Dronacharya-Ii-2024-Sample Paper-Class-X-P2-S&m
Dronacharya-Ii-2024-Sample Paper-Class-X-P2-S&m
Dronacharya-Ii-2024-Sample Paper-Class-X-P2-S&m
Paper 2
NTSE Science & Mathematics
“This paper has been scientifically designed to evaluate your potential – manifested
and hidden for the target examinations mentioned in various sections of the paper.
Thus, your adherence to the instructions is critical in the evaluation of the same”
2. Student should devote allotted time for each section. If a section is easy, then it is easy for everyone & was meant
to be like that with a goal in mind. Do not switch over to another section if you find the section to be easy. If
a section is tough, then it is tough for everyone. You are advised to spend 30 Minutes on Section-I and 30 Minutes
on Section-II. Dedicating the required time to finish each section successfully is essential. Opening the next section
before completing the allotted time for the preceding section is not permitted. This adherence is crucial for assessing
your true potential, as each section is meticulously crafted to evaluate your potential for the corresponding competitive
examinations.
3. Candidate should open the seal of Section-II only after devoting 30 minutes on Section-I.
4. Sheets will be given to each candidate for rough work. Candidate must fill all details on the rough sheet and submit the same
to invigilator along with OMR sheet. Candidate must mention the Question No. while doing the rough work in the sheet.
5. Please note candidates are not allowed to bring any prohibited items into the exam hall such as electronic devices, mobile
phones, smart watch, earphones, calculators, books, notes, formula sheets, and bags.
PHYSICS (Part-A) 1 to 10 +1 0
SECTION – I
(NTSE-Science) CHEMISTRY (Part-B) 11 to 20 +1 0
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes
BIOLOGY (Part-C) 21 to 30 +1 0
SECTION – II
(NTSE-Mathematics)
MATHEMATICS (Part-A) 31 to 60 +1 0
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes
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Section – I
Time: 30 Minutes
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 10. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Name the physical quantity that is defined as the rate of change of displacement.
(A) Velocity (B) Acceleration
(C) Distance (D) Speed
3. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of 3 kg
mass is 16 m/s. The velocity of 6 kg mass is
(A) 4 m/s (B) 8 m/s
(C) 16 m/s (D) 32 m/s
Column - I Column - II
(a) Net force acting on m2 if F = 12 N (p) 1N
(b) Net force acting on m2 if F = 6 N (q) 3N
(c) Net force acting on m3 if F = 12 N (r) 2N
(d) Net force acting on m3 if F = 6 N (s) 4N
(A) (a – s), (b – r), (c – q), (d – p) (B) (a – s), (b – r), (c – r), (d – p)
(C) (a – q), (b – r), (c – s), (d – p) (D) (a – p), (b – s), (c – r), (d – p)
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DRONACHARYA(II)-2024-SAMPLE PAPER-C-X-(Paper-2)-S&M
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions number 11 to 20. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
12. Among the following, identify the sets in which all compounds undergo sublimation.
Set a : Iodine, Camphor, Ammonium chloride
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X
Y Z
Scattering of light can be done by particles of
(A) X only (B) Z only
(C) Both X and Y (D) Both X and Z
14. Intermixing of gases among one another is called diffusion. At higher temperatures, the rate
(speed) of diffusion of a gas is higher. Which among the following gases would have the highest
rate of diffusion?
(A) SO3 (B) CO2
(C) NH3 (D) HCl
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18. Statement – 1: During Summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool.
Statement – 2: The cooling of water in earthen pot is caused by the diffusion of water through the
small pores of the pot.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement is not a correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 2 is true and statement 1 is false.
(D) Statement 2 is false and statement 1 is true.
19. Naturally occurring thallium consists of two stable isotopes, Tl-203 and Tl–205 (atomic mass =
203.0) and 205.0, respectively) and has an average atomic mass of 204.4. What is percentage of
Tl -205?
(A) 14.0% (B) 30.1%
(C) 50.0% (D) 70.0%
BIOLOGY – (PART – C)
This part contains 10 Multiple Choice Questions number 21 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. Which one of the following pairs of diseases can spread through blood transfusion?
(A) Cholera and Hepatitis (B) Hepatitis B and AIDS
(C) Diabetes mellitus and Malaria (D) Hay fever and AIDS
25. Find out the correct statement/s from the options given below
(i) Mitochondria are rod shaped or sausage shaped cell organelles which are commonly called
as the power house of the cell.
(ii) Mitochondria is a single membrane organelle and its wall is inwardly folded to from cristae.
(iii) Cristae has specialized structures called Oxysomes which serve as the site of ATP synthesis.
(iv) It has circular DNA and 80S type of ribosomes.
(A) Only statement (i) is correct (B) Statement (i) and (iii) are correct
(C) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct (D) All the given statements are correct
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26. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which
diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
(A) WIDAL (B) ELISA
(C) CT (D) MRI
28. A species of insect was found to have developed resistance to a commonly used insecticide.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
(A) Insects learned how to avoid the pesticide, and these learned behaviours were passed on
subsequent generations.
(B) The original gene pool included genes that conferred resistance to the insecticide.
(C) The insecticide stimulated development of resistance in certain individuals and this was
inherited.
(D) The insecticide caused a mutation that increased insect fitness and which was passed on to
subsequent generations.
Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 60. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
x y 1 2Q
32. If P ,Q , then the value of 2 is
xy xy P Q P Q2
xy
(A) (B) 0
xy
xy
(C) 1 (D)
xy
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2 3 2 2 2
33. If p is any integer such that xy = p, xz =p and yz = p . Also x + y + z = 13 and x + y + z = 91
z
then value of
y
7
(A) 3 (B)
3
13
(C) 13 (D)
3
1 1 1
34. If a + b + c = 3, a2 + b2 + c2 = 6 and 1, where a, b, c are all non-zero, then ‘abc’ is
a b c
equal to
2 3
(A) (B)
3 2
1 1
(C) (D)
2 3
1 1 1
35. If 5p 7q 35r , then the value of is :
p q r
(A) 0 (B) 1
2
(C) –1 (D)
3
36. If , are the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, then ?
a b a b
(A) 2/a (B) 2/b
(C) 2/c (D) –2/a
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40. In a garden trees are planted in rows. In each row there are as many trees as the number of rows
in the garden. Each tree bears as many fruits as the number of trees in each row. The sum of the
total number fruits on the trees is n. Then
(A) n is a perfect square (B) n is perfect cube
(C) n is always an even number (D) n is always an odd number
41 In triangle ABC, point E lies on AB and point D lies on AC. Lines BD and CE meet at F. The areas
of triangles BEF, CDF and BCF are 5, 8, and 10, respectively. What is the area of quadrilateral
AEFD?
(A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 22 (D) 25
42. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 8 hours
and the second in 6 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in how many
hours after being lighted, the ratio between the first and second candles becomes 2:1.
(A) 2 hours 24 minutes (B) 1 hour 12 minutes
(C) 4 hours (D) 4 hours 48 minutes
1 1
43. If x 3 4
5 and x 4 3
10, x 0, then find the value of 3x 4 3x3 .
3x 3x
(A) 144 (B) 36
(C) 50 (D) 72
45. Fresh grapes contain 90% water by weight while dried grapes contain 20% water by weight.
What is the weight of dry grapes available from 20 kg of fresh grapes?
(A) 2 kg (B) 2.4 kg
(C) 2.5 kg (D) none of these
46. P is a point on the graph of y 5x 3 . The coordinates of a point Q are (3, –2). If M is the mid
point of PQ, then M must lie on the line represented by
(A) y 5x 1 (B) y 5x 7
5 7 5 1
(C) y x (D) y x
2 2 2 2
47. The centre of the circle passing through the points (6, –6), (3, –7) and (3, 3) is
(A) (3, 2) (B) (–3, –2)
(C) (3, –2) (D) (–3, 2)
1/3 1/3
2 2 2
48. If , are the roots of the equation 2x – 5x + 16 = 0, then the value of is :
1 5
(A) (B)
4 4
1 5
(C) (D)
3 12
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2
49. The L.C.M. of the polynomials x 3 x 2 x 12 and x 13 x 3 x2 4 is
3 2
(A) x 1 x 3 x2 4 (B) x 3 x 13 x2 4
2
(C) x 3 x 13 x 2 (D) x 3
2
x 12 x 2
3 2 1 1 1
50. If l, m and n are the zeroes of polynomial f(x) = 2x + 5x + 6x + 10, then the value of
m n
is:
5 3
(A) (B)
2 5
5 2
(C) (D)
3 5
X
600 Y
350
0
200 0x D
P y
Q
52. The ratio of income of two persons is 11 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 9 : 5. If each of
them manage to save Rs. 400 per month, then the sum of their monthly income is :
(A) Rs 3600 (B) Rs 3200
(C) Rs 2800 (D) Rs 1700
5
53. If x 6, then the value of x 5x is
x
(A) 3 (B) – 1
(C) 1 (D) 53
c
a
120º
C b A
BCA 120º and AB c, BC a and AC b, then :
(A) c 2 a2 b2 ba (B) c 2 a2 b2 ba
(C) c 2 a2 b2 2ba (D) c 2 a2 b2 2ba
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1/3 1/3
56. If a3 3a 4 0 , Then 3
a 2 3
2 3
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0
57. Angle between the internal bisector of one base angle and the external bisector of the other base
2
angle of a triangle is equal to of the vertical angle. What is the value of k?
k
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
2 2
h k h 3k
59. The vertices of a triangle are (1, 2) (h, -3) and (-4, k). Find the value of , if
4
the centroid of the triangle is at the point (5, -1).
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
4 5
60. LCM of and is
5 9
4 2
(A) (B)
9 3
1
(C) 20 (D)
45
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DRONACHARYA(II)-2024-SAMPLE PAPER-C-X-(Paper-2)-S&M
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. A
5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B
9. A 10. C 11. D 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D
17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. B 22. D 23. D 24. D
25. B 26. B 27. B 28. B
29. B 30. C 31. A 32. C
33. A 34. B 35. A 36. D
37. D 38. D 39. B 40. B
41. C 42. D 43. D 44. B
45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. B 50. B 51. C 52. A
53. C 54. A 55. D 56. D
57. B 58. D 59. B 60. C
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