests an amended clearance.

B. is operating VFR on top.

C. receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate

from that clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency
exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance
system resolution advisory.

364. The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around Class B Airspace is

A. the outer segment of Class B Airspace.

an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the
B.
Class B Airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.

a Mode C "veil" boundary where a balloon may penetrate without a transponder,

C.
provided it remains below 10,000 feet MSL.
A balloon or glider may conduct operations in the airspace below the altitude of
the ceiling of a Class B or Class C airspace area designated for an airport, or
10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower.

365. After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary considerations
should include

A. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing.

B. maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road.

C. planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area.

If the engine fails at night, one of the primary considerations includes planning an
emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of the area.

366. While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the
pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can
manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy.

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 Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY
reaction?

A. What is the worst that could happen.

B. He can handle a little problem like this.

C. It's too late to fix it now.

The invulnerability attitude is found in people who feel accidents happen to others,
but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone
can be affected, but they never really feel or believe that they will be personally
involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase
risk.

367. (Refer to Figure 52, point 5.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University
Airport (0O5) is

A. the surface.

B. 700 feet AGL.

C. 1,200 feet AGL.

University Airport is within the magenta shading, which indicates the floor of the
Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at the surface if
the airport were surrounded by a magenta segmented circle. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the Class E airspace would begin at 1,200 feet AGL if the
airport were outside the magenta shaded area.

368. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

B. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.

C. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.

Each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation
under instrument flight rules.

Answer (A) is incorrect because if VOR navigational equipment is required, no

person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft at or above FL240 unless that
aircraft is equipped with approved DME. Answer (C) is incorrect because all
aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment in airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the
airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface.

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 369. (Refer to Figure 52, point 7.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of
Woodland is

A. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.

C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.

Woodland has magenta shading over part of the town. Inside this magenta
shading, Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. Outside the magenta area,
Class E airspace begins at 1,200 feet AGL.

370. (Refer to Figure 58.) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway
16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, Taxi to Runway
16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the
controller's instructions

A. 5 (Five).

B. 6 (Six).

C. 9 (Nine).

When ATC clears an aircraft to "taxi to" an assigned takeoff runway, the absence
of holding instructions does not authorize the aircraft to "cross" all runways which
the taxi route intersects except the assigned takeoff runway. A clearance must be
obtained prior to crossing any runway. It does not include authorization to "taxi
onto" or "cross" the assigned takeoff runway at any point. You should taxi and
hold short of Runway 16, which is position 5.

Answer (B) is incorrect because "taxi to" does not authorize the aircraft to "taxi
onto" the assigned takeoff runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because the airplane
should taxi the most direct route to the assigned runway unless instructed
otherwise; position 9 would not be encountered for the airplane at the west ramp
to taxi to Runway 16.

371. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

A. Insufficient oxygen.

B. Excessive carbon monoxide.

C. Insufficient carbon dioxide.

As hyperventilation 'blows off' excessive carbon dioxide from the body, a pilot can
experience symptoms of lightheadedness, suffocation, drowsiness, tingling of the
extremities, and coolness and react to them with even greater hyperventilation.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because insufficient oxygen is a symptom of hypoxia.
Answer (B) is incorrect because excessive carbon monoxide will lead to carbon
monoxide poisoning.

372. When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control
tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

C. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an

aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower
unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and
the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the
airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

373. Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process,
relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making
A.
a timely decision on what action to take.

B. Application of stress management and risk element procedures.

C. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

Risk management is the part of the decision making process which relies on
situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks
associated with each flight.

374. Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 MSL in Class E airspace. What is
the minimum flight visibility?

A. 3 NM.

B. 5 SM.

C. 1 SM.

The only area requiring 5 SM visibility is 10,000 feet MSL and up (when above
1,200 feet AGL).

375. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?

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 A. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).

Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting

B.
equipment.

C. May conduct operations under visual flight rules.

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within

Class A airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an approved transponder
and altitude reporting equipment.

376. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an
operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling
A.
facility.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting
B.
equipment.
Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC
C.
facility.
Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft
in Class C airspace unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable transponder
and altitude reporting equipment.

Answer (A) is incorrect because pilots must establish communication with the ATC
controlling facility as soon as practicable, which may not be prior to takeoff.
Answer (C) is incorrect because communications must be established prior to
entering Class C airspace, well before a "prior to landing" point.

377. When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace,
the pilot must establish communications prior to

A. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.

B. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.

C. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an

aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower
unless two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and
the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the
airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

378. Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as

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 A. humidity decreases.

B. altitude increases.

C. oxygen demand increases.

Carbon monoxide inhaled in smoking or from exhaust fumes, lowered hemoglobin

(anemia), and certain medications can reduce the oxygen-carrying capacity of the
blood to the degree that the amount of oxygen provided to body tissues will
already be equivalent to the oxygen provided to the tissues when exposed to a
cabin pressure altitude of several thousand feet.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the humidity level does not have a bearing on
carbon monoxide or oxygen levels. Answer (C) is incorrect because oxygen
demand does not change.

379. Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?

The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting
A.
equipment.

The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an
B.
instrument rating.

C. The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.

A student pilot may only operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace if
the student pilot has received both ground and flight training from an authorized
instructor and has received a logbook endorsement. No person may operate an
aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the
applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment.
Requests for ATC authorized deviations for operation of an aircraft that is not
equipped with a transponder must be made at least one hour before the proposed
operation.

380. (Refer to Figure 52, Area 2.) When departing the RIO LINDA (L36) airport to the
northwest at an altitude of 1,000 feet AGL, you
must make contact with MC CLELLAN (MCC) control tower as soon as practical
A.
after takeoff.
are not required to contact any ATC facilities if you do not enter the Class C
B.
Airspace.
must make contact with the SACRAMENTO INTL ( SMF) control tower
C.
immediately after takeoff.
Rio Linda (L36) is within Class E airspace at the surface and within Class C
airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL. Departing to the northwest, you will enter

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 Class C airspace at the surface and must contact Sacramento Intl (SMF) control
tower immediately after takeoff prior to entering the Class C airspace.

381. (Refer to Figure 54, point 2.) After departing from Byron Airport (C83) with a
northeast wind, you discover you are approaching Livermore Class D airspace and
flight visibility is approximately 2-1/2 miles. You must

A. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G and land.

B. stay below 1,200 feet to remain in Class G.

C. contact Livermore ATCT on 119.65 and advise of your intentions.

The magenta shading indicates Class E airspace begins at 700 feet. The VFR
minimum in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is 3 SM. Therefore, with 2-1/2
miles visibility, you must stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G airspace.

Answer (B) is incorrect because Class E space begins at 1,200 feet when
surrounded by blue shading. Answer (C) is incorrect because 119.65 is ATIS for
Livermore, not ATCT.

382. (Refer to Figure 54, point 1.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the
Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

A. 2,503 feet MSL.

B. 2,901 feet MSL.

C. 3,297 feet MSL.

The Class D airspace at Livermore has a top of 2,900 feet MSL, indicated by the
[29] within the blue segmented circle. Therefore, the minimum altitude to fly over
and avoid the Class D airspace is 2,901 feet MSL.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 2,503 feet MSL would place you within the Class
D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because although 3,297 feet MSL would keep
you outside the Class D airspace, it is not the minimum altitude required to avoid
it.

383. When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure
exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be
authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.

A. 31.00.

B. 32.00.

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 C. 30.50.

Special flight restrictions exist when any information indicates that barometric
pressure on the route of flight currently exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of
mercury, and no person may operate an aircraft or initiate a flight contrary to the
requirements established by the Administrator and published in a NOTAM.

384. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about

A. 1 hour.

B. 3 hours.

C. 4 hours.

As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer or four ounces of wine can
impair flying skills, with the alcohol consumed in these drinks being detectable in
the breath and blood for at least 3 hours.

385. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR
flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?

A. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.

B. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.

C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.

In Class C, D, or E airspace at 6,500 feet MSL, the VFR flight visibility requirement
is 3 SM. The distance from cloud requirement is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above,
and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds is the VFR
weather minimum when at or below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace during the
day. Answer (C) is incorrect because 5 SM visibility and cloud clearance of 1,000
feet above and below is the VFR weather minimum in Class E airspace at or above
10,000 feet MSL.

386. A "land and hold short" (LAHSO) clearance

A. precludes a "Go Around" by ATC.

B. does not preclude a rejected landing.

C. requires a runway exit at the first taxiway.

A LAHSO clearance, once accepted, must be adhered to, just as any other ATC
clearance, unless an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs. A
LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing.

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 387. The 'taxiway ending' marker

A. indicates taxiway does not continue.

B. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.

C. provides general taxiing direction to named taxiway.

Taxiway ending markers are used to indicate the taxiway does not continue.

388. What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?

A. All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation.

Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in

B.
accordance with their waiver.
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or a high volume
C.
of pilot training.
Alert Areas inform pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot
training or an unusual type of aerial activity. While pilots should be particularly alert
in these areas, there are no restrictions on flying through them.

389. The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that
requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the
ANTIAUTHORITY reaction?

A. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.

B. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time.

C. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late.

The antiauthority attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them
what to do. In a sense, they are saying no one can tell me what to do. They may
be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules,
regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary.

390. (Refer to Figure 51.) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of
the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?

A. Illustration D.

B. Illustration G.

C. Illustration H.

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 While clearing an active runway, you are most likely to be clear of the ILS critical
area when you pass the sign depicted in illustration H. This is the ILS critical area
boundary sign.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this symbol prohibits aircraft entry into an area.
Answer (B) is incorrect because Illustration G indicates you are most likely clear of
the runway.

391. Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating

A. anytime an engine is in operation.

B. anytime the pilot is in the cockpit.

C. during all types of operations, both day and night.

Pilots of aircraft equipped with rotating beacons are encouraged to turn them on
when intending to fly, as an alert to other aircraft and ground personnel.

Answer (A) is incorrect because lights are not needed if the pilot is simply sitting in
the cockpit, or for example, if a mechanic is working on the aircraft and does not
intend to taxi or fly. Answer (B) is incorrect because lights are not needed if the
pilot is simply sitting in the cockpit, or for example, if a mechanic is working on the
aircraft and does not intend to taxi or fly.

392. To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must

A. be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying.

B. condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.

C. avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle cockpit responsibilities.

Good cockpit management begins with good life stress management. Many of the
stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually
practical in flight. Rather, you must condition yourself to relax and think rationally
when stress appears.

393. If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be
designated by

A. VR and a three digit number only.

B. IR or VR and a four digit number.

C. IR or VR and a three digit number.

Military Training Routes (MTRs) in which flights are conducted at or below 1,500
feet AGL are designated by the letters IR or VR and a four-digit number.

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 394. Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B
airspace?
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an
A.
instrument rating.

B. The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.

C. Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.

No person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless the pilot-
in-command holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a Private Pilot Certificate without an Instrument

Rating is sufficient to operate in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because
with the proper training and endorsements, a student pilot may operate in Class B
airspace.

395. What does good cockpit stress management begin with?

A. Knowing what causes stress.

B. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.

C. Good life stress management.

If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in

the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of
stress in all areas of you life.

396. (Refer to Figure 52, point 6.) Van Vleck airport is

A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots.

B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace.

C. a nonpublic use airport.

The 'Pvt' after the airport names indicates Van Vleck airport is a restricted or non-
public use airport.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the R in the circle indicates the airport is a
nonpublic-use airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because the blue box near Van
Vleck airport indicates an alert area.

397. With a blood alcohol level below .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly sooner than

A. 4 hours after drinking alcohol.

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 B. 12 hours after drinking alcohol.

C. 8 hours after drinking alcohol.

It is against regulations to operate an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol

or drugs, or with an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or above, or within 8
hours of consuming alcohol.

398. The radius of the uncharted Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally

A. 20 NM.

B. 30 NM.

C. 40 NM.

The normal radius of the outer area will be 20 NM. This is the area where
separation is provided after two-way communication is established. It is only a
requirement to contact ATC before entering the 10 NM Class C airspace depicted
on the sectional chart.

399. The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business
presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their
intended route of flight. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the
IMPULSIVITY reaction?

A. They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse.

B. A thunderstorm won't stop them.

C. They can't change the weather, so they might as well go.

Impulsivity is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something,
anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do,
they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to
mind.

400. (Refer to Figure 52, point 4.) The obstruction within 10 NM closest to Lincoln
Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?

A. 1,245 feet.

B. 662 feet.

C. 296 feet.

The obstruction south of the airport is 296 feet above the ground, which is the
number in parenthesis.

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 Answer (A) is incorrect because 1,245 is the height above sea level of the
obstruction 8.5 NM east of the airport. Answer (B) is incorrect because 662 feet is
the height above ground of the obstructions 8 NM SW of the airport.

401. "Runway Holding Position Markings" on taxiways

identify where aircraft are prohibited to taxi when not cleared to proceed by
A.
ground control.
identify where aircraft are supposed to stop when not cleared to proceed onto the
B.
runway.

C. allow an aircraft permission onto the runway.

Runway holding position markings indicate where an aircraft is supposed to stop.

When used on a taxiway, these markings identify the locations where an aircraft is
supposed to stop when it does not have clearance to proceed onto the runway.

402. You are most likely to experience somatogravic illusion during

A. a rapid descent.

B. deceleration upon landing.

C. rapid acceleration during takeoff.

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of being in a nose-up
attitude. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose-low, or dive
attitude. This is called "somatogravic illusion."

403. (Refer to Figure 51, A.) This taxiway sign would be expected

A. at the intersection of runway 04/22 departure end and the taxiway.

B. near the intersection of runways 04 and 22.

C. at a taxiway intersecting runway 04/22.

This question will likely include an onscreen graphic of a taxiway location sign with
a direction sign or runway holding position sign. This type of sign is used at a
taxiway intersection of runways.

404. When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for

A. availability and status of en route and destination airport lighting systems.

B. red en route course lights.

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 C. location of rotating light beacons.

Prior to a night flight, and particularly a cross-country night flight, pilots should
check the availability and status of lighting systems at the destination airport.

405. A strong wind shear can be expected

A. in the jetstream front above a core having a speed of 60 to 90 knots.

B. if the 5°C isotherms are spaced between 7° to 10° of latitude.

on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is
C.
stronger than 110 knots.
Jet streams stronger than 110 knots (at the core) are apt to have areas of
significant turbulence near them in the sloping tropopause above the core, in the
jet stream front below the core and on the low-pressure side of the core. In these
areas there are frequently strong wind shears.

Answer (A) is incorrect because 60 to 90 knots is common for the jet stream and if
turbulence were to be found it would be to the sides and bottom of the core.
Answer (B) is incorrect because these conditions do not exclusively create wind
shear.

406. Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the
friction level?

A. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

B. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows.

Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure
C.
gradient.

The pressure gradient force drives the wind and is perpendicular to isobars. When
a pressure gradient force is first established, wind begins to blow from higher to
lower pressure directly across the isobars. However, the instant air begins moving,
Coriolis force deflects it to the right. Soon the wind is deflected a full 90° and is
parallel to the isobars or contours. At this time, Coriolis force exactly balances
pressure gradient force. With the forces in balance, wind will remain parallel to
isobars or contours.

407. Which would decrease the stability of an air mass?

A. Warming from below.

B. Cooling from below.

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 C. Decrease in water vapor.

A change in ambient temperature lapse rate of an air mass will determine its
stability. Surface heating or cooling aloft can make the air more unstable.

Answer (B) is incorrect because cooling from below increases stability. Answer (C)
is incorrect because a decrease in water vapor lowers the dewpoint of the air, but
does not affect stability.

408. What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm
surface temperatures?

A. Fog and low stratus clouds.

B. Continuous heavy precipitation.

C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

Characteristics of unstable air include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation,

turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer (A) is incorrect because fog and stratus clouds are characteristics of stable
air. Answer (B) is incorrect because continuous precipitation is characteristic of
stable air.

409. Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to
dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?

A. Nighttime cooling.

B. Surface radiation.

C. Wind 15 knots or stronger.

Advection fog deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots. Winds

much stronger than 15 knots lift the fog into a layer of low stratus clouds or
stratocumulus.

Answer (A) is incorrect because nighttime cooling and surface radiation form
radiation fog. Answer (B) is incorrect because nighttime cooling and surface
radiation form radiation fog.

410. If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an

approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to

A. wind shear.

B. strong surface winds.

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 C. strong convective currents.

You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind
at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. Allow a margin of airspeed above
normal climb or approach speed to alleviate the danger of a stall in event of
turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity.

Answer (B) is incorrect because strong surface winds do not present as great a
danger as wind shear. Answer (C) is incorrect because a temperature inversion
does not generate strong convective currents.

411. You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles
from the cell however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?

A. No, you are at a safe distance from the cell.

B. Yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.

C. Yes, this is still in the area of dissipation.

Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an

intense radar echo. This is especially true under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus
where hail can be discharged.

412. Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread?
The temperature spread

A. decreases as the relative humidity decreases.

B. decreases as the relative humidity increases.

C. increases as the relative humidity increases.

Temperature spread is the difference between air temperature and dew point. As
the spread decreases, relative humidity increases.

413. Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front

A. is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

B. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.

C. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front.

In the cold front occlusion, the coldest air is under the cold front. When it
overtakes the warm front, it lifts the warm front aloft and cold air replaces cool air
at the surface.

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 414. One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in
and

A. below rotor clouds.

B. above rotor clouds.

C. below lenticular clouds.

Rotor clouds appear to remain stationary, parallel the range, and stand a few miles
leeward of the mountains. Turbulence is most frequent and most severe in and
below the standing rotors just beneath the wave crests at or below mountain-top
levels.

415. GIVEN:
Winds at 3,000 feet AGL 30 kts
Surface winds Calm
While on approach for landing under clear skies with convective turbulence a few
hours after sunrise, one should

A. increase approach airspeed slightly above normal to avoid stalling.

B. keep the approach airspeed at or slightly below normal to compensate for floating.

C. not alter the approach airspeed, these conditions are nearly ideal.

When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear skies within a few hours
before or after sunrise, be prepared for a temperature inversion near the ground.
You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind
at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. Increase airspeed slightly above normal
climb or approach speed to alleviate the danger of a stall in event of turbulence or
sudden change in wind velocity.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the hazard is wind shear. Answer (C) is incorrect
because these conditions are not ideal - wind shear may be present.

416. During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of
being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the

A. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures.

B. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline.

C. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath.

Since rate of descent on the glide slope is directly related to ground speed, a high
descent rate would indicate a strong tailwind. Conversely, a low descent rate
indicates a strong headwind. The power needed to hold the glide slope also will
be different from typical, no-shear conditions. Less power than normal will be

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 needed to maintain the glide slope when a tailwind is present and more power is
needed for strong headwind.

Answer (A) is incorrect because trim adjustments are a function of power settings,
airspeeds, and aircraft configuration. Answer (B) is incorrect because heading
changes are due to the crosswind component.

417. Which statement is true regarding squall lines?

A. They are always associated with cold fronts.

B. They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement.

C. They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms.

A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. It often

contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense
weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because squall lines can form in any area of unstable air,
but usually are found ahead of cold fronts. Answer (B) is incorrect because squall
lines usually form quickly.

418. What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet?

A. Freezing rain at higher altitude.

B. You are approaching an area of thunderstorms.

C. You will encounter hail if you continue your flight.

Rain falling from warm air above through colder air below may freeze during its
descent, falling as ice pellets. This can happen any time a warmer layer of air
exists above a colder layer (i.e., a warm front or a cold front).

Answer (B) is incorrect because freezing rain can be encountered without

thunderstorms. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice pellets are a form of hail.

419. What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms?

A. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail.

B. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static.

C. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds.

Cumulonimbus clouds represent an unstable air mass which indicates turbulent

conditions. The more frequent the lightning, the more severe the thunderstorm.
The roll cloud is most prevalent with cold frontal or squall line thunderstorms and

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 signifies an extremely turbulent zone.

420. While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a

continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This
indicates that you

A. are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.

B. have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions.

C. cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes.

When flying in the Northern Hemisphere experiencing a continuous left crosswind

indicates that you are entering a low-pressure system. Wind blows
counterclockwise around a low which accounts for the left crosswind. In general, a
low-pressure system is associated with bad weather.

Answer (B) is incorrect because if you have flown from an area of unfavorable
weather conditions, you are flying out of the low, which means you would have a
right crosswind. Answer (C) is incorrect because the wind can provide an
indication of pressure changes and weather.

421. The strength and location of the jet stream is normally

A. weaker and farther north in the summer.

B. stronger and farther north in the winter.

C. stronger and farther north in the summer.

The jet stream is considerably weaker in the middle latitudes during the summer
months, and is further north than in the winter.

422. Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with

thunderstorms?
Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a
A.
severe storm.
Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-
B.
mile radius of them.
Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a
C.
severe storm.
Hazardous turbulence is present in all thunderstorms, and a severe thunderstorm
can damage an airframe. Strongest turbulence within the clouds occurs with shear
between updrafts and downdrafts. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence has been
encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe

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 storm.

423. What are the characteristics of stable air?

A. Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.

B. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.

C. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds.

Characteristics of stable air include stratiform clouds and fog, continuous

precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.

Answer (A) is incorrect because good visibility is characteristic of unstable air.

Answer (C) is incorrect because intermittent precipitation and cumulus clouds are
characteristic of unstable air.

424. Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.

C. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air. Highs and ridges,
therefore, are areas of descending air.

Answer (A) is incorrect because high-pressure air descends. Answer (B) is

incorrect because low-pressure air rises.

425. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by

A. dust or haze at flight level.

B. long streaks of cirrus clouds.

C. a constant outside air temperature.

Long streaks of cirrus clouds can sometimes help the pilot to visually identify the
jet stream and associated clear air turbulence (CAT).

Answer (A) is incorrect because dust or haze indicates there is not enough wind or
air movement to dissipate the particles. Answer (C) is incorrect because CAT is
caused by mixing different air temperatures at different pressure levels.

426. Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?

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 A. Advection fog.

B. Radiation fog.

C. Precipitation-induced fog.

When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the
precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. Precipitation-induced fog can
become quite dense and continue for an extended period of time. This fog may
cover large areas, completely suspending air operations. It is most commonly
associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow moving cold fronts and with
stationary fronts.

Answer (A) is incorrect because advection fog forms from the movement of warm,
humid air over a cold water surface. Answer (B) is incorrect because radiation fog
forms from terrestrial cooling of the Earth's surface on clear, calm nights.

427. Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the
recognition of certain weather conditions?

A. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.

The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most
B.
intense echoes.
The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can
C.
be maintained when flying between the echoes.
Weather radar detects only precipitation drops. It does not detect minute cloud
droplets. Therefore, the radar scope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument
weather in clouds and fog.

Answer (B) is incorrect because hail can be thrown several miles from the intense
echoes. Answer (C) is incorrect because clouds without precipitation may exist
between the echoes.

428. Hail is most likely to be associated with

A. cumulus clouds.

B. cumulonimbus clouds.

C. stratocumulus clouds.

You should anticipate possible hail with any thunderstorm, especially beneath the
anvil of a large cumulonimbus.

429. What is a characteristic of stable air?

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 A. Stratiform clouds.

B. Fair weather cumulus clouds.

C. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude.

Characteristics of stable air include stratiform clouds and fog, continuous

precipitation, smooth air, and fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke.

Answer (B) is incorrect because cumulus clouds are characteristic of unstable air.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a rapid temperature decrease with altitude
indicates a high lapse rate and is characteristic of unstable air.

430. Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in

cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain?

A. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting.

B. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting.

C. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism.

Characteristics of unstable, moist air include cumuliform clouds, showery

precipitation, turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.
Orographic lifting is the lifting action produced by a physical object, such as a
mountain slope, forcing air upward.

Answer (A) is incorrect because if the air is stable, steady precipitation and
stratiform clouds will form. Answer (C) is incorrect because a lifting mechanism
must exist to form cumuliform clouds and showery rain.

431. Moisture is added to air by

A. sublimation and condensation.

B. evaporation and condensation.

C. evaporation and sublimation.

Evaporation is the changing of liquid water to invisible water vapor. Sublimation is

the changing of ice directly to water vapor.

Answer (A) is incorrect because condensation removes moisture from the air.
Answer (B) is incorrect because condensation removes moisture from the air.

432. Low-level wind shear may occur when

A. surface winds are light and variable.

B. there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.

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 surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and
C.
windspeed with height.
When taking off or landing in calm wind under clear skies within a few hours
before or after sunrise, be prepared for a temperature inversion near the ground.
You can be relatively certain of a shear zone in the inversion if you know the wind
at 2,000 to 4,000 feet is 25 knots or more. Allow a margin of airspeed above
normal climb or approach speed to alleviate the danger of a stall in event of
turbulence or sudden change in wind velocity.

Answer (A) is incorrect because light surface winds alone would not cause wind
shear. Answer (C) is incorrect because wind shear refers to an abrupt change in
wind speed and/or direction.

433. In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their
formation or location?
Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along
A.
coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.
Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog
B. requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water
cools the air by radiation.
Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog
C. requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational
cooling of the ground.
Radiation fog is restricted to land areas because water surfaces cool little from
nighttime radiation. Advection fog is most common along coastal areas but often
develops deep in continental areas. Steam fog, also known as sea smoke, forms
in the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm
ocean waters.

434. Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause

A. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal.

B. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal.

C. drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff.

The frost on the wing causes airflow disturbances. This will cause airflow
separation (stall) at a lower angle of attack, resulting in a tendency to stall during
takeoff.

Answer (A) is incorrect because frost on the wing surface will usually cause the
airplane to stall at a lower angle of attack. Answer (C) is incorrect because the

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 drag will usually not be enough to prevent the aircraft from obtaining takeoff
speed.

435. Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.

B. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

C. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

Cool air moving over a warm surface is heated from below, generating instability
and increasing the possibility of showers. Unstable air is characterized by
cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

436. During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the

A. north and speed decreases.

B. south and speed increases.

C. north and speed increases.

In middle latitudes, the wind speed of the jet stream averages considerably higher
in the winter months as it shifts farther south.

437. From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?

A. Atmospheric pressure.

B. The ambient lapse rate.

C. The dry adiabatic lapse rate.

A change in ambient temperature lapse rate of an air mass will determine its
stability. Surface heating or cooling aloft can make air more unstable. On the other
hand, surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater
stability.

Answer (A) is incorrect because atmospheric pressure affects temperature and air
movements, but does not determine the stability of the atmosphere. Answer (C) is
incorrect because the dry adiabatic lapse rate is a constant rate.

438. Which statement is true concerning squall lines?

A. They form slowly, but move rapidly.

B. They are associated with frontal systems only.

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 C. They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft.

A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. It often

contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense
weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because squall lines usually form rapidly. Answer (B) is
incorrect because squall lines can form in any area of unstable air, but usually are
found ahead of cold fronts.

439. With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?

A. It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly.

B. It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.

It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation
C.
fog.

Advection fog is more persistent than radiation fog and can move in rapidly
regardless of the time of day or night.

Answer (A) is incorrect because advection fog can move in rapidly regardless of
the time of day or night and is persistent. Answer (B) is incorrect because this
describes radiation fog.

440. Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that

A. a warm front has passed.

B. a warm front is about to pass.

C. there are thunderstorms in the area.

Rain falling from warm air above through colder air below may freeze during its
descent, falling as ice pellets. This can happen any time a warmer layer of air
exists above a colder layer (i.e., a warm front or a cold front).

Answer (A) is incorrect because after the warm front has passed there will no
longer be a layer of warm air above a layer of cold air, which is required for the
formation of ice pellets. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice pellets do not
necessarily come from thunderstorms, but from rain freezing at a higher altitude.

441. Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are

A. light.

B. moderate.

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 C. strong.

Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are
light. Heated air at the surface creates a shallow, unstable layer and the warm air
is forced upward. Convection increases in strength and to greater heights as
surface heating increases.

Answer (B) is incorrect because moderate and strong winds disrupt the vertical
movement of convective currents. Answer (C) is incorrect because moderate and
strong winds disrupt the vertical movement of convective currents.

442. The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action
and

A. unstable, dry air.

B. stable, moist air.

C. unstable, moist air.

Stable, moist air and adiabatic cooling is necessary to form stratiform clouds.

443. The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform

clouds is dependent upon the

A. source of lift.

B. stability of the air being lifted.

C. temperature of the air being lifted.

When stable air is forced upward, the air tends to retain horizontal flow. Any
cloudiness is flat and stratified. When unstable air is forced upward, the
disturbance grows, and any resulting cloudiness shows extensive vertical
development.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the stability of the air determines the type of
clouds that form. Answer (C) is incorrect because the temperature of the air
determines the altitude of clouds that form.

444. If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a
mountain slope, the clouds will be

A. cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence.

B. cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence.

C. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.

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 Stable air resists upward movement; therefore, stratified clouds are produced.

Answer (A) is incorrect because cirrus clouds are high and composed of ice
crystals. Answer (B) is incorrect because unstable air causes vertical development.

445. Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

A. Cirrus clouds.

B. Nimbostratus clouds.

C. Towering cumulus clouds.

Billowy fair weather cumulus clouds, usually seen on sunny afternoons, are
signposts in the sky indicating convective turbulence. Vertical heights range from
the shallow fair weather cumulus to the giant thunderstorm cumulonimbus.

Answer (A) is incorrect because cirrus clouds are high clouds made of ice crystals,
and are not generated by any convective activity. Answer (B) is incorrect because
nimbostratus clouds are flat rain clouds, formed in stable air and do not produce
convective activity or turbulence.

446. Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

A. A straight jetstream associated with a low-pressure trough.

B. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.

C. A jetstream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes.

Curving jet streams, especially those which curve around a deep pressure trough,
are more apt to have turbulent edges than straight jet streams.

Answer (A) is incorrect because a curving jet stream is stronger than a straight jet
stream. Answer (C) is incorrect because the jet stream is weaker in the summer.

447. What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds?

A. Nighttime cooling.

B. Dryness of the underlying land mass.

C. Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger.

Advection fog deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots. Winds

much stronger than 15 knots lift the fog into a layer of low stratus clouds or
stratocumulus.

Answer (A) is incorrect because nighttime cooling and dryness of the underlying
land mass lead to radiation fog. Answer (B) is incorrect because nighttime cooling

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 and dryness of the underlying land mass lead to radiation fog.

448. There is a high pressure system that is located south of your planned route in the
Northern Hemisphere on a west to east cross-country flight. To take advantage of
favorable winds, you would plan your route

A. on the north side of the high pressure area.

B. on the south side of the high pressure area.

C. through the middle of the high pressure area.

High pressure flows outward in a clockwise direction so pilot will gain tailwinds by
flying on the north side of the high pressure system.

449. When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface
temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather?

A. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds.

B. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area.

C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.

Characteristics of unstable air include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation,

turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer (A) is incorrect because stratonimbus clouds are characteristic of stable

air. Answer (B) is incorrect because restricted visibility is characteristic of stable air.

450. What causes wind?

A. The Earth's rotation.

B. Air mass modification.

C. Pressure differences.

Differences in temperature create differences in pressure. These pressure

differences drive a complex system of winds in a never-ending attempt to reach
equilibrium.

451. The greatest threats to an aircraft operating in the vicinity of thunderstorms are:

A. thunder and heavy rain.

B. hail and turbulence.

C. precipitation static and low visibility.

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 Hazardous turbulence is present in all thunderstorms; in a severe thunderstorm, it
can damage an airframe. Hail competes with turbulence as the greatest
thunderstorm hazard to aircraft.

452. You have delayed your flight to allow a fast moving cold front to clear your
destination airport before your arrival. What type of flying conditions would you
expect after the front has passed?

A. A fast moving squall line with high winds and thunderstorms.

B. Clear skies with gusty, turbulent winds and cooler temperatures.

C. Low clouds, reduced visibility, and showery, misty conditions.

Thunderstorms and heavy rain are common although not always associated with
cold fronts.

453. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

A. a heat exchange.

B. the movement of air.

C. a pressure differential.

The amount of solar energy received by any region varies with time of day, with
seasons, and with latitude. These differences in solar energy create temperature
variation. Temperatures also vary with differences in topographical surface and
with altitude. This temperature variation, or heat exchange, creates forces that
drive the atmosphere in its endless motion.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the movement of air and pressure differentials are
caused by heat exchanges. Answer (C) is incorrect because the movement of air
and pressure differentials are caused by heat exchanges.

454. A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by

A. poor visibility and smooth air.

B. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.

C. stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation.

Characteristics of unstable air include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation,

turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

Answer (A) is incorrect because poor visibility and smooth air are characteristic of
stable air. Answer (C) is incorrect because stratiform clouds and continuous

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 precipitation are characteristic of stable air.

455. A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is

A. a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface.

B. an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter.

C. a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions.

Advection fog forms when warm, moist air moves over colder ground or water.
The fog forms offshore and is then carried inland by the wind. It is most common
along coastal areas but often develops deep in continental areas.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes steam fog. Answer (C) is incorrect
because this describes radiation fog.

456. During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is
1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at
2,000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility
under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8
knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3°C. You decide to

A. use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.

approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have
B.
any noticeable effect.
fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the 'wind chill' effect and break up
C.
the ice.
Ice will accumulate unevenly on the airplane. It will add weight and drag, and
decrease thrust and lift. With ice accumulations, landing approaches should be
made with a minimum wing flap setting and with an added margin of airspeed.
Sudden and large configuration and airspeed changes should be avoided.

Answer (B) is incorrect because ice having a thickness similar to sandpaper on the
leading edge and upper surface of a wing can reduce wing lift by as much as 30
percent and increase drag by 40 percent. Answer (C) is incorrect because ice will
increase drag, requiring additional lift (airspeed); wind chill effect cannot be relied
upon to melt/remove the ice that has already accumulated; flying slower than
normal increases the possibility of a stall due to the decreased lift.

457. Ice pellets encountered during flight are normally evidence that

A. a cold front has passed.

B. there are thunderstorms in the area.

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 C. freezing rain exists at higher altitudes.

Rain falling from warm air above through colder air below may freeze during its
decent, falling as ice pellets. This can happen any time a warmer layer of air exists
above a colder layer (i.e., a warm front or a cold front).

458. Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered

A. near warm or stationary frontal activity.

B. when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.

C. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

Often there is a strong wind just above the top of an inversion layer. Flying into or
out of this wind induces a shear situation. The most prominent meteorological
phenomena that cause significant low-level wind shear problems are
thunderstorms and certain frontal systems at or near the airport.

Answer (A) is incorrect because hazardous wind shear is more commonly found
near inversions and thunderstorms. Answer (B) is incorrect because strong wind
does not mean that there will always be wind shear; the wind must be in different
directions.

459. The low-level wind shear Alert System (LLWAS) provides wind data and software
process to detect the presence of a

A. rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud.

change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance above the
B.
airport.
downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an
C.
easterly component due to the rotation of the Earth.

Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at
any level in the atmosphere. It may be associated with a low-level temperature
inversion, in a frontal zone, or clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated
with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes a tornado. Answer (C) is incorrect
because LLWAS detects wind changes close to the airport.

460. Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to

A. nocturnal cooling.

B. adiabatic cooling.

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 C. evaporation of precipitation.

When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the
precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog.

Answer (A) is incorrect because nocturnal cooling produces radiation fog. Answer
(B) is incorrect because adiabatic cooling produces upslope fog.

461. A common location of clear air turbulence is

A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream.

B. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow.

C. south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage.

Clear air turbulence (CAT) is greatest near the wind speed maxima, usually on the
polar sides where there is a combination of strong wind shear, curvature in the
flow, and cold air advection associated with sharply curved contours of strong
lows, troughs and ridges aloft. A frequent location of CAT is in an upper trough on
the cold, or polar, side of the jet stream.

462. Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature
inversion?

A. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind.

B. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.

C. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude.

An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is
light.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the air near the surface must be stable to permit
the cool ground to lower the temperature of the surrounding air. Answer (C) is
incorrect because cumulus clouds are well above the surface.

463. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A. Roll cloud.

B. Continuous updraft.

C. Beginning of rain at the surface.

The key feature of the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is a continuous updraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the roll cloud and the beginning of rain at the
surface are features of the mature stage. Answer (C) is incorrect because the roll

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 cloud and the beginning of rain at the surface are features of the mature stage.

464. Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from
air which has a temperature of

A. 32°F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32°F.

B. 0°C or less into air having a temperature of 0°C or more.

C. more than 32°F into air having a temperature of 32°F or less.

Rain falling through colder air may become supercooled, freezing on impact as
freezing rain, or it may freeze during its descent, falling as ice pellets. Water can
freeze at 0°C or 32°F.

465. What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any
attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?

A. 20 miles.

B. 30 miles.

C. 40 miles.

A pilot should avoid flying between very intense echoes unless they are separated
by at least 40 miles.

466. Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.

A. Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm.

The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the
B.
thunderstorm.
The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the
C.
thunderstorm.
The mature stage of a thunderstorm starts when precipitation begins to fall from
the cloud base. The downdrafts reach speeds that may exceed 2,500 fpm.
Meanwhile, updrafts reach a maximum with speeds possibly exceeding 6,000
fpm. Updrafts and downdrafts in close proximity create strong vertical shear and a
very turbulent environment.

Answer (A) is incorrect because updrafts do not continue through the dissipating
stage of a thunderstorm. Answer (C) is incorrect because this indicates the
beginning of the mature stage.

467. Density altitude is the vertical distance above mean sea level in the standard

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 atmosphere at which

A. pressure altitude is corrected for standard temperature.

B. a given atmospheric density is to be found.

C. temperature, pressure, altitude, and humidity are considered.

Density altitude is the vertical distance above sea level in the standard atmosphere
at which a given density is to be found. The density of air has significant effects on
the aircraft's performance.

468. Which is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?

A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.

B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.

C. Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air.

At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the
pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground. It must go upward.
Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air.

Answer (A) is incorrect because high-pressure air descends and low-pressure air
rises. Answer (C) is incorrect because high-pressure air descends and low-
pressure air rises.

469. In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the

A. right by Coriolis force.

B. right by surface friction.

C. left by Coriolis force.

The Coriolis force deflects air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.

470. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized

predominately by downdrafts?

A. Mature.

B. Developing.

C. Dissipating.

Downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm cell.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the mature stage has both updrafts and

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 downdrafts. Answer (B) is incorrect because the developing stage primarily has
updrafts.

471. Thunderstorms identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo should be

avoided by what distance?

A. 5 miles.

B. At least 25 miles.

C. At least 20 miles.

Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an

intense radar echo. This is especially true under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus.

472. Virga is best described as

streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before
A.
reaching the ground.
wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before
B.
reaching the ground.

C. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds.

Virga are the streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds that evaporate
before reaching the ground.

Answer (B) is incorrect because virga is usually thin and wispy. Answer (C) is
incorrect because virga is a form of precipitation.

473. Refer to the excerpt from the following METAR report:

KTUS.....08004KT 4SM HZ .....26/04 A2995 RMK RAE36
At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform
clouds be expected?

A. 4,400 feet.

B. 8,800 feet.

C. 17,600 feet.

The reported temperature is 26°C, and the dewpoint is 4°C. In a convection

current, the temperature and dewpoint converge at about 4.4°F (2.5°C) per 1,000
feet. An estimate of convective cloud bases can be found by dividing the
convergence into the temperature spread.
(26 - 4) ÷ 2.5 = 8.8 x 1,000 = 8,800 feet base.

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 474. With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the
isobars are

A. close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker.

not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are
B.
stronger.
close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are
C.
stronger.

The closer the spacing of isobars, the stronger is the pressure gradient force. The
stronger the pressure gradient force, the stronger is the wind. Thus, closely
spaced isobars mean strong winds; widely spaced isobars mean lighter wind.

475. The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting
action and

A. unstable, dry air.

B. stable, moist air.

C. unstable, moist air.

For cumulonimbus clouds to form, the air must have sufficient water vapor, an
unstable lapse rate, and an initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process
in motion.

476. If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this

thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least

A. 20 miles.

B. 10 miles.

C. 5 miles.

If the use of airborne radar indicates extremely intense echoes, they should be
avoided by at least 20 miles.

477. The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern
Hemisphere is

A. outward, downward, and clockwise.

B. outward, upward, and clockwise.

C. inward, downward, and clockwise.

As the air tries to blow outward from the high pressure, it is deflected to the right

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 by the Coriolis force. Thus, the wind around a high blows clockwise. Air moving
out of a high depletes the quantity of air. Highs and ridges are areas of descending
air.

478. What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000
feet MSL is 10°C and the dewpoint is 1°C?

A. 3,000 feet MSL.

B. 4,000 feet MSL.

C. 6,000 feet MSL.

In a convection current, the temperature and dewpoint converge at about 2.5°C

per 1,000 feet. An estimate of convective cloud bases can be found by dividing
the convergence into the temperature spread.
1. (10 - 1) ÷ 2.5 = 3.6 x 1,000 = 3,600 feet base
2. 2,000 feet MSL + 3,600 feet AGL = 5,600 feet MSL.

479. The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and
tornadoes, are generally associated with

A. slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause.

B. squall lines.

C. fast-moving occluded fronts.

A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. It often

contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense
weather hazard to aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because warm fronts do not usually produce severe
weather. Answer (C) is incorrect because the weather produced by occluded fronts
is not as severe as a squall line.

480. What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air
being forced to ascend?

A. The method by which the air is lifted.

B. The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

C. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs.

Whether the air is stable or unstable within a layer largely determines cloud
structure. When stable air is forced upward the air tends to retain horizontal flow
and any cloudiness is flat and stratified. When unstable air is forced upward, the

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 disturbance grows and any resulting cloudiness shows extensive vertical
development.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the stability determines the type of clouds that
form. Answer (C) is incorrect because the relative humidity determines the amount
of clouds that form.

481. The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a
layer of
stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across
A.
the ridge.
unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across
B.
the ridge.
moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing
C.
across the ridge.
A strong mountain wave requires:
1. Marked stability in the airstream disturbed by the mountains;
2. Wind speed at the level of the summit should exceed a minimum which varies
from 15 to 25 knots, depending on the height of the range; and
3. Wind direction within 30° to the range. Lift diminishes as winds more closely
parallel the range.

482. When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest
potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the

A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind.

B. leeward side when flying into the wind.

C. windward side when flying into the wind.

Dangerous downdrafts may be encountered on the lee side.

Answer (A) is incorrect because with a tailwind you would be flying away from the
mountain with the wind. Answer (C) is incorrect because you would be flying in air
that is rising up on the windward side.

483. During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden
decrease in headwind will cause

A. a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.

B. a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.

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 C. no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease.

The worst situation on departure occurs when the aircraft encounters a rapidly
increasing tailwind, decreasing headwind, and/or downdraft. Taking off under
these circumstances would lead to a decreased performance condition. An
increasing tailwind or decreasing headwind, when encountered, will cause a
decrease in indicated airspeed. The aircraft will initially pitch down due to the
decreased lift in proportion to the airspeed loss. After encountering the shear, if
the wind remains constant, aircraft ground speed will gradually increase and
indicated airspeed will return to its original value.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a sudden decrease in headwind will cause a loss
in airspeed. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is an initial loss of airspeed,
followed by an increase in ground speed.

484. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a
thunderstorm?

A. The start of rain.

B. The appearance of an anvil top.

C. Growth rate of cloud is maximum.

The mature stage of a thunderstorm starts when precipitation begins to fall from
the cloud base. The downdrafts reach speeds that may exceed 2,500 fpm.
Meanwhile, updrafts reach a maximum with speeds possibly exceeding 6,000
fpm.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the anvil top appears during the mature stage, but
not necessarily at the beginning. Answer (C) is incorrect because maximum cloud
growth rate occurs in the middle to the end of the mature stage.

485. When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind
direction and velocity will be from the

A. left and decreasing.

B. left and increasing.

C. right and decreasing.

In the Northern Hemisphere the wind around a low is counterclockwise. Thus,

when flying to the center of a low, the wind will be from the left. When flying into a
pressure system, spacing between isobars will decrease with increasing wind
velocity.

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 486. Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?
Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in
A.
the clouds.

B. Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft.

C. Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.

Hailstones can fall some distance from the storm core. Hail has been observed in
clear air several miles from the parent thunderstorm.

Answer (A) is incorrect because hail is one of the greatest hazards to aircraft.
Answer (B) is incorrect because rain at the surface does not mean the absence of
hail aloft.

487. What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure
areas?

A. Coriolis force.

B. Surface friction.

C. Pressure gradient force.

The pressure gradient force drives the wind and is perpendicular to isobars. When
a pressure gradient force is first established, wind begins to blow from higher to
lower pressure directly across the isobars. However, the instant air begins moving,
Coriolis force deflects it to the right. Soon the wind is deflected a full 90° and is
parallel to the isobars or contours. At this time, Coriolis force exactly balances
pressure gradient force. With the forces in balance, wind will remain parallel to
isobars or contours.

Answer (B) is incorrect because surface friction moves air from highs to lows by
decreasing wind speed, which decreases the effect of the Coriolis force. Answer
(C) is incorrect because the pressure gradient force causes the initial movement
from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas.

488. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A. It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction.

B. It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction.

It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical
C.
direction.
Wind shear may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at
any level in the atmosphere. It may be associated with a low-level temperature
inversion, in a frontal zone, or clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated

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 with a jet stream or strong circulation.

Answer (A) is incorrect because wind shear occurs both vertically and horizontally,
and at all altitudes. Answer (B) is incorrect because wind shear occurs both
vertically and horizontally, and at all altitudes.

489. Which would increase the stability of an air mass?

A. Warming from below.

B. Cooling from below.

C. Decrease in water vapor.

A change in ambient temperature lapse rate of an air mass will determine its
stability. Surface cooling or warming aloft often tips the balance toward greater
stability.

Answer (A) is incorrect because warming from below decreases stability. Answer
(C) is incorrect because a decrease in water vapor lowers the dewpoint of the air,
but does not affect stability.

490. What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere?

A. A cool, dry air mass.

B. A warm, humid air mass.

C. Descending air in the northern hemisphere.

Characteristics of unstable air include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation,

turbulence, and good visibility, except in blowing obstructions.

491. When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist?

A. Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds.

B. Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels.

Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor
C.
visibility.

Characteristics typical of a stable air mass are:

- Stratiform clouds and fog
- Continuous precipitation
- Smooth air
- Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke

Answer (A) is incorrect because towering cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, and

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 turbulence are characteristic of an unstable air mass. Answer (B) is incorrect
because towering cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, and turbulence are
characteristic of an unstable air mass.

492. Which is a characteristic of stable air?

A. Cumuliform clouds.

B. Excellent visibility.

C. Restricted visibility.

Characteristics typical of a stable air mass are:

- Stratiform clouds and fog
- Continuous precipitation
- Smooth air
- Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke

Answer (A) is incorrect because cumuliform clouds and excellent visibility are
characteristic of an unstable air mass. Answer (B) is incorrect because cumuliform
clouds and excellent visibility are characteristic of an unstable air mass.

493. The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

A. lenticular ice formation in calm air.

B. very strong turbulence.

C. heavy icing conditions.

Standing lenticular and/or rotor clouds suggest a mountain wave; expect

turbulence many miles to the lee of mountains.

494. The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere
is

A. an anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.

B. a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

C. an anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.

The storms that develop between high-pressure systems are characterized by low
pressure. As winds try to blow inward toward the center of low pressure, they are
also deflected to the right. Thus, the wind around a low moves in a
counterclockwise direction. The low pressure and its wind system is a cyclone.

Answer (A) is incorrect because they describe a high-pressure system. Answer (C)
is incorrect because they describe a high-pressure system.

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 495. Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A. Constant height above the Earth.

B. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

C. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.

As the thin boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere, the
tropopause signals an abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the tropopause is farther away from the Earth's
surface at the equator than the poles. Answer (C) is incorrect because clouds may
form above the tropopause.

496. Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass?

A. Cumuliform clouds.

B. Showery precipitation.

C. Continuous precipitation.

Characteristics typical of a stable air mass are:

- Stratiform clouds and fog
- Continuous precipitation
- Smooth air
- Fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke

Answer (A) is incorrect because cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation are
characteristic of an unstable air mass. Answer (B) is incorrect because cumuliform
clouds and showery precipitation are characteristic of an unstable air mass.

497. Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the
future?

A. Freezing Level Chart.

B. Weather Depiction Chart.

C. 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.

Prognostic charts portray weather forecasts for sometime in the future for the
conterminous U.S. and adjacent areas.

Answer (A) is incorrect because there is no chart named the Freezing Level Chart.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the Weather Depiction Charts show conditions
valid only for the time given for the chart.

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 498. What type of Inflight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with
information regarding the possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence,
winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and extensive mountain obscurement?

A. Convective SIGMETs and SIGMETs.

B. Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) and SIGMETs.

C. AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

AIRMETs and CWAs may be of significance to any pilot or aircraft operator and are
issued for all domestic airspace. They are of particular concern to operators and
pilots of aircraft sensitive to the phenomena described and to pilots without
instrument ratings. They are issued for the following weather phenomena which
are potentially hazardous to aircraft: moderate icing, moderate turbulence,
sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, widespread area of ceilings
less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than three miles, and extensive mountain
obscurement.

499. The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of
3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of
the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL).
METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998

A. 2,500 feet.

B. 3,500 feet.

C. 4,000 feet.

KHOB reports a ceiling of 500 feet (OVC005). This means the bottom of the
overcast layer is 4,000 feet (3,500 feet MSL + 500 feet AGL). The top of the
overcast is reported at 7,500 feet MSL. Therefore, the overcast layer is 3,500 feet
thick (7,500 - 4,000).

500. Given the following, what is the maximum altitude to maintain VFR below the
ceiling in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
METAR: KHOB 151250Z, 17006KT 4SM BKN025 OVC040 13/11 A2998

A. 2,000 feet AGL.

B. 3,500 feet AGL.

C. 3,900 feet AGL.

KHOB reports a broken ceiling at 2,500 feet (BKN025) and ceiling of 4,000 feet
(OVC040). VFR in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet requires the pilot to maintain

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 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below distance from clouds. In this instance, the
maximum altitude to maintain VFR is 3,500 feet AGL.

501. The minimum vertical wind shear value critical for probable moderate or greater
turbulence is

A. 4 knots per 1,000 feet.

B. 6 knots per 1,000 feet.

C. 8 knots per 1,000 feet.

The vertical shear critical for probable turbulence is 6 knots per 1,000 feet.

502. From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind, and
temperature/dewpoint spread be determined at a specified altitude?

A. Stability Charts.

B. Winds Aloft Forecasts.

C. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts.

The constant pressure analysis chart is a source of observed temperature,

temperature/dew point spread, moisture, and wind.

Answer (A) is incorrect because stability charts provide information on stability,

freezing level, precipitation, and average relative humidity. Answer (B) is incorrect
because winds aloft forecasts do not provide information about temperature/dew
point spread.

503. The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant
weather for what airspace?

A. 18,000 feet to 45,000 feet.

B. 24,000 feet to 45,000 feet.

C. 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet.

The U.S. high-level significant weather prognostic chart forecasts significant

weather encompassing airspace from 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet pressure altitude
(400 to 70 millibars).

504. Which chart provides a ready means of locating observed frontal positions and
pressure centers?

A. Surface Analysis Chart.

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 B. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart.

C. Weather Depiction Chart.

Surface analysis charts are used to denote pressure systems and fronts.

Answer (B) is incorrect because constant pressure analysis charts provide

observed moisture content, temperatures, and winds aloft. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the weather depiction chart depicts frontal location, cloud coverage and
height, and VFR/MVFR/IFR.

505. What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped
lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

A. Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing.

B. Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence.

Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and

C.
icing.
Small-scalloped lines enclose areas of expected cumulonimbus development.
Cumulonimbus clouds imply moderate or greater turbulence and icing.

506. What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

A. True direction and MPH.

B. True direction and knots.

C. Magnetic direction and knots.

Wind direction is with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots on
winds aloft forecast reports.

507. The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument
flight should be obtained from the

A. Flight service.

B. ATIS broadcast.

C. Notices to Air Missions publications.

Flight Service provides more aviation weather briefing service than any other
government service outlet. FSS provides weather briefings, scheduled and
unscheduled weather broadcasts, and furnishes weather support to flight in its
area.

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 Answer (B) is incorrect because ATIS provides information for operations at a
specific airport and does not provide information for enroute operations. Answer
(C) is incorrect because NOTAM publications contain information on airport
operations and would not have information for en route and destination weather.

508. When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control
remains positive, that should be reported as

A. light.

B. severe.

C. moderate.

Moderate turbulence is similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity. Changes

in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all
times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed. Moderate chop is similar
to light chop but of greater intensity. It causes rapid bumps or jolts without
appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude.

Answer (A) is incorrect because light turbulence momentarily causes slight, erratic
changes in altitude and/or attitude. Answer (B) is incorrect because severe
turbulence causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude and the aircraft
may be momentarily out of control.

509. What flight planning information can a pilot derive from Constant Pressure
Analysis Charts?

A. Winds and temperatures aloft.

B. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.

C. Frontal systems and obstructions to vision aloft.

The constant pressure analysis chart is a source of observed temperature,

temperature/dewpoint spread, moisture and wind.

Answer (B) is incorrect because clear air turbulence can be found on prognostic
charts and in area forecasts. Answer (C) is incorrect because frontal systems and
obstructions to vision aloft can be found on surface analysis and weather
depiction charts.

510. On a Surface Analysis Chart, the solid lines that depict sea level pressure patterns
are called

A. isobars.

B. isogons.

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 C. millibars.

Isobars are solid lines depicting the pressure pattern. They are usually spaced at
four-millibar intervals on a surface analysis chart.

Answer (B) is incorrect because isogons are lines of magnetic variation, found on
navigational charts. Answer (C) is incorrect because millibars are units of pressure.

511. The difference found by subtracting the temperature of a parcel of air theoretically
lifted from the surface to 500 millibars and the existing temperature at 500
millibars is called the

A. lifted index.

B. negative index.

C. positive index.

The lifted index is computed as if a parcel of air near the surface were lifted to 500
mb. As the air is 'lifted,' it cools by expansion. The temperature the parcel would
have at 500 mb is then subtracted from the existing 500 mb temperature. The
difference is the lifted index; it may be positive, zero, or negative.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a positive index means the lifted parcel of air is
colder than the existing air at 500 mb, and the air is stable. Answer (C) is incorrect
because a negative index means the lifted parcel of air is warmer than the existing
air at 500 mb, and the air is unstable.

512. What is the meaning of the terms PROB40 2102 +TSRA as used in a Terminal
Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)?
Probability of heavy thunderstorms with rain showers below 4000 feet at time
A.
2102.
Between 2100Z and 0200Z there is a forty percent (40%) probability of
B.
thunderstorms with heavy rain.
Beginning at 2102Z forty percent (40%) probability of heavy thunderstorms and
C.
rain showers.
The TAF reports there is a 40% probability (PROB40) between 2100Z and 0200Z
(2102) of thunderstorms and heavy rain (+TSRA).

513. What is meant by the Special METAR weather observation for KBOI?
SPECI KBOI 091854Z 32005KT 1 1/2SM RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2990 RMK
RAB12

A. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1912Z.

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 B. Rain and mist obstructing visibility; rain began at 1812Z.

C. Rain and overcast at 1200 feet AGL.

SPECI KBOI - special report for KBOI

091854Z - the date and time the observation is taken is the 9th of the month, 1854
Zulu time
32005KT - winds are 320° true at 5 knots
1-1/2 SM RA BR - visibilities are 1-1/2 statute miles in rain and mist
OVC 007 - ceiling is 700 feet overcast
17/16 - temperature is 17°C and the dewpoint is 16°C
A2990 - altimeter is 29.90
RMK RAB12 - remarks, rain began 12 minutes past the hour.

514. What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?

A. 30,000 feet.

B. 24,000 feet.

C. 18,000 feet.

The U.S. low-level significant weather prognostic chart includes significant

weather from the surface to 24,000 feet (400 millibars).

515. Hatching on a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart indicates

A. hurricane eye.

B. windspeed 70 knots to 110 knots.

C. windspeed 110 knots to 150 knots.

To aid in identifying areas of strong winds, hatching denotes wind speeds of 70 to

110 knots, a clear area within a hatched area indicates wind of 110 to 150 knots,
and an area of 150 to 190 knots of wind is hatched.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the hurricane eye has very low winds. Answer (C)
is incorrect because a clear area within a hatched area indicates wind of 110 to
150 knots.

516. In the following METAR/TAF for HOU, what is the ceiling and visibility forecast on
the 7th day of the month at 0600Z?
KHOU 061734Z 0618/0718 (tel:0618/0718) 16014G22KT P6SM VCSH BKN018
BKN035
FM070100 17010KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025
FM070500 17008KT 4SM BR SCT008 OVC012

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 FM071000 18005KT 3SM BR OVC007
FM071500 23008KT 5SM BR VCSH SCT008 OVC015

A. Visibility 6 miles with a broken ceiling at 15,000 feet MSL.

B. 4 nautical miles of visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet MSL.

C. 4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL.

The third line of the TAF reads from the 7th at 0500 wind 170 at 8 knots, visibility 4
statute miles in mist, scattered 800 AGL, overcast 1,200 AGL. Because the next
weather forecast is not given until the 7th at 1000, you would use the information
from the forecast for the 7th at 0500 to answer the question, "FM070500 17008KT
4SM BR SCT008 OVC012." Remember that a scattered layer does not signify a
ceiling.

517. During preflight preparation, weather report forecasts can best be obtained by
means of contacting the

A. weather forecast office (WFD).

B. air route traffic control center.

C. pilot's automatic telephone answering service.

Reports and forecasts are available through the request/reply service at all FSSs,
WSOs, and WSFOs.

Answer (B) is incorrect because ARTCC deals with air traffic control. Answer (C) is
incorrect because PATWAS is limited in the number of route forecasts and
synopses it can provide.

518. The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and
A.
obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.
actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather,
B.
and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.
actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage,
C.
temperature, dewpoint, and wind at the time shown on the chart.
The surface analysis chart depicts frontal system positions, pressure patterns, and
the temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather and obstructions to vision at individual
stations on the surface chart valid for the time given.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the surface analysis chart reports weather as of
the time of observation. Answer (C) is incorrect because surface analysis charts do
not indicate cloud heights.

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 519. The remarks section of the Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR) contains the
following coded information. What does it mean?
RMK FZDZB42 WSHFT 30 FROPA

A. Freezing drizzle with cloud bases below 4,200 feet.

B. Freezing drizzle below 4,200 feet and wind shear.

C. Wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.

RMK - remarks follow

FZDZB42 - freezing drizzle began 42 minutes after the hour
WSHFT 30 FROPA - wind shift at three zero due to frontal passage.

520. On a Surface Analysis Chart, close spacing of the isobars indicates

A. weak pressure gradient.

B. strong pressure gradient.

C. strong temperature gradient.

Close spacing of isobars indicate that a strong pressure gradient exists.

Answer (A) is incorrect because farther spaced isobars indicate a weaker pressure
gradient. Answer (C) is incorrect because isotherms indicate changing
temperatures.

521. Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMETs (WST)?

They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm
A.
activity, and large hailstone activity.
They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone
B.
activity. The forecast is valid for 1 hour only.
They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for
C. tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal to 3/4
inch in diameter.
Convective SIGMETs are issued in the conterminous U.S. for any of the following:
1. Severe thunderstorms due to surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots or
hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter or tornadoes;
2. Embedded thunderstorms;
3. Line of thunderstorms; or
4. Thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level four affecting 40 percent or
more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.

Answer (A) is incorrect because SIGMETs are unscheduled forecasts. Answer (B) is
incorrect because SIGMETs are issued only for severe thunderstorms and hail 3/4

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 inch or larger and they can be valid for up to 2 hours.

522. SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous

A. to all aircraft.

B. particularly to heavy aircraft.

C. particularly to light airplanes.

A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft, other than

convective activity. In the conterminous U.S., items covered are:
1. Severe icing;
2. Severe or extreme turbulence; and
3. Dust storms, sandstorms or volcanic ash lowering visibilities to less than 3
miles.

523. To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight

information region, the pilot should refer to

A. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA).

B. Weather Depiction Charts.

C. Satellite Maps.

The GFA is intended to provide the necessary aviation weather information to give
users a complete picture of the weather that may impact flight in the continental
U.S. (CONUS).

524. Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with
cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as

A. severe turbulence.

B. clear air turbulence.

C. convective turbulence.

High-level turbulence (normally above 15,000 feet AGL) not associated with
cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as CAT (clear
air turbulence) preceded by the appropriate intensity, or light or moderate chop.

Answer (A) is incorrect because severe turbulence is not dependent on altitude.

Answer (C) is incorrect because convective turbulence refers to the lifting action
related to turbulence with cumulus clouds.

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 525. What significant cloud coverage is reported by this pilot report?
KMOB UA/OV 15NW MOB 1340Z/SK OVC-TOP025 / OVC045-TOP090

A. Three (3) separate overcast layers exist with bases at 250, 7,500 and 9,000 feet.

The top of the lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer
B.
is 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively.
The base of the second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer
C.
is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 9,000 feet.

UA - pilot report
/OV 15NW MOB - pilot was 15 miles northwest of Mobile, at 1340 UTC time
/SK OVC-TOP025 - sky coverage, overcast layer top at 2,500 feet
/OVC045-TOP090 - a second layer is at 4,500 feet with the top at 9,000 feet MSL.

526. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are issued how many times a day and cover
what period of time?

A. Four times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period.

Six times daily and are usually valid for a 24 hour period including a 4-hour
B.
categorical outlook.

C. Four times daily and are valid for 12 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook.

A TAF is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an

airport during a specified period (usually 24 hours). TAFs use the same codes as
METAR weather reports. They are scheduled four times daily for 24-hour periods
beginning at 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.

527. Dashed lines on a Surface Analysis Chart, if depicted, indicate that the pressure
gradient is

A. weak.

B. strong.

C. unstable.

When a pressure gradient is weak, dashed isobars are sometimes inserted at two-
millibar intervals to more clearly define the pressure pattern.

Answer (B) is incorrect because strong pressure gradients are indicated by closely
spaced solid isobars at 4-mb intervals. Answer (C) is incorrect because stability is
concerned with temperature lapse rates.

528. Weather Advisory Broadcasts, including Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW),
SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs are provided by

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 ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area
A.
described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
Flight Service on 122.2 MHz and adjacent VORs, when any part of the area
B.
described is within 200 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.

C. selected low-frequency and/or VOR navigational aids.

ARTCCs broadcast an AWW, SIGMET, convective SIGMET, or CWA alert once on

all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within
150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction. These broadcasts contain a
SIGMET or CWA (identification) and a brief description of the weather activity and
general area affected.

529. Which statement pertaining to the following Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is
true?
TAF
KMEM 091135Z 0915 15005KT 5SM HZ BKN060
FM1600 VRB04KT P6SM SKC
Wind in the valid period implies surface winds are forecast to be greater than 5
A.
KTS.

B. Wind direction is from 160° at 4 KTS and reported visibility is 6 statute miles.

C. SKC in the valid period indicates no significant weather and sky clear.

TAF KMEM - terminal aerodrome forecast for Memphis

091135Z - observation is taken on the 9th of the month at 1135 Zulu time
15005KT - winds are from 150° at 5 knots
5SM HZ - visibility is 5 statute miles in haze
BKN060 - ceiling is 6,000 feet broken
FM1600 - from 1600Z
VRB04KT - wind is variable at 4 knots
P6SM - visibility is greater than 6 statute miles
SKC - sky is clear.

530. What is the bottom of the lowest overcast layer in the following pilot report?
KMOB UA /OV APE230010/TM 1515/FL085/TP BE20/ SK BKN065/WX FV03SM
HZ FU/TA 20/TB LGT

A. There is not a defined ceiling in this report.

B. There is a layer reported at 8,500 feet.

C. There is a broken layer at 6,500 feet.

The sky cover portion of the report states "SK BKN 065" which means sky cover is

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 broken at 6,500 feet.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the ceiling is defined in the "SK" section of the
report. Answer (B) is incorrect because "FL085" is detailing the flight level the
report was given at, not the sky coverage.

531. A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in
altitude and/or attitude should report it as

A. light chop.

B. light turbulence.

C. moderate turbulence.

Turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or

attitude (pitch, roll, yaw) is reported as light turbulence.

Answer (A) is incorrect because light chop is slight, rapid, somewhat rhythmic
bumpiness. Answer (C) is incorrect because moderate turbulence causes changes
in altitude and/or attitude, and variations in indicated airspeed.

532. To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting

stations, the pilot should refer to

A. pilot reports.

B. Area Forecasts.

C. prognostic charts.

Pilot weather reports are the best means to determine observed weather
conditions between weather-reporting stations. It is also the only method of
directly observing cloud tops, icing and turbulence.

Answer (B) is incorrect because Area Forecasts and prognostic charts are
forecasts and not observed weather. Answer (C) is incorrect because Area
Forecasts and prognostic charts are forecasts and not observed weather.

533. What single reference contains information regarding a volcanic eruption, that is
occurring or expected to occur?

A. In-Flight Weather Advisories.

B. Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF).

C. Weather Depiction Chart.

In-Flight Weather Advisories (SIGMETs) provide information regarding volcanic

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 eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur.

Answer (B) is incorrect because a TAF is a concise statement of the expected

meteorological conditions at an airport during a specified period. Answer (C) is
incorrect because a Weather Depiction Chart is a report of weather as of the time
of observation.

534. What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your
destination?

A. Rapid variations in windspeed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls.

Peak gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30° or
B.
more.
Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22
C.
knots or more for at least 1 minute.

A squall is a sudden increase in wind speed of 16 knots to a sustained speed of

22 knots or more lasting for at least 1 minute.

Answer (A) is incorrect because this describes gusts. Answer (B) is incorrect
because this describes wind shear.

535. What does the contraction VRB in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) mean?

A. Wind speed is variable throughout the period.

B. Cloud base is variable.

C. Wind direction is variable.

A variable wind direction is noted by 'VRB' where the three-digit direction usually
appears.

536. (Refer to Figure 31.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would
exceed the airplane's crosswind capability of 0.2 V(SO), if V(SO) is 60 knots?

A. 260° at 20 knots.

B. 275° at 25 knots.

C. 315° at 35 knots.

1. Compute 0.2 V(SO):

60 x 0.2 = 12 KIAS crosswind component
2. Compute the angle between the wind and the runway:
300° runway direction - 260° wind direction = 040° wind angle across runway
3. Determine the crosswind component of 20 knots at 40° crossing angle.

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 537. (Refer to Figure 10.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be
used from engine start to 6,000 feet pressure altitude?
Aircraft weight 3,200 lb
Airport pressure altitude 2,000 ft
Temperature 27°C

A. 10 pounds.

B. 14 pounds.

C. 24 pounds.

1. Locate the section for 3,200 pounds weight. Read across the 2,000-foot PA line
to the entry under fuel used, 4 pounds.
2. Read across the 6,000-foot PA line to the entry under fuel used, 14 pounds.
3. Calculate the fuel required to climb:
14 - 4 = 10 lbs
4. Apply Note #2 before adding the fuel in Note 1. (A temperature of 27°C is
+16°C, with respect to the standard atmosphere at 2,000 feet.)
10 x 1.16 = 11.6 lbs
5. Apply Note #1:
11.6 lbs + 12.0 lbs start and taxi = 23.6 lbs total.

538. GIVEN:
Total weight 4,137 lb
CG location station 67.8
Fuel consumption 13.7 GPH
Fuel CG station 68.0
After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station

A. 67.79.

B. 68.79.

C. 70.78.

1. Find the weight change: 13.7 GPH for 1.5 hours = 20.55 gal
20.55 gal x 6 lbs/gal = 123.3 lbs
2. New total weight is 4,137 - 123.3 = 4,013.7
3. The distance between the CG and the fuel arm is 68.0 - 67.8 = .2
4. Place the values in the formula and cross multiply:
123.3 ÷ 4013.7 = CG change ÷ .2 = 24.66 = 4013.7(CG change)
5. Divide to determine CG change:
24.66/4013.7 = CG change = .00614
123.3 ÷ 4013.7 = CG change ÷ .2 = .00614 inches
6. Calculate the new CG:

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 Original CG 67.80000 - CG change .00614 = New CG 67.79386.

539. (Refer to Figure 38.)

GIVEN:
Empty weight (oil is included) 1,271 lb
Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000) 102.04
Pilot and copilot 400 lb
Rear seat passenger 140 lb
Cargo 100 lb
Fuel 37 gal
Is the airplane loaded within limits?

A. Yes, the weight and CG is within limits.

B. No, the weight exceeds the maximum allowable.

C. No, the weight is acceptable, but the CG is aft of the aft limit.

1. Construct a table with the item, weight, and moment. The moment of each item
is found by using the loading graph in FAA Figure 38. Locate the weight of each
item on the left side of the chart, and proceed to the right to intersect the correct
item line. At point of intersection, proceed downward to find the moment for that
item at the specified weight.
Item Weight Moment
Aircraft empty weight 1,271 102.04
Pilot and copilot 400 36.00
Aft passenger 140 18.00
Cargo 100 11.50
Fuel (37.0 gal x 6 lbs/gal) + 222 + 20.00
Totals 2,133 187.54
2. Compare the total weight and moment to the limits in the center of gravity
envelope in FAA Figure 38. Move up the loaded aircraft weight scale to 2,133, then
across to 187.54 on the Moment/1,000 scale. The weight and CG are within limits.

540. (Refer to Figure 32.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 50°F
Pressure altitude 2,000 feet
Weight 2,700 lb
Wind Calm
What is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?

A. 800 feet.

B. 650 feet.

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 C. 1050 feet.

1. Enter chart at 50°F, proceed up to the 2,000-foot pressure altitude line.

2. From this point, go to the right, to the weight reference line.
3. From this point, proceed up and to the right on the trend lines, until intercepting
the 2,700 pound weight line. Then proceed to the right, to the wind reference line.
4. From this point, since the winds are calm, proceed to the right and read 800
feet.

541. What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?

A. Increases takeoff speed.

B. Increases takeoff distance.

C. Decreases takeoff distance.

The effect of runway slope on takeoff distance is due to the component of weight
along the inclined path of the aircraft. An upslope would contribute a retarding
force component while a downslope would contribute an accelerating force
component. In the case of an upslope, the retarding force component adds to
drag and rolling friction to reduce the net accelerating force.

542. (Refer to Figure 8.)

GIVEN:
Fuel quantity 47 gal
Power-cruise (lean) 55 percent
Approximately how much flight time would be available with a night VFR fuel
reserve remaining?

A. 3 hours 8 minutes.

B. 3 hours 22 minutes.

C. 3 hours 43 minutes.

1. Enter chart at the point where the 55% maximum continuous power line
intersects the curved cruise (lean) line.
2. From that point, proceed to the left and read fuel flow: 11.4 GPH
3. Compute time of flight:
47 ÷ 11.4 = 4.12 hours
4. Compute available flight time with a 45-minute (0.75 hour) reserve:
4.12 - 0.75 = 3.37 = 3 hours, 22 minutes.

543. When conducting a go-around, the pilot must be aware that

A. radio communications are key to alerting other aircraft in the pattern that a go-

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 around maneuver is being conducted.
the airplane is trimmed for a power-off condition, and application of takeoff power
B.
will cause the nose to rise rapidly
flaps should be raised as quickly as possible to reduce drag and increase airspeed
C.
for a successful go around.
When takeoff power is applied, it is usually necessary to hold considerable
pressure on the controls to maintain straight flight and a safe climb attitude. Since
the airplane is trimmed for the approach (a low power and low airspeed condition),
application of maximum allowable power requires considerable control pressure to
maintain a climb pitch attitude. The addition of power tends to raise the airplane's
nose suddenly and it veers to the left.

Answer (A) is incorrect because power is the pilot's first concern in a go-around
situation; aviate before you communicate. Answer (C) is incorrect because flaps
should only be retracted once power has been applied and the proper climb
attitude established

544. (Refer to Figure 11.) If the cruise altitude is 7,500 feet, using 64 percent power at
2,500 RPM, what would be the range with 48 gallons of usable fuel?

A. 635 miles.

B. 645 miles.

C. 810 miles.

1. Find 7,500 feet in the first column.

2. Go across to third column to find 64% BHP.
3. Using the proper column according to the amount of fuel specified in the
question, go across from 64% to find 810 miles endurance under the range
column.

545. GIVEN:
Weight A: 175 pounds at 135 inches aft of datum
Weight B: 135 pounds at 115 inches aft of datum
Weight C: 75 pounds at 85 inches aft of datum
The CG for the combined weights would be located how far aft of datum?

A. 91.76 inches.

B. 111.67 inches.

C. 118.24 inches.

Arm is the aft of datum value for each item:

Weight x Arm = Moment

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 175 x 135 = 23,625 for A
135 x 115 = 15,525 for B
+ 75 x 85 = + 6,375 for C
385 lbs 45,525 lbs-in
2. Moments ÷ Total weight = CG location
45,525 ÷ 385 = 118.25 inches ^

546. A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of

touchdown, the
direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the
A.
runway.
direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the
B.
runway.
downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane
C.
to drift.

Direction of motion and the longitudinal axis must be parallel to the runway or
skidding will occur, with possible damage to the aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the direction of motion of the airplane must be
parallel to the runway. Answer (C) is incorrect because the upwind wing should be
lowered to eliminate drift.

547. (Refer to Figure 31.) What is the headwind component for a Rwy 13 takeoff if the
surface wind is 190° at 15 knots?

A. 7 knots.

B. 13 knots.

C. 15 knots.

1. Compute the angle between the wind and each runway:

190° wind direction - 130° runway direction = 060° wind angle across runway
2. Determine the headwind component for 15 knots at 060°, 7 KIAS.

548. (Refer to Figure 35.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 50°F
Pressure altitude Sea level
Weight 3,000 lb
Headwind 10 kts
Determine the approximate ground roll.

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 A. 425 feet.

B. 636 feet.

C. 836 feet.

1. Enter the chart at the 50°F OAT point and proceed upward to intercept the sea
level pressure altitude line. Proceed right to the intersection with the vertical
reference line.
2. From the reference line, proceed upward to the right following the trend line,
until reaching a vertical line representing the weight of 3,000 pounds.
3. Draw a line to the right from the intercept with the weight line, to the intercept
with the right vertical reference line.
4. Construct a vertical line to represent the headwind, 10 knots. Draw a line from
the intercept with the reference line to the intersect with the headwind line.
Proceed to the right and read the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle: 1,200
feet.
5. Apply the note to calculate the ground roll (53% of the landing distance).
1,200 x 0.53 = 636 feet ground roll.

549. (Refer to Figure 32.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 30°F
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Weight 3,300 lb
Headwind 20 kts
What is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?

A. 1,100 feet.

B. 1,300 feet.

C. 1,500 feet.

1. Enter chart at 30°F, proceed up to the 6,000-foot pressure altitude line.

2. From this point, go to the right to the weight reference line.
3. From this point, proceed up and to the right on a line spaced proportionally
between the trend lines, until intercepting the 3,300-pound weight line. Then
proceed to the right, to the wind reference line.
4. From this point, proceed down and to the right (maintain proportional spacing),
to the 20-knot headwind line. From this point, proceed to the right and read 1,500
feet.

550. (Refer to Figure 13.)

GIVEN:
Aircraft weight 4,000 lb

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 Airport pressure altitude 2,000 ft
Temperature at 2,000 feet 32°C
Using a maximum rate of climb under the given conditions, how much time would
be required to climb to a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet?

A. 7 minutes.

B. 8.4 minutes.

C. 11.2 minutes.

1. Determine the time required to climb from sea level to the PA of the airport
(2,000 feet) by interpolating between the sea level and the 4,000-foot values (for
an aircraft weight of 4,000 lbs):
(0 + 4) ÷ 2 = 2 minutes
2. Determine the time required to climb from sea level to 8,000-foot pressure
altitude: 9 minutes
3. Determine the time required to climb from 2,000 feet to 8,000-foot pressure
altitude (uncorrected, for nonstandard temperature):
9 - 2 = 7 minutes
4. Correct the time required for nonstandard temperature by applying Note #2,
using 21% increase (+32°C is +21°C relative to the standard atmosphere at 2,000
feet):
1.21 x 7 = 8.4 min.

551. An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 94.0,
approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear
baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to
move the CG to 92.0?

A. 52.14 pounds.

B. 62.24 pounds.

C. 78.14 pounds.

Determine the amount of weight to be moved:

Weight shifted ÷ Total weight = change in CG (94 - 92) ÷ Dist. Wt. shifted (180 - 40)
Weight to be shifted ÷ 3,650 lbs = 2.0 ÷ 140
3,650 x 2 ÷ 140 = 7,300 ÷ 140 = 52.143.

552. What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?

A. -15°C.

B. -20°C.

C. -25°C.

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 Standard temperature at sea level is 15°C. The average lapse rate is 2°C/1,000
feet.
20 x -2 = -40°C temperature decrease to 20,000 feet
15°C - 40°C = -25°C standard temperature at 20,000 feet

553. (Refer to Figure 34.)

GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Temperature +3°C
Power 2,200 RPM - 22" MP
Usable fuel available 465 lb
What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated?

A. 6 hours 27 minutes.

B. 6 hours 39 minutes.

C. 6 hours 56 minutes.

1. Enter the Cruise Performance Chart at the 2,200 RPM section (the left-hand
column). In that section, move right and find the 22" MP row. Follow that row to
the right and read 70 pph under the 3°C columns.
2. Calculate the available flight endurance using:
Time = Fuel ÷ Fuel Burn Rate = 465 ÷ 70 = 6.643 hours
3. Convert .643 hours into minutes: 0.643 x 60 = 38.6 minutes
4. Therefore, the flight time is 6 hours, 39 minutes.

554. Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane's baggage

compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a
positive load factor of 3.5 Gs, the total load of the baggage would be

A. 315 pounds and would be excessive.

B. 315 pounds and would not be excessive.

C. 350 pounds and would not be excessive.

Each cargo compartment must be designed for its placarded maximum weight of
contents in relation to the critical load factors. Normal category aircraft having a
gross weight of less than 4,000 pounds are designed for a maneuvering load
factor of 3.8 times the aircraft weight or 3.8 Gs. Thus a load factor of 3.5 Gs would
not be excessive. Load factor is the ratio of a given load to its weight. Thus:
90.0 lbs weight x 3.5 Gs = 315.0 lbs loading.

555. (Refer to Figure 9.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from
engine start to 12,000 feet pressure altitude?

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 Aircraft weight 3,800 lb
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Temperature 26°C

A. 46 pounds.

B. 51 pounds.

C. 58 pounds.

1. Locate the section for 3,800 pounds weight. Read across the 4,000-foot PA line
to the entry under fuel used, 12 pounds.
2. Read across the 12,000-foot PA line to the entry under fuel used, 51 pounds.
3. Calculate the fuel required to climb:
51 - 12 = 39 lbs
4. Apply Note #2 before adding the fuel in Note 1. (A temperature of 26°C is
+19°C, relative to the standard atmosphere at 4,000 feet.)
39 x 1.19 = 46.4 lbs
5. Apply Note #1:
46.4 lbs + 12.0 lbs start and taxi = 58.4 lbs total.

556. With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot
should use
aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both
A.
tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes.
right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off
B.
airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes.
rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind,
C. and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type
airplanes.
Rudder is required at all times to maintain directional control. Aileron pressure into
the wind will keep the wing down and prevent side skipping. A slightly higher than
normal takeoff speed is desirable to insure a very definite lift-off with no settling.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the lift-off speed should be increased slightly and
rudder pressure should be applied to maintain directional control. Answer (B) is
incorrect because rudder pressure should be applied to maintain directional
control, this can be both right or left deflection.

557. What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on
gas turbine engine performance?

A. As air density decreases, thrust increases.

B. As temperature increases, thrust increases.

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 C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases.

An increase in altitude causes the engine air flow to decrease in a manner nearly
identical to the altitude density ratio. This causes a significant decrease in thrust at
altitude versus thrust at sea level as altitude increases. An increase in inlet air
temperature will provide a lower combustion gas energy and cause a lower jet
velocity.

558. (Refer to Figure 10.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be
used from engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude?
Aircraft weight 3,800 lb
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Temperature 30°C

A. 28 pounds.

B. 35 pounds.

C. 40 pounds.

1. Locate the section for 3,800 pounds weight. Read across the 4,000-foot PA line
to the entry under fuel used, 12 pounds.
2. Read across the 10,000-foot PA line to the entry under fuel used, 35 pounds.
3. Calculate the fuel required to climb:
35 - 12 = 23 lbs
4. Apply Note #2 before adding the fuel in Note 1. (A temperature of 30°C is
+23°C, with respect to the standard atmosphere at 4,000 feet.)
23 x 1.23 = 28.3 lbs
5. Apply Note #1:
28.3 lbs +12.0 lbs start and taxi = 40.3 lbs total.

559. If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of
the datum would be at the

A. centerline of the main wheels.

B. nose, or out in front of the airplane.

C. centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane.

In general, the arm (index unit) of a location in the aircraft is in inches aft of the
datum. A positive arm indicates the position of the object is aft of the datum. If all
index units are positive, the datum must be at least at the nose of the aircraft.

Answer (A) is incorrect because the engine would have a negative arm if the datum
was at the centerline of the main wheels. Answer (C) is incorrect because the
propeller would have a negative arm if the datum were at the centerline of the

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 nose or tailwheel.

560. GIVEN:
Total weight 3,037 lb
CG location station 68.8
Fuel consumption 12.7 GPH
Fuel CG station 68.0
After 1 hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station

A. 68.77.

B. 68.83.

C. 69.77.

1. Find the weight change: 12.7 GPH for 1.75 hours = 22.23 gal
22.23 gal x 6 lbs/gal = 133.35 lbs
2. New total weight is 3,037 - 133.35 = 2,903.65
3. The distance between the CG and the fuel arm is 68.8 - 68.0 = .8
4. Place the values in the formula and cross multiply:
133.35 ÷ 2903.65 = CG change ÷ .8 = 106.68 = 2903.65 (CG change)
5. Divide to determine the CG change:
106/68/2903.65 = CG change =.03674 inches
6. Calculate the new CG:
Original CG 68.80000 + CG change .03674 = New CG 68.83674.

561. (Refer to Figure 32.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 75°F
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Weight 2,900 lb
Headwind 20 kts
To safely take off over a 50-foot obstacle in 1,000 feet, what weight reduction is
necessary?

A. 50 pounds.

B. 100 pounds.

C. 300 pounds.

1. Start at the right side of the chart and find the 1,000-foot takeoff distance mark.
From there, draw a horizontal line to the 20-knot headwind mark, and following the
sloped lines, draw a line to the reference line.
2. Draw a horizontal line all the way across the weight section to the other
reference line.
3. Starting from the left side of the chart, find the 75°F mark and draw a line up to

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 the 6,000-foot pressure altitude line, and follow that sloped line across to the
reference line. Follow the sloped reference lines to the right, up to where your line
intercepts the horizontal line drawn previously across that section.
4. Draw a vertical line down from where they meet and read the maximum weight
(2,600 pounds) for the aircraft to be able to clear the 50-foot obstacle.
5. Subtract that weight from 2,900 pounds to get 300 pounds.

562. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

A. 15°C and 29.92" Hg.

B. 59°F and 1013.2" Hg.

C. 15°C and 29.92 Mb.

In the standard atmosphere, sea level pressure is 29.92 "Hg or 1013.2

hectopascals. The temperature at mean sea level is 15°C (59°F).

563. (Refer to Figure 14.)

GIVEN:
Aircraft Weight 3,400 lb
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Temperature at 4,000 feet 14°C
Using a normal climb under the given conditions, how much time would be
required to climb to a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet?

A. 4.8 minutes.

B. 5 minutes.

C. 5.5 minutes.

1. Determine the time which would have been required, using a 3,400 pounds
weight, to climb from sea level to the airport pressure altitude of 4,000 feet, 5
minutes.
2. Determine the time to climb to 8,000 feet from sea level, 10 minutes.
3. The time required for climb, uncorrected for temperature, is 10 - 5 = 5 minutes.
4. Correct for nonstandard temperature (+14°C is +7°C, relative to the standard
atmosphere.).
5. Apply Note #2 using a 10% increase.
1.1 x 5 = 5.5 minutes.

564. (Refer to Figure 9.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from
engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude?
Aircraft weight 3,500 lb
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft

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 Temperature 21°C

A. 23 pounds.

B. 31 pounds.

C. 35 pounds.

1. Locate the section for 3,500 pounds weight. Read across the 4,000-foot PA line
to the entry under fuel used, 11 pounds.
2. Read across the 10,000-foot PA line to the entry under fuel used, 31 pounds.
3. Calculate the fuel required to climb:
31 - 11 = 20 lbs
4. Apply Note #1. (A temperature of 21°C is +14°C, with respect to the standard
atmosphere at 4,000 feet.)
20 x 1.14 = 22.8 lbs
5. Apply Note #2:
22.8 lbs + 12.0 lbs start and taxi = 34.8 lbs total.

565. Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind
conditions?

A. A power-on approach and power-on landing.

B. A power-off approach and power-on landing.

C. A power-on approach and power-off landing.

Power-on approaches at an airspeed slightly above the normal approach speed

should be used for landing in significantly turbulent air. These landing approaches
are usually performed at the normal approach speed plus one-half of the wind
gust factor. An adequate amount of power should be used to maintain the proper
airspeed throughout.

566. (Refer to Figure 11.) What would be the approximate true airspeed and fuel
consumption per hour at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power?

A. 103 MPH TAS, 6.3 GPH.

B. 105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH.

C. 105 MPH TAS, 6.6 GPH.

1. Find 7,500 feet in first column.

2. Go across to third column to find 52% BHP.
3. Read 105 TAS in TAS column and 6.2 GPH under the Gal/Hour column.

567. (Refer to Figure 35.)

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 GIVEN:
Temperature 85°F
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Weight 2,800 lb
Headwind 14 kts
Determine the approximate ground roll.

A. 742 feet.

B. 1,280 feet.

C. 1,480 feet.

1. Enter the chart at the 85°F OAT point and proceed upward to intercept the
6,000-foot pressure altitude line. Proceed right to the intersection with the vertical
reference line.
2. From the reference line, proceed upward to the right following the trend line,
until reaching a vertical line representing the weight of 2,800 pounds.
3. Draw a line to the right from the intercept with the weight line, to the intercept
with the right vertical reference line.
4. Construct a vertical line to represent the headwind, 14 KIAS. Draw a line from
the intercept with the reference line to the intersect with the headwind line.
Proceed to the right and read the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle: 1,400
feet.
5. Apply the note to calculate the ground roll (53% of the landing distance).
1,400 x 0.53 = 742 feet ground roll.

568. The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on

A. pressure/density altitude.

B. cabin altitude.

C. true altitude.

Pressure and density altitude are the factors used in the performance tables of the
aircraft for takeoff and climb.

Answer (B) is incorrect because the cabin altitude is the altitude that is in the
pressurized cabin. Answer (C) is incorrect because true altitude is the height above
sea level. Aeronautical charts depict obstacle elevations in true altitude.

569. (Refer to Figure 33.)

GIVEN:
Weight 4,000 lb
Pressure altitude 5,000 ft
Temperature 30°C

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 What is the maximum rate of climb under the given conditions?

A. 655 ft/min.

B. 702 ft/min.

C. 774 ft/min.

1. Interpolate the rate of climb for 4,000 feet, altitude at 30°C:

(800 + 655) ÷ 2 = 728 fpm
2. Interpolate the rate of climb for 8,000 feet, altitude at 30°C:
(695 + 555) ÷ 2 = 625 fpm
3. Use linear interpolation, in ratio form, to determine the rate of climb valid at
5,000 feet and 30°C. The gap between figure altitudes is four 1,000-foot sections.
(728 ÷ 4) - (625 ÷ 4) = 26 fpm
4. Subtract this increment from the temperature-adjusted base altitude figure
(4,000 feet MSL) and get your maximum rate of climb for all the given conditions.
728 - 26 = 702 fpm.

570. When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is
recommended and for what primary reason?
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more
A.
positive control.
Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid
B.
overstressing the airplane.
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the
C.
turbulence as quickly as possible.
Power-on approaches at an airspeed slightly above the normal approach speed
should be used for landing in significantly turbulent air. This provides for more
positive control of the airplane when strong horizontal wind gusts, or up- and
downdrafts, are experienced.

Answer (B) is incorrect because, since approach speed is well below V(A), no
structural damage will occur. Answer (C) is incorrect because increased approach
speed is to increase control effectiveness, not to fly through turbulence faster.

571. (Refer to Figure 15.)

GIVEN:
Airport pressure altitude 2,000 ft
Airport temperature 20°C
Cruise pressure altitude 10,000 ft
Cruise temperature 0°C
What will be the fuel, time, and distance required to climb to cruise altitude under
the given conditions?

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 A. 5 gallons, 9 minutes, 13 NM.

B. 6 gallons, 11 minutes, 16 NM.

C. 7 gallons, 12 minutes, 18 NM.

1. Enter the chart at 0°C and proceed to the 10,000-foot PA curve. From this point
proceed to the right. Note the intersections with the fuel, time and distance
curves. From these intersections, proceed downward and read:
Fuel = 6 gal, Time = 11 min, Dist = 16 NM
2. Enter the chart at +20°C and proceed upward to intercept the 2,000-foot PA
line, then right to the intersections with the fuel, time and distance curves. From
these intersections proceed downward and read:
Fuel = 1 gal, Time + 2 min, Dist = 3 NM
3. The differences are the fuel, time and distance to climb to cruise altitude:
= 6 - 1 = 5 gallons
Time = 11 - 2 = 9 minutes
Distance = 16 - 3 = 13 NM.

572. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed

A. will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.

B. will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.

C. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.

An airplane at altitude will land at the same indicated airspeed as at sea level but,
because of the reduced air density, will have a greater true airspeed. If the true
airspeed is greater, the ground speed will be greater.

573. (Refer to Figure 33.)

GIVEN:
Weight 3,700 lb
Pressure altitude 22,000 ft
Temperature -10°C
What is the maximum rate of climb under the given conditions?

A. 305 ft/min.

B. 320 ft/min.

C. 384 ft/min.

1. Interpolate or average to determine the rate of climb at 20,000 feet, -10°C.

(600 + 470) ÷ 2 = 535 fpm
2. Interpolate or average to determine the rate of climb at 24,000 feet, -10°C.
(170 + 295) ÷ 2 = 233 fpm

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 3. Interpolate or average to determine the rate of climb at 22,000 feet and -10°C;
incorporate the results for 20,000 and 24,000 feet
obtained in Steps 1 and 2.
(535 + 233) ÷ 2 = 384 fpm.

574. GIVEN:
Weight A: 140 pounds at 17 inches aft of datum
Weight B: 120 pounds at 110 inches aft of datum
Weight C: 85 pounds at 210 inches aft of datum
Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?

A. 89.11 inches.

B. 96.89 inches.

C. 106.92 inches.

Arm is the aft of datum value for each item:

Weight x Arm = Moment
140 x 17 = 2,380 for A
120 x 110 = 13,200 for B
+ 85 x 210 = + 17,850 for C
345 lbs 33,430 lbs-in
2. Moments ÷ Total weight = CG location
33,430 ÷ 345 = 96.89 inches ^

575. (Refer to Figure 32.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 100°F
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Weight 3,200 lb
Wind Calm
What is the ground roll required for takeoff over a 50-foot obstacle?

A. 1,180 feet.

B. 1,350 feet.

C. 1,850 feet.

1. Enter chart at 100°F, proceed up to the 4,000-foot pressure altitude line.

2. From this point, go to the right, to the weight reference line.
3. From this point, proceed up and to the right on a line spaced proportionally
between the trend lines, until intercepting the 3,200-pound weight line. Then
proceed to the right, to the wind reference line.
4. From this point, since the winds are calm, proceed to the right and read 1,850

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 feet.
5. Calculate the ground roll using the note that the ground roll is approximately
73% of total take-off distance over a 50-foot obstacle:
1,850 x .73 = 1,350 feet ground roll.

576. (Refer to Figure 34.)

GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Temperature +13°C
Power 2,500 RPM - 23'' MP
Usable fuel available 460 lb
What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated?

A. 4 hours 58 minutes.

B. 5 hours 7 minutes.

C. 5 hours 12 minutes.

1. Enter the Cruise Performance Chart at the 2,500 RPM section (the left-hand
column). In that section, move right and find the 23'' MP row. Follow that row to
the right until intersecting the 3°C conditions and read 90 pph.
2. Determine the fuel flow at 2,500 RPM, 23'' MP and +23°C, 87 pph.
3. Average to determine fuel flow at +13°C, 2,500 RPM and 23'' MP:
(90 + 87) ÷ 2 = 88.5 pph
4. Calculate the available flight endurance using:
Time = Fuel ÷ Fuel Burn Rate = 460 ÷ 88.5 = 5.2 hours
5. Convert 0.2 hour into minutes:
0.2 x 60 = 12 minutes
6. Therefore, the flight time is 5 hours, 12 minutes.

577. GIVEN:
Weight A: 135 pounds at 15 inches aft of datum
Weight B: 205 pounds at 117 inches aft of datum
Weight C: 85 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum
Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?

A. 100.2 inches.

B. 109.0 inches.

C. 121.7 inches.

Arm is the aft of datum value for each item:

Weight x Arm = Moment
135 x 15 = 2,025 for A
205 x 117 = 23,985 for B

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 + 85 x 195 = + 16,575 for C
425 lbs 42,585 lbs-in
2. Moments ÷ Total weight = CG location
42,585 ÷ 425 = 100.2 inches ^

578. If you experience an engine failure in a single-engine aircraft after takeoff, you
should

A. establish the proper glide attitude.

B. turn into the wind.

C. adjust the pitch to maintain VY.

In the event of an engine failure on initial climb-out, the pilot's first responsibility is
to maintain aircraft control. At a climb pitch attitude without power, the airplane is
at or near a stalling angle of attack. At the same time, the pilot may still be holding
right rudder. The pilot must immediately lower the nose to prevent a stall while
moving the rudder to ensure coordinated flight. Attempting to turn back to the
takeoff runway should not be attempted. The pilot should establish a controlled
glide toward a plausible landing area, preferably straight ahead.

579. (Refer to Figure 38.)

GIVEN:
Empty weight (oil is included) 1,271 lb
Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000) 102.04
Pilot and copilot 260 lb
Rear seat passenger 120 lb
Cargo 60 lb
Fuel 37 gal
Under these conditions, the CG is determined to be located

A. within the CG envelope.

B. on the forward limit of the CG envelope.

C. within the shaded area of the CG envelope.

1. Construct a table with the item, weight, and moment. The moment of each item
is found by using the loading graph in FAA Figure 38. Locate the weight of each
item on the left side of the chart, and proceed to the right to intersect the correct
item line. At point of intersection, proceed downward to find the moment for that
item at the specified weight.
Item Weight Moment
Aircraft empty weight 1,271 102.04
Pilot and copilot 260 23.30

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 Aft passenger 120 15.00
Cargo 60 6.80
Fuel (37.0 gal x 6 lbs/gal) + 222 + 20.00
Totals 1,933 167.14
2. Compare to the limits in FAA Figure 38. Using the CG envelope graph, move up
the loaded aircraft weight scale to 1,933, then across to 167.14 on the
moment/1,000 scale. The weight and CG are within limits.

580. (Refer to Figure 35.)

GIVEN:
Temperature 70°F
Pressure altitude Sea level
Weight 3,400 lb
Headwind 16 kts
Determine the approximate ground roll.

A. 689 feet.

B. 716 feet.

C. 1,275 feet.

1. Enter the chart at the 70°F OAT point and proceed upward to intercept the sea
level pressure altitude line. Proceed right to the intersection with the vertical
reference line.
2. From the reference line, proceed upward to the right following the trend line,
until reaching a vertical line representing the weight of 3,400 pounds.
3. Draw a line to the right from the intercept with the weight line to the intercept
with the right vertical reference line.
4. Construct a vertical line to represent the headwind, 16 KIAS. Draw a line from
the intercept with the reference line to the intersect with the headwind line.
Proceed to the right and read the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle: 1,275
feet.
5. Apply the note to calculate the ground roll (53% of the landing distance).
1,275 x 0.53 = 676 feet ground roll.
Select the answer choice closest to this computation.

581. (Refer to Figure 12.)

GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 18,000 ft
Temperature -1°C
Power 2,200 RPM - 20'' MP
Best fuel economy usable fuel 344 lb
What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for
VFR day fuel reserve.)

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 A. 4 hours 50 minutes.

B. 5 hours 20 minutes.

C. 5 hours 59 minutes.

1. Find the 2,200 RPM section and 20'' MP row.

2. Follow to the right in the 20'' MP row, and read 59 under the -1°C columns.
3. Since best fuel economy is required, apply the note:
59 - 6 = 53 lbs/hr best economy
4. Compute the time available:
Time = 344 ÷ 53 = 6.49 hours
5. Allowing 30 minutes for day reserve (0.5 hour):
6.49 - 0.50 = 5.99 hours.

582. (Refer to Figure 14.)

GIVEN:
Aircraft weight 3,700 lb
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Temperature at 4,000 feet 21°C
Using a normal climb under the given conditions, how much fuel would be used
from engine start to a pressure altitude of 12,000 feet?

A. 30 pounds.

B. 37 pounds.

C. 46 pounds.

1. Determine the weight of the fuel required to climb from sea level to the PA of the
airport (4,000 feet) for an aircraft weight of 3,700 lbs: 12 lbs
2. Determine the weight of the fuel required to climb from sea level to 12,000-foot
PA: 37 lbs
3. Determine the weight of fuel required to climb from 4,000 to 12,000 feet,
uncorrected for nonstandard temperature:
37 - 12 = 25 lbs
4. Correct the fuel requirement for nonstandard temperature by applying Note 2,
using 20% increase (+21°C is +14°C, relative to the standard atmosphere at 4,000
feet):
1.20 x 25 = 30 lbs
5. Apply Note #1 to determine the total fuel requirement:
30 lbs + 16 lbs start and taxi = 46 lbs total.

583. (Refer to Figure 38.)

GIVEN:
Empty weight (oil is included) 1,271 lb

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 Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000) 102.04
Pilot and copilot 360 lb
Cargo 340 lb
Fuel 37 gal
Will the CG remain within limits after 30 gallons of fuel has been used in flight?

A. Yes, the CG will remain within limits.

B. No, the CG will be located aft of the aft CG limit.

C. Yes, but the CG will be located in the shaded area of the CG envelope.

1. Subtract your fuel burn of 30 gallons from your total fuel of 37 gallons to find
fuel remaining, 7 gallons.
2. Construct a table with the item, weight, and moment. The moment of each item
is found by using the loading graph in FAA Figure 38. Locate the weight of each
item on the left side of the chart, and proceed to the right to intersect the correct
item line. At point of intersection, proceed downward to find the moment for that
item at the specified weight.
Item Weight Moment
Aircraft empty weight 1,271 102.04
Pilot and copilot 360 32.80
Cargo 340 39.50
Fuel (7.0 gal x 6 lbs/gal + 42 + 4.00
Totals 2,013 178.34
3. Compare to the limits in FAA Figure 38. Using the CG envelope graph, move up
the loaded aircraft weight scale to 2,013, then across to 178.34 on the
moment/1,000 scale. The CG will remain within limits.

584. (Refer to Figure 8.) With 38 gallons of fuel aboard at cruise power (55 percent),
how much flight time is available with night VFR fuel reserve still remaining?

A. 2 hours 34 minutes.

B. 2 hours 49 minutes.

C. 3 hours 18 minutes.

1. Enter chart at the point where the 55% maximum continuous power line
intersects the curved cruise (lean) line.
2. From that point, proceed to the left and read fuel flow 11.4 GPH.
3. Compute time of flight:
38 gal ÷ 11.4 GPH = 3.33 hours
4. Compute available flight time with a 45-minute (0.75 hour) reserve:
3.33 - 0.75 = 2.58 = 2 hours, 34 minutes.

585. (Refer to Figure 34.)

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 GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Temperature -17°C
Power 2,300 RPM - 23'' MP
Usable fuel available 370 lb
What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated?

A. 4 hours 20 minutes.

B. 4 hours 30 minutes.

C. 4 hours 50 minutes.

1. Enter the Cruise Performance Chart at the 2,300 RPM section (the left-hand
column). In that section move right and find the 23'' MP row. Follow that row right
and read 82 pph under the -17°C columns.
2. Calculate the available flight endurance using:
Time = Fuel ÷ Fuel Burn Rate = 370 ÷ 82 = 4.51 hours
3. Convert 0.51 hour to minutes.
.51 x 60 = 30.6 minutes
4. Therefore, the flight time is 4 hours, 30 minutes.

586. GIVEN:
Weight A: 155 pounds at 45 inches aft of datum
Weight B: 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum
Weight C: 95 pounds at 185 inches aft of datum
Based on this information, where would the CG be located aft of datum?

A. 86.0 inches.

B. 116.8 inches.

C. 125.0 inches.

Arm is the aft of datum value for each item:

Weight x Arm = Moment
155 x 45 = 6,975 for A
165 x 145 = 23,925 for B
+ 95 x 185 = + 17,575 for C
Totals 415 lbs 48,475 lbs-in
2. Moments ÷ Total weight = CG location
48,475 ÷ 415 = 116.8 inches.

587. (Refer to Figure 3A.) What is the approximate glide distance if you are operating at
5,500 feet?

A. 10 NM.

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 B. 8 NM.

C. 6 NM.

Follow a line to the right from the height above terrain of 5,500 feet until it
intersects the slanted line. From this intersection, draw a line downward until it
intersects the glide distance. This intersection is at 8 NM.

588. (Refer to Figure 8.) Approximately how much fuel would be consumed when
climbing at 75% power for 7 minutes?

A. 1.82 gallons.

B. 1.97 gallons.

C. 2.15 gallons.

1. Enter chart at point where the 75% maximum continuous power line intersects
the curved take off and climb line.
2. From that point proceed to the left and read fuel flow 18.4 GPH.
3. Compute fuel burn:
(18.4 x 7) ÷ 60 = 2.1 gallons.

589. (Refer to Figure 12.)

GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 18,000 ft
Temperature -41°C
Power 2,500 RPM - 26'' MP
Recommended lean mixture usable fuel 318 lb
What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for
VFR night fuel reserve.)

A. 2 hours 27 minutes.

B. 3 hours 12 minutes.

C. 3 hours 42 minutes.

1. Find the 2,500 RPM section and 26'' MP row.

2. Follow to the right in 26'' MP row, and read 99 pph under the -41°C columns.
3. Compute the time available (note does not apply in this case because BHP =
75%):
Time = 318 ÷ 99 = 3.21 hours
4. Allowing 45 minutes for night reserve (0.75 hour):
3.21 - 0.75 = 2.46 = 2 hours, 27 minutes.

590. (Refer to Figure 35.)

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 GIVEN:
Temperature 80°F
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Weight 2,800 lb
Headwind 24 kts
What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?

A. 1,125 feet.

B. 1,250 feet.

C. 1,325 feet.

1. Enter the chart at the 80°F OAT point and proceed upward to intercept the
4,000-foot pressure altitude line. Proceed right to the intersection with the vertical
reference line.
2. From the reference line, proceed upward to the right following the trend line,
until reaching a vertical line representing the weight of 2,800 pounds.
3. Draw a line to the right from the intercept with the weight line, to the intercept
with the right vertical reference line.
4. Construct a vertical line to represent the headwind, 24 knots. Draw a line from
the intercept with the reference line to the intercept with the headwind line.
Proceed to the right and read the total distance over a 50-foot obstacle: 1,125
feet.

591. (Refer to Figure 32.) Determine the approximate runway length necessary for
takeoff.
Given:
Temperature = 40 degrees F
Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Weight = 3,200 lbs
Headwind = 15 kts

A. 1,300 feet.

B. 850 feet.

C. 950 feet.

1. Enter chart at 40 degrees F, proceed up to the 4,000-foot pressure altitude line.

2. From this point, go to the right, to the weight reference line.
3. From this point, proceed up and to the right on the trend lines, until intercepting
the 3,200 pound weight line. Then proceed to the right, to the wind reference line.
4. From this point, proceed to the right on the trend lines until intercepting 15 kts
and read 1,300 feet.

592. An airplane is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds, with three pieces of

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 luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 98 inches aft of
datum, which is 1 inch aft of limits. If luggage which weighs 90 pounds is moved
from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front
compartment (45 inches aft of datum), what is the new CG?

A. 96.13 inches aft of datum.

B. 95.50 inches aft of datum.

C. 99.87 inches aft of datum.

1. Change in CG = Weight shifted x Distance shifted ÷ Total weight

90 x (145 - 45) ÷ 4800 = 1.875 inches
2. Since the weight shifted forward, the CG also moves forward. The 1.875-inch
change is subtracted from the original CG.
New CG = 98.0 - 1.875 = 96.13 inches.

593. (Refer to Figure 13.)

GIVEN:
Aircraft weight 3,400 lb
Airport pressure altitude 6,000 ft
Temperature at 6,000 feet 10°C
Using a maximum rate of climb under the given conditions, how much fuel would
be used from engine start to a pressure altitude of 16,000 feet?

A. 43 pounds.

B. 45 pounds.

C. 49 pounds.

1. Determine the weight of the fuel required to climb from sea level to the PA of the
airport (6,000 feet) by interpolating between the 4,000- and 8,000-foot values (for
an aircraft weight of 3,400 pounds):
(9 + 19) ÷ 2 = 14 lbs
2. Determine the weight of fuel required to climb from sea level to 16,000 feet PA:
39 lbs
3. Determine the weight of fuel required to climb from 6,000 feet to 16,000 feet,
uncorrected for nonstandard temperature:
39 - 14 = 25 lbs
4. Correct for nonstandard temperature, Note 2, using 7% increase (+10°C is 7°C
relative to the standard atmosphere at 6,000 feet):
1.07 x 25 = 26.7 lbs
5. Apply Note #1 to determine the total fuel requirement:
26.7 lbs + 16.0 lbs start and taxi = 42.7
= 43 lbs total.

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 594. (Refer to Figure 3A.) What is the approximate glide distance if you are operating at
8,000 feet?

A. 12 NM.

B. 10 NM.

C. 14 NM.

Follow a line to the right from the height above terrain of 8,000 feet until it
intersects the slanted line. From this intersection, draw a line downward until it
intersects the glide distance. This intersection is at 12 NM.

595. (Refer to Figure 8.)

GIVEN:
Fuel quantity 65 gal
Best power (level flight) 55 percent
Approximately how much flight time would be available with a day VFR fuel
reserve remaining?

A. 4 hours 17 minutes.

B. 4 hours 30 minutes.

C. 5 hours 4 minutes.

1. Enter chart at the point where the 55% maximum continuous power line
intersects the curved best power level flight line.
2. From that point, proceed to the left and read fuel flow: 13.0 GPH
3. Compute time of flight:
65 gal ÷ 13.0 = 5.0 hours
4. Compute available flight time with a 30-minute (0.5 hour) reserve:
5.0 - 0.5 = 4.5 = 4 hour, 30 minutes.

596. When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight
of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight
also includes

A. the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil.

all usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot,
B.
passengers, or baggage.
all usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments
C.
that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer.
Basic empty weight includes unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil.

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 597. (Refer to Figure 31.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind
component for a Rwy 13 landing?

A. 19 knots.

B. 21 knots.

C. 23 knots.

1. Compute the angle between the wind and each runway:

180° wind direction - 130° runway direction = 050° wind angle across runway
2. Determine the crosswind component of 25 knots at 050°, 19 KIAS.

598. (Refer to Figure 15.)

GIVEN:
Airport pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Airport temperature 12°C
Cruise pressure altitude 9,000 ft
Cruise temperature -4°C
What will be the distance required to climb to cruise altitude under the given
conditions?

A. 6 miles.

B. 8.5 miles.

C. 11 miles.

1. Enter the chart at -4°C and proceed upward until intersecting the 9,000-foot PA
line. From this point, proceed to the right until intersecting the Dist-Nautical Miles
curved line. From this point proceed downward and read the distance: 14.5 NM.
2. Enter chart at +12°C and proceed upward until intersecting the 4,000-foot PA
line. From this point, proceed to the right until intersecting the Dist-Nautical Miles
curved line. From this point, proceed downward and read the distance: 6 NM.
3. The difference is the distance required to climb:
14.5 - 6 = 8.5 NM.

599. The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods?

A. Dividing total arms by total moments.

B. Multiplying total arms by total weight.

C. Dividing total moments by total weight.

Total moment is the weight of the airplane x the distance between the datum and
the CG. Therefore:
CG = Total moment ÷ Total weight.

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 600. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the amount of fuel consumed during takeoff and
climb at 70 percent power for 10 minutes.

A. 2.66 gallons.

B. 2.88 gallons.

C. 3.2 gallons.

1. Interpolate a vertical line for 70% power vertically between the 65% and 75%
power lines.
2. From the point of intersection of the 70% line with the takeoff and climb curve,
draw a line to the left and read the fuel flow, 17.3 GPH.
3. Compute the fuel burned:
(17.3 x 10) ÷ 60 = 2.88 gallons.

601. What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?

A. -5°C.

B. -15°C.

C. +5°C.

Standard temperature at sea level is 15°C. The standard lapse rate is 2°C/1,000
feet.
10 x 2 = -20°C temperature decrease to 10,000 feet
+15° - 20° = -5°C standard temperature at 10,000 feet.

602. When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should

A. rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation.

B. climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints.

apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to

C.
divert to the new course as soon as possible.

Course, time, speed, and distance computations in flight require the same basic
procedures as those used in preflight planning. However, because of cockpit
space limitations and available equipment, and because the pilot's attention must
be divided between solving the problem and operating the aircraft, the pilot must
take advantage of all possible shortcuts and rule-of-thumb computations.

Answer (A) is incorrect because any form of navigation is appropriate. Answer (B)
is incorrect because climbs may consume time and fuel.

603. (Refer to Figure 12.)

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 GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 18,000 ft
Temperature -21°C
Power 2,400 RPM - 28'' MP
Recommended lean mixture usable fuel 425 lb
What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for
VFR day fuel reserve.)

A. 3 hours 46 minutes.

B. 4 hours 1 minute.

C. 4 hours 31 minutes.

1. Find the 2,400 RPM section and 28'' MP row.

2. Follow to the right in the 28'' MP row and read 94 pph under the -21°C
columns.
3. Compute the time available (note does not apply in this case because BHP =
72%):
Time = 425 ÷ 94 = 4.52 hr
4. Allowing 30 minutes for day reserve (30 minutes):
4.52 - 0.50 = 4.02 hr = 4 hours, 1 minute.

604. (Refer to Figure 11.) What would be the endurance at an altitude of 7,500 feet,
using 52 percent power?
NOTE: (With 48 gallons fuel-no reserve.)

A. 6.1 hours.

B. 7.7 hours.

C. 8.0 hours.

1. Find 7,500 feet in the first column.

2. Go across to third column to find 52% BHP.
3. Using the proper column according to the amount of fuel specified in the
question, go across from 52% to find 7.7 hours endurance under the Endr. Hours
column.

605. (Refer to Figure 31.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is
the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing?

A. 7 knots.

B. 15 knots.

C. 17 knots.

1. Compute the angle between the wind and each runway:

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 080° runway direction - 010° wind direction = 070° wind angle across runway
2. Determine the crosswind component of 18 knots at 070°, 17 KIAS.

606. If fuel consumption is 14.7 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 157 knots, how
much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 612 NM?

A. 58 gallons.

B. 60 gallons.

C. 64 gallons.

1. Calculate the time en route:

612 NM ÷ 157 knots = 3.9 hours
2. Determine the fuel burn:
14.7 GPH x 3.9= 57.33 gallons.

607. An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection,
this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately

A. 6 miles.

B. 2 miles.

C. 1 mile.

Aircraft displacement from course is approximately 200 feet per dot per nautical
mile. The CDI deflection indication is one-fifth deflection at 60 miles from the
station, and a one-fifth or one-dot deflection indicates a 2-mile displacement of
the aircraft from the course centerline.

608. How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on
the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM
A.
indication.
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4°
B.
of that radial with a FROM indication.

With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI
C.
should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.

Airborne and ground checkpoints consist of certified radials that should be

received at specific points on the airport surface or over specific landmarks while
airborne in the immediate vicinity of the airport. Should an error in excess of ±4°
be indicated through use of a ground check, or ±6° using the airborne check, IFR
flight shall not be attempted without first correcting the source of the error.

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 Caution: No correction other than the correction card figures supplied by the
manufacturer should be applied in making these VOR receiver checks.

609. When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should
the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?

A. 5° to 10°.

B. 10° to 12°.

C. 18° to 20°.

Course sensitivity may be checked by noting the number of degrees of change in

course selection as you rotate the OBS to move the CDI from center to the last dot
on either side. This should be between 10° and 12°.

610. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane will intercept the
060 radial at a 60° angle inbound, if the present heading is maintained?

A. 6.

B. 4.

C. 5.

To intercept the 060° radial inbound (TO), the reciprocal (240°) would be selected.
Only illustrations 4, 5, and 6 have the 240° course selected. The 240° course may
be intercepted at a 60° angle with either a heading of 300° (240° + 60°) or 180°
(240° - 60°). The only illustration showing either is 6.

611. When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and
the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the

A. 090 radial.

B. 180 radial.

C. 360 radial.

To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on your VOR receiver. With the
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) centered, the omnibearing selector (OBS) should
read 0° with the TO/FROM indication showing FROM, or the OBS should read
180° with the TO/FROM indication showing TO. Since VOR radials are always
expressed as FROM the station, the OBS should indicate the aircraft is on the
360° radial FROM.

612. To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure

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 is to set the OBS to

A. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

B. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.

C. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

Tracking involves drift correction that is sufficient to maintain a direct course to or

from a transmitting station. The course selected for tracking outbound is the
course shown under the course index with the TO/FROM indicator showing
FROM. Turning toward the needle returns the aircraft to the course centerline and
centers the needle.

613. True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a

meridian near the midpoint of the course because the

A. values of isogonic lines change from point to point.

B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point.

C. angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.

Meridians (lines of longitude) converge at the poles, so a course measurement

should be taken at a meridian near the midpoint of the course rather than at the
point of departure.

Answer (A) is incorrect because isogonic lines are used to find magnetic course.
Answer (B) is incorrect because isogonic lines are used to find magnetic course.

614. An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions:

Airport elevation 1,500 ft
Cruise altitude 9,500 ft
Rate of climb 500 ft/min
Average true airspeed 160 kts
True course 145°
Average wind velocity 080° at 15 kts
Variation 5° E
Deviation -3°
Average fuel consumption 14 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed
during the climb.

A. 14 minutes, 128°, 35 NM, 3.2 gallons.

B. 16 minutes, 132°, 41 NM, 3.7 gallons.

C. 16 minutes, 128°, 32 NM, 3.8 gallons.

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 1. Calculate the time to climb:
Time = vertical distance ÷ vertical speed
Where vertical distance = 9,500 - 1,500 = 8,000 feet
Time = 8,000 feet ÷ 500 FPM = 16 minutes = 0.27 hour
2. Compute the fuel requirement:
14 gal/hr x 0.2666 hour = 3.73 gallons
3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a wind triangle:
WCA = 5° left
Ground speed = 153 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA):
145° - 5° = 140° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev):
140° - 5° - 3° = 132°CH
6. Compute distance flown:
Distance = 153 knots x 0.27 hour = 41.31 NM.

615. If an aircraft is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of
6,000 feet and the groundspeed is 135 knots, how much fuel is required to travel
420 NM?

A. 27 gallons.

B. 30 gallons.

C. 35 gallons.

1. Calculate the time en route:

420 NM ÷ 135 knots = 3.11 hours
2. Determine the fuel burn:
9.5 GPH x 3.11 hours = 29.5 gallons.

616. For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF FLIGHT portion of an IFR
flight plan should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than

A. 40 miles apart.

B. 70 miles apart.

C. 80 miles apart.

Operation off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL use aids not more than
80 NM apart. These aids are depicted on Enroute Low-Altitude Charts.

617. If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of

6,500 feet and the groundspeed is 173 knots, how much fuel is required to travel
450 NM?

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 A. 248 pounds.

B. 265 pounds.

C. 284 pounds.

1. Calculate the time en route:

450 NM ÷ 173 knots = 2.6 hour
2. Determine the fuel burn:
95 lbs/hr x 2.6 hours = 247 pounds.

618. What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR
equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?

A. 4 degrees.

B. 6 degrees.

C. 8 degrees.

The maximum permissible bearing error is ±4° when using a VOT.

619. Given:
Pressure altitude 12,000 ft
True air temperature +50°F
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is

A. 11,900 feet.

B. 14,130 feet.

C. 18,150 feet.

Using an E6B:
1. Convert 50°F to °C using the temperature conversion table at the bottom of the
E6-B or the CX-3 Flight Computer. The result is 10°C.
2. Refer to the right-hand 'Density Altitude' window. Note that the scale above the
window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale inside the window itself is
labeled pressure altitude (in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the
pressure altitude of 12,000 feet opposite an air temperature of 10°C. The density
altitude shown in the density altitude window is 14,130 feet.
Using a CX-3:
1. From the FLT menu select Altitude.
2. Enter a PAlt of 12,000 FT and OAT of 50 degrees F to get a DAlt of 14,134 FT or
approximately 14,130 feet.

620. When navigating using only VOR/DME based RNAV, selection of a VOR NAVAID

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 that does not have DME service will

A. result in loss of RNAV capability.

B. have no effect on navigation capability.

C. not impact navigation provided enough of the GPS is operating.

VOR/DME-based RNAV units need both VOR and DME signals to operate in RNAV
mode. If the NAVAID selected is a VOR without DME, RNAV mode will not
function. When DME is not available the RNAV unit will function as a VOR receiver
with DME capability in VOR (or non-RNAV) mode.

621. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane should be turned
150° left to intercept the 360 radial at a 60° angle inbound?

A. 1.

B. 2.

C. 3.

Only two headings intercept the 360° radial inbound at a 60° angle: 120° and 240°.
An aircraft heading 270° could turn left 150° to intercept at a 60° angle on a
heading of 120°. An aircraft heading 030° could turn left 150° to intercept at a 60°
angle on a heading of 240°. Illustration 1 shows the aircraft flying one of the two
possible headings.

622. If an airplane is consuming 14.8 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of
7,500 feet and the groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required to travel
560 NM?

A. 50 gallons.

B. 53 gallons.

C. 57 gallons.

1. Calculate the time en route:

560 NM ÷ 167 knots = 3.35 hours
2. Determine the fuel burn:
14.8 GPH x 3.35 hours = 49.6 gallons.

623. When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing
selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read

A. within 4° of the selected radial.

B. within 6° of the selected radial.

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 C. 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.

If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use
an airborne checkpoint designated by the Administrator or, outside the United
States, by appropriate authority. The maximum permissible bearing error is ±6°.

624. GIVEN:
Distance off course 9 mi
Distance flown 95 mi
Distance to fly 125 mi
To converge at the destination, the total correction angle would be

A. 4°.

B. 6°.

C. 10°.

1. Determine the number of degrees correction required to parallel the desired

course:
Miles off course x 60 ÷ Number of miles flown = Correction to parallel
9 x 60 ÷ 95 = 5.68° to parallel
2. Determine the number of additional degrees correction required to intercept the
course:
Miles off course x 60 ÷ Number of miles remaining = Correction to intercept
9 x 60 ÷ 125 = 4.32° additional to intercept
3. Add the number of degrees required to parallel the course and the number of
degrees required to intercept the course to find the total correction angle required
to converge at destination:
5.68° to parallel + 4.32° to intercept = 10.00° total to converge.

625. GIVEN:
True course 105°
True heading 085°
True airspeed 95 kts
Groundspeed 87 kts
Determine the wind direction and speed.

A. 020° and 32 knots.

B. 030° and 38 knots.

C. 200° and 32 knots.

Using an E6-B computer:

1. Turn the compass azimuth so 105° is at the true index.
2. Slide board so grommet is on the ground speed arc, 87 knots.

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 3. Determine the WCA by comparing course to heading.
105° - 085° = 20° left
4. Plot WCA at TAS arc with a pencil dot, 95 knots.
5. Rotate compass azimuth so pencil dot is on the centerline.
6. Read wind direction under true index and wind speed as number of units
between grommet and pencil dot, 020° and 32 knots.

626. GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 6,000 ft
True air temperature +30°F
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is

A. 9,000 feet.

B. 5,500 feet.

C. 5,000 feet.

Using an E6B:
1. Convert 30°F to °C using the temperature conversion table at the bottom of the
E6-B or the CX-3 Flight Computer. The result is -1°C.
2. Refer to the right-hand 'Density Altitude' window. Note that the scale above the
window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale inside the window itself is
labeled pressure altitude (in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the
pressure altitude of 6,000 feet opposite an air temperature of -1°C. The density
altitude shown in the window is 5,500 feet.
Using a CX-3:
1. From the FLT menu select Altitude.
2. Enter a PAlt of 6,000 FT and OAT of 30 degrees F to get a DAlt of 5,494 FT or
approximately 5,500 feet.

627. GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 5,000 ft
True air temperature +30°C
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is

A. 7,200 feet.

B. 7,800 feet.

C. 9,000 feet.

1. Refer to the right-hand 'Density Altitude' window. Note that the scale above the
window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale inside the window itself is
labeled pressure altitude (in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the
pressure altitude of 5,000 feet opposite an air temperature of 30°C.
2. The density altitude shown in the density altitude window is 7,800 feet.

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 628. As air temperature increases, density altitude will

A. decrease.

B. increase.

C. remain the same.

Density altitude is the altitude in standard air where the density is the same as the
existing density. It is affected by the pressure, temperature, and moisture content
of the air. Both a decrease in pressure and an increase in temperature decrease
the density of the air and increase the density altitude.

629. GIVEN:
Pressure altitude 7,000 ft
True air temperature +15°C
From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is

A. 5,000 feet.

B. 8,500 feet.

C. 9,500 feet.

1. Refer to the right-hand 'Density Altitude' window. Note that the scale above the
window is labeled air temperature (°C). The scale inside the window itself is
labeled pressure altitude (in thousands of feet). Rotate the disc and place the
pressure altitude of 7,000 feet opposite an air temperature of 15°C.
2. The density altitude shown in the window is 8,500 feet.

630. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane will intercept the
060 radial at a 75° angle outbound, if the present heading is maintained?

A. 4.

B. 5.

C. 6.

Only two possible headings will intercept the 060° radial at a 75° angle outbound:
135° and 345°. The only one of those shown is illustration 5. The illustration shows
that if the aircraft turned to 060°, it would be going FROM the station and would
have to fly left to get on the 060 radial.

631. An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:

Cruising altitude 10,500 ft

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 Airport elevation 1,700 ft
Descends to 1,000 ft AGL
Rate of descent 600 ft/min
Average true airspeed 135 kts
True course 263°
Average wind velocity 330° at 30 kts
Variation 7° E
Deviation +3°
Average fuel consumption 11.5 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed
during the descent.

A. 9 minutes, 274°, 26 NM, 2.8 gallons.

B. 13 minutes, 274°, 28 NM, 2.5 gallons.

C. 13 minutes, 271°, 26 NM, 2.5 gallons.

1. Calculate the time to descend:

Time = vertical distance ÷ vertical speed
Where vertical distance = 10,500 - 2,700 = 7,800 feet
Time = 7,800 feet ÷ 600 FPM = 13 minutes = 0.2167 hour
2. Compute the fuel requirement:
11.5 gal/hr x 0.2167 hour = 2.49 gallon
3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a wind triangle:
WCA = 12° right
Ground speed = 120 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA):
263° + 12° = 275° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev):
275° - 7° + 3° = 271°CH
6. Compute distance flown:
120 knots x 0.2167 hour = 26 NM.

632. An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions:

Airport elevation 1,000 ft
Cruise altitude 9,500 ft
Rate of climb 500 ft/min
Average true airspeed 135 kts
True course 215°
Average wind velocity 290° at 20 kts
Variation 3° W
Deviation -2°
Average fuel consumption 13 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed
during the climb.

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 A. 14 minutes, 234°, 26 NM, 3.9 gallons.

B. 17 minutes, 224°, 36 NM, 3.7 gallons.

C. 17 minutes, 242°, 31 NM, 3.5 gallons.

1. Calculate the time to climb:

Time = vertical distance ÷ vertical speed
Where vertical distance = 9,500 - 1,000 = 8,500 feet
Time = 8,500 feet ÷ 500 FPM = 17 minutes = 0.283 hour
2. Compute the fuel requirement:
13 gal/hr x 0.283 hour = 3.679 gallons
3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a wind triangle:
WCA = 8° right
Ground speed = 128 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA):
215 + 8° = 223° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev):
223° + 3° - 2° = 224°CH
6. Compute distance flown:
Distance = 128 knots x 0.283 hour = 36.2 NM.

633. GIVEN:
True course 345°
True heading 355°
True airspeed 85 kts
Groundspeed 95 kts
Determine the wind direction and speed.

A. 095° and 19 knots.

B. 113° and 19 knots.

C. 238° and 18 knots.

Using an E6-B computer:

1. Turn compass azimuth so 345° is at the true index.
2. Slide board so grommet is on the ground speed arc, 95 knots.
3. Determine the WCA by comparing course to heading.
345° - 355° = 10° right
4. Plot WCA at TAS arc with a pencil dot, 85 knots.
5. Rotate compass azimuth so pencil dot is on the centerline.
6. Read wind direction under true index and wind speed as number of units
between grommet and pencil dot, 114° and 19 knots.

634. Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot

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 making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of bearing error,
A.
and date of check.

B. Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature.

C. VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.

Each person making a VOR operational check shall enter the date, place, bearing
error, and sign the aircraft log or other record.

635. Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver?

A. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.

Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is
B.
located.

Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound
C.
course after passing the station.
With the reciprocal of the inbound course set on the OBS and the indicator
showing FROM, the aircraft will be turned away from the needle for direct return to
course centerline. This is called reverse sensing.

636. When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished
to operate under IFR? Within the preceding

A. 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.

B. 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.

C. 30 days.

No person may operate a civil aircraft under IFR using the VOR system of radio
navigation unless the VOR equipment of that aircraft has been operationally
checked within the preceding 30 days, and was found to be within permissible
limits.

637. If fuel consumption is 80 pounds per hour and groundspeed is 180 knots, how
much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 460 NM?

A. 205 pounds.

B. 212 pounds.

C. 460 pounds.

1. Calculate the time en route:

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 460 NM ÷ 180 knots = 2.556 hours
2. Determine the fuel burn:
80 lbs/hr x 2.56 hours = 204.8 pounds.

638. If an airplane is consuming 12.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of
8,500 feet and the groundspeed is 145 knots, how much fuel is required to travel
435 NM?

A. 27 gallons.

B. 34 gallons.

C. 38 gallons.

1. Calculate the time en route:

435 NM ÷ 145 knots = 3 hours
2. Determine the fuel burn:
12.5 GPH x 3 hours = 37.5 gallons.

639. To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended
procedure is to set the OBS to

A. 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

B. 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle.

C. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle.

Tracking involves drift correction that is sufficient to maintain a direct course to or

from a transmitting station. The course selected for tracking outbound is the
course shown under the course index with the TO/FROM indicator showing
FROM. Turning toward the needle returns the aircraft to the course centerline and
centers the needle.

640. An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:

Cruising altitude 7,500 ft
Airport elevation 1,300 ft
Descends to 800 ft AGL
Rate of descent 300 ft/min
Average true airspeed 120 kts
True course 165°
Average wind velocity 240° at 20 kts
Variation 4° E
Deviation -2°
Average fuel consumption 9.6 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed

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 during the descent.

A. 16 minutes, 168°, 30 NM, 2.9 gallons.

B. 18 minutes, 164°, 34 NM, 3.2 gallons.

C. 18 minutes, 168°, 34 NM, 2.9 gallons.

1. Calculate the time to descend:

Time = vertical distance ÷ vertical speed
Where vertical distance = 7,500 - 2,100 = 5,400 feet
Time = 5,400 feet ÷ 300 FPM = 18 minutes = 0.3 hour
2. Compute the fuel requirement:
9.6 gal/hr x 0.3 hour = 2.88 gallons
3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a wind triangle:
WCA = 9° right
Ground speed = 113 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA):
165° + 9° = 174° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev):
174° - 4° - 2° = 168°CH
6. Compute distance flown:
Distance = 113 knots x 0.3 hour = 33.9 NM.

641. GIVEN:
Wind 175° at 20 kts
Distance 135 NM
True course 075°
True airspeed 80 kts
Fuel consumption 105 lb/hr
Determine the time en route and fuel consumption.

A. 1 hour 28 minutes and 73.2 pounds.

B. 1 hour 38 minutes and 158 pounds.

C. 1 hour 40 minutes and 175 pounds.

Compute the ground speed:

Wind direction 175°
Wind speed 20 knots
Course 075°
True airspeed 80 knots
Ground speed 81.0 knots
2. Determine the time en route:
135 NM ÷ 81 knots = 1.67 hours = 1 hour 40 minutes
3. Calculate fuel consumed:
105.0 lbs/hr x 1.67 hours = 175.0 pounds.

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 642. An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:
Cruising altitude 6,500 ft
Airport elevation 700 ft
Descends to 800 ft AGL
Rate of descent 500 ft/min
Average true airspeed 110 kts
True course 335°
Average wind velocity 060° at 15 kts
Variation 3° W
Deviation +2°
Average fuel consumption 8.5 gal/hr
Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed
during the descent.

A. 10 minutes, 348°, 18 NM, 1.4 gallons.

B. 10 minutes, 355°, 17 NM, 2.4 gallons.

C. 12 minutes, 346°, 18 NM, 1.6 gallons.

1. Calculate the time to descend:

Time = vertical distance ÷ vertical speed
Where vertical distance = 6,500 - 1,500 = 5,000 feet
Time = 5,000 feet ÷ 500 FPM = 10 minutes = 0.1667 hr
2. Compute the fuel requirement:
8.5 gal/hr x 0.1667 hr = 1.42 gallons
3. Calculate the wind correction angle and ground speed using a wind triangle:
WCA = 8° right
Ground speed = 108 knots
4. Calculate true heading (TH = TC + WCA):
335° + 8° = 343° TH
5. Calculate compass heading (CH = TH + Var + Dev):
343° + 3° + 2° = 348°CH
6. Compute distance flown:
Distance = 108 knots x 0.1667 hour = 18 NM.

643. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present
heading is maintained? The airplane will

A. cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound.

B. intercept the 225 radial at a 45° angle.

C. intercept the 360 radial at a 45° angle inbound.

Illustration 2 shows the aircraft heading 225°. The bearing pointer indicates a

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 heading of 235° will take the aircraft to the station; therefore, you are on the 055°
radial. If the present heading is maintained, the station will remain to the right of
the aircraft and you will cross the 180° radial at approximately a 45° angle
outbound (225° - 180° = 45°).

644. What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another
when ground references are not visible?

A. Dead reckoning.

B. Pilotage.

C. VFR is not allowed in these circumstances.

Pilotage is navigation by reference to landmarks or checkpoints. Dead reckoning is

navigation solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance,
and direction.

645. (Refer to Figure 17.) Which is true regarding illustration 4, if the present heading is
maintained? The airplane will

A. cross the 060 radial at a 15° angle.

B. intercept the 240 radial at a 30° angle.

C. cross the 180 radial at a 75° angle.

Illustration 4 shows the aircraft heading 255° with a magnetic bearing of 275° to
the station. The aircraft will pass south of the station and cross the 180° radial at a
75° angle (255° - 180° = 75°).

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