JELET-2023

Paper – I (For Engg./Tech., B.Sc. Candidates)

(Booklet Number)
Duration: 2 Hours No. of MCQ : 100 Full Marks: 120

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1 : Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect
answer or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Category-2 : Carries 2 marks each and one or more option(s) is/are correct. If all
correct answers are not marked and no incorrect answer is marked, then score = 2 
number of correct answers marked  actual number of correct answers. If any wrong
option is marked or if any combination including a wrong option is marked, the
answer will be considered wrong, but there is no negative marking for the same and
zero mark will be awarded.
4. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
marked A, B, C, or D.
5. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the
respective bubbles completely.
6. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified
locations of the OMR Sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
7. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your
signature (as is appeared in the Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR Sheet.
8. The OMR Sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the
correct bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any
discrepancy in the name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center.
The OMR Sheet may also become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it
or any damage to it. The consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or
careless handling by the candidate will be the sole responsibility of candidate.
9. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen,
log-table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
10. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are
given in the Question Booklet for rough work.
11. Hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
12. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after Examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate : ______________________________

(as in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator : ______________________________

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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MATHEMATICS
Category-1 (Q. 1 to 30)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: –¼)
 x y    1
1. If A =   and A 2    , where  = Kxy, then the value of K is
y x    2
(A) ½ (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4

 3 1 
 
2. Let P   2 2  and Q = PAPT (where A is any 2  2 matrix). Then PTQ99P is
 1 3
 
 2 2 
(A) P99 (B) (PT)99
(C) A (D) A99

 1 2 5 
3. If the rank of the matrix  2 4 a  4  is 1, then the value of a is

 1 2 a  1 
 
(A) – 1 (B) –2
(C) –6 (D) 4

4. In a Geometric Progression, pth, qth and rth elements are x, y and z respectively. Then
 log x p 1 
which of the following is correct for the matrix A =  log y q 1 , where x, y and z are

 log z r 1 
positive

(A) Singular matrix (B) Orthogonal matrix

(C) |A| = r log y (D) |A| = q log z

5. If (a1, b1), (a2, b2) and (a1 – a2, b1 – b2) are three collinear points, then which of the
following is true ?
(A) a1b2 = b1a2 (B) a1a2 = b1b2
(C) a1b2 + b1a2 = 0 (D) a1b1 = a2b2

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6. The system of equations
x+y+z=1
2x + 3y – z = 5
x + y – kz = 4
where k∈ℝ, has an infinite number of solutions when k =
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) –2

    2 2    
7. If f r      cos 2  i sin 2    cos 2  i sin 2   ......   cos  i sin  , then
 r r   r r   r r
lim f () equals
n  n
(A) i (B) – i
(C) 1 (D) ∞

8. If a, b, c are the roots of y3  3y 2  3y  26  0 and ω is a cube root of unity, then the

a 1 b 1 c 1
value of   is
b 1 c 1 a 1
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 3ω (D) 3ω2

9. If a line joining two points A (2, 0) and B (3, 1) is rotated about A in anticlockwise
direction through an angle 15°, then the equation of the line in the new position is
(A) 3x – y = 3 (B) 3x + y = 2 3
(C) x+y 3=2 3 (D) 3x – y = 2 3

10. The length of the chord intercepted by the parabola y2 = 8x on the straight line
2x – y – 3 = 0 is
(A) 4 units (B) 5 units
(C) 4√5 units (D) 4√3 units

11. A conic section is defined by the equation x = –1 + sec t, y = 2 + 3 tan t. The coordinates
of the foci are
(A) (1  10, 2) (B) (–1  10, 2)
(C) (–1  8, 2) (D) (1  8, – 2)

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     
12. If a and b are two-unit vectors, then the vector ( a + b)  ( a  b) is parallel to the vector
   
(A) a+b (B) a–b
   
(C) 2 a + 3b (D) 2 a – 3 b

13. A unit tangent vector at t = 2 on the curve x = t2 + 2, y = 4t – 5, z = 2t2 – 6t is

1 ^ 1 ^ ^
(A) (2 i + 2^j + k)
^ (B) ^
3 (2 i + j + 2k)
3
1 ^ ^ ^ 1
(C) 3 ( i + 2 j + 2k) (D) 3 (2^i + 2^j + k)
^

2
14. lim sin (cos x) =
x0 x2
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C)  (D) – 

 x2  (A  2) x  A
 for x  2
15. If the function f( x)   x2 is continuous at x = 2, then
 2 for x  2
(A) A = 0 (B) A=1
(C) A = –1 (D) A = 2

16. Suppose that f is a differentiable function with the property that

1
f (x + y) = f (x) + f (y) + xy, f (0) = 0 and lim h f (h) = 3, then f(x) is
h0

x2 x2
(A) x + 2 (B) 3x + 2

(C) 3x + x2 (D) 3x + 2x2

f (x) – a
17. If f(a) = a2, (a) = b2 and f ′(a) = 3′ (a), then lim is
xa  (x) – b
3b2 b
(A) (B)
a2 3a
3b (b + 1) 3b
(C) a (a + 1) (D) a

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18.
 1  x
The function f(x) = x (x + 3)e 2 satisfies the condition of Rolle’s theorem in [–3, 0].
The value of c, where f   c   0 , is
(A) – 3 (B) 0
(C) – 2 (D) – 1

19. The slope of the tangent to the curve represented by x = t2 + 3t – 8 and y = 2t2 – 2t – 5 at
the point M (2, –1) is
6 7
(A) 7 (B) 6
3 2
(C) 2 (D) 3

20. The tangent to the curve x = a cos 2 cos, y = a cos 2 sinat the point,

corresponding to  = 6 is
(A) parallel to x axis (B) parallel to y axis
(C) parallel to the line y = x (D) parallel to the line y = 3x

21. If f(x) = x2 + 2bx + 2c2 and g(x) = –x2 – 2cx + b2 are such that min f(x) > max g(x), then
the relation between b and c is
(A) | b | > | c | 2 (B) |c|>|b| 2
(C) |b|<|c| 2 (D) | c | < | b | 2

x3 + x2y – y3 u u

22. If the function u = log  x – y , then x + y is
  x y
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) 4

ax2 + by2 f f
23. Let f (x, y) = , where a and b are constants. If = at x = 1 and y = –2, then
xy x y
the relation between a and b is
(A) a = 4b (B) 8a = b
(C) 12a = b (D) a = 20b
k
  cos( log x)
24. If k = e2007, the value of I =  x dx is

l
(A) 0 (B) e
(C) 2007 (D) 

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25. Let f(x), g(x) and h(x) be continuous functions on [0, a] such that
a
.
f(x) = f(a – x), g(x) = –g (a – x) and 3h(x) – 4h (a – x) = 5. Then .f(x) g(x) h(x) dx is

0
(A) a (B) –a
(C) 1 (D) 0

26. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 and x = y2 is

1
(A) 1 sq. unit (B) 2 sq. unit
1 2
(C) 3 sq. unit (D) 3 sq. unit

y (y / x)
27. The solution of the differential equation y′ = x + is
′(y / x)
(A) x (y / x) = xc (B)  (y / x) = c
(C) y (y / x) = c (D)  (y / x) = xc
where c is any arbitrary constant.

dy
28. The particular solution of log dx = 3x + 4y, y(0) = 0 is

(A) 4e3x + 3e-4y = 7 (B) 4e3x + 3e4y = 7

(C) e3x + e-4y = 1 (D) 4e3x + 3e-4y = –7

29. Two numbers are selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, …., 10, without
replacement. The probability that minimum of the two numbers is less than 5 is
1 2
(A) 3 (B) 3
1 1
(C) 2 (D) 5

30. For the events A and B if P(A) = P(A/B) = ¼ and P(B/A) = ½, then
(A) A and B are independent (B) A and B are mutually exclusive
1
(C) P(A′ / B) = 3 (D) P(B′ / A′) = 1/4

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MATHEMATICS
Category-2 (Q. 31 to 40)
(Carry 2 mark each. One or more options are correct. No negative marks)

31. Let X and Y be two non-zero symmetric matrices of order 3 and Z be a non-zero skew
symmetric matrix of order 3. Then which of the following matrix/matrices are skew
symmetric ?
(A) X3Z4 – Z4X3 (B) X5Z5 – Z5X5
(C) Y99Z99 + Z99Y99 (D) X19Y7 + Y7X19

 a b a + b 
32. 
For non-zero α, a, b, c, the determinant  =  b c b + c is equal to zero if

 a + b b + c 0 
(A) a, b, c are in A. P. (B) a, b, c are in G.P.
(C) a, b, c are in H. P. (D) α is a root of ax2 + 2bx + c = 0

 3 i 2007  3 i 2007
33. If z =  2 + 2 +  2 – 2 , then
   
(A) z = 0 (B) z=i
(C) Re (z) > 0 (D) Im (z) > 0

34. The area of a triangle is 5 sq. units. Two of its vertices are (2, 1) and (3, –2) and the third
vertex lies on y = x + 3. The coordinates of the third vertex can be
 3 3 3 3
(A) – 2 , 2 (B) 2 , – 2
   
7 14 7 13
(C) 2 , 3  (D) 2 , 2 
   

  
35. Let V = 2^i + ^j – k^ and W = ^i + 3k.
^ If U is a unit vector, then the maximum value of the
 
scalar triple product [UVW] is
(A) 59 (B) 59
(C) 1 (D) 60

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x2n – 1
36. Let f (x) = lim 2n , then
n x +1

(A) f(x) = 1 for | x | > 1

(B) f(x) = 1 for | x | = 1
(C) f(x) = –1 for | x | < 1
(D) f(x) is not defined for any values of x

37. If the line ax + by + c = 0 is a normal to the curve xy = 2, then

(A) a > 0, b > 0 (B) a > 0, b < 0
(C) a < 0, b > 0 (D) a < 0, b < 0

38. If z = log x2 + y2, then which of the following is/are true ?

z z z z
(A) y +x =1 (B) x +y =1
x y x y
z z z z
(C) x +y = x2 + y2 (D) y =x
x y x y


.
39. The value of  which satisfies .sin xdx = sin 2 (  [, 2]) is/are

/2

7 3
(A) 4 (B) 2
7 5
(C) 6 (D) 3

dv dv2
40. The solution/solutions of v = u du + du , where u = y and v = xy is/are
 
(A) y = 0 (B) y = 4x
(C) y = –4x (D) xy = cy + c1

where c, c1 are arbitrary constants.

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PHYSICS
Category-1 (Q. 41 to 65)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks : ̶ ¼)

41. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by x = A sin(t + ) where A is

A
the amplitude, denotes the angular frequency and  denotes the phase. has the

dimension of
(A) L (B) LT–1
(C) LT (D) dimensionless

42. Figure shows (x, t), (y, t) diagram of a particle moving in 2 dimensions
x(m) y(m)

4
2
1 1
0 t(s) 0 t(s)
1 2 3 1 2 3
If the particle has a mass of 500 gm, the force acting on the particle is
(A) 1 N along x-axis (B) 0.5 N along y-axis
(C) 0.5 N along x-axis (D) 1 N along y-axis

43. Two trains of length L1 and L2 are moving with speeds V1 and V2 in opposite directions
on parallel tracks. The time taken by each train till they cross each other is
L1 + L2 L1 + L2
(A) V – V (B) V + V
1 2 1 2
L1 – L2 L1 – L2
(C) V1 + V2 (D) V1 – V2

44. A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc. Angular velocity (ω) of disc varies with
angle of rotations (θ) made by the disc as
(A)   2
(C) 1/3 (D) 2/3

45. A massless string can carry a maximum mass 3 kg. If the string is pulled upward with an
acceleration 2 m/s2 then the maximum mass this string can carry is [g = 10 m/s 2]
15 5
(A) 4 Kg (B) 2 Kg
1
(C) 3 Kg (D) 12 Kg

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46. Two particles having masses 6 Kg and 4 Kg are moving with velocities 5 ^i – 2^j + 10k^
and 10^i + 2^j + 5k^ respectively. What is the velocity of their centre of mass ?
(A) 5^i + 2^j – 8k^ (B) 7^i – 2^j + 8k^
(C) 7^i + 2^j – 8k^ (D) 5^i – 2^j + 8k^

47. In an ideal gas root mean square speed of the gas molecules is C. If pressure of the gas is
increased to three times its initial value, temperature remaining constant, what would be
the r. m. s. speed ?
(A) C/3 (B) C
(C) 3C (D) 3/C

48. In the figure, three processes of an ideal gas are shown.

CA denotes the adiabatic process,
BA denotes the isothermal process.
Then γ for this gas is

1 1
(A) 1 – ln 2 (B) ln 2
1 – ln 3

ln 3 1
(C) ln 2 (D) ln 3
1 – ln 2

49. A charge q is situated at the centre of the circular base of a right circular cone of height H
and radius of the base is r. Electrostatic flux through the curved surface of the cone is
q q
(A) (B)
0 20
q qH
(C) (D)
40 40r

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50. Consider two point charges q1 and q2 having masses m1 and m2 respectively. They are
released from an initial separation r0. The relative velocity when the separation becomes
large is given by
 1 1 1 1 
K = 4 ;  = m + m ; M = m1 + m2
 0 1 2 

2 Kq1q2 2Kq1q2
(A) (B)
 r0 r0

Kq1q2 Kq1q2
(C) Mr0 (D) r0

51. A glass slab of thickness 8 cm contains the same number of waves as 10 cm of water,
when both are traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water
4
is 3, the refractive index of glass is

5 5
(A) 4 (B) 3
3 3
(C) 2 (D) 5

52. A collimated beam of light of diameter 1 mm is propagating along x-axis. The beam is to
be expanded to a collimated beam of diameter 10 mm using a combination of two convex
lenses. A lens of focal length of 50 mm and another lens with focal length ‘F’ are to be
kept at a distance ‘d’ between them. The values of F and d, respectively are
(A) 450 mm and 10 mm (B) 400 mm and 500 mm
(C) 550 mm and 600 mm (D) 500 mm and 550 mm

53. When a light of particular wavelength falls on a plane surface at an angle of incidence
60° then the reflected light becomes completely plane polarized. Now the refractive index
() of the material of the surface and the angle of the refraction (r) passing through the
plane surface are
(A)  = 2, r = 30 (B)  = 3, r = 30
1
(C)  = 3, r = 45 (D)  = 2, r = 30

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54. Two particles execute SHM of the same amplitude and frequency along the same straight
line. They pass one another when going in opposite directions each time, their
displacement is half their amplitude. The phase difference between them is
(A) 210° (B) 30°
(C) 90° (D) 180°

55. Two solid cubes of the same weight are taken. One is made of Iron (density 8 gm/cc) and
the other is made of aluminium (density 2.7 gm/cc). They are now weighed when fully
immersed in water. Then inside water,
(A) both will suffer same loss of weight.
(B) the Iron cube will weigh more than the aluminium cube.
(C) both will have the same weight as before.
(D) the aluminium cube will weigh more than the Iron cube.

56.

Steady current flows through a constricted conductor. The left of the constriction has
diameter D1 and current density j1. If the current density is doubled as it emerges from the
right side of the constriction, then D2 is
1
(A) 2 D1 (B) D1

D1
(C) (D) 2D1
2

57. Two concentric coplanar circular coils of radii R and R′ carry steady currents I and I′ in
opposite directions (one clockwise other anticlockwise). The magnetic field at the centre
I
is half that due to I′ alone. If R = 2R′, then I′ is

(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1:2

(C) 1:4 (D) 1 : 1

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58. Two magnetic fields, inclined to each other at an angle 75°, act on a bar magnet
suspending on the plane of the magnetic fields. The magnitude of one magnetic field is
3 2  10–3 T and the bar magnet attains stable equilibrium at an angle 45° with the other
magnetic field. The magnitude of the other magnetic field is

(A) 3  10–3 T (B) 2  10–4 T

(C) 6 3  10–3 T (D) 4  10–3 T

59. An electron of charge e revolves in a circular path of radius r around nucleus. The
magnetic field due to its orbital motion at the side of nucleus is B. The frequency of
rotation of electron is

Br 2Br
(A) (B)
0e 0e

Br Br
(C) (D)
20e 40e

60.

In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero deflection. If the batteries have negligible
internal resistance, the value of the resistor R will be

(A) 100 Ω (B) 200 Ω

(C) 500 Ω (D) 1000 Ω

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61. Pr
M
E2

R/r
O
A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a load resistance R. The
variation of power consumed in R with load (R) is shown in the figure. The co-ordinate
of the point M is
1 
(A) (1, 1) (B) 4 , 1
 
 1  1
(C) 1 , 2 (D) 1 , 4
   
62. A magnetic field of strength B bends all the photoelectrons within a circle of radius R
when light of wavelength λ is incident on a certain metallic surface. The work function of
the metal is proportional to (a and b are constants)
(A) a – bR2 (B) R2
(C) a + bR2 (D) independent of R
63. A radioactive isotope has a decay constant λ and a molar mass M. Taking the Avogadro
constant to be L, what is the activity of a sample of mass m of this isotope ?
mL m
(A) M (B) ML
mL
(C) mML (D)
M
4E
64. The energy levels of a certain atom for 1st, 2nd and 3rd levels are E, 3 and 2E
respectively. A photon of wavelength λ is emitted for a transition 3 → 1. The wavelength
of emission for transition 2 → 1 will be
 3
(A) 3 (B) 4
4
(C) 3 (D) 3
A
65. A radioactive nucleus Z X emits three  particles and five  particles. The ratio of the
number of neutrons to that of protons in the final product nucleus is
A – Z – 11 A–Z
(A) Z–1 (B) Z–1
A – Z – 11 A – Z – 12
(C) Z–6 (D) Z–6

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PHYSICS
Category-2 (Q 66 to 70)
(Carry 2 mark each. One or more options are correct. No negative marks)
66. The spring of spring constant k is attached to a block mass of 4 Kg. Initially the block is
at rest and the spring is unstretched. The horizontal surface is frictionless. A constant
horizontal force F is applied on the block, and it moves through a distance x. Then which
of the following statement(s) is/are true ?

(A) The energy is conserved in this process.

(B) The velocity (v) of block varies linearly with x.
(C) If x = 0.5 m, k = 24 N/m, F = 10 N, then speed of the block is 1 m/s.
F
(D) At x = k , acceleration of the block will be zero.

67. The potential energy of a particle in a field of force is equal to A – Bx2 where x is the
displacement along a straight line from the equilibrium position. The force acting on the
particle is
(A) proportional to x2.
(B) proportional to x.
(C) independent of x.
(D) directed away from equilibrium position.

68. In the circuit shown, the capacitor is initially charged by a supply of emf E. The switch is
closed at time t = t0. Then which statement(s) is/are true ?

(A) Immediately after switch on, the current in the circuit is E/R.
1
(B) The current is maximum at time t = CR.
(C) The current through the resistor decreases exponentially to zero.
1
(D) The total heat energy dissipated across R will be 2 CE2.

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69. A solid non-conducting sphere of radius R carries a non-uniform charge distribution with
r
charge density  = 0 R (0 = constant) and r is the distance from the centre of the

sphere. Then which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?

(A) The total charge Q on the sphere is 0R3

4
(B) The total charge Q on the sphere is 3 0R3

1 Q 2
(C) The electric field inside the sphere is r
40 R4

1 Q 2
(D) The electric field inside the sphere is r
40 R3

70. White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Young’s double slit experiment. The
separation between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d (d>>b) from the slits. P
is a point on the screen directly in front of S1. Then which of the following statement(s)
is/are true ?

S1

S2

(A) On the screen, there will be coloured fringes except central fringe.

 b2 
(B) The path difference at point P is d + d .
 
(C) For destructive interference at point P, the condition will be

 1 b2
n    ,  n  1, 2,... .
 2 2d

b2
(D) The 2nd missing wavelength is 3d

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 JELET-2023
CHEMISTRY
Category-1 (Q 71 to 85)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

71. If the ground state energy of H-atom is –13.6 eV, the energy of second excited state of
Li2+ ion will be

(A) – 13.6 eV (B) – 30.6 eV

(C) – 6.04 eV (D) + 13.6 eV

72. If the radius of second Bohr orbit of H atom is ‘r2’, the radius of third Bohr orbit will be

4
(A) 9 r2 (B) 4 r2

9
(C) 4 r2 (D) 9 r2

73. In the ground state of Cu+, the number of shells occupied, subshells, filled orbitals and
unpaired electrons are respectively

(A) 4, 8, 15, 0 (B) 3, 6, 14, 0

(C) 3, 6, 15, 1 (D) 4, 7, 14, 2

74. How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 gm of copper at the cathode
during the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate.

Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5, NA = Avogadro’s no

NA NA
(A) 20 (B) 10

NA NA
(C) 5 (D) 2

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 JELET-2023
75. The probability of finding electrons in dyz orbital is

(A) along X and Z axis (B) along X and Y axis

(C) along Y and Z axis (D) at an angle 45 with Z axis

–
76. What is the correct order of bond dissociation energy among N 2, O2 and O2
– –
(A) N2 > O2 > O2 (B) O2 > O2 > N2
– –
(C) N2 > O 2 > O 2 (D) O2 > O2 > N2

77. Equal number of σ and  bonds are present in

–
(A) HCO3 (B) CH2 (CN)2

(C) (CN)2 (D) XeO4

78. How many litre(s) of water is to be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a
pH 1 to produce an aqueous solution of pH 2 ?
(A) 10 L (B) 1L
(C) 9L (D) 20 L

79. 6.02  1020 molecules of glucose are present in 100 ml of its solution. The concentration
of the glucose solution will be
(A) 0.01 (M) (B) 0.001 (M)
(C) 0.1 (M) (D) 0.2 (M)

80. A given weak acid has its dissociation constant k a = 1.0  10–5. Calculate the equilibrium
constant when it reacts with a strong base.
(A) 105 (B) 1010
(C) 109 (D) 1017

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81. The correct order of covalent character is :
(A) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 > CCl4

(B) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

(C) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

(D) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

Kp 1
82. The ratio of K for the reaction, CO(g) + 2 O2(g) f CO2(g) is
c

1
(A) (B) (RT)1/2
RT
(C) RT (D) 1

83. Pair of species having identical shapes for molecules is

(A) BF3, PF3 (B) CF4, SF4

(C) XeF2, CO2 (D) PF5, BrF5

84. How many tertiary carbon atom(s) is/are present in the given compound ?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) nil/absent

85. Among the following alcohols, which would react faster with conc. HCl and ZnCl 2 ?

(A) pentanol (B) 2 – methylbutanol

(C) 2 – pentanol (D) 2 – methylbutan-2 – ol

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 JELET-2023
CHEMISTRY
Category-2 (Q 86 to 90)
(Carry 2 mark each. One or more options are correct. No negative marks)

86. The Lyman Series for H atom corresponds to the transition, n 2  n1 when

(A) n2 = 2, n1 = 1 (B) n2 = 3, n1 = 2

(C) n2 = 4, n1 = 1 (D) n2 = 4, n1 = 3

87. The set of four quantum numbers of a single p electron having n + 1  4 may be

(A)  3, 1,  2,  1  (B)  2, 1, 1,  1 

   
 2  2

 1  1
(C)  3, 1, 0,   (D)  2, 1,  2,  
 2  2

88. For the equilibrium H2O (solid) f H2O(liq.) the correct statement is

(A) If pressure of the system is increased, more ice will be melted to water.
(B) Pressure has no effect upon the equilibrium.
(C) If pressure increases, more ice will be formed.
(D) Pressure can shorten the time to reach the equilibrium.

89. Choose the correct reaction :

(A) slag + flux = gangue (B) slag + gangue = flux
(C) SiO2 + CaO = CaSiO3 (D) flux + gangue = slag

90. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid can be an example of

(A) Arrhenius acid (B) Bronsted acid
(C) Lewis base (D) Arrhenius base

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 JELET-2023
Fundamentals of Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Category-1 (Q 91 to 100)
(Carry 1 mark each. Only one option is correct. Negative marks: ̶ ¼)

91.

A current source i(t) is applied to a series RLC circuit as shown in the figure. The
maximum potential difference across the resistor is,
(A) 10 V (B) 15 V
(C) 5 V (D) 20 V
92. If V1 and V2 are the potential drops across the capacitors C 1 and C2 respectively, then the
correct values of V1 and V2 are,

5 10 10 5
(A) V1 = 3 V, V2 = 3 V (B) V1 = 3 V, V2 = 3 V
5 5 3 10
(C) V1 = 2 V, V2 = 2 V (D) V1 = 5 V, V2 = 3 V

93. Find the r.m.s. value of 10 + 10 sin 100t V.

(A) 12.25 V (B) 7.07 V
(C) 22.75 V (D) 70.71 V
94. In the circuit given, the voltage AB is

(A) 35 V (B) 28.2 V

(C) 38.3 V (D) 42.6 V

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 JELET-2023
95. Find the equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure across X-Y.

3
(A) 4 F (B) 7 F

4
(C) 4 F (D) 3 F

96. If the supply frequency of a transformer increases, the secondary output voltage of the
transformer
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains unchanged (D) follows the primary

97. If a transformer is connected to a direct current supply, the result is

(A) damage of the transformer (B) no effect
(C) operation at low frequency (D) operation at higher frequency

98. A dc motor develops a torque of 120 Nm at 20 rps. At 30 rps, it will develop a torque of,
(A) 160 Nm (B) 120 Nm
(C) 80 Nm (D) 40 Nm

99. For a dc shunt motor, if the excitation is changed,

(A) torque will remain constant.
(B) torque will change but power will remain constant.
(C) both torque and power will change.
(D) torque, power and speed, all will change.

100. The average power delivered to an impedance (4 – j3)  by a current 5 cos (100 + 100) A
is
(A) 442 W (B) 50 W
(C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W
___________

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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