Chapter 3
Chapter 3
Chapter 3
∞
X
Assume that y (x) = cn x n = c0 + c1 x + c2 x 2 + · · · be the solution
n=0
of given ODE. Then,
This yields,
(c1 − c0 ) + (2c2 − c1 )x + (3c3 − c2 − 1)x 2 + (4c4 − c3 )x 3 + · · · = 0
So, c1 − c0 = 0, 2c2 − c1 = 0, 3c3 − c2 − 1 = 0, 4c4 − c3 = 0 + · · ·
1. y 0 = x 2 y
3 /3
Ans: y = c0 e x
2. y 0 − 2xy = 0
2
Ans: y = a0 e x
Legendre Polynomial
The solution of Legendre’s Equation (*) is known as Legendre Polynomial
or Legendre Function of degree n and is denoted by Pn (x) and defined by
M
X (2n − 2m)!
Pn (x) = (−1)m x n−2m
2n m!(n − m)!(n − 2m)!
m=0
n n−1
where, M= (if n is even) or (if n is odd) whichever is an integer.
2 2
1. P0 (x) = 1 2. P1 (x) = x
1 1
3. P2 (x) = (3x 2 − 1) 4. P3 (x) = (5x 3 − 3x)
2 2
1 1
5. P4 (x) = (35x 4 − 30x 2 + 3) 6. P5 (x) = (63x 5 − 70x 3 + 15x)
8 8
and so on.
U
se Legendre’s Polynomial to show the above relation
1 dn
Pn (x) = [(x 2 − 1)n ], n = 0, 1, 2, · · ·
2n n! dx n
1. P0 (x) = 1 2. P1 (x) = x
1 1
3. P2 (x) = (3x 2 − 1) 4. P3 (x) = (5x 3 − 3x)
2 2
1 1
5. P4 (x) = (35x 4 − 30x 2 + 3) 6. P5 (x) = (63x 5 − 70x 3 + 15x)
8 8
x 2 y 00 + xy 0 + (x 2 − ν 2 )y = 0 (1)
Bessel’s Equation:
A second order homogeneous differential equation of the form
x 2 y 00 + xy 0 + (x 2 − ν 2 )y = 0 (∗)
If we replace ν by −ν
∞ ∞
−ν
X (−1)m x 2m X (−1)m x 2m−ν
J−ν (x) = x =
22m−ν m!Γ(−ν + m + 1) 22m−ν m!Γ(m − ν + 1)
m=0 m=0
G
General Solution of Bessel’s equation
For non-integer ν, the functions Jν (x) and J−ν (x) are linearly independent
and are therefore the two solutions of the differential equation. That is
Theorem
For integer ν = n, Jn and J−n are linearly dependent because
Proof: We have,
∞
−ν
X (−1)m x 2m
J−ν (x) = x (3)
22m−ν m!Γ(m − ν + 1)
m=0
d
P1. [x ν Jν (x)] = x ν Jν−1 (x)
dx
d
P2. [x −ν Jν (x)] = −x −ν Jν+1 (x)
dx
2ν
P3. Jν−1 (x) + Jν+1 (x) = Jν (x)
x
P4. Jν−1 (x) − Jν+1 (x) = 2Jν0 (x)
exercise
Exercise: Prove the following:
r
2
1. J1/2 (x) = sin x
πx
r
2
2. J−1/2 (x) = cos x
πx
r " #
1 2 x2 x4 x6 √
= 1− 2 + − + · · · [Γ(1/2)= π]
Γ(1/2) x 2 · 1! · 12 24 · 2! · 32 · 21 26 · 3! · 52 · 32 · 12
r r
x2 x4 x6
2 2
= 1− + − + ··· = cos x Proved
πx 2! 4! 6! πx
We know that,
∞
X (−1)m x 2m
Jν (x) = x ν
m=0
22m+ν m!Γ(ν + m + 1)
1
If ν = 2
∞
√ X (−1)m x 2m
J1/2 (x) = x
22m+1/2 m! Γ 21 + m + 1
m=0
d √ r2
xJ 1 (x) = cos x
dx 2 π
r
1 2
x 2 J 1 −1 = cos x
2 π
r
2
J− 1 = cos x
2 πx
r
2 sin x
J3 = − cos x
2 πx x