AMU Class 11 Sci 10 Years Papers 2014-2023

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Aligarh Muslim University

Class 11 (Science)/Diploma in
Engineering Entrance Test

YEAR 2014-2023 UNSOLVED PAPERS


WITH ANSWER KEY

BY - KnowledgeCubs.com
Typeset by -
KnowledgeCubs.com
All Rights Reserved.

©KnowledgeCubs.com
KnowledgeCubs.com do not take any legal responsibility for any
errors or misinterpretations that might have crept in. We have tried
and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date
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us at [email protected]
Contents

2014 Question Paper p. 2 - 13

2015 Question Paper p. 14 - 26

2016 Question Paper p. 27 - 39

2017 Question Paper p. 40 - 49

2018 Question Paper p. 50 - 61

2019 Question Paper p. 62 - 73

2020 Question Paper p. 74 - 84

2021 Question Paper p. 85 - 96

2022 Question Paper p. 97 - 107

2023 Question Paper p. 108 - 119

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2014

1. Ibn Batuta visited India during the reign of

(a) Balban (b) Alauddin Khalji (c) Mohd Bin Tughluq (d) Firoz Tughluq

2. Who among the following is known as the ‘Flying Sikh of India’?

(a) Milkha Singh (b) Ajit Pal Singh (c) Joginder Singh (d) Mohinder Singh

3. Border Security Force was established in the year:

(a) 1954 (b) 1966 (c) 1967 (d) 1968

4. Maulvi Ahmadullah of Faizabad led the revolt of 1857 in:

(a) Delhi (b) Central India (c) Bihar (d) Rohilkhand

5. Who among the following had constructed the Red Fort in Delhi?

(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shah Jahan (d) Aurangzeb

6. Arvind Kejriwal, the leader of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) has served in which of
these services?

(a) Indian Administrative Services (IAS) (b) Indian Foreign Services (IFS)

(c) Indian Revenue Services (IRS) (d) Indian Police Services (IPS)

7. Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is associated with:

(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Basketball (d) Cricket

8. Who was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Najma Heptullah (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Meira Kumar (d) Sushma Swaraj

9. Telecom company ‘Nokia’ belongs to which country?

(a) USA (b) Finland (c) Sweden (d) France

10. Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was constructed by Akbar to commemorate


the:

(a) Birth of Prince Salim (b) Victory of Gujrat

(c) Victory of Malwa (d) Victory of Bengal

11. Real name of Nurjahan, wife of Jahangir was:


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(a) Mehrun Nisa (b) Mahinoor (c) Qaisar Jahan (d) Jodha Bai

12. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan wrote Tafsir of

(a) Bible (b) Zuboor (c) Sahif – e – Ibrahim (d) None of these

13. Quran was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (P.B.U.H) at:

(a) Makkah and Madinah (b) Madinah and Kuf

(c) Makkah and Taif (d) Makkah and Habsha

14. Battle of Uhad was fought in:

(a) Madina (b) Makkah (c) Syria (d) Kufa

15. Where is Masjid – i – Nabwi?

(a) Habsha (b) Makkah (c) Madinah (d) Taif

16. Who was famous with the title of ‘Ameen’ in Mekkah?

(a) Abdullah (b) Abdul Muttalib (c) Muhammad (S.A.W.) (d) Ibraahim

17. The following is known traditionally as hadith:

(a) The word of god

(b) Saying, doing and approval of the Prophet

(c) Saying of the Companion of the Prophet

(d) None of these

18. Compilation of the Quran was done during the period of the companion:

(a) Abu Bakr Siddique (R.A.) (b) Umar Farooque (R.A.)

(c) Salman Farsi (R.(A) (d) Ali Murtaza (R.A.)

19. The islamic calendar is called:

(a) Hijri (b) Shamsi (c) Abbasid (d) Arabic

20. Agreement of Sulah Hudaibiyah was settled in:

(a) 7 A.H. (b) 6 A.H. (c) 9 A.H. (d) 10 A.H.

21. In the electric circuit shown below:

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(a) All the bulbs will glow (b) Only bulbs 4, 5 and 6 will glow

(c) Only bulb 3 will glow (d) None of the bulbs will glow

22. The specific resistance of a rod of copper as compared to that of thin wire of
copper is:

(a) more (b) less

(c) same (d) depends upon the length and area of wire

23. Two mirrors are placed at right angles to each other as shown in the figure. The
total number of images of an object, O, placed between them, are seen as:

(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) six

24. The echo of a sonar beep is heard 2.50 s later. If the speed of sound in water is
1400 m/s; the iceberg is at the distance:

(a) 3500 m (b) 1900 m (c) 175 m (d) 142 m

25. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the
power consumed will be:

(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W

26. A body floats with 1/3 of its volume outside water and ¾ of its volume outside
another liquid. The density of another liquid is

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9 4 8 3
(a) x 103 kgm-3 (b) x 103 kgm-3 (c) x 103 kgm-3 (d) x 103 kgm-3
4 9 3 9

27. If you read a book placed at distance 35.0 cm from your eye and the distance
from eye lens to retina is 19.0 mm. The focal length of your eye lens is

(a) 3.50 cm (b) 5.93 cm (c) 2.00 cm (d) 1.89 cm

28. Which of the following cannot be speed – time graph of a body in motion?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

29. What is the momentum of a body of mass 100 g, having a K.E. of 20 J?

(a) 2 kg-m/s (b) ½ kg-m/s (c) 12 g-m/s (d) None of these

30. In order to calculate the gravitational force of attraction, Sir Isaac Newton had
made use of

(a) The planet revolve around the sun in elliptical orbit with the sun at one of its foci.

(b) The line joining the planet and the sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of
time.

(c) The cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is proportional to the
square of its orbital period.

(d) Gravitational force is equal to the rate of change of momentum.

31. The V-I graphs of parallel and series combinations of two metallic resistors are
shown in the figure below. The graph that represents parallel combination is

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(a) A (b) B (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

32. Which of the following take(s) place in hydrogen bomb while detonating?

(a) Fission only (b) Fusion only

(c) First fission then fusion only (d) First fusion then fission only

33. Three resistors of resistance 3Ω each are combined to form an equilateral


triangle. Resistance between any two ends of the triangle would be

(a) ½ Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 6 Ω (d) 9 Ω

34. Kinetic energy of a car, when its speed is tripled, is increases by the factor

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) 27

35. When a potential difference of 3.0 V across a resistor set up a current of 0.6 A in
it to flow. The potential difference required to set up the current of 0.4 A in the
resistor

(a) 1.0V (b) 2.0V (c) 3.0V (d) 4.0V

36. Gold can be dissolved in

(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Nitric Acid (c) Steam (d) Aqua Regia

37. Mixing an acid with water results in

(a) Decrease in the concentration of H3O+ ions per unit volume.

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(b) Increase in the concentration of H3O+ ions per unit volume.

(c) The concentration of H3O+ ions per unit volume remains same.

(d) Absorption of heat

38. Which gas is produces when sodium reacts with ethanol?

(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Water Vapours

39. When a metal ‘X’ reacts with cold water it produces hydrogen gas and metal
hydroxide having formula XOH. Its balanced chemical equation is below:

2X + 2H2O → 2XOH + H2

If molecular mass of XOH is 40. The name of metal ‘X’ is

(a) Calcium (b) Potassium (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium


40
40. The electronic configuration of the element 20𝑋 is

(a) 2, 8, 10 (b) 2, 8, 8, 2 (c) 2, 10, 8 (d) 2, 8, 18, 8, 4

41. A solution reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water
milky. The solution contains

(a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) HCl (d) CaCl2

42. Aqua Regia is freshly prepared mixture of

(a) 3:1 concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid

(b) 3:1 concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid

(c) 3:1 concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid

(d) 3:1 concentrated nitric acid and water

43. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

(a) NaCl solution and copper metal (b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal

(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal (d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal

44. Formula unit mass of CaCl2 is

(a) 70u (b) 82u (c) 111u (d) 63u

45. 1 mole of nitrogen gas is equal to

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(a) 14g (b) 7g (c) 28g (d) 42g

46. The valency of Fe in Fe2O3 is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5

47. Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

The above reaction is

(a) Combustion reaction (b) Combination reaction

(c) Displacement reaction (d) Double – displacement reaction

48. Phenolphthalein gives pink colour in

(a) Acidic medium (b) Basic medium

(c) Neutral medium (d) Both acidic and basic

49. HCl dissolves in water and give _____ and Cl- ion

(a) H+ (b) OH- (c) H3O+ (d) None of these

50. Plaster of Paris on mixing with water changes to

(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4. ½ H2O

(c) (CaSO4)2.½H2O (d) CaSO.H2O

51. The value of tan 48° tan 23° tan 42° tan 57° is:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these

52. The two roots of the equations: a(b-c)x2 + b(c-a)x + c(a-b) = 0 are 1 and

𝑐(𝑎−𝑏) 𝑏(𝑐−𝑎) 𝑎(𝑏−𝑐) 𝑐(𝑎−𝑏)


(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑏(𝑐−𝑎) 𝑎(𝑏−𝑐)) 𝑏(𝑐−𝑎) 𝑎(𝑏−𝑐))

53. If the points (2, 3), (4, k) and (6, -3) are collinear, then the value of k is

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) -2 (d) 4

54. ABCD is a rhombus and P, Q, R and S are the midpoints of the sides AB, BC,
CD and DA. The quadrilateral PQRS is a

(a) Rectangle (b) Parallelogram (c) Triangle (d) Rhombus

55. If the points A(5, 2), B(4, 7) and C(7, -4) forms a triangle ABC, then the area of a
triangle is equal to
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(a) -4 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5

56. If the roots of a quadratic equation (a2 + b2)x2 – 2b(a + c)x + (b2 + c2) = 0 are
equal, then

2𝑎𝑐
(a) 2b = a+c (b) b2 = ac (c) b = (d) b = ac
𝑎+𝑐

57. If 𝑥̅ is the mean of x1, x2, x3,……, xn then mean of (x1+k), (x2+k), (x3+k),…., (xn+k)
will be
1
(a) 𝑥̅ (b) 𝑘 𝑥 (c) k (d) 𝑥̅ + 𝑘

58. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting a doubles?
1 1 5 11
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 36

59. In ∆ABC, D is the midpoint of BC, B is the midpoint of DC and O is the midpoint
of AB. The ratio of areas of ∆AOC and ∆ABC is

(a) 1:6 (b) 1:7 (c) 1:8 (d) 1:9

60. The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the centre of the
centre is 4 cm. The radius of the circle is equal to

(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 8 cm

61. In the adjoining figure, if YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠Y and ∠Z then, ∠YOZ
equals to

(a) 121° (b) 36° (c) 40° (d) 25°

62. 5 pencils and 7 pens together cost Rs.50 whereas 7 pencils and 5 pens together
cost Rs.46, then the cost of one pencil is equal to

(a) Rs.5 (b) Rs.7 (c) Rs.3 (d) Rs.9

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63. The area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm, if angle of the sector is 60° is
equal to

(a) 132/7 cm2 (b) 135/7 cm2 (c) 130 cm2 (d) 135 cm2

64. The diagonals of parallelogram are

(a) bisect each other (b) equal

(c) perpendicular to each other (d) None of these

65. Sum of the n term of the series √2, √8, √18, √32, ……….. is

(a) n(n+1)/ √2 (b) √2(n)(n+1) (c) n(n+1)/ √2 (d) None of these

66. If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2-2x-8, then α + β + αβ is

(a) 6 (b) -6 (c) -10 (d) 10

67. The quadratic polynomial formed by the reciprocal of zeroes of the quadratic
polynomial x2 - 3x + 2 is

(a) -3x2+x+2 (b) 2x2-3x+1 (c) x2+2x-3 (d) 2x2+3x-1

68. If ∆ABC ∆DEF and their areas be respectively 64cm2 and 121 cm2. If EF= 15.4
cm then the value of BC is

(a) 15 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 11.2 cm (d) 18 cm

69. Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand on a plane ground. If the distance
between the feet of the poles is 12 m. The distance between their tops equal to

(a) 13 m (b) 14 m (c) 15 m (d) 20 m

70. If the zeroes of the polynomial x3 - 3x2 + x + 1 are a-b, a, a+6, find a and b.

(a) a=2, b=±√3 (b) a=1, b=±√2 (c) a=3, b=0 (d) a=√2, b=√3

71. In ∆ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD the, ar(∆BED) =

(a) 1/3 ar(∆ABC) (b) 1/4 ar(∆ABC) (c) 1/8 ar(∆ABC) (d) 1/6 ar(∆ABC)

72. ABCD is a parallelogram, X and Y are the midpoints of BC and CD respectively,


then the area of ∆AXY is equal to

(a) 1/2 ar(ABCD) (b) 1/4 ar(ABC(D) (c) 3/4 ar(ABC(D) (d) 3/8 ar(ABC(D)

1
73. If y + 1/4 = 2, then the value of 16y3 + is
4𝑦 3

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(a) 102 (b) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106

74. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour into the
sea. How much water will fall into the sea in a minute?

(a) 400 m3 (b) 2400 m3 (c) 4000 m3 (d) 4200 m3

75. If α+β = 90° and α=2β, then cos2α + sin2β is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) ½ (d) 2

76. ABC is a right triangle, right angled at C. Let BC= a, CA= b and AB= c and let p
be the length of perpendicular from C on AB, then 1/p2 is equal to

1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) + (b) - (c) + b2 (d)
𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑎2 𝑎2 𝑏2

77. The value of (xb/xc)1/bc (xc/xa)1/ca (xa/xb)1/ab on simplifying is

(a) x (b) 1/x (c) 1 (d) -1

78. If points (a, -11), (5, (b), (2, 15) and (1, 1) are the vertices of a parallelogram
taken in order, then the values of a and b are

(a) a=4, b= -3 (b) a= -4, b=3 (c) a= -4, b= -3 (d) a=4, b=3

79. If the volume of a right circular cone is 9856 cm 3 and diameter of base is 28 cm
then slant height of cone is

(a) 49 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 20 cm

80. (x+y)3 – (x-y)3 – 6y(x2-y2) is equal to

(a) x+y (b) x-y (c) 8x3 (d) 8y3

81. Singe circular chromosome is found in

(a) Human cell (b) Amoeba (c) Plant cell (d) Bacteria

82. A solution used to stain cell is

(a) Iodine (b) Safranin (c) Methylene blue (d) All of these

83. A Pteridophytic plant is

(a) Bird-wing (b) Flying-fox (c) Horse-tail (d) None of these

84. This is an algae

(a) Marsilea (b) Riccia (c) Spirogyra (d) Marchantia

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85. A ‘Rabi’ crop

(a) Rice (b) Maize (c) Wheat (d) Cotton

86. If a cell is kept in a hypertonic solution, it will

(a) Swell up (b) Shrink (c) Swim in a side (d) Stay the same size

87. In plants, autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

(a) Sunlight (b) Chlorophyll (c) CO2 and H2O (d) All of these

88. Phototropism in plants is controlled by

(a) Cytokinins (b) Gibberellins (c) Auxins (d) Abscisic acid

89. An example of micronutrient of the crop plant

(a) Manganese (b) Sulphur (c) Potassium (d) Oxygen

90. Xylem and phloem tissues are found in

(a) Fern (b) Moss (c) Riccia (d) Marchantia

91. The site of complete digestion of food:

(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine

92. Which of the following organisms reproduce by multiple fission?

(a) Leishmania (b) Amoeba (c) Malaria parasite (d) Both (a) and (b)

93. Brown – Swiss is an exotic breed of

(a) Cow (b) Hen (c) Buffalo (d) Wheat

94. Bombay duck and tuna are examples of

(a) Fresh water fishes (b) Marine fishes (c) Honey – bees (d) Poultry birds

95. Japanese encephalitis or brain fever is caused by

(a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Protozoan (d) Fungus

96. Which of these is not a true fish?

(a) Jelly fish (b) Flying fish (c) Sea horse (d) Lion fish

97. Fungal cell wall is made up of

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(a) Lignin (b) Suberin (c) Chitin (d) Cellulose and pectin

98. The five kingdom classification was given by

(a) Carl Woese (b) Carolus Linnaeus

(c) Ernst Heachel (d) Robert Whittaker

99. Eosinophil and basophil cells are found in

(a) Cartilage (b) Areolar tissue (c) Adipose tissue (d) Blood

100. Solid matrix of cartilage is made up of

(a) Proteins and sugar (b) Calcium and phosphorus

(c) Proteins and calcium carbonate (d) Proteins and phosphorus

Answer Key 2014


1.c 2.a 3.a 4.d 5.c 6.c 7.b 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.a

13.a 14.a 15.c 16.c 17.b 18.a 19.a 20.b 21.d 22.c 23.b 24.c

25.d 26.c 27.d 28.b 29.a 30.c 31.a 32.c 33.b 34.c 35.b 36.d

37.b 38.a 39.d 40.b 41.c 42.c 43.d 44.c 45.c 46.b 47.d 48.b

49.c 50.a 51.b 52.d 53.a 54.a 55.c 56.b 57.d 58.a 59.c 60.b

61.a 62.c 63.a 64.a 65.c 66.b 67.b 68.c 69.a 70.b 71.b 72.d

73.b 74.c 75.c 76.a 77.c 78.d 79.b 80.d 81.d 82.d 83.c 84.c

85.c 86.b 87.d 88.c 89.a 90.a 91.c 92.c 93.a 94.b 95.b 96.a

97.c 98.d 99.d 100.a

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2015

1. The nature of velocity-time graph for non-uniform motion of an object is:

2. A ball is gently dropped from a height of 20 m. If its velocity increases uniformly at


the rate of 10 m/sec2, after what time will it strike the ground?

(a) 1.414s (b) 2s (c) 4s (d) 1s

3. Which of the following has more if their size is same:

(a) A rubber ball. (b) A stone ball (c) a plastic ball (d) an iron ball

4. An object weights 12 N when measured on the surface of the earth, what would
be its weight when measured on the surface of the moon?

(a) 12 N (b) 1 N (c) 3 N (d) 2 N

5. A block of wood is kept on a table top. The mass of wooden block is 10 kg and its
dimensions are 50cm x 20cm x 10cm. What would be the pressure exerted by the
wooden block on the table top, if it is made to lie on the table top with its sides of
dimension 20cm x 10cm:

(a) 2450 N/m2 (b) 4900 N/m2 (c) 980 N/m2 (d) 9800 N/m2

6. An object of weight 120 N is at a certain height above the ground. If the potential
energy of the object is 480J , the height at which the object is with respect to the
ground will be:
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(a) 0.25 m (b) 4 m (c) 0.4 mm (d) 25m

7. Two girls A and B each of weight 400 N climb up a rope through a height of 10 m.
Girl A takes 25s while girl B takes 50s to accomplish this task. The comparison of
power spent by two girls is:

(a) Both equal (b) Girl A has more power

(c) Girl B has more power (d) none of the above.

8. A person clapped his hands near a minaret and heard the echo after 4s. What is
the distance of the minaret from the person if the speech of the sound is taken as
344 m/s?

(a) 1376 m (b) 688 m (c) 2752 m (d) 344m

9. If the object is placed between centre of curvature C and focus F , the position of
the image by a concave mirror is

(a) At the focus F (b) at C (c) beyond C (d) behind mirror

10. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of -15 cm.
The mirror and lens are likely to be:

(a) Both concave (b) both convex

(c) mirror concave, lens is convex (d) mirror convex, lens concave

11. Which diagrams shows the defect of hypermetropia:

(a) (b)

(c) (d) None of the above

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12. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the :

(a) Pupil (b) Retina (c) ciliary muscles (d) Iris

13. A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 20 min. Find the
amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit?

(a) 300 C (b) 600 C (c) 20 C (d) 200 C

14. 100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistance. find the potential
difference across the resistor:

(a) 10 V (b) 200V (c) 30V (d) 20 V

15. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit :

(a) Reduce substantially (b) does not change

(c) increase heavily (d) vary continuously

16. Which is not the part of electric motor:

(a) Insulated copper wire (b) coil

(c) split rings (d) stationary brushes( different position)

17. Biogas contains about:

(a) 29% Methane (b) 80% Methane (c) 92% Methane (d) 75% Methane

18. The cause of reddening of the sun and twinkling of the stars respectively is:

(a) Scattering of light and atmosphere

(b) Atmospheric refraction and scattering of light

(c) Dispersion and Tyndall effect

(d) Tyndall effect and dispersion

19. Dry ice is also known as :

(a) H2O in solid state (b) CaCO3 (c) CO2 (d) D2O

20. Brass is a mixture of :

(a) 20% Zinc, 80% iron (b) 30% zinc, 70% copper

(c) 30% zinc , 70% copper (d) 30% iron, 70% copper.

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21. A solution contains 20g common salt in 520 g of water. The concentration in
terms of mass by mass percentage of the solution is :

(a) 4.02% (b) 11.1% (c) 3.84% (d) 3.70%

22. According to the law of constant proportion in ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen
are present in the ratio (by mass)

(a) 1:8 (b) 3:14 (c) 8:1 (d) 14:3.

23. Which among the following is a tetra- element:

(a) Oxygen (b) Helium (c) phosphorous (d) neon.

24. Isotopes have:

(a) Same mass number and different atomic number.

(b) Same atomic number and different atomic mass.

(c) Same number of protons and neutrons

(d) Same number of electrons.

25. What is correct electronic configuration of aluminium?

(a) 2,8,1 (b) 2,8 (c) 2,8,2 (d) 2,8,3

ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
26. 2Pb(NO3)2 (s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2 (g) is an example of :

(a) Displacement reaction (b) decomposition reaction

(c) Double displacement reaction (d) oxidation and reduction

27. Which of the following is an example of redox reaction:

(a) 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO (b) 2AgBr → 2Ag + Br

(c) ZnO + C → Zn +CO (d) 2H2+ O2 →2H2O.

28. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is :

(a) =5.5 (b) >5.5 (c) <5.5 (d) =6.0

29. Washing soda is obtained by the recrystallisation of :

(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate. (b) bleaching powder

(c) sodium hydroxide (d) sodium carbonate

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30. What is the correct order of reactivity of metals in increasing order?

(a) A> Me > Ca>Cu (b) Na>Ca>Mg>Zn

(c) Cu>Ca>Al>Me (d) Au>Ag>Hg>Cu

31. The alloy of Mercury is called:

(a) Brass (b) Bronze (c) Amalgam (d) Steel

32. Give name of the structure:

(a) Propanone (b) Prapanol (c) Propanal (d) Propene

33. What is the structure of functional group carboxylic acid:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

34. The atomic size :

(a) increases down the group (b) Decreases down the group

(c) Increases along the period (d) first increases then decreases in period.

35. cells were first discovered by:

(a) Robert hooke (b) Scheilden (c) Schwann (d) Virchow.

36. Which out of the following is not an example of pteridophyta:

(a) Marsilea (b) Ferns (c) Horse tails (d) Funaria

37. Which of the following is not a vertebrate?

(a) Dog fish (b) Rana tigrina (c) Turtle (d) Starfish

38. Who amongst the following received Nobel prize for the physiology and medicine
in 2005

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(a) Marshall and Warren (b) William and Anderson

(c) Amartya Sen (d) Abdus Salam

39. The process in which water evaporates and falls on the land as rain and latter
flows back into the sea via rivers is called:

(a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle (c) water cycle (d) none of the above

40. The xylem in plants are responsible for :

(a) Transport for water (b) Transport for food

(c) Transport for amino acids (d) Transport of oxygen

41. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes in :

(a) Cytoplasm (b) mitochondria (c) chloroplast (d) nucleus

42. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human
beings?

(a) Ovary (b) Uterus (c) Vas deferens (d) Fallopian Tube.

43. The anther contains:

(a) Sepals (b) Ovules (c) Carpel (d) Pollen grains

44. An example of homologous organ is:

(a) Our arm and a dog’s fore-leg

(b) Our teeth and an elephant ‘s tusks

(c) Potato and runners of grass

(d) All of the above

45. Which of the following groups does not contain only biodegradable items?

(a) Grass, flowers and leather (b) Grass, wood and plastic

(c) Fruit peels, cake and lime juice (d) Cake, wood and grass.

46. Which of the following constitute a food chain?

(a) Grass, wheat and mango. (b) Grass, goat and human

(c) Goat, cow and elephant (d) Grass, fish and goat.

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47. Which of the following are environment friendly practices?

(a) carrying cloth bags to put purchases while shopping.

(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans.

(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.

(d) All of the above.

48. The kidneys in Human beings are a part of the system for:

(a) Nutrition (b) Respiration (c) Excretion (d) Transportation.

49. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires :

(a) Carbon dioxide and water (b) chlorophyll

(c) Sunlight (d) All of the above

50. A sexual reproduction takes place through budding in:

(a) Amoeba (b) Yeast (c) Plasmodium (d) Leishmania

51. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) Every integer is a rational number.

(b) Every whole number is a natural number

(c) There are infinitely many rational numbers between any two given rational
numbers.

(d) Every real number is represented by a unique point on the number line.

52. Factors of x3 – 23x2 +142x -120 are:

(a) (x+1) (x-10) (x-12) (b) (x+1) (x+10) (x-12)

(c) (x-1) (x-10) (x-12) (d) (x+1) (x-10) (x+12)

53. It is given that ∠XYZ=64˚ and XY is produced to point P. If ray YQ bisects ∠ZYP,
the reflex ∠QYP is:

(a) 322° (b) 290° (c) 120° (d) 302°

54. In the figure ∠X=62˚ and ∠XYZ = 54˚. If YO and ZO are the bisectors of ∠XYZ
and ∠XZY respectively of ∆XYZ, ∠YOZ will be:

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(a) 110° (b) 121° (c) 142° (d) 108°

55.Which of the following is not correct?

(a) Two circles of the same radii are congruent.

(b) Two squares of same side are congruent

(c) In a triangle; angle opposite to larger side is smaller

(d) Sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side.

56. In figure ∠PQR =100˚ where P, Q, R are points on a circle with centre O.
The ∠OPR is :

(a) 30˚ (b) 45˚ (c) 10˚ (d) 60˚

57. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at a point E. If


∠DBC=70˚ , ∠BAC=30˚. Find ∠BCD

(a) 80˚ (b) 90˚ (c) 70˚ (d) 60˚

58. The sides of a triangular plot are in ratio 3:5:7 and its perimeter is 300m. It’s area
in sq.m. is:

(a) 3000 (b) 1580 (c) 1500√3 (d) 1600√2

59. A field is in shape of a trapezium whose parallel side are 25 m and 10 m. The
non parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. The area of a field in sq.m is:

(a) 120 (b)142 (c) 180 (d) 196.

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60.The diameter of a roller is 84 cm and its length is 120 cm. It takes 500 complete
revolutions to move once over to a playground. The area of playground in sq.m is:

(a) 1482 (b) 1584 (c) 1678 (d) 1614

61. the curved surface area of a cone is 308 cm 2 and its slant high is 14 cm. The
total surface area of cone in sq.cm. is

(a) 312 (b) 412 (c) 362 (d) 462.

62. Twenty seven solid iron spheres each of radius r and s are melted to form a
sphere with surface area S. The ratio of S and S is:

(a) 1:9 (b) 1:6 (c) 1:4 (d) 1:3

63. In a mathematics test given to 15 students, the following (marks out of 100) are
recorded 41, 39, 48, 52, 46, 62, 54, 40, 96, 52,9,8,40,42,52,60. The median of the
data is:

(a) 46 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 60

64. Eleven bags of wheat flour; each marked 5 kg actually contained the following
weights of flour (in kg)

4.97, 5.05, 5.08, 5.03, 5.00, 5.06, 5.08, 4.98, 5.04, 5.07, 5.00

Find the probability that any of these bags chosen at random contains more than 5
kg of flour.

(a) 9/11 (b) 8/11 (c) 7/11 (d) 6/11

65. The LCM of 6, 72 and 120 is 360, their HCF is :

(a) 120 (b) 6 (c) 72 (d) none of these.

66. On dividing x3-3x2+x+2 by a polynomial g(x), the quotient and remainder are x-2
and -2x +4 respectively. The g(x) is :

(a) x2+x+1 (b) x2-x+1 (c) x2+x+1 (d) x2-x-1

67. Five years hence, the age of William will be three times of his son. Five years
ago, William’s age was seven times that of his son. The present age of William in
years is:

(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 40 (d) 35

68. The sum and product of two numbers is 27 and 182 respectively. One of these
is:

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14

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69. Sum of the areas of two squares is 468 m2. The difference of their perimeters is
24m. The side of the large square in m is:

(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12

70. The sum of first 51 terms of an AP whose second and third terms are 14 and 18
respectively is:

(a) 5212 (b) 5458 (c) 5610 (d) 5647

71. Three points A (2, 3), B (4,k) and C (6,-3) are collinear .The value of l is:

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0


1
72. In a triangle ABC, right angled at B, If tan A= , the value of cosA cosC-sinA
√3
sinC will be:

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) +1 (d) -1/2

73. The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40m longer
when Sun’s altitude is 30˚ than when it is 60˚, the height of tower in m is:
20
(a) 20√3 (b) 20 (c) (d) 10
√3

74. PQ is a chord of length 8cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q
intersect at a point T, the length TP in cm is:

(a) 8/3 (b) 20/3 (c) 17/3 (d) 11/3

75. From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical
cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. The total surface area
of the remaining solid in cm2 is:

(a) 17.6 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 8.6

76. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. The area swept by the minute
hand is 5 minutes, in cm2,is:

(a) 154/3 (b) 190/3 (c) 120 (d) 69

77. The area of the shaded region in cm2 where ABCD is a square of side 10 cm
with semicircles drawn on each side the square as diameter, is:

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(a) 300/7 (b) 400/7 (c) 50 (d) 250/7

78. Two cubes each of volume 64 cm3 are joined to end. The surface area of
resulting cuboid in cm2 is:

(a) 140 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d)170

79. A cone of height 24cm and radius of base 6 cm is made up of modelling clay. Itis
reshaped form of a sphere. The radius of sphere in cm is:

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 5

80. A 20 m deep well with diameter 7 m is dug and earth from digging is evenly
spread out to form a platform 22m x 14m, the height of platform in m is:

(a) 4 (b) 3.5 (c) 3 (d) 2.5

81. The man Booker prize this year has been won by:

(a) Richard Flanagan (b) Jerome Peter (c) A.C Greyling (d) P. Guidhall

82. Ashraf Ghani is the :

(a) Prime minister of Tunisia. (b) President of Afghanistan.

(c) Secretary General of W.H.O (d) Famous poet of Pakistan.

83. If President of India has to resign, he has to address his resignation letter to the:

(a) Prime minister (b) Speaker (c) Vice-President (d) Chief justice

84. Who among the following is known as the ‘Blade Runner’?

(a) Oscar Pistorius (b) Milkha Singh (c) Usain Bolt (d) Kobe Bryant

85. 38th parallel is the boundary line between:

(a) USA and Canada (b) Turkey and Cyprus

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(c) Pakistan and Afghanistan (d) North and South Korea

86. MI-5 is the secret agency of :

(a) U.S.A (b) Israel (c) U.K (d) Fance.

87. Who is the Chief Economic Adviser of the Prime Minster?

(a) Arvind Subhramaniam (b) Rajiv Mehrishi (c) D.S Rawat (d) Rajan Pillai

88. Which of the following is the World’s highest dam?

(a) Nurek (b) Guri (c) Rogun (d) Tehri

89. How many countries participated in the modern Olympics in 1896?

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 15

90. Which of these is not a desert?

(a) steppe (b) Kolahari (c) Sahara (d) Patagonia.

91. Annual fair held during Pre-Islamic period was called :

(a) Suq (b) Ukaz (c) Haj (d) Bait

92. Abraha who led an expedition to ka’abah was ruler of:

(a) Makkah (b) Habsha (c) Taif (d) Yathrib

93. Who was the foster mother of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH):

(a) Aaminah (b) Halima Saadiyah (c) Thuraybah (d) Umm-e-Kulsoom

94. Who become the guardian of Prophet Muhammad (PUBH) after the death of his
grandfather ?

(a) Abu Lahab (b) Abu Jahal (c) Abdul Muttalib (d) Abu Talib

95. Who is referred as-Ruhul-Ameen?

(a) Jibrael (b) Mika’il (c) Israfil (d) Iblis

96. The holy Quran is the book of ?

(a) Allah (b) Prophet Muhammad (PUBH)

(c) Hazrat Abu Bakr (d) Hazrat Ali

97. Prophet Hood is sealed after Prophet........

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(a) Hazrat Ibrahim (b) Hazrat Ismail

(c) Hazrat Ishaq (d) Prophet Muhammad (PUBH)

98. Al-Qutubul Sitta (Six) are the collection of?

(a) Fiqah (b) Tasawwuf (c) Quran (d) Hadith.

99. The term “ Tasawwuf” means :

(a) Sufi Movement

(b) Islamic Law

(c) Sayings doings and deeds of Prophet Muhammad (PUBH)

(d) Various aspects of Islam.

100. Who is known as toot-i-Hind?

(a) Hazrat Nizamuddin (b) Amir khusrow

(c) Baba Farid Ganj-e-Shakar (d) Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlawi

Answer Key 2015

1. b 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.b 6.b 7.b 8.b 9.c 10.a 11.b 12.c

13.b 14.d 15.c 16.d 17.d 18.a 19.c 20.c 21.d 22.d 23.c 24.b

25.d 26.b 27.c 28.c 29.d 30.b 31.c 32.c 33.d 34.a 35.a 36.d

37.d 38.a 39.c 40.a 41.b 42.c 43.d 44.d 45.b 46.b 47.d 48.c

49.d 50.b 51.b 52.c 53.d 54.b 55.c 56.c 57.a 58.c 59.d 60.b

61.d 62.a 63.b 64.c 65.b 66.b 67.c 68.d 69.a 70.c 71.d 72.b

73.a 74.c 75.a 76.a 77.b 78.c 79.a 80.d 81.a 82.b 83.d 84.b

85.d 86.c 87.a 88.a 89.c 90.a 91.b 92.b 93.b 94.d 95.a 96.a

97.d 98.d 99.a 100.b

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2016

1. How will you name the following compound? CH3-CH=CH2


(a) Propyne (b) Ethyne (c) Propene (d) Butene
2. Functional group in Butanone is:
(a) -CHO (b) -COOH (c) >C=O (d) -OH
3. The metals stored in oil:
(a) Zn, Li, Na (b) Li, K, Na (c) Li, K, P4 (d) S8, P4, K
4. Electrolysis of Brine gives at anode
(a) H2 gas (b) Cl2 gas (c) O2 gas (d) H2O
5. Removal of oil and dirt from cloth by soap and detergent is due to:
(a) Hydrophobic group (b) Hydrophilic group
(c) Hydrophobic and Hydrophilic group (d) Ionic group
6. Which of these allotropes of carbon is formed of hexagonal arrays being placed in
layers?
(a) Diamond (b) C-60 fullerene (c) Graphic (d) Both (a) and (b)
7. The compound showing highest boiling point:
(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3-CH2-CH3 (c) CH3OH (d) CHCl3
8. The correct order of biological hierarchy from “Kingdom of species” is:
(a) Kingdom, Order, Family, Class, Phylum, Genus, Species
(b) Kingdom, Phylum Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species
(c) Kingdom, Class Order, Phylum , Family, Genus, Species
(d) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, , Genus, Species
9. Members of Phylum Arthropoda lack one of the following features:
(a) Jointed legs (b) Closed type of circulatory system
(c) Blood filled coelomic cavity (d) Exoskeleton
10. Roundworms infect human by:
(a) Penetration of skin by infective larvae
(b) Infective larvae reaching gastro-intestinal tract through improperly cooked pork
(c) Eggs present in contaminated food and water
(d) Autoinfection

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11. Staphylococci is a gram-positive bacteria which stains:
(a) Purple (b) Red (c) Brown (d) Pink
12.The correct different between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is:
(a) In prokaryotes vacuoles are absent while they are present in eukaryotes
(b) Micro-tubulus are present in prokaryotes while absent in eukaryotes
(c) Prokaryotes have smaller nucleus while eukaryotes have bigger nucleus
(d) Lysosome are absent in eukaryotes while they are present in prokaryotes
13. Which is the correct order of increase geological time scale for vertebrate
evolution?
(a) Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Palezoic, Precambrian
(b) Cenozoic, Palezoic, Mesozoic, Precambrian
(c) Precambrian, Cenozoic, Palezoic, Mesozoic
(d) Precambrian, Palezoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
14. The genotype for the blood group AB is:
(a) IAI0 (b) IAIB (c) IBI0 (d) I0I0
15. Which of the following alternative is correct
(a) Jersey & Browa Swiss are breeds of cattle.
(b) Aseel and Leghorn are breeds of poultry.
(c) Pomfret and Bombey duck are domestic fowl.
(d) Rohu and Catla are fresh water fishers.
16. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Primary consumers are key link between and rest of consumers.
(b) Producers convert chemical energy into light energy.
(c) Available energy gradually decrease from higher to lower trophic levels.
(d) Food webs are rate in natural ecosystems.
17. Select the most appropriate statement:
(a) In flowering plants pollen grains and ovules are spatially separated.
(b) In flowering plants pollen grains and ovules are temporally separated.
(c) In flowering plants pollen grains are not indispensable for sexual reproduction.
(d) In flowering plants pollen tube facilitates the delivery of female germ cells to
pollen grains.

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18.To form Polygonum type of embryo sac megaspore nucleus undergoes:
(a) 3-Meiotic divisions (b) 3-Mitotic divisions
(c) 2-Meiotic divisions (d) 2-Mitotic divisions
19. In a dihylicid cross of yellow and round seed and green and wrinkled seeds, F 2
seeds showed the four possible combinations in the ratio of:
(a) 1:1:1:1 (b) 9:3:3:1 (c) 1:2:2:1 (d) 9:6:1:1
20. The correct sequence in the pathway of ‘Reflex’ Arc is’:
(a) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Rely neuron → Effector
(b) Receptor → Rely neuron → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Effector
(c) Receptor → Motor neuron → Rely neuron → Sensory neuron → Effector
(d) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Rely neuron → Effector
21. Kidney has large numbers of filtration units called as:
(a) Flatiron (b) Natron (c) Neuron (d) Nephron
22. The elongated living plants cell with irregularly thickened cell wall belongs to
(a) Collenchyma (b) Parenchyma (c) Fibers (d) Sclerenchyma
23. The breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast (c) Ribosomes (d) Lysosomes

24. If a=-(√35)2, then the value of a2-1/a2 is:

(a) 2(6+√35)2 (b) 4(6+√35)2 (c) -24√35 (d) 24√35


25. Which of the following is an irrational number between 2 and 3?
(a) 2.357357 (b) 2.101001000101…..
(c) 2.05131313….. (d) 2.579
26. Consider the following statements:
Let P(x) and Q(x) be two different polynomials with real coefficients of degrees m
and n respectively, where m≥0 and n≥0, then
Statement I: deg{P(x)-Q(x)}≤d
Statement II: deg{P(x)*Q(x)}=m+n
where ‘d’ is defined as
d = m if m>n
= n if n>m
= m or n if m=n

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and ‘deg’ stands for degree of the polynomial. In your opinion:
(a) Only statement II is true
(b) Both the statements I and II are true
(c) Both the statements I and II are false
(d) Only statement I is true
27. If the polynomial 2x4 +7 x3 -5x2 +24x -16 is divided x2 +4x +k, according to the
division algorithm for the polynomials, the remainder comes out to be x+a, then k
and a will be respectively:
(a) 3,-1 (b) -3,-1 (c) -3,1 (d) 3,1
28. If a triangle ABC one of the angle is 25% more than the sum of other two. Then
the largest angle of the triangle is:
(a) 1200 (b) 1100 (c) 1000 (d) None of these
29. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 20 cm. if each equal side is twice the
base then the length of the three sides of the triangle in cm, are:
(a) 6,6,8 (b) 4,4,12 (c) 7,7,6 (d) 8,8,4
30. For what value of ‘a’ does the following pair of linear equations is inconsistent:
2x +3 y=7,(a-1)x+(a+1)y=3a2 -1
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
31. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have
been 10 km/hr faster. It would have taken 2 hours less than the scheduled time. If
the train were slower by 10 km/hr faster. It would have taken 2 hours less than the
scheduled time. If the train were slower by 10 km/hr. it would have taken 2 hours
less than the scheduled time. If the train were slower by 10 km/hr. it would have
taken 3 hours more than the scheduled time. The distance covered by the train will
be:
(a) 1200 km (b) 1000 km (c) 800 km (d) 600 km
32. The roots of the quadratic equation 25x2 +20x +7=0 are:
(a) Real roots (b) No real roots
(c) Real and unequal (d) Real and equal
33. The real value of p for which the equation x2 +2x +(p2 +1)=0 has real root is:
(a) 2,-3 (b) -2,3 (c) 2,3 (d) No real value
34. The altitude of a right triangle is 5cm less than the base x cm and the
hypotenuse is 6 cm. the quadratic representation of the above situation is:
(a) 2x2 -10x -11=0 (b) x2 -5x-6 (c) x2 +x-29 (d) 2x2 +10x-11=0

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35. If log10 2, log10 (2x -1) and log10 (2x +3) are three consecutive terms of an
arithmetic progression, then:
(a) x=0 (b) x=1 (c) x= log 2 5 (d) x=log10 2
36. Consider the following statements: If a, b, c, d, e are in an arithmetic progression
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 𝑑 𝑒
then: Statement 1: , 𝑥 , 𝑥, 𝑥 , will be in an arithmetic progression, where x≠0,
𝑥 𝑥
Statement II: There exist b1, c1, d1 , e are in an arithmetic progression where b≠ b1,
c≠c1, d≠d1 in your opinion,
(a) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(b) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(c) Both Statement I is and Statement II are true
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
37. In the adjoining figure ABC is an equilateral triangle and C is the centre of the
circle, A and B lie on the circle. What is the area of the shaded region, if the diameter
of circle is 28 cm ?

2 2
(a) (102 3 -49√3) cm2 (b) (103 3 -98√3) cm2

(c) (109 -38√3) cm2 (d) None of these


38.If the radius of cylinder is doubled but height is reduced by 50% the percentage
change in volume is:
(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 100% (d) 25%
39. The mean of 7 observations is 8, A new observation 16 is added. The mean of 8
observation is:
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 24
40. The following frequency distribution
x: 12 15 17 20 24
y: 3 7 9 10 4

is classified as:
(a) Continuous distribution (b) Discrete distribution

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(c) Cumulative distribution (d) Both (a) and (b)
1
41. In an equilateral triangle ABC,D is a point on side BC such that BD=3 BC, then
the ratio AD3 :AB2
(a) 9:7 (b) 1:3 (c) 3:1 (d) 7:9
42. Which one is not the Euclid’s postulate?
(a) A circle can be drawn with any centre and radius
(b) A straight line way be drawn from any one point to any other point
(c) A terminated line can be produced definitely
(d) All right angles are equal to one another.
43. In the given figure, side QP and RQ of ∆ PQR are produced to points S and T
respectively. If < PRQ=650 and < PRQ=700 , then the <SPR is

(a) 450 (b) 1350 (c) 650 (d) 1100


44. The moon is about 384000 km from the earth and its path around earth is
circular. The moon takes 24 hours to complete one orbit. The speed at which the
moon orbits the earth in km/hour is:
(a) 16000 (b) 100571 (c) 50240 (d) 12560
45. ABCD is a parallelogram in which P and Q are mid points of opposite sides AB
and CD, If AQ intersects DP at S and BQ intersects CP at R, then the total number
of parallelogram are:
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4
46. If Cot A + Cos 75° =Tan5° + Sin 15° where A lies between 0° and 90°, then the
value of A is:
(a) 850 (b) 900 (c) 950 (d) 700
47. In the figure. If PQ || RS, ∠MYR=400 and ∠XMY=850, then ∠MXQ is:

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(a) 1250 (b) 950 (c) 1350 (d) 1400
48. From each corner of a square of side 7 cm, a quadrant of circle of radius 2cm is
cut and also a circle of diameter 3 cm is cut, the area of remaining portion of the is
(in cm2):
(a) 9.714 (b) 38.795 (c) 29.375 (d) 19.625
49. A triangular park ABC has sides in the ration of 3:5:7 and its perimeter is 300 m.
A farmer has to put a fence all around it with barbed wire at the rate of Rs. 30 per
meter leaving a space 3.5 m wide for gate on one side. The area of park and cost of
fencing is respectively:

(a) 15000 √3 m2 and Rs.8895 (b) 15000 √15 m2 and Rs.8895

(c) 15000 √15 m2 and Rs.9895 (d) 15000 √3 m2 and Rs.9895


50. The ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3,10) and (6,-8) is divided
by (-1,6) is:
(a) 2:7 (b) 7:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 3:7
51. Which of the following figure lie on the same base and between the same
parallels:

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52. The solution of:
(5 cos2 60 -4sec2 30 -tan245)/sin230 +cos230
61 43−24√3 61 12
(a) (b) (c) - 12 (d) - 61
12 11

53. If A(-4,-2), B(-3,-5), C(3,-2) and D(2,3) are the vertices of a quadrilateral, then the
area of quadrilateral ABCD is (in square units):
(a) 53 (b) 28 (c) 19 (d) 32
54.Who among the following was conferred with the Indira Gandhi award for national
integration on October 31,2015?
(a) C.N.R. Rao (b) E. Sreedharan (c) Karan Singh (d) P.V Rajagopal
55. Who among the following is the author of Dreaming Big My Journey to connect
India released in October 2015
(a) Son Mittal (b) Sam Pitroda (c) Kiran Karnik (d) Rajendra Pawar
56. President of India. Pranab Mukherjee recently announced to impose the
president’s rule in which of the following state?
(a) Kerala (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
57.Which of the following award is given to recognize outstanding achievement in
sports?
(a) Kerala (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
58. Azlan Shah Trophy is associated with which sports?
(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Cricket (d) Volleyball
59. Which of the following is the highest award in the field of literature in India?
(a) Sahitya Academy Award (b) Kabir Samman
(c) Padma Bhusan (d) Gyanpith Award
60. Indian-born Nobel Prize winner Venkat Rat Krishnan is associated with?
(a) Physics (b) Medicine (c) Economics (d) Chemistry

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61.Which city has shut 2,500 firms this year to fight pollution?
(a) Singapore (b) Delhi (c) Shanghai (d) Beijing
62.Fulll form of BRICS
(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
(b) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
(d) Brazil, Russia, India, China and Singapore
63.The first women film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was:
(a) Nargis Dutt (b) Shabana Azmi (c) Madhubala (d) Meena Kumari
64.In which year Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the Scientific Society?
(a) 1861 (b) 1862 (c) 1863 (d) 1865
65. Mohammadan Literacy Society was founded in 1863 in Calcutta by:
(a) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad (b) Sir Syed Ahmad
(c) Justice Mahmood (d) Nawab Abdul Latif
66. Tansen was court musician of which king?
(a) Baz Bahadur (b) Krishna Deva Rai (c) Akbar (d) Ibrahim Adil Shah
67. Who authored the book ‘Humayun Nama’?
(a) Jahagir (b) Abdul Fazal (c) Gulbadan (d) Noor Jahan
68. Amir Khusru was disciple of which Sufi Saint?
(a) Nizamuddin Auliya (b) Shaikh Burhan (c) Baba Farid (d) Qutban
69. The first woman who sucked the Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) after his mother
was:
(a) Thuwaibah (b) Halima (c) Shamama (d) Hanna
70. What is the name of grandfather of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)?
(a) Abdul Muttalib (b) Abdul Lahab (c) Abdul Obaid (d) Abdul Talha
71. Who constructed Alai Darwaza, a gateway to the enclosure of the Quwat-ul-
Islam mosque in Delhi??
(a) Jalaluddin Khilji (b) Alauddin Khilji (c) Ghayasuddin Khilji (d) Ikhteyar Khilji
72. Itmaad-ud-daula, whose tomb is built at Agra, was father in law of which Mughal
emperor?
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb

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73. At the age of twelve, Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) travelled to Syria with his
uncle. What is the name of that Uncle?
(a) Abu Talha (b) Abu Talib (c) Abu Taif (d) Abu Taba
74. The area under speed-time graph represents a physical quantity which has the
unit of:
(a) m (b) m2 (c) ms-1 (d) ms-2
75. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding electromagnet?
(a) Magnetism of an electromagnet can be switched on or off as desired.
(b) Magnetism depends on current passing through the coils of an electromagnet.
(c) The strength of an electromagnet can be changed by changing number of turns
in its coil
(d) The polarity of an electromagnet is fixed and cannot be changed.
76. A 4Ω resistance is doubled on it. Then its new resistance will be:
(a) 4 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 1 Ω (d) 8 Ω
77. An electron enters in a magnetic field at right angle (see figure below).The
direction of force acting on the electron will be:

(a) To the right (b) To the left (c) Out of the page (d) Into the page
78. A positively charged particle projected north by a magnetic field. The direction of
magnetic filed is::
(a) Towards south (b) Toward east (c) Downward (d) Upward
79. The Phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is:
(a) The process of changing a body
(b) The process of generating magnetic field due to current passing through a coil
(c) Producing induced current in a coil due to relative between coil and magnet
(d) The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
80. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. The
magnetic lines of force will be

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(a) Only in horizontal plane around the magnet
(b) Only in vertical plane around the magnet
(c) In horizontal as well in vertical plans around the magnet
(d) In all the plane around the magnet
81. The diagram given below represents magnetic field caused by a current carrying
conductor which is:

(a) A long straight wire (b) A circular coil


(c) A solenoid (d) A short straight wire
82. An object is put in three liquids having densities one by one. The object floats
1 2 3
with 9 , 11 , 7 parts of its volume outside the surface of liquids of densities d1, d2 and
d3 respectively, which of the following is the correct order of the densities of the
three liquids?
(a) d1>d2>d3 (b) d2>d3>d1 (c) d1<d2<d3 (d) d3>d2>d1
83.Four balls A,B, C & D displace 10 ml, 24 ml, 15 ml and 12 ml of a liquid
respectively, when immersed completely. The ball which will undergo the maximum
apparent loss in the weight will be::
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
84. The gravitational force between two objects is F. how will this force changes
when distance between them is reduced to half?
(a) F/4 (b) 4F (c) 2F (d) F/2
85. Which among the following bodies is more energetic ?
(a) mass M & speed 2V (b) mass M & speed V
(c) mass 2M & speed V (d) mass 3M & speed V/2
86. A red of mass ‘m’ & length ‘l’ is lying on a horizontal table. Work done in making
it stand on one end will be:
(a) mgl (b) mgl/2 (c) mgl/4 (d) 2mgl

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87. If the sound wave is produced by vibrating tuning fork shows in figure then half of
time period is represented by:

(a) AB (b) BD (c) DE (d) AE


88. A boy 1.5 m tall with his eyes level at 1.38 m stands before a mirror fixed on a
wall. What should be the minimum length of the mirror so that he can view himself
fully?
(a) 1.5 m (b) 3.0 m (c) 0.75 m (d) 1.38 m
89. An erect image 3 times of the size of the object is object is obtained with a
concave mirror of radius of curvature 36 cm. what is the position of the object from
the mirror?
(a) 3 cm (b) -6 cm (c) 18 cm (d) -12 cm
90. The power of a plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curved
surface 15 cm would be:
(a) 3.33 dioptre (b) 1.5 dioptre (c) 30 dioptre (d) 15 dioptre
91. A change of state from solid to gas is called
(a) Fusion (b) Fission (c) Sublimation (d) Evaporation
92. The number of particles in 8g O2 is:
(a) 1.75 X 1023 (b) 1.89 X 1023 (c) 1.99 X 1023 (d) 1.51 X 1023
93. In periodic table, period II has following elements:
(a) Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, FR (b) B, Be, O, N, Li, C
(c) Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra (d) Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S
94. Orange juice was diluted 10 times. Its pH will:
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) remain unchanged (d) will become neutral
95. What is the correct order of relative activities of metals:
(a) K<Na<Ca>Mg (b) Na>K>Ca>Mg
(c) Na>K>Mg>Ca (d) Mg>Ca>K>Na

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96. How many moles of 3.6 g of water will contain?
(a) 0.2 moles (b) 0.5 moles (c) 1.0 moles (d) 2.0 moles
97. Which one of the following is not possible?
(a) Fe + CuSO4→ FeSO4 +Cu (b) Pb + FeSO4 → PbSO4 +Fe
(c) Cu +2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 +Ag (d) Zn +MgSO4→ ZnSO4 +Ag
98.Milky colour formation in lime water on passing CO2 gas is due to?
(a) Formation CaCO3 (b) Formation Ca(HCO3)2
(c) Formation Cao (d) Formation of CaCl2
99. Which of the following statement is not true about metal oxides?
(a) Most of the metal oxides are basic in nature
(b) Most of the metal oxides are insoluble in water
(c) Most of the metal oxides are acidic in nature
(d) Some metal oxides are amphoteric in nature
100. For a reaction
3MnO2 (s) +4X(s) → 3 Mn (l) + 2X2O3 (s)
Which of the following metals substitute ‘X’?
(a) Al (b) Ag (c) Cu (d) Hg

Answer Key 2016

1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(a) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10.(c)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(a)
21.(d) 22.(a) 23.(a) 24.(c) 25.(b) 26.(c) 27.(b) 28.(c) 29.(c) 30.(a)
31.(d) 32.(b) 33.(d) 34.(a) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(c) 39.(b) 40.(b)
41.(d) 42.(c) 43.(b) 44.(b) 45.(d) 46.(a) 47.(c) 48.(c) 49.(a) 50.(a)
51.(*) 52.(c) 53.(b) 54.(d) 55.(b) 56.(b) 57.(b) 58.(b) 59.(d) 60.(d)
61.(d) 62.(a) 63.(a) 64.(b) 65.(d) 66.(c) 67.(c) 68.(a) 69.(a) 70.(a)
71.(b) 72.(b) 73.(b) 74.(a) 75.(d) 76.(c) 77.(d) 78.(d) 79.(c) 80.(d)
81.(b) 82.(*) 83.(b) 84.(b) 85.(a) 86.(b) 87.(b) 88.(c) 89.(d) 90.(a)
91.(c) 92.(d) 93.(b) 94.(a) 95.(a) 96.(a) 97.(b) 98.(a) 99.(c) 100.(a)

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2017

1. The value of m in -3(m-2) >12 is


(a) m>-2 (b) m<2 (c) m<-6 (d) m<-2
2. If (x100+2x99+k) is divisible by (x+1), then the value of k is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) -2 (d) -3
3. Two complementary angles are such that twice the measures of the one is equal
to three times the measure of the other. The larger of the two measures
(a) 720 (b) 540 (c) 630 (d) 360
4. Points A and B are 60 km apart. A bus starts from A and another from Bat the
same time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 6 hours and if they go in
opposite directions, they meet in 2 hours. The speed of the bus with greater speed is
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 20 km/hr (c) 30 km/hr (d) 40 km/hr
5.Find the ratio in which the line segment joining A(1,-5) and B(-4,5) is divided by the
x-axis
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 1:2
6. In the given figure, ray OS stands on a line POQ, ray OR and ray OT are angle
bisectors of ∠POS and ∠SOQ respectively. If ∠POS=y, ∠ROT equals

(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 900 (d) 1200


7. In the adjoining figure AD, AE and BC are tangents to the circle at D, E, F
respectively. Then

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(a) 4AD-AB+BC+AC (b) 3AD-AB+BC+AC
(c) 2AD-AB+BC+AC (d) AD-AB+BC+AC
8. The pillars of a building are cylindrically shaped. If each pillar has a circular base
of radius 20 cm and height 10 m, concrete required to build 14 such pillars
(a) 8.8 m3 (b) 1.256 m3 (c) 17.6 m3 (d) 12.56 m3
9. A die is thrown 1000 times with the frequencies for the outcomes 1,2,3,4,5,5 as
given in the table
Outcome 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency 179 150 157 149 175 190

(a) 0.81 (b) 0.19 (c) 0.15 (d) 1.0


10. The mean of 15 observation is 36. The mean of the first 13 observations is 32
and that of last 13 observations is 39. What is the value of the 13th observation?
(a) 20 (b) 23 (c) 32 (d) 40
11. Rational form of 0.001 is
(a) 1/99 (b) 1/199 (c) 1/999 (d) 1/111
𝑥 𝑦
12. If 𝑦 + 𝑥 =1, where x ≠0, y ≠0, then the value of (x3-y3) is

(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) ½


13. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditure is
4:3. If each of them saves Rs.200 per month. Find their monthly incomes
(a) Rs.1200, Rs.800 (b)Rs.1800, Rs1400
(c) Rs.1000, Rs.7000 (d) Rs.9000, Rs.7000
14. X takes 3 hours more than Y to walk 30 km. But if X doubles his pace, he is
1
ahead of Y by 12 hours, Then, the speeds of X and Y are
10 10
(a) km/hr, 10 km/hr (b) 10 km/hr, km/hr
3 3
10
(c) km/hr, 5 km/hr (d) 10 km/hr, 5 km/hr
3

15. A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/h in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24
km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. The speed of the stream
is
(a) 6 km/h (b) 54 km/h (c) 60 km/h (d) 8 km/h
16. A person on tour has Rs.360 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for 4 days.
Ha has to cut down his daily expenses by Rs.3. Then the original duration of the tour
is
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 18

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17. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breath is 3 m less than its length. Its
area is to be 4 square meters more than the area of a park that has already been
made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the
rectangular part and of altitude 12 m. The length and breadth are:
(a) 7 m, 4 m (b) 8 m, 5 m (c) 6 m, 3 m (d) 9 m, 6 m
18. How many terms of the AP 24, 21, 18 __ must be taken so that their sum is 78?
(a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 4 and 13 both (d) None of these
19. If A(5,2), B(2,-2) and C(-2,t) are the vertices of right angled triangle with ∠B=900 ,
then value of t:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4
20. In a , the medians BE and CF intersects at G, AGD is a line meeting BC in D. If
GD=1.5 cm then AD is equal to :
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4.5 cm (d) 4 cm
3
21.If 3x=cosec θ, and 𝑥 = cot θ , then 3(x2 -1/x2)=?
1 1 1 1
(a) 21 (b) 81 (c) 3 (d) 9
𝐵+𝐶
22. If A,B and C are interior angles of a triangle ABC, then sin( )=
2

(a) Sin A/2 (b) Cos A/2 (c) -Sin A/2 (d) -Cos A/2
23. sec A (1-sinA)(sec A + tan A) equals:
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) -1
24. From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on
opposite sides of the river are 300 and 450 respectively. If the bridge is at a height of
3m from the banks. The width of the river is:

(a) 3√3 m (b) 3 m (c) 3(√3 -1)m (d) 3(√3 +1)m


25. The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of Rs.24/meter is Rs.5280. The field
is to be ploughed at the rate of Rs.1 per m2. The cost of ploughing the field is:
(a) Rs.1925 (b) Rs.3850 (c) Rs.2925 (d) Rs.5280
26. A cone of height 24 cm and radius of base 6 cm is made up of modelling clay. A
child reshapes it in from of sphere. The radius of sphere is:
(a) 8 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 2 cm
27. A copper rod of diameter 1 cm and length 8cm is drawn into a wire of length 18
m of uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire is:
(a) 1/30 cm (b) 1/90 cm (c) 1/15 cm (d) 1/60 cm
28.If the median of the following series of observation is 40

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30,31,35,x,x+2,45,48,49
(a) 41 (b) 39 (c) 42 (d) 43
29. In a musical chair game, the person playing the music has been advised to stop
playing the music at any time within 2 minutes after she starts playing. What is the
probability that the music will stop within the first half-minutes after starting?
(a) 1/4 (b) ½ (c) 1/8 (d) 1
30. A bag contains 4 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a
blue ball is double that of red ball, find the number of the blue balls in the bag:
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
31.Which is highest honour of award given for achievement in sports:
(a) Arjuna Award (b) Dronacharya Award
(c) Dhayan Chand Award (d) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
32.Which is highest honour of award given for achievement in sports:
(a) Ranji Trophy (b) Agha Khan Cup
(c) Davis cup (d) Walker Cup
33. The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) is location in the Indian State of::
(a) Telangana (b) Nagaland (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim
34. The radius of the earth is approximately _________ kms. :
(a) 4000 (b) 5000 (c) 6000 (d) 7000
35. Which state has become the first Indian to establish cashless system for
distribution of food grains? :
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Punjab (d) Gujrat
36. E. Ahmed, who passed away recently. Was Member of parliament (MP) from
which Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Emakulam (b) Mallapuram (c) Kozhikode (d) Thrissur
37. Who won the Monaco Grand Prix in 2016?
(a) Femando Alonso (b) Nico Hulkenberg
(c) Kimi Rakkonen (d) Lewis Hamilton
38. “A Tale of Two Cities” and “ Oliver Twist” was written by
(a) John Milson (b) William Shakespeare
(c) Lewis Carroll (d) Charles Dickens
39. Where was 2016 Summer Olympics held?
(a) Rio de janeria (b) Los Angeles (c) Montreal (d) Paris

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40.Who was the first President of United States of America?
(a) Donald Trump (b) George Washington
(c) George Bush (d) Abraham Lincoln
41. Madrasatul Uloom was establish by Syed Ahmed Khan in:
(a) 1895 AD (b) 1865 AD (c) 1875 AD (d) 1870 AD
42. Which of the following was not a Mughal emperor?
(a) Babur (b) Bahadur Shah (c) Sher Shah (d) Aurangzeb
43. Whose tomb is situated in Delhi?
(a) Moinuddin Chishti (b) Nizamuddin Aulia
(c) Sheikh Ahmed Sir Hindi (d) Baba Farid Ganjshakar
44. Who gave the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Molana Hasrat Mohani (d) Molana Abdul Kalam Azad
45. The first Indian expectation of Muhmmad Ghauri was:
(a) 1225 AD (b) 1175 AD (c) 1078 A (d) 975 AD
46. What is the old name of Madinah-tul-Munawarh?
(a) Taif (b) Yasrib (c) Hijaz (d) Yemen
47. Uncle of Prophet, Hamzah was killed in the:
(a) Battle of Badar (b) Battle of Ahzab
(c) Battle of Yamamah (d) Battle of Uhad
48. Before the Prophethood Muhammad (PBUH) was:
(a) A traveller (b) A trader (c) A farmer (d) A herdsman
49 The first Prophet of Allah was:
(a) The Prophet Nuh (b)The Prophet Ibrahim
(c) The Prophet Ishaq (d) The Prophet Adam
50. The Life Hereafter is known in Islam as:
(a) Qayamat (b) Mahshar (c) Jannat (d) Akhirat
51. The position of An object moving along x-axis is given by x=a+bt2 where a=8.5
m, b=2.5 m/s2 and t is measured in seconds. What is the average velocity between
t=2s and t=4s?
(a) 15 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 20 m/s (d) 12 m/s

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52. The displacement of a wave travelling in x-direction is given by y=10-3 sin(800t-
2x+π/3) Where x is expresses in meters and t in seconds. The speed of wave
motions(in ms-1) is:
(a) 400 (b) 800 (c) 1200 (d) 200
53. In a tug of war, a 100 kg mass is hanged from the midpoint of the rope. The force
that each side should exert to make the rope horizontal again is
(a) 980 N (b) 9800/2 N (c) 9800 N (d) ∞
54. A machine gun has a mass of 20 kg. It fires 35 gm bullets at the rate of 400
bullets per minutes with a speed of 400 m/s. What force must be applied to the gun
to keep it in position?
(a) 93.3 N (b) 933 N (c) 9.33 N (d) 9330 N
55. Two masses of 1 g and 9 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of
the magnitudes of their respective linear momenta is:
(a) 1:9 (b) 9:1 (c) 1:3 (d) 3:1
56. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. If the
object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-way down (g=10 m/s2).
(a) 2000 J (b) 1000 J (c) 200 J (d) 100 J
57. If the two liquids of same mass but densities d1 and d2 respectively are mixed,
then the density of mixture is:
𝑑1+𝑑2 𝑑1+𝑑2 2𝑑1𝑑2 𝑑1𝑑2
(a) d= (b) d= 2𝑑1𝑑2 (c) d=𝑑1+𝑑2 (d) d=𝑑1+𝑑2
2

58. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth of 2m is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man will be (density of
water=100 kg/m3)
(a) 60 kg (b) 72 kg (c) 12 kg (d) 128 kg
59. The distance travelled by sound in air, when tuning fork of frequency 560HZ
makes 30 vibrations, will be : (speed of sound in air=336 m/s)
(a) 18 cm (b) 1.8 m (c) 18 m (d) 0.18 m
60. The pitch of sound is:
(a) Directly proportional to frequency of vibration
(b) Inversely proportional to frequency of vibration
(c) Directly proportional to amplitude of vibration
(d) Inversely proportional to amplitude of vibration
61. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 W, then R is

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(a) 2 Ω (b) 6 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 4 Ω
62. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in
parallel. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 4:1 (d) 1:4
63. When the same current is passed for the same time through different electrolyte
solutions, the amount of substance deposited at the electrodes are in the ratio of:
(a) Chemical equivalent weights (b) Atomic weights
(c) Specific gravities (d) Atomic Numbers
64. Figures shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive
index of medium B, relative to medium A is:

√3 √2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) √2
√2 √3 √2

65. Power of a lens is -2.0 D. The focal length and type of lens are respectively:
(a) -50 cm, convex, lens (b) -50 cm, concave lens
(c) +50 cm, convex lens (d) +50 cm, concave lens
66. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?
(a) Wood (b) gobar-gas (c) nuclear energy (d) coal
67. Uneven heating of air over and water bodies causes
(a) Winds (b) Tides (c) Rain (d) All of these
68. Which of the following energy is absorbed during the change of the state of a
substance?
(a) Specific heat (b) Latent heat (c) Heat capacity (d) Heat of solution

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69. The process involving the change of state from solid to gas is:
(a) Boiling (b) Melting (c) Fusion (d) Submission
70. Which one of the following properties is not correct for a suspension?
(a) Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture
(b) The particles of suspension can be seen by the naked eye
(c) The particles of a suspension scatter a beam of light passing through it and make
its path visible
(d) They can not be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration
71. Face cream is a
(a) Gel-type colloids (b) From type colloids
(c) Aerosol type colloids (d) Emulsion type colloids
72. The mass of one molecules of methane is
(a) 16 g (b) 32 g (c) 6.023 x 1023 g (d) 2.66 x 1023 g
73. The number of neutrons present in 26 g of 6C13 are :
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8.43 x 1024 (d) 4.21 x 1023
74. In Rutherford atomic model a particles were stroked on:
(a) Aluminium (b) Gold (c) Silver (d) Titanium
75. Respiration is:
(a) An exothermic process (b) An endothermic process
(c) Neither be exothermic non endothermic (d) can be exothermic non endothermic
76. Which gas is liberated when sodium bi carbonate is reacted with aqueous
hydrochloric acid?
(a) N2 (g) (b) CO2 (g) (c) O2 (g) (d) CO (g)
77. Leaves of nettle have stinging hair and secretes
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Methanoic acid (d) Oxalic acid
78. What is the normality of 0.3 M H3PO4 when it undergoes the reaction as:
H3PO4 +2OH- → HPO3-2 +2H2O
(a) 0.3 N (b) 0.15 N (c) 0.6 N (d) 0.9 N
79. A solution turns red litmus blue, its PH be like to be
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
80. Buckminster fullerene is an allotropic from of

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(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur (c) Carbon (d) Tin
81. The correct name of the below compound is
HC≡CCH2(CH2)3CH3
(a) Butyne (b) Propyne (c) Heptyne (d) Hexyne
82. Benzene with molecular formula, C6H6 has
(a) 6 single bonds and 6 double bonds (b) 12 single bonds and 3 double bonds
(c) 6 single bonds and 3 double bonds (d) 18 singles bonds only
83. Heating of ethanol with excess concentrate H2SO4 at 443 K produces
(a) Ethene and water (b) Acetic acid and water
(c) Acetic acid and hydrogen (d) Methanol and water
84. Which of the following metal have lowest melting point?
(a) Pb (b) Rb (c) K (d) Cs
85. The atomic number of elements which represents a metal is:
(a) 17 (b) 2 (c) 19 (d) 33
86. The major pollutant from automobile exhaust is:
(a) NO (b) CO (c) SO2 (d) Soot
87. The largest group of animal kingdom characterized by bilateral symmetry
segment body and open circulatory system is:
(a) Mollusca (b) Echinodermats (c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida
88. Which is not the characteristic of vertebrate?
(a) Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord (b) Presence of notochord
(c) Acoelomate (d) Triploblastic
89. Oxygenation of blood in human beings occurs in:
(a) Right atrium (b) Left atrium (c) Lungs (d) Left ventricle
90. When terminal phosphate linkage in ATP molecule broken down using water,
energy of ________ is released:
(a) 7 kJ/mol (b) 18.5 kJ/mol (c) 22 kJ/mol (d) 30.5 kJ/mol
91. Existence of four chambered working heart starts from:
(a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia (c) Aves (d) Mammalia
92. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy take place
in:
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus

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93. Which one of the following group of animals are triploblastic and radially
symmetrical?
(a) Nematoda (b) Annelida (c) Echinodermata (d) Vertebrata
94. Which is the dividing tissue presents in the growing regions of the plant?
(a) Adipose tissue (b) Meristematic tissue
(c) Protective tissue (d) Epithelial tissue
95. Which of the following is a complex tissue?
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
96. Which of the following do not produce seeds?
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Angiosperms (c) Pteridophyta (d) None of these
97. Which of the following is not an example of Porifera?
(a) Euplectella (b) Sycon (c) Spongilla (d) Sea Anemones
98. The gap between two neurons is called?
(a) Synapse (b) Axon (c) Neither (a)and (b) (d) both (a) and (b)
99. The anther contains:
(a) Sepals (b) Pollen grains (c) Ovules (d) Carpel
100. An example of homologous organs is:
(a) Our arm and a dog’s foreleg (b) Neither (a) nor (b)
(c) Our teeth and elephant’s tusks (d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer Key 2017


1.d 2.a 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.c 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.c 12.c
13.b 14.c 15.a 16.a 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.c 21.c 22.b 23.c 24.d
25.b 26.b 27.c 28.b 29.a 30.b 31.d 32.a 33.a 34.c 35.d 36.b
37.d 38.d 39.a 40.b 41.c 42.c 43.b 44.c 45.b 46.b 47.d 48.b
49.d 50.d 51.a 52.a 53.d 54.a 55.c 56.d 57.c 58.a 59.c 60.a
61.b 62.d 63.a 64.a 65.b 66.c 67.a 68.b 69.d 70.d 71.d 72.a
73.c 74.b 75.a 76.b 77.c 78.c 79.d 80.c 81.c 82.b 83.a 84.d
85.c 86.b 87.c 88.c 89.c 90.d 91.b 92.b 93.c 94.b 95.c 96.c
97.d 98.a 99.b 100.d

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2018

1. Which of the following is a false statement?

(a) Every positive odd integer is of the form 2q+1, where q is some integer.

(b) Every positive odd integer is of the form 4q+1 or 4q+3, where q is some positive
integer

(c) Every positive od integer is of the form 6q+ or 6q+3 or 6q+5, where q is some
integer.

(d) -5 and -9 are coprime integers.

2. The greatest number among 350, 440, 530, and 620 is

(a) 440 (b) 530 (c) 620 (d) 350

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3. The decimal expansion of is
72 ∗ 175

(a)Terminating (b) Non- terminating and non- repeating

(c) Non terminating and repeating (d) none of these

4. If the lines given by 3𝑥 + 2𝑘𝑦 = 2. and 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 0 are parallel, then the value of
𝑘 is:
5 2 15 3
(a) - (b) 5 (c) (d) 2
4 4

5. 8% of the voters in an election did not cast their votes. In this election, there were
only two candidates. The winner by obtaining 48% of the total votes, defeated his
rival by 1100 votes. The total number of voters in the election was:

(a) 21000 (b) 23500 (c) 22000 (d) 27500

6. If ax2 +bx + c =a( x-p)2, then the relation among a, b, c would be

(a) abc = 1 (b) b2 = ac (c) b2 = 4ac (d) 2b = a+c

7. The sum of all even numbers from 100 to 200 is

(a) 7450 (b) 7550 (c) 7650 (d) 7750

5 2 1
8. How many terms of the arithmetic series + + … .. must be taken in order to
6 3 2
121
obtain a sum of - ?
2

(a) 33 (b)34 (c) 35 (d) 36

9. The sum of all multiples of 7 between 0 and 500 is

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(a) 13916 (b) 17892 (c) 24353 (d) 16984
1
10. What should be added from the following in the expression 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 12𝑥 2 to
make it a perfect square (𝑥 ≠ 0)

(a) 1 (b) −2𝑥 (c) 2𝑥 − 1 (d) 1 − 2𝑥

11. For what values of p is p2-5p+6 negative?

(a) p<0 (b) 2<p<3 (c) p>3 (d) p<2

12. If one of the zeros of the cubic polynomial x3+ax2+bx+c is 0, then the product
of the other two zeros is

(a) 0 (b) a (c) b (d) c

13. If (x3+ax2+bx+6) has ( x-2) as a factor and leaves a remainder 3 when divided by
( x-3), then the values of a and b are:

(a) a= -2, b= -1 (b) a= -1, b= -3

(c) a= -3 (d) a= -3, b= 1

14. Find tan Ɵ if Cos Ɵ = -12/13 and Ɵ lies in the third quadrant
−5 5 1 5
(a) (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 4
12

15. A person observed that he required 30 seconds less time to cross a circular
ground along its diameter than to cover it once along the boundary. If his speed was
22
30 m/minutes, then the radius of the circular ground is ( Take 𝜋 = 7 )

(a) 5.5 m (b) 7.5 m (c) 10.5 m (d) 3.5 m

16. In a rectangle, the angle between a diagonal and a side is 45˚ and the length of
this side is 10 cm. The area of the rectangle is

(a) 100 cm2 (b) 100√2 cm2 (c) 200cm2 (d) 200 √2 cm2

17. In the given fig. AOB is a straight line. If x:y:z = 4:5:6, then y =

(a) 60˚ (b) 80˚ (c) 48˚ (d) 72˚

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𝐶 𝐴
18. If C is the circumference and A is the area of circular disc. Then = if and
𝐴 𝐶
only if the diameter of the circular disc is
𝜋 π
(a) 2 (b) (c) 4 (d)
2 4

19. Refer the adjacent figure. The sum of the angles S = ∑10
𝑖=1(∠𝑖 ) is

(a) 5400 (b) 3600 (c) 10800 (d) 7200

20. If non parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, then it is

(a) a square (b) a rectangle (c) a rhombus (d) a cyclic quadrilateral

21. If are SS’Q (see figure) subtends an angle 1200 at the centre O and RT is the
tangent of the circle at Q, ∠RQS is equal to

(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750

22. In figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AC and BD are its diagonals. If
∠DBC=550 and ∠BAC=450, find ∠BCD

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(a) 750 (b) 850 (c) 1350 (d) 800

23. The ratio in which point (-4,6) divides the line segment joining the points (-6,10)
and (3,-8) , is

(a) 2:7 (b) 1:2 (c) 3:4 (d) None of these

24. If the surface area of a cube is 726, then its volume is

(a) 343 (b) 729 (c) 1331 (d) 1728

25. The radii of bucket are 30 cm and 10 cm respectively. Consider the following
statements

Assertion(A): The volume of the bucket will be 50000 cm2:

Reason(R): The volume can be determined by the subtracting the volume of two
cones made by increasing the curved surface in the forward direction.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.

26. The mean weight of 150 students in a class is 60 kg. The mean weight of the
boys is 70 kg while that of girls is 55 kg. Find the difference of number of boys and
girls.

(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 100

27. If p1, p2, ….. , pn are the probability that certain events happen, then the
probability that at least one of these events happens is

(a) (1-p1). (1-p2)…….. .…………(1-pn)

(b) (1-p1)+ (1-p2)+…….. .…………+(1-pn)

(c) 1-[(1-p1)+(1-p2)+…….. .…………+(1-pn)]

(d) 1-[(1-p1). (1-p2)…….. .…………(1-pn)]

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28. The weights of 15 students (in kg) recorded as 31, 35, 37, 27, 29, 32, 43, 37, 41,
28, 36, 44, 45, 42 has a median of 35 kg. If the weights 44 and 27 are replaced by
46 and 25 them the new median will be

(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 34

29. A company has following information during the year.

Item Rs. (crore)

Labour cost 10

Overheads cost 30

Materials cost 60

In a pie diagram the degree of angle of labour cost is

(a) 360 (b) 720 (c) 1080 (d) 2160

30. A box contains ticket numbered 2,3,4,5….100,101. One ticket is drawn at


random from the box. The probability that the number on the ticket is a perfect
square is
1 4 9 9
(a) (b) 101 (c) 101 (d) 100
10

31. The term “equestrian” is related to

(a) Gymnastics (b) Archery (c) Gymkhana (d) Horse riding

32. what is the name of the first robot that has been given citizenship of Saudi
Arabia?

(a) Rebeka (b) Sophia (c) Anita (d) Maviah

33. “KARAN-J” introduced recently in Indian defence system is a

(a) Helicopter (b) Tank (c) Submarine (d) Aircraft

34. Before becoming the president of India, Mr. Ram Nath Kovind was Governor of
which state?

(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Bihar (c) Jharkhand (d) Uttarakhand

35. Who is the author of the book ‘Asian Drama’?

(a) K.M Panikkar (b) Gunnar Myrdal (c) Jaswant Singh (d) M.S Swaminathan

36. Which state of India has recently declared Urdu as the second official language?

(a) Telangana (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala

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37. In the preamble of Indian Constitution which of the following expression is used?

(a) All the people of India (b) United people of India

(c) We, the people of India (d) People of our India

38. The Khillji dynasty was founded by:

(a) Alauddin Khillji (b) Ghiyasuddin Khilji

(c) Jalaluddin Khilji (d) Bakhtiyar Khilji

39. Who wrote Bang-e-Dara?

(a) Dara Shikoh (b) Iqbal (c) Faiz (d) Sir Syed

40. Which city will host the 2022 commonwealth games?

(a) Vancouver (b) Birmingham (c) Melbourne (d) Colombo

41. Where is Bayt al-Maqdis situated?

(a) in Egypt (b) in Saudi Arabia (c) in Iraq (d) in Palestine

42. One of the following companions is popularly known as jamiul Qur’an (compiler
of the Qur’an)

(a) Hadrat Umar (b) Hadrat Uthman (c) Hadrat Ali (d) Hadrat Abu Zar al-Ghifar

43. Which caliph is known as ‘Abu Turab’

(a) Ali (b) Uthman (c) Abu Bakr (d) Umar

44. The first sultan of the Delhi Sultanate was

(a) Qutbuddin Aibak (b) Ghiyasuddin Balban

(c) Alauddin Khalji (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

45. The mystical work ‘ Majma al-Bahrayn’ was written by :

(a) Aurangzeb (b) Data Ganj Baksh (c) Dara Shikoh (d) Abdul Haq Dehlawi

46. Which of the following books is written by Shah Waliullah ?

(a) Hujjatullah al-Baligha (b) Asbab-i-Baghawat-e-Hind

(c) Qawl-i-Mateen dar Abtal-i-Harkat-i-Zamin (d) Khutut-i-Alamgiri.

47. Scientific society was established at:

(a) Moradabad (b) Bijnor (c) Aligarh (d) Ghazipur.

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48. The Khilafat movement was initiated by

(a) Mohammed Ali (b) Shaukat Ali

(c) Mohd. Ali Jinnah (d) Muhammed Ali and Shaukat Ali

49. Who planted the ‘Tree of Liberty’ at Srirangapatnam

(a) Hyder Ali (b) Tipu Sultan (c) Banda Bahadur (d) Bahadur Shah Jafar

50. Which holy book was translated as the ‘Razmnama’

(a) Ramayana (b) Geeta (c) Mahabharata (d) Adi Grantha

51. A train covers half of its journey at a speed of 10 m/s and the other half at the
sped of 15 m/s. The average speed of the train during the whole journey is

(a) 12.5 m/s (b) 12.0 m/s (c) 7.5 m/s (d) 5.0 m/s

52. A motor boat starting from the rest on the lake accelerates in a straight line at a
constant rate 3.0 m/s2 for 8.0 seconds. How far does the boat travel during this time?

(a) 24 m (b) 64 m (c) 96 (d) 192 m.

53. From the top of a building 40 m tall, a boy projected a stone vertically upwards
with an initial velocity of 10m/s. After how long will it pass through the point where it
was projected? ( Take g= 10m/s2).

(a) 1 second (b) 2 seconds (c) 4 seconds (d) 6 seconds.

54. A force acts for 10 seconds on a body of mass 10-2 kg, initially at rest, after which
the force ceases to act. The body traverses 0.5 m in the next 5 seconds. The
magnitude of the force is :

(a) 9.8N (b) 98 N (c) 10-2 N (d) 10-4N.

55. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the
magnitude of their momenta is:

(a) m1 : m2 (b) m2 : m1 (c)√𝑚1 : √𝑚2 (d) m12 : m22

56. How much momentum will a dumb-bell of mass 10 kg transfer to the floor if it
falls from a height of 80 cm? ( Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 10 kg m/s (b) 40 kg m/s (c) 80 kg m/s (d) 100 kg m/s

57. If R is the radius of the earth and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface
of the earth, the mean density of the earth is
3𝜋𝑅 4𝜋𝐺 4𝑅𝐺 3𝑔
(a) 4𝑔𝐺 (b) (c) 3𝜋𝑔 (d) 4𝜋𝐺𝑅
3𝑔𝑟

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58. A block of wood is kept on a table top. The mass of a wooden block is 5 kg and
its dimensions are 40 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden
block on the table top if it is made to lie on the table top with its sides of dimensions
20cm x 10 cm. ( take g= 10 m/s2)

(a) 1000 N/m2 (b) 1500 N/m2 (c) 2000 N/m2 (d) 2500N/m2.

59. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) The magnitude of buoyant force does not depend on the density of the fluid.

(b) Force of gravitation due to earth is called gravity

(c) the atmospheric pressure at sea level is 105 Pascal.

(d) Relative density has no unit.

60. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is in the frequency range
of:

(a) 5 Hz- 10 kHz (b) 20Hz- 15kHz (c) 20Hz-20kHz. (c) 1kHz-20kHz.

61. How many bulbs of resistance 6 ohms should be joined in parallel to draw a
current of 2 amperes from a battery of 3 volts?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

62. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal
diameters are first connected in series and then parallel in the circuit across the
same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel
combination would be:

(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1

63. A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of
induced current changes once in each

(a) two revolutions (b) one revolution (c) half revolution (d) one-fourth revolution.

64. The frequency of A.C mains in India is:

(a) 0 Hz (b) 50 Hz. (c) 100 Hz. (d) 200 Hz.

65. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having refractive index n. If
c is the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of
glass is

(a) t/nc (b) nt/c (c) n2 t/c (d) t/n2c

66. the focal length of a convex lens is 40 cm. Its power, in dioptre, is

(a) 0.4 (b) 2.5 (c) -2.5 (d) -0.4

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67. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How
far is the object placed from the lens?

(a) 15 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 35cm

68. The formula of oxide of metal ‘M’ is MO. What will be the formula of its
phosphate?

(a) M2(PO4) (b) M(PO4)2 (c) MPO4 (d) M3(PO4)2

69. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution (b) milk (c) Copper sulphate solution (d) none of the above.

70. Colloid is a:

(a) Homogeneous mixture (b) Heterogeneous mixture

(c) Solution (d) both (a) and (b)

In the above reaction, alkaline KMnO4 act as

(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent (c) catalyst (d) Dehydrating agent

72. Melting of wax is:

(a) Physical change (b) Chemical change

(c) Oxidation reaction (d) Reduction reaction.

73. the number of Aluminium ions present in 0.251 g of Al2O3 ( molecular mass=
102) are

(a) 2.96 x 1021 (b) 2.96 x 1020

(c) 1.48 x 1021 (d) 1.48 x 1020

74. bleaching powder is prepared from the reaction of :

(a) Slaked lime and chlorine (b) Quick lime and chlorine
(c) Burnt lime and chlorine (d) Calcium and chlorine

75. During the process of extraction, sulphide ores are usually converted into

(a) Sulphates (b) Oxides (c) Hydroxides (d) Sulphites

76. A solution contains 25 g of common salt in 75 g of water. Calculate the


concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of the solution

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(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 0.50%

77. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?

(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic

78. Which of the following is not a base?


(a) NaOH (b) KOH (c) NH4OH (d) C2H5OH

79. Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl (aq).


The above reaction is a :

(a) Decomposition reaction (b) Redox reaction

(c) Displacement reaction (d) Precipitation reaction.

80. Which is not a homogeneous mixture?

(a) Brass (b) Bronze (c) Steel (d) 24 carat gold

81. A metal ‘M’ forms an oxide with the formula MO. If metal ‘M’ belongs to the third
period of modern periodic table, what is the atomic number of metal ‘M’?

(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 13

82. Which is an example of decomposition reaction ?

(a) NH4CNO →NH2CONH2 (b) Fe + CuSO4→FeSO4 +Cu

(c) 2H2O →2H2 + O2 (d) CaO + H2O→ Ca(OH)2


Alkaline KMnO4 or acidified K2Cr2O7 + heat
83. CH3CH2OH → ....................

The product is

( a) Acetaldehyde (b) Acetic acid (c)Ethanol (d) Potassium ethoxide

84. Which one is the correct example of metalloid?

(a) Caesium (b) Aluminium (c) Gallium (d) Tellurium

85. Gustatory receptor is responsible for detecting the

(a) Taste (b) Smell (c) Pressure (d) Temperature

86. The basic filtration unit of kidney is

(a) ureter (b) Neurons (c) Nephrons (d) Bownan’s capsule

87. If a yellow seeded variety of pea is crossed with a green seeded variety, then in
F1 all the seeds will be

(a) Green (b) Greenish yellow (c) Yellow (d) Yellowish green

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88. Two special cells in a stomata, surrounding the tiny pore are called

(a) Subsidiary cells (b) guard cell (c) Epidermal cell (d) Epiblemal cells

89. The plant hormone which promotes the cell division is

(a) Gibberellin (b) Auxin (c) Cyrtokinin (d) Abscisic acid

90. In an ecosystem the producers are:

(a) All green plants, algae and fungi.

(b) All green plants and certain blue green algae.

(c) All micro-organisms and decomposers

(d) Grasses only

91. Ozone at the higher level of the atmosphere is a product of:

(a) Infrared radiations (b) UV radiations

(c) Atomic radiations (d) Infrared as well as atomic radiations

92. Placenta is responsible for:

(a) Transport of O2 (b) Removal of waste materials

(c) Transport of glucose (d) All of the above

93. Pseudocoelome is present in:

(a) Nematodes (b) Annelids (c) Coelenterate (d) Echinoderms

94. The materials such as starch, oils and protein granules are stored in which of the
cell organelle?

(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (c) Leucoplasts (d) Chromoplasts

95. Branched and uninucleate muscle cells is the characteristics of

(a) Heart muscle (b) Smooth muscle (c) Skeletal muscle (d) Both (a) and (b)

96. The tissue which makes the plant hard and stiff is :

(a) Sclerenchyma (b) Parenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Aerenchyma

97. Sleeping sickness is caused by:

(a) Leishmania sp. (b) Aedes sp. (c) Trypanosoma sp. (d) Ascaris sp.

98. Two chambered heart is the characteristic of

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(a) Fishes (b) Amphibian (c) Reptiles (d) Mammals

99. In human beings sex is determined by

(a) X chromosome (b) Y chromosome

(c) Both X and Y chromosome (d) A and B chromosome

100. Naked seeds are the characteristic feature of

(a) Gymnosperms (b) Bryophytes

(c) Thallophytes (d) Pteridophytes

Answer Key 2018


1.b 2.a 3.a 4.c 5.d 6.c 7.c 8.a 9.b 10.d 11.b 12.c
13.c 14.b 15.* 16.a 17.a 18.c 19.d 20.d 21.c 22.d 23.a 24.c
25.c 26.b 27.d 28.* 29.a 30.d 31.d 32.b 33.c 34.b 35.b 36.b
37.c 38.c 39.b 40.b 41.d 42.b 43.a 44.a 45.c 46.a 47.d 48.d
49.b 50.c 51.b 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.c 56.b 57.d 58.d 59.a 60.c
61.b 62.c 63.c 64.b 65.b 66.b 67.c 68.d 69.b 70.b 71.a 72.a
73.a 74.a 75.b 76.a 77.c 78.d 79.d 80.d 81.b 82.c 83.b 84.d
85.a 86.c 87.c 88.b 89.c 90.b 91.b 92.d 93.a 94.c 95.a 96.a
97.c 98.a 99.c 100.a

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2019

1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with the velocity 20 m/s from the top of a multi-
storey building. The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25m from the
ground. How high will the ball rise from the ground? (g=10m/s2)

(a) 20m (b) 35m (c) 45m (d) 50m

2. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200m in 40


seconds. What will be the distance covered at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds.

(a) 2200m (b) 1200m (c) 700m (d) 200m

3. A vehicle starting from rest attains a speed of 77 km/h after covering a distance of
100 m. if the mass of the vehicle is 500 kg, the force exerted by the engine is

(a) 20N (b) 100N (c) 500N (d) 1000N

4. A ball of mass 0.1 kg strikes a wall normally with a speed of 30 m/s and rebounds
with a speed of 20 m/s. the magnitude of change in momentum of the ball is

(a) 1 kg m/s (b) 2 kg m/s (c) 3 kg m/s (d) 5 kg m/s

5. The gravitational force of attraction between a stone weighing 2 kg and the earth
weighing 6 x 1024 kg is 19.6 Newtons. What will be the acceleration produced in the
earth?

(a) 9.8 m/s2 (b) 19.6 m/s2 (c) 2.2 x 10-24 m/s2 (d) 3.3 x 10-24 m/s2

6. Two objects A and B are immersed in water. The masses of the objects are 200
kg and 100 kg respectively and relative densities are ρA and ρB. if volumes of both
the objects are 2m3, then the ratio of relative densities of B, ρB and A, ρA are
1 1 1 2
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 3

7. What is the work to be done to increase the velocity of a car from 36 km/h to 72
km/h, if the mass of the car is 1500 kg?

(a) 74 x 103 J (b) 150 x 103 J (c) 225 x 103 J (d) 300 x 103 J

8. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How
many energy is this in joules?

(a) 9 x 106 J (b) 9 x 108 J (c) 27 x 108 J (d) 27 x 109 J

9. The motor of a pump lifts 30 kg of water per minute to a height of 6 m. the power
of motor is (g=10 m/s2)

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(a) 180 W (b) 120 W (c) 30 W (d) 90 W

10. A man stands in between two walls and bursts a balloon. He hears two
successive echoes after 0.5 seconds and 2.5 seconds. The distance between the
walls when the speed of sound is 332 m/s, is

(a) 415 m (b) 498 m (c) 518 m (d) 598 m

11. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry a 5 A on a 220 V
line?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

12. A man uses a 100 W bulb 8 hours a day and an electric heater of 300 W for 4
hours a day. The total cost for the month of November at the rate of rupees 4 per
unit will be

(a) Rs.160 (b) Rs.240 (c) Rs.320 (d) Rs.600

13. Which one the following statements is not true?

(a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

(b) An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.

(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel
straight lines.

(d) A wire with a red insulation is usually the live wire of the electric supply.

14. Which one of the following is not a source of biomass energy?

(a) Wood (b) Gobar gas (c) Nuclear energy (d) Coal

15. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a convex mirror. The distance
between its image and the pole is

(a) Less than f (b) between f and 2f (c) equal to 2f (d) greater than 2f

16. A person needs a lens of power -5.0 dioptres for correcting his distant vision.
What is the focal length of the lens required for correcting distant vision?

(a) -0.20 m (b) +0.20 m (c) -0.02 m (d) +0.02 m


3 4
17. The refractive index of glass is 2 and water has refractive index 3. If the speed of
light in glass is 2 x 108 m/s, the speed of light in water in m/s is

(a) 1.50 x 108 (b) 1.78 x 108 (c) 2.25 x 108 (d) 2.67 x 108

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18. The presence of the double layer in colloids accounts for

(a) optical properties (b) kinetic properties

(c) electrical properties (d) stability of colloids

19. The internal energy of a molecule is its

(a) translational energy (b) rotational energy

(c) vibrational energy (d) all of these

20. Which is not true about the solid state?

(a) They have definite shape and volume.

(b) They have high attractive forces among molecules.

(c) They have high vapour pressure.

(d) They have high density and low compressibility.

21. Hydrochloric acid is sold commercially as 12.0 M solution. How many moles of
HCl are in 300.0 mL of 12.0 M solution?

(a) 4 (b) 36 (c) 3.6 (d) 12.3

22. Copper metal has two naturally occurring isotopes: copper – 63 (69.17%;
isotopic mass = 62.94 amu) and copper – 65 (30.83%; isotopic mass = 64.93 amu).
What is the atomic mass of copper?

(a) 62.94 amu (b) 64.93 amu (c) 63.93 amu (d) 63.55 amu

23. The correct order of atomic radius is

(a) S=F=0 (b) F>0>S (c) F<0<S (d) F=0<S

24. An element has two isotopes X35 and X37 found in ratio of 3:1 in nature. The
average mass of the element is

(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 35.5 (d) 36

25. The compound showing addition reaction

(a) C4H10 (b) CH4 (c) C2H2 (d) C3H8

26. Compound showing maximum melting point is

(a) NaCl (b) CaO (c) MgCl2 (d)LiCl

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27. Correct order of electrical conductivity

(a) Al > Cu > Ag > Au (b) Ag > Cu > Al > Au

(c) Ag > Cu > Au > Al (d) Au > Cu > Al > Ag

28. Tomato contains

(a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Oxalic acid

29. Al2O3 reacts with NaOH producing

(a) Al(OH)3 (b) H2 (c) NaAlO2 (d) Na2AlO2

30. The substance which can produce CO2 gas with baking soda solution is

(a) ethanol (b) vegetable oil (c) vinegar (d) soap solution

31. Which is most acidic?

(a) Gastric juice (b) Lemon juice (c) Pure water (d) Blood

32. Which is an olfactory indicator?

(a) Methyl orange (b) Phenolphthalein

(c) Vanilla extract (d) Red cabbage extract

33. What is ‘X’?

CH3CH2OH → X (in presence of conc. H2SO4, and 443K temperature)

(a) CH3CH3 (b) CH2=CH2 (c) CH ≡ CH (d) CH3COOH

34. The molecular formula of unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbon is

(a) C6H14 (b) C6H12 (c) C6H6 (d) C5H10

35. Oxygenated blood from lungs goes directly to the

(a) Right atrium (b) Right ventricle (c) Left atrium (d) Left ventricle

36. The absorption of water due to expenditure of energy is called

(a) Active absorption (b) Passive absorption

(c) Osmotic absorption (d) All of the above

37. The growth inhibiting hormone in plants is

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(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Abscisic acid (d) Gibberellins

38. Cholera is spread by

(a) Breathing in infected air (b) Drinking of contaminated water

(c) Handshaking (d) Blood to blood contact

39. Cold blooded animals are

(a) Which have cold blood (b) Who can regulate their body temperature

(c) Who feel cold a lot (d) Who cannot regulate their body temperature

40. The evolved oxygen during photosynthesis comes from the breakdown of

(a) Glucose (b) CO2 (c) Water (d) Chlorophyll

41. The structure produced along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum and after falling on
soil develops into a new plant is

(a) Seed (b) Spore (c) Bud (d) Fruit

42. In 1987, the united nations environment program (UNEP) succeeded in forging
an agreement to freeze CFC production at

(a) 1980 level (b) 1983 level (c) 1986 level (d) 1987 level

43. Water harvesting is an age old practice in India, as in Rajasthan it was through

(a) Ahars (b) Kulhs (c) Bundhis (d) Khadins

44. Blood pressure and salivation are controlled by

(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla

45. Cells arise from preexisting cells was proposed by

(a) Robert Hauk (b) Robert Brown (c) Purkinje (d) Virchow

46. The phenotypic ratio in Mendelian dihybrid cross is

(a) 9:3:1:3 (b) 9:2:2:2:1 (c) 9:3:3:1 (d) 3:1

47. Which of the following is the correct sequence of classification?

(a) Phylum, class, order, family (b) Phylum, order, class, genus

(c) Phylum, class, family, order (d) Phylum, family, class, order

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48. In plants water is conducted through

(a) Vessel elements (b) Companion cells (c) Sieve cells (d) Sclereids

49. Which of the following is the function of Testes?

(a) Secretion of Testosterone (b) Formation of sperm

(c) Secretion of Estrogen (d) Both (a) and (b)

50. Flame cells are excretory organ of

(a) Annelida (b) Echinodermata (c) Coelenterates (d) Platyhelminthes

51. It is dark. You have 10 grey socks and 10 blue socks you want to put into pairs.
All socks are exactly same except for their colour. How many minimum sock would
you need to take with you to ensure you had at least a pair?

(a) 16 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 3

52. A number when divided by 121 leaved 37 as remainder. What will be the
remainder when the same number is divided by 11?

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1

53. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be

(a) terminating (c) non-terminating

(c) non-terminating repeating (d) non-terminating non - repeating

54. Solving for x


1
x= 1 , x≠2
2− 1
2−
2−𝑥

(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) ±1

55. If Ax = By = Cz and A2 = BC then z equals


𝑥𝑦 2𝑥𝑦 𝑥𝑦 𝑥𝑦
(a) 2𝑦−𝑥 (b) 𝑦−𝑥 (c) 2(𝑦−𝑥) (d) 2(𝑥−𝑦)

56. Waheeda’s granddaughter is about as many days as her son in weeks, and her
daughter is as many months as she is in years. Her granddaughter, her son and
Waheeda together are 120 years old. The age of Waheeda in years is

(a) 60 (b) 66 (c) 72 (d) 81

57. If 2x+y ≤ 6, x<0, then

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(a) y>6 (b) y ≥ 6 (c) 0 ≤ y ≤ 6 (d) y ≤ 0

58. A taxi driver charges Rs.10.50 per km flat rate in addition to Rs.20. Ajoy has no
more than 220 to spend on the ride. Without exceeding his budget, Ajoy can travel

(a) less than 20 km (b) less than or equal to 20 km

(c) exactly 20 km (d) greater than 20 km

59. The condition which must be satisfied by the coefficients of the polynomial
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3- px2+qx-r, when the sum of its two zeros is zero is

(a) pqr=1 (b) qr=p (c) pr=q (d) pq=r

60. If one of the zeros of the polynomial (a2+9)x2+13x+6a is reciprocal of the other,
then the value of a is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

61. If pth term of an A.P. is q and qth term p, then its nth term is

(a) p+n-q (b) p+q-n (c) q+n-p (d) p-q-n

62. The points (3a, 0), (0, 3(b) and (a, 2(b)

(a) lie on a straight line (b) forms a triangle

(c) forms an equilateral triangle (d) forms a right angled triangle

63. If the co – ordinate of two points A and B are (3, 4) and (5, -2) respectively. Find
the coordinates of any point P, if PA = PB and area of ∆PAB = 10

(a) (7, 2) (b) (1, -3) (c) (4, 5) (d) (1, 2)

64. ∆ABC is a right angled triangle, in which angle C = 90° and CD ⊥ AB. If BC = a,
CA = b, AB = c and CD = p, then 1/a2 + 1/b2 =

(a) b2/p2 (b) 1/ p2 (c) a2/p2 (d) 1/c2

65. The number of possible isosceles triangles (excluding the case of equilateral
triangles) with integer lengths of its sides such that the sum of any two sides is 10,
are

(a) infinite (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 8

66. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 30 m and 4 m and the diagonal joining
the end points of these sides is 40 m. The area of the parallelogram is

(a) 168 m2 (b) 336 m2 (c) 372 m2 (d) 480 m2

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67. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle: PQL and PRM are the tangents at
the points Q and R respectively and S is a point on the circle such than angle SQL =
50° and angle SRM = 60°. Then angle QSR = ?

(a) 40° (b) 50° (c) 60° (d) 70°

68. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the


centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm. Length of PQ is

(a) √119 cm (b) 13 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 8.5 cm

69. In the given figure, a circle inscribed in a triangle ABC, touches the sides AB, BC,
and CA at point D, E and F respectively. If AB = 14 cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 12 cm.
the lengths of AD, BE and CF respectively are

(a) 9, 3, 5 (b) 5, 3, 9 (c) 9, 5, 3 (d) 5, 9, 3

70. The areas of two similar triangles are 25 cm 2 and 36 cm2. If the median of the
smaller triangle is 10 cm, then the median of the larger triangle is

(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 18 cm

71. If four times the sum of the areas of two circular faces of a cylinder of heights 8
cm is equal to twice the curve surface area, then diameter of the cylinder is

(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 6 cm

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72. A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere by a hollow cylinder. The diameter
of the hemisphere is 14 cm and total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner
surface area of the vessel.

(a) 572 cm2 (b) 562 cm2 (c) 625 cm2 (d) 526 cm2

73. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder have equal bases and have the same
height. The ratio of their volumes is

(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3 (c) 2:3:1 (d) 3:2:1


3
74. If 90° < Ɵ < 180°, and sin Ɵ = 5, then tan Ɵ is equal to

−3 3 3 2
(a) (b) 4 (c) 2 (d)
4 √3

1
75. If sec Ɵ + tan Ɵ = m, then the value of m2 - m2 +1 is

(a) cos Ɵ (b) sin Ɵ (c) tan Ɵ (d) cot Ɵ

76. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a single storeyed building
from the top of a multi storeyed building are 30° and 45° respectively. If the height of
the multi-storeyed building is 12+4√3 m, the height of the single storeyed building is

(a) 4√3 + 1 m (b) 8√3 − 9 m (c) 8 m (d) 4 m

77. If the mean of n observations af1, af2, af3,......afn is aF then

(a) aF = af1+ af2+af3+......+afn

(b) a(f1+F)+a(f2+F)+......+ a(fn+F)=0

(c) (af1-aF)+ (af2-aF)+……+ (afn-aF)=0

(d) ∑𝑛𝑖=1(afi – aF)=a

78. A two digit number is written at random (digit at 10s place is non – zero). The
probability that the number will be even but smaller than 40 is
8 4 1 1
(a) 45 (b) 9 (c) 5 (d) 6

79. In a class in which all students practice at least one sport, 60% of students play
soccer or basketball and 10% practice both sports. If there are also 60% students
that do not play soccer, the probability that a student chosen at random from the
class, play soccer only, is

(a) 0.3 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.6

80. Which one of the following is least if mean value of x, X=14.


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(a) Ʃ(X-12)2 (b) Ʃ(X-10)2 (c) Ʃ(X-15)2 (d) Ʃ(X-14)2

81. The famous Mehrangarh fort is situated at which place?

(a) Jaisalmer (b) Jaipur (c) Jodhpur (d) Ajmer

82. Dr. Linus Carl Pauling is the only person to have won two Nobel prizes
individually for

(a) Chemistry in 1954, Peace prize in 1962

(b) Peace prize in 1954, Chemistry in 1962

(c) Physics in 1954, Medicine in 1962

(d) Medicine in 1954, Physics in 1962

83. The receptor of sweet taste is located at which part of human tongue?

(a) Base of tongue (b) Tip of tongue

(c) Posterior median part of tongue (d) The edges of tongue

84. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(CAPITALS) (COUNTRIES)

(a) Darfur - South Sudan

(b) Dili - East Timor

(c) Dakar - Senegal

(d) Brussels - Denmark

85. In 1972, the world’s first nationwide green party was founded in

(a) Norway (b) Netherlands (c) Denmark (d) Australia

86. India’s first insect museum has been opened in which state?

(a) Kerala (b) Assam (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Odisha

87. Way of removing pollutants or toxic waste from environment with the help of
living organisms is called?

(a) degradation (b) bioremediation

(c) integrated disease management (d) disease control

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88. The Red Cross, a worldwide humanitarian aid provider, has its head office in

(a) UK (b) USA (c) Russia (d) Switzerland

89. The theory of ‘economic drain of India’ during British rule was propounded by?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) R.C. Dutt (c) M.K. Gandhi (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

90. Token currency in India was introduced by

(a) Qutbuddin Aibek (b) Iltutmish

(c) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq (d) Muhammad bin Tughluq

91. The battle of ‘ Ghazwa Ahzab’ took place in

(a) 4 AH (b) 5 AH (c) 6 AH (d) 7 AH

92. Islam ordains faith in

(a) Prophet Muhammad only

(b) Prophets Muhammad, Ibrahim and Musa only

(c) Prophet Muhammad and all the Judeo-Christian Messengers of god only

(d) All the Messengers of God

93. The first school was founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in

(a) Ghazipur (b) Aligarh (c) Muradabad (d) Delhi

94. Prophet Yahya was the son of

(a) Zakriya (b) Yunus (c) Isma’il (d) Ilyas

95. In Islamic history, the ‘most authentic book after the quran’ is known as

(a) Sahih Muslim (b) Jami’ Tirmidhi (c) Sahih Bukhari (d) Sunan abu Dawud

96. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Babur and Ibrahim
Lodhi in the year

(a) 1515 (b) 1520 (c) 1526 (d) 1556

97. Which Mughal Emperor shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi?

(a) Akbar (b) Aurangzeb (c) Shahjahan (d) Bahadur Shah

98. Muslims of Malabar are called

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(a) Mopillah (b) Arabs (c) Traders (d) Migrants

99. To combat the British, Tipu Sultan sought the help of

(a) Dutch (b) French (c) Portuguese (d) Russians

100. Aurangzeb was the disciple of which sufi saint?

(a) Mujaddid Alf Thani (b) Khwaja Muhammad Masoom

(c) Shah Waliullah (d) Baba Farid Ganj Shakar

Answer Key 2019


1.c 2.a 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.a 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.b 11.b 12.b

13.a 14.c 15.a 16.a 17.c 18.d 19.d 20.c 21.c 22.d 23.c 24.c

25.c 26.b 27.c 28.d 29.c 30.c 31.a 32.c 33.b 34.c 35.c 36.a

37.c 38.b 39.d 40.c 41.c 42.c 43.d 44.d 45.d 46.c 47.a 48.a

49.d 50.d 51.d 52.c 53.d 54.c 55.a 56.c 57.a 58.a 59.d 60.b

61.b 62.a 63.a 64.b 65.c 66.b 67.d 68.a 69.c 70.a 71.b 72.a

73.a 74.a 75.b 76.c 77.c 78.d 79.a 80.d 81.c 82.a 83.b 84.d

85.d 86.c 87.b 88.d 89.d 90.d 91.b 92.d 93.a 94.a 95.c 96.c

97.c 98.a 99.b 100.b

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2020

1. A man spends 1/3 of his income on food, 2/5 of his income on house rent and 1/5
of his income on clothes. If he still has ₹400 left with him, his income is
(a) Rs.4000 (b) Rs.5000 (c) Rs.6000 (d) Rs.7000
2. If (x + 2) and (x - 1) are factors of (x³ + 10x² + mx + n), then
(a) m = 3, n = -3 (b) m=17, n = -8 (C) m = 23, n = -19 (d) m = 7, n = -18
3. If x= a + 1/a and y = a - 1/a, then the value of x⁴+ y⁴ - 2x²y² is
(a) 24 (b) 18 (c) 16 (d) 12
4. If b is a real numbers such that b² = b + 1. Then which of the following is not true?
(a) b³= b² + b (b) b⁴ = b³+b+1 (c) )b³ =2b+1 (d) b³+b² = b+1
5. Figure show a graph for y = f(x). The number of zeros of f(x) are :

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) infinite


6. If √(5/3) and - √(5/3) are two zeros of the polynomial 3x⁴ + 6x³ - 2x² - 10x - 5 then
other two zeros are :
(a) -1,-1 (b) 1,-1 (c) 1,1 (d) 3,-3
1
7. If x = 3 - 2 √2 , then (√x - )=
√x

(a)1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6


8. The value of
81 25 5
(16)–¾ ×{( 9 )–³/² ÷ (2)–³} is :
64 729
(a) 15625 (b) (c) 1 (d) 3
64

9. If 4x² + 9y² + z² = 6xy + 3yz + 2xz then 8x³ + 27y³ + z³ will be equal to

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(a) 0 (b) 2x + 3y + z - 18xyz (c) 18xyz (d) (2x + 3y + z)³
10. The equation x² + 3x + k = 0, has real root. Then
a) k ≥ 9/4 b) k ≤ 9/4 c) k ≥ 0 d) k ≤ 0
11. How many natural numbers between 300 to 500 are multiples of 7 ?
(a) 29 (b) 28 (c) 27 (d) 30
12. For what value of k does the pair of equation 5x + 2y = 2k and 2 (k + 1) x + ky =
(3k + 4 ) have an infinite number of solutions?
(a) k = 5 (b) k = 4 (c) k = 2/3 (d) k = - 2/3
13. Which term of the AP 24,21,18,15........ is the first negative term?
(a) n = 9 (b) n = 10 (c) n = 11 (d) n = 8
14. The elimination of θ from x cosθ -y sin θ = 2 and x sinθ + y cosθ=4 will give
(a)x²+y² = 20 (b)3x²+y²= 20 (c) x²-y²=20 (d) 3x²-y²= 10
15. For given α,β (both <π/2)and if cos(α+β)=0, then sin (α - β) =?
(a) cos β (b) cos 2β (c) sin α (d) sin 2α
16. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from the point P and Q at a distance
of 'a' and 'b' respectively from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with
it are complimentary. The height of the tower is:

(a) √𝑎𝑏 ( b) a/b (c) ab (d) a²b²


17. If the arms of one angle are respectively parallel to the arms of another angle,
then the two angles are
(a) neither equal nor supplementary (b) not equal but supplementary
(c) equal but not supplementary (d) either equal or supplementary
18. Consider the following statements:
(I) The sum of the squares of the sides of a rhombus is equal to the sum of the
squares of its diagonals.
(II) The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of the pairs of adjacent sides of
a rhombus is a rectangle.
(III) Both diagonals of a rhombus divide it into four triangles, which are similar ones.
Which of these is/are correct?
(a) (I) only (b) (I), (II) and (III) (c) (I) and (II) only (d) (II) and (IIl) only
19. Two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect each other at a point E outside the
circle. If AB = 11cm, BE =3 cm and DE = 3.5 cm, then CD =?

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(a) 10.5 cm (b) 9.5 cm (c) 8.5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
20. In the adjacent figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ∠ABC = 45° then ∠AOC is

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°


21. In the given figure PA, QB and RC are perpendicular to AC such that PA =x, RC
=y, QB =z, AB = a and BC = b. Then the value of 1/x + 1/y - 1/z is

(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2


22. In the figure AB || CD and P is any point. Then ∠ABP + ∠BPD + ∠CDP is equal
to

(a) 90° (b) 27° (c)180° (d)360°


2 1
23. The points Iying on the curve 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 7 are not in

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(a) I quadrant (b) II quadrant (c) lll quadrant (d) IV quadrant
24. The area of the square ABCD with A(-2, 3) and B (5, -1) is
(a) 13 (b) 25 (C) 53 (d) 65
25. The area of the ∆OPQ with O(0,0), P(1, 0), Q(0,1) is
(a) 1 sq unit (b) 1/2 sq unit (c) 1/4 sq unit (d) 2 sq unit
26. The water of the tank, measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m, lasts for 3 days in a village.
The population of the village that requires 150 litres of water per head per day,
served by the tank, is
(a) 4000 (b) 8000 (c) 12000 (d) 40000
27. There are 50 numbers. Each number is subtracted from 53 and the new mean of
the numbers so obtained is found to be -3.5. The mean of the given numbers is
(a) 46.5 (b) 49.5 (c) 53.5 (d) 56.5
28. An urn contains 25 balls numbered 1 through 25. Two balls are drawn from the
urn with replacement. Find the probability of selecting both odd numbers.
(a)13/25 (b)26/50 (c)169/625 (d)13/50
29. Let x̅ be the mean of x1, x2, ……….., xn and y̅ be the mean of y1, y2, ……….., yn.
If 𝑧̅ is the mean of x1, x2, ……….., xn, y1, y2, ……….., yn, then 𝑧̅ = ?
(a) x̅ + y̅ (b) (x̅ + y̅)/2 (c) (x̅ + y̅)/n (d) (x̅ + y̅)/2n
30. Find x and y in the following table, if median is 32.
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 Total
No of
10 x 25 30 y 10 100
Students

(a) x = 9, y = 16 (b) x = 16, y = 9 (c) x = 15, y = 10 (d) x= 10, y = 15


31. Imperial Bank of India is the old name of
(a) ICICI Bank (b) Allahabad Bank (c) State Bank of India (d) Bharat Overseas Bank
32. Which game, believed to have originated in Tamil Nadu, is the National game of
Bangladesh?
(a) Kabaddi (b) Polo (c) Hockey (d) Volleyball
33. Of the 12 constellations incorporated into the traditional zodiac signs, which is
the only non-living thing?
(a) Capricorn (b) Aquarius (c) Virgo (d) Libra
34. Who among the following cannot participate in the elections of President of
India?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha

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(b) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(c) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States
(d) Anglo-Indian members of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
35. Chola Empire in ancient India was famous for:
(a) Urban Administration (b) Police Administration
(c) Village Administration (d) Military Administration
36. Ibn Batuta is a ______ century traveller and historian.
(a) 12th (b) 13th (c) 14th (d) I5th
37. "Servants of India Society" provided famine relief and worked for tribal. it was
formed by:
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Vivekanand
38. V. Shantaram Lifetime Achievement Award, 2018, has been given to:
(a) Shyam Benegal (b) Amitabh Bachchan (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Anupam Kher
39. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya belonged to the:
(a) Suhrawardi Silsila (b) Auliya Silsila (c) Chishti Silsila (d) Naqshbandi Silsila
40. Chameli Devi Award is given in the field of:
(a) Science (b) Journalism (c) Music (d) Literature
41. The first verses revealed to Prophet Muhammad are incorporated in the Surah
(a) Al-Balad (b) Al-Ma'idah (c) Al-'Alaq (d) Al-Falaq
42. The third pillar of lslam is
(a) Prayers (b) Zakat (c) Hajj (d) Fasting during the month of Ramadan
43. In the courtyard of a medieval mosque stands a famous iron pillar which bears a
Sanskrit inscription in Gupta script. The name of the mosque is
(a) Jama Masjid Delhi (b) Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque
(C) Begampuri Mosque (d) Khirki Masjid
44. From the chronological point of view which of the following is the first major
compilation of Hadith ?
(a) Sahih Bukhari (b) Muwatta Imam Malik (c) Sahih Muslim (d) Sunan Abu Dawud
45. The Prime Minister of the Provisional Indian Government in exile was
(a) Maulana Barakatullah Bhopali (b) Maulana Ubaidullah Sindhi

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(c) Rahmat Ali Zakariya (d) Bashir Ahmad
46. Hujjatullah-al-Baligha is written by:
(a) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi (b) Shah Waliullah
(c) Maulana Shibli (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
47. The freedom fighter associated with the Kakori Conspiracy was
(a) Ashfaqullah Khan (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Badruddin Tayyabji (d) Veer Abdul Hamid
48. The Surah that contains two Bismillahs is
(a) Naml (b) Baqarah (c) Maida (d) Alaq
49. In which Anglo-Mysore war did Tipu Sultan participate after the death of his
father Hyder Ali?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
50. Which city was named ‘Daulatabad’ by the Tughlaq Sultan?
(a) Devsthali (b) Devagiri (c) Deoli (d) Dharampur
51. A boy on a 20 m high building drops a stone. One second later he throws down
another stone. Both the stones hit the ground Simultaneously. The initial velocity of
the second stone is (g= 10 m/s²)
(a) 0 (b) 10 m/s (c) 15 m/s (d) 25 m/s
52. The speed-time graph of a car moving along a fixed direction is shown in figure
below. Obtain the distance traversed by the car between t =0 second to t = 10
seconds.

(a) 0 (b) 30 m (c) 60 m (d) 120 m


53. A girl of mass 40 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 5 m/s onto a stationary
cart with frictionless wheels. The mass of the cart is 10 kg. What is her velocity as
the cart starts moving? Assume that there is no external unbalanced force working in
the horizontal direction.
(a) 5 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 3 m/s (d) 1m/s

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54. A motor-car of mass 1200 kg is moving along a straight line with a uniform
velocity of 90 km/h. Its velocity is slowed down to 18 km/h in 4 seconds by an
unbalanced external force. The magnitude of the force is
(a) 1080 N (b) 2160 N (c) 2400 N (d) 6000 N
55. A certain force applied to mass m1 gives it an acceleration of 10 m/s². The same
force applied to mass m2 gives it an acceleration of 15 m/s². If the two masses are
joined together and the same force is applied to the combination, the acceleration
will be
(a) 3 m/s² (b) 6 m/s² (c) 9 m/s² (d) 12 m/s²
56. A cylindrical block of radius r and mass m is lying on the table and the pressure
acting on the table is P. If its radius is doubled and mass Is tripled, then the pressure
acting on the table is :
(a) 2P (b) ¾ P (c) 2/3 P (d) ½ P
57. The density of ice is x gram/cm³ and that of water is y gram/cm³. What is the
change in volume when m gram of ice melts?
(a) m (y-x) cm³ (b) (y-x)/m cm³ (c) m(x+ y) cm³ (d) m(1/y - 1/x) cm³
58. A boy of mass 50 kg runs up a staircase of 45 steps in 9 seconds. If the height of
each step is 15 cm, find his power. (g= 10 m/s²)
(a) 50 W (b) 220 W (c) 375 W (d) 500 W
59. A ball is thrown up with a kinetic energy of 20 J. If it reaches maximum height of
1m, the mass of the ball is:
(Take g= 10 m/s²)
(a) 1kg (b) 2 kg (c) 4 kg (d) 7 kg
60. A person clapped his hand near a cliff and heard the echo after 5 seconds. What
is the distance of the cliff from the person if the sped of the sound is 346 m/s?
(a) 692 m (b) 865 m (c) 1650 m (d) 1750 m
61. A wire of given material having length l and area of cross section A has a
resistance of 4Ω. What would be the resistance of another wire of the same material
having length l/2 and area of cross section 2A?
(a) 1 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 4 Ω (d) 8 Ω
62. What is the equivalent resistance between A and B in the circuit of figure, if R =
3Ω?

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(a) 8 Ω (b) 12 Ω (c) 14 Ω (d) 16 Ω
63. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight
wire?
((a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles cantered on the wire.
64. A typical solar cell generates electricity when exposed to the sun, of about
(a) 0.1 W (b) 0.5 W (c) 0.7 W (d) 1.0 W
65. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length
15 cm. Find the position of the image.
(a) 30 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 6 cm
66. The far point of a myopic person is 50 cm in front of the eye. The power of the
lens required to correct this defect is
(a) + 1.0 D (b) +2.0 D (c) -2.0 D (d) -6.0 D
67. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of refractive index √2 is
incident on the glass air surface at an angle of incidence of 45°. The refractive index
of air is 1. The ray will
(a) emerge into air without any deviation
(b) be reflected back into glass
(c) be absorbed
(d) emerge into air with an angle or refraction equal to 90°
68. Hydrogen has three isotopes (¹H, ²H and ³H) and chlorine has two isotopes 35CI
and 37Cl). HCL molecule having 18 proton, 19 neutrons and 18 electrons has the
formula
(a) ¹H 35CI (b) ²H 37CI (c) ²H 35CI (d) ³H 35Cl
69. What is the molarity of Na+ ion in a solution prepared by dissolving 0.550 gram of
Na2SO4 in a volume of 100 ml water.
(a) 0.077 (b) 0.065 (c) 0.295 (d) 0.142
70. What is the molecular weight of phosphorous P4 molecule?
(a) 31 (b) 124 (c) 148 (d) 256
71. The Tyndall effect is observed in
(a) NaCl solution (b) Copper sulphate solution (c) Soda water (d) Milk

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72. Which of the following is a surface phenomenon?
(a) Boiling (b) Evaporation (c) Sublimation (d) Freezing
73. H2 gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with HNO3 acid because *
((a) HNO3 is a strong oxidizing agent
(b) HNO3 is a strong reducing agent
(c) HNO3 is a strong reducing well as oxidizing agent
(d) HNO3 does not react with metal
74. Mass of 3.011 x 1023 number of nitrogen (N) atoms is
(a) 14 g (b) 7 g (c) 3.5 g (d) 28 g
75. Formula of Aluminum sulphate is
(a) Al2 SO4 (b) Al3(SO4)2 (c) Al2(S04)3 (d) Al (SO4)3
76. Smoke is an example of
(a) Foam (b) Emulsion (c) Aerosol (d) Sol
77. Neutrons are not present in the nucleus of atoms of
(a) Hydrogen (b) Helium (c) Lithium (d) None of these
78. Select the balanced reaction
(a) Fe(s)+4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s)+4H2(g) (b)3Fe(s)+4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s)+2H2(g)
(c) 3Fe(s)+4H2O(g) →Fe3O4(s)+4H2(g) (d)3Fe(s)+2H2O(g) → 3Fe3O4(s)+2H2(g)
79. A solution contains 40 g of common salt in 320 g of water. What will be the
concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage of the solution?
(a) 21% (b) 11.1% (c) 8.5% (d) 3.5%
80. Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon ?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c) Charcoal (d) Buckminsterfullerene

(a) Propanol (b) Propanal (c)Propanone (d) Propene


ℎ𝑣
82. The reaction CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl+HCI is an example of
(a) addition reaction (b) combustion reaction
(c) oxidation reaction (d) substitution reaction
83. The functional group of Ketone is

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(a)- OH (b) -CHO (c) -CO- (d) -COOH
84. Litmus solution is
(a) an acidic purple dye (b) a basic purple dye
(c) a neutral purple dye (d) none of the above
85. Carl Woese (1977) divided the Monera into:
(a) Archaebacteria and Eubacteria (b) Archaebacteria and Archaea
(c) Eubacteria and Bacteria (d) Eubacteria and Cyanobacteria
86. Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of
(a) Antagonism (b) Semiparasitism (c) Parasitism (d) Symbiosis
87. Which one of the following cell organelles helps to keep the cell clean by
digesting any foreign material?
(a) Lysosomes (b) Mitochondria (c) Chloroplast (d) Leucoplast
88. Each pollen mother cell by a meiotic division, produces:
(a) One haploid microspore (b) Two haploid microspores
(c) Three haploid microspores (d) Four haploid microspores
89. Plant transport system does not transport
(a) CO2 (b) Organic salts (c) Water (d) Plant hormones
90. Chromosomes are made up of:
(a) DNA (b) Protein (c) DNA and Protein (d) DNA and Fat
91. Plant carbon is supplied from:
(a) Soil (b) Air (c) Water (d) Sunlight
92. The hormone that promotes cell division in plants is:
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
93. Ciliated columnar epithelium is present in the
(a) Intestinal tract (b) Respiratory tract (c) Lining of Arteries (d) Lining of Veins
94. Correct sequence of components nephron is
(a) Bowman's capsule, PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT
(b) PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, Bowman's capsule
(c) Loop of Henle, DCT, PCT, Bowman's capsule
(d) Bowman's capsule, DCT, PCT, Loop of Henle
95. Which organelle is involved in the formation of lysosomes:

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(a) Endoplasmic Reticulum (b) Golgi Apparatus (c) Nucleus (d) Mitochondria
96. Chromatin material is made up of:
(a) DNA and proteins (b) Phospholipids (c) Sugars (d) Polysaccharides
97. Pollution of our surroundings in the recent past has resulted because of
(a) Biological research (b) Rapid industrialization
(c) Information technology (d) Forestation
98. Peptic ulcers are caused by:
(a) Helicobacter pylori (b) Rhizobium (c) Lactobacillus (d) Streptococcus
99. Sea anemone is an example of
(a) Porifera (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Coelenterata (d) Nematoda
100. Oxytocin is synthesized in the :
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus

Answer Key 2020

1.c 2.d 3.c 4.d 5.b 6.a 7.b 8.c 9.c 10.b 11.a 12.b

13.b 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.d 18.b 19.c 20.b 21.c 22.d 23.c 24.d

25.b 26.a 27.d 28.c 29.b 30.a 31.c 32.a 33.d 34.d 35.c 36.c

37.b 38.a 39.c 40.b 41.c 42.b 43.b 44.b 45.a 46.b 47.a 48.a

49.b 50.b 51.c 52.c 53.b 54.d 55.b 56.b 57.d 58.c 59.b 60.b

61.a 62.a 63.d 64.c 65.d 66.c 67.d 68.c 69.c 70.b 71.d 72.b

73.b 74.b 75.c 76.c 77.a 78.c 79.b 80.c 81.b 82.d 83.c 84.c

85.a 86.d 87.a 88.d 89.a 90.c 91.b 92.c 93.b 94.a 95.b 96.a

97.b 98.a 99.c 100.b

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2021

1. If A = 2n + 13 and B = n + 7, n is the natural number, then HCF of A and B is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

2. Which of the following numbers can be represented as non-terminating, repeating


decimals?

(a) 39/24 (b) 3/16 (c) 137/25 (d) 3/11

3. Which of the following is greatest?

(a) 72 (b) (49)3/2 (c) (1/343)-1/3 (d) (2401)-1/4

4. Simplifying

(0.6)0 − (0.1)−1
3 −1 3 3 −1 −1
(8) (2) + ( 3 )

we get :

(a) -1/2 (b) ½ (c) -3/2 (d) 3/2

5. The sum of all 3-digit numbers which are multiples of 7 is :

(a) 60336 (b) 70336 (c) 80336 (d) 90336

6. If the sum of first m terms of an AP is the same as the sum of its first n terms, then
the sum of its (m + n) terms is

(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 0

7. The denominator of a fraction is greater than its numerator by 11. If 8 is added to


both its numerator and denominator, it becomes 3/4. Then the fraction is

(a) 16/27 (b) 25/36 (c) 10/21 (d) 12/23


𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
8. If a2 = by + cz, b2 = cz + ax, c2 = ax + by; then the value of 𝑎+𝑥 + + will be
𝑏+𝑦 𝑐+𝑧

1 1 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 (d) 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐

9. The value of k for which the zeroes of polynomial kx 2 + 4x + 4 are α and β, related
to α2 + β2 = 24 is

(a) 1, 2/3 (b) 1, -2/3 (c) -1, 2/3 (d) -1, -2/3

10. A train travels 288 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 4 km/hr more, it
would have taken 1 hour less for the same journey. Then the speed of the train is

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(a) 30 km/hr (b) 31 km/hr (c) 32 km/hr (d) 33 km/hr

11. If x + 1/x = p, then x6 + 1/x6 equal to

(a) p6 + 6p (b) p6 - 6p (c) p6 - 6p4 + 9p2 – 3 (d) p6 - 6p4 + 9p2 – 2

12. How many distinct real roots are possible for the equation

x6 – 26x3 – 27 = 0

(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

13. The three vertices of a parallelogram are (3. 4). (3, 8) and (9, 8). The co-
ordinates of the fourth vertex are

(a) (2,3) (b) (7,8) (c) (9,4) (d) (1,6)

14. The vertices of a triangle are (1, a), (2, b) and (c2, -3). The condition for which the
centroid lies on x-axis is

(a) a + b = 0 (b) a + b = 3 (c) a – b = 3 (d) a – b = 0

15. A pole has to be erected at a point on the boundary of a circular park of diameter
13 metres in such a way that the differences of its distances from two diametrically
opposite fixed gates A and B on the boundary is 7 metres. At what distances from
the two gates should the pole be erected?

(a) 6 m and 13 m (b) 7 m and 14 m (c) 8 m and 10m (d) 5 mand 12m

16. l1 and l2 are two parallel lines as shown in figure. If AB and BC are the bisectors
of ∠CAD and ∠ACE respectively, then ∠ABC =

(a) 900 (b) 600 (c) 450 (d) 300

17. In the figure shown AB = BC and ∠ABC = 360, ∠BOC is equal to (if O is the
centre of circle)

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(a) 360 (b) 720 (c) 1080 (d) 1440

18. If the corresponding altitudes of two similar triangles are 6 cm and 9 cm


respectively, then the ratio of their areas is

(a) 2:3 (b) 3:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 4:9

19. If G is the centroid of a triangle ABC, then the area of triangle GAB is equal to

(a) 1/4 (ar ∆ABC) (b) 2/3 (ar ∆ABC) (c) 1/3 (ar ∆ABC) (d) ½ (ar ∆ABC)

20. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle of radius 8
cm. Area of the shaded portion will be

(a) (32π - 56√3) cm2 (b) (64π - 56√3) cm2

(c) (32π - 48√3) cm2 (d) (64π - 48√3) cm2

21. Water flows in a tank of dimensions 150 m x 100 m at the base, through a
rectangular pipe whose cross-section is 2 dm x 1.5 dm at the speed of 15 km/hour.
In what time, will the water be 3 metres deep?

(a) 1 hour (b) 2 hours (c) 60 hours (d) 100 hours

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22. Vertical and horizontal cross-sections of right cone are always, respectively

(a) rectangular, ellipse (b) triangle, circle (c) triangle, square (d) circle, triangle

23. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AC and BD are its diagonals. If ∠DBC =
550 and ∠BAC = 450, then ∠BCD will be

(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) 1100

24. The minimum value of 2 sin2 Θ +3 cos2 Θ is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

25. If angles A, B and C of a ∆ABC form an increasing arithmetic progression, then


sin B =

(a) ½ (b) √3/2 (c) 1 (d) 1/√2

26. An aeroplane when 3000 m high passes vertically above another aeroplane at an
instance when their angles of elevation at the same observation point are 60 0 and
450. Then the distance between the aeroplanes are :

(a) 1000m (b) 1160m (c) 1268m (d) 1350m

27. In a pack of 90 cards, each card is marked with a different number from 110 to
199. A card was selected at random, the probability that the number on it is not a
perfect square is

(a) 41/45 (b) 43/45 (c) 37/45 (d) 13/15

28. The probability of getting exactly one head in tossing a pair of fair coins is

(a) 0 (b) ¼ (c) 1/2 (d) 1/3

29. For the following distribution

Marks Less than

No of 20 40 60 80 100 120
Students 4 12 25 56 74 80

The modal class is :

(a) 20-40 (b) 40-60 (c) 60-80 (d) 80-100

30. A grandfather, two fathers and two sons went to the movie theatre together and
everyone bought one movie ticket each. How many tickets did they buy in total?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

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31. Shooter Alessandra Perilli won first ever Olympic medal for which of the following
country in Tokyo 2020 Olympics .

(a) Barbados (b) Malta (c) Monaco (d) San Marino

32. Who among the following has the right to speak in the House of Parliament?

(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Chief Election Commissioner

(c) The Attorney General (d) Governor, Reserve Bank of India

33. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for one's contribution to

(a) sports (b) journalism (c) science and technology (d) literature

34. The New Education Policy 2020 replaces the previous National Policy on
Education which was adopted in the year

(a) 1985 (b) 1986 (c) 1987 (d) 1988

35. As per 2011 census, the least densely populated state of India is

(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nagaland (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim

36. Sonal Mansingh is associated with

(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Manipuri (c) Mohiniyattam (d) Sattriya

37. Official languages are mentioned in which schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Sixth Schedule (b) First Schedule (c) Ninth Schedule (d) Eighth Schedule

38. 'SUMAN' scheme of the government of India is related to

(a) prevention of maternal and new-born death (b) eradication of poverty

(c) promotion of heritage learning (d) recapitalization of PSU Banks

39. The Token Currency in India was introduced by

(a) Iltutmish (b) Alauddin Khalji

(c) Muhammad bin Tughluq (d) Sikandar Lodi

40. The Urdu journal "Tahzeebul Akhlaq" is also called as

(a) Tatler (b) Mohammedan Culture and Manners

(c) Mohammedan Social Reformer (d) Spectator

41. The 'Deluge' (Great Flood) occurred in the period of :

(a) Prophet Nuh (b) Prophet Lut (c) Prophet Ibrahim (d) Prophet Zakariya

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42. In Islamic history the ninth year of the Hijrah is known as

(a) year of deputations (b) year of sorrow

(c) year of joy (d) year of caliphate

43. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan died on

(a) 17 March 1898 (b) 27 March 1898

(c) 17 October 1898 (d) 27 October 1898

44. The number of books in 'Sihah Sitta' are :

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7

45. The second battle of Panipat was fought in the year :

(a) 1526 (b) 1550 (c) 1556 (d) 1560

46. Ghyasuddin Balban succeeded :

(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Iltutmish (c) Nasir Khusraw (d) Razia Sultana

47, Shrine of Baba Farid Ganj-Shakkar is situated at :

(a) Multan (b) Pakpattan (c) Hyderabad (d) Amritsar

48. Of the following, who was an associate of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(a) Maulana Qasim Nanoutvi (b) Maulana Shaukat Ali

(c) Maulvi Chiragh Ali (d) Muhammad Ali Jauhar

49. Books not authored by Maulana Shibli :

(a) Rahmat-i-Aalam (b) Al-Farooq (c) Imam Abu Hanifah (d) Ilm al-Kalam

50. The famous Agra Fort was built by King

(a) Babur (b) Shah Jahan (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb

51. A car of mass 200 kg moves with an initial speed of 72 km/hr. If on applying
brakes, a constant deceleration of 0.2 m/s is produced, the distance covered by the
car before it stops would be

(a) 0.1 km (b) 1.0 km (c) 0.5 km (d) 2.0 km

52. A car starts from rest and moves along y-direction with a uniform acceleration of
6m/s2 for 6 seconds, and it then continues with a uniform velocity. The total distance
covered by the car in 10 seconds since it started from the rest will be

(a) 252 m (b) 260 m (c) 300 m (d) 360 m

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53. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20
km/h. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average
speed is 30 km/h. What is the average speed for Abdul's trip ?

(a) 25 km/h (b) 24 km/h (c) 22 km/h (d) 21 km/h

54. If a body of mass 40 kg moving initially with a speed of 30 m/s is subjected to a


retarding force of 60 N, the body will stop after

(a) 30 seconds (b) immediately (c) 20 seconds (d) 15 seconds

55. A hammer of mass 500 gram moving at 50 m/s, strikes a nail. The nail stops the
hammer in a very short time of 0.01 s. What is the force of the nail on the hammer?

(a) 25 N (b) 250 N (c) 2500 N (d) 6500 N

56. Acceleration due to gravity on earth is g. If g' is acceleration due to gravity at a


height 'h' above the surface of earth, then

(a) g' = g (b) g' < g (c) g' > g (d) g' = 0

57. A motorbike takes 30 kJ energy to increase its initial kinetic energy to 10 kJ and
velocity 18 km per hour in 10 seconds. The final velocity attained by the motorbike
will be ____________ km per hour.

(a) 20 (b) 27 (c) 30 (d) 36

58. A particle is thrown up vertically with a velocity of 50 m/s. The height up to which
particle can rise is (g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 50 m (b) 100m (c) 125 m (d) 150 m

59. Wire A is of length 40 cm and radius 2 mm, wire B is of length 25 cm and radius
3 mm respectively. Ratio of the resistances RA/RB will be

(a) 5/18 (b) 5/12 (c) 12/5 (d) 18/5

60. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the
base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? (Given g = 10 m/s 2 and
speed of sound = 340 m/s)

(a) 10 seconds (b) 11.47 seconds (c) 12.37 seconds (d) 13.23 seconds

61. In a hydro power plant

(a) Water is converted into steam to give electricity

(b) Chemical processing of water produces electricity

(c) Potential energy of the stored water is converted into electricity

(d) Kinetic energy in the stored water is converted into electricity

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62. A body of mass 5 kg initially at rest, is moved by a horizontal force of 2 N on a
smooth horizontal surface. The work done by the force in 10 seconds is

(a) 10 J (b) 20 J (c) 40 J (d) 50 J

63. An electron enters a magnetic field at right angles to it, as shown in figure below.
The direction of force acting on the electron will be

(a) to the right (b) to the left (c) out of the page (d) into the page

64. A sound wave has a frequency of 1000 Hz and wavelength 25 cm respectively.


Time taken by it to move through 1 km will be:

(a) 2 seconds (b) 4 seconds (c) 6 seconds (d) 8 seconds

65. An electric refrigerator rated 400 W operates 10 hours/day. What is the cost of
energy to operate it for 30 days at rate Rs. 3.00 per unit?

(a) Rs. 90.00 (b) Rs. 300.00 (c) Rs. 360.00 (d) Rs. 400.00

66. An object is placed at 25 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. At


what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp
image?

(a) 15 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 37.5 cm (d) 42.5 cm

67. Three resistors each of 8 Ω are connected to a triangle. The resistance between
any two terminals will be

(a) 1/24 Ω (b) 3/16 Ω (c) 16/3 Ω (d) 24 Ω

68. Propane with molecular formula C3H8 has _________ covalent bonds.

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

69. The organic compound 'urea' in laboratory was first prepared from

(a) ammonium cyanate (b) ammonium thiocyanate

(c) ammonium isothiocyanate (d) ammonium carbonate

70. The formula of butanoic acid is

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(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH

(b) HOOCCH2CH2CH2CH3

(c) CH3-CH2-CH-CH3
|
COOH

(d) CH3CH2CH2COOH

71. Which of the metal would be displaced from solution of its salt by other three
metals?

(a) Mg (b) Ag (c) Zn (d) Cu

72. The number of particles in 46 g of Na atoms is :

(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 12.044 x 1023 (c) 3.011 x 1023 (d) 6.022 x 1022

73. Heating of ferrous sulphate (FeS04) gives:

(a) Ferric oxide (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Sulphur trioxide (d) All of above

74. Burning of paper is

(a) Physical change (b) Chemical change

(c) Biological change (d) (a) and (b) both

75. Which of the following pair of compounds are homologous?

(a) CH4 and C2H6 (b) C2H6 and C3H8 (c) C3H8 and C4H10 (d) All of the above

76. 0.5 gm of a substance is dissolved in 25 gm of a solvent. The percentage


amount of the substance in the solution is

(a) 1 .960% (b) 1.69% (c) 19.6% (d) 16.9%

77. The electronic configuration of the element 40


20𝑋 is

(a) 2, 8, 10 (b) 2, 10, 8 (c) 2, 8, , 2 (d) 2, 8, 18, 8, 4

78. Which of the following does not promote corrosion?

(a) Uneven metal surface

(b) Position of the metal in the reactivity series

(c) Presence of salt in water vapours

(d) Copper carbonate

79. The molar mass of sulphur molecule is

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(a) 32 (b) 64 (c) 256 (d) 200

80. XCl2 is ionic chloride of an element 'X'. The element 'X' belongs to which group
and is similar to which element?

(a) Group 2, Magnesium (b) Group 1, Potassium

(c) Group 16, Sulphur (d) Group 17, Bromine

81. Which gas is the major greenhouse gas?

(a) CH4 (b) SO2 (c) SO3 (d) CO2

82. Which one is the ore of Zinc?

(a) Magnetite (b) Calamine (c) Bauxite (d) Haematopyrite

83. Which of the following is not true about electrorefining of metal?

(a) A pure metal is deposited at cathode

(b) A pure metal from cathode dissolves in the electrolyte

(c) Copper, silver and gold are extracted by electrorefining

(d) Impure metal is made as anode

84. The following compound

CH3
|
CH3-C-CH3
|
CH3

is named as

(a) isobutane (b) neopentane (c) isopropane (d) n-pentane

85. Light dependent stages in photo-synthesis cannot be carried out without

(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Water (d) Hydrogen

86. In reflex action, the reflex arc, is formed by :

(a) Receptor - Spinal cord – Muscles (b) Spinal cord - Receptor - Muscles

(c) Muscles - Receptor – Brain (d) Muscles - Spinal cord - Brain

87. Nuclear membrane and membrane-bound cell organelles are absent in

(a) Bacteria (b) Cladophora (c) Ulva (d) Chara

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88. Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation in a human brain are
controlled by

(a) Cerebrum (b) Cranium (c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla

89. Which plant cells allow transport of water and minerals vertically?

(a) Tracheid’s and companion cells (b) Tracheid’s and vessels

(c) Vessels and companion cells (d) Vessels and sieve cells

90. Kingdom Monera includes

(a) Red yellow algae (b) Red brown algae

(c) Blue green algae (d) Green algae

91. In which cell organelles the complex sugars may be made from simple sugars ?

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus (c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria

92. Energy captured by green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem is about

(a) 1% (b) 3% (c) 5% (d) 10%

93. "Evolution occurs due to natural selection." This hypothesis was given by

(a) Edward Jenner (b) Charles Darwin (c) Lord Mendel (d) Louis Pasteur

94. Which is not an inherited disease ?

(a) Typhoid (b) Colour blindness (c) Haemophilia (d) Klinefelter

95. One of the best solutions to get rid off non-biodegradable wastes is

(a) Burning

(b) Recycling

(c) Dumping

(d) Burying

96. Who sacrificed her life along with 363 others in 1731 for the protection

of 'Khejri' trees?

(a) Medha Patekar (b) Amrita Devi Bishnoi (c) Arundhati Roy (d) Gaura Devi

97. Hormone that causes wilting of leaves is

(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Abscisic Acid (d) Cytokinine

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98. Black rust of wheat is caused by a species of the genus

(a) Mucor (b) Rhizopus (c) Aspergillus (d) Puccinia

99. Mendel used number of contrasting characters of garden pea, among them one
was

(a) White/violet flowers (b) White/red flowers

(c) Red/violet flowers (d) Yellow/violet flowers

100. Water canal system is found in

(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterate (c) Echinodermata (d) Mollusca

Answer Key 2021


1.a 2.d 3.b 4.c 5.b 6.d 7.b 8.b 9.c 10.c 11.d 12.b
13.c 14.b 15.d 16.a 17.d 18.d 19.c 20.d 21.d 22.b 23.a 24.c
25.b 26.c 27.b 28.c 29.c 30.b 31.d 32.c 33.c 34.b 35.a 36.a
37.d 38.a 39.c 40.c 41.a 42.a 43.b 44.c 45.c 46.d 47.b 48.c
49.a 50.c 51.b 52.a 53.b 54.c 55.c 56.b 57.d 58.c 59.d 60.b
61.c 62.c 63.d 64.b 65.c 66.c 67.c 68.c 69.a 70.d 71.b 72.b
73.d 74.b 75.d 76.a 77.c 78.d 79.c 80.a 81.d 82.b 83.b 84.b
85.c 86.a 87.a 88.d 89.b 90.c 91.b 92.a 93.b 94.a 95.b 96.b
97.c 98.d 99.a 100.a

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2022

1. The displacement - time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined
at 300 with time axis and at 300 to displacement axis, respectively. The ratio of
velocities of the two particles is

(a) 1 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 1/4

2. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after quarter a


circle would be:

(a) Zero (b) r√2 (c) πr (d) 2r


3. Two balls of mass 50 g and 20 g travelling towards each other with speeds 8m/s
and 5m/s respectively, collides and starts moving opposite to each other with the
common speed. The distance between the balls after 3 seconds will be
(a) 0 m (b) 60 m (c) 30 m (d) 40 m
4. An object of mass 100 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 5 m/s to 8 m/s
in 6 seconds. The magnitude of the force exerted on the object is:
(a) 500 N (b) 800 N (c) 100 N (d) 50 N
5. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height 5R above the surface of
earth, where 'R' is radius of earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of
2R from the surface of earth will be ____________.

(a) 6 h (b) 2√6 h (c) 6√2 h (d) 2 h


6. Average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R is given by: Where:
g - Acceleration due to gravity
G - Gravitational constant
R - Earth's radius
3𝐺 3𝑔 3𝑅𝐺 3𝑔𝑅
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4𝜋𝑔𝑅 4𝜋𝐺𝑅 4𝜋𝑔 4𝜋𝐺

7. The difference in final and initial kinetic energies for a particle of mass 20 g in
travelling a distance of 120 m with a constant acceleration of 4.1 m/s2 is:
(a) 4.92 J (b) 0 J (c) 19.62 J (d) 9.84 J
8. A body weighs 32 N in water and its relative density is 3.5 . Weight of the body in
air is:
(a) 44.8 N (b) 116 N (c) 224 N (d) 12.8 N
9. The sound waves produced by a sitar are :
(a) transverse (b) longitudinal
(c) both transverse and longitudinal (d) ultrasonic in nature

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10. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then
connected in parallel. If equivalent resistance of this combination is R 1, then the ratio
is R/R1 is
(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 5 (d) 25
11. If an electric iron of 1000W is used for 30 minutes every day, electric energy
consumed in the month of April would be :
(a) 12 kWh (b) 15 kWh (c) 18 kWh (d) 16 kWh
12. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current :
(a) is zero (b) decreases as we move towards its end
(c) is same at all points (d) increases as we move towards its end.
13. An induced emf is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The
magnitude of induced emf does not depend on
(a) the number of turns in the coil (b) the speed with which the magnet is moved
(c) the strength of the magnet (d) the resistivity of the material of the coil
14. The twinkling of stars is due to
(a) The change in intensity of light coming from the stars
(b) Atmospheric refraction of star's light
(c) Gradual change in optical density of air at every moment
(d) AII of the above
15. A concave lens of focal length 25 cm and a convex lens of focal length 20 cm are
placed in contact with each other. The power of the combination is
(a) -4 dioptre (b) 4 dioptre (c) 1 dioptre (d) -1 dioptre
16. A person cannot see distinctly any object placed beyond 50 cm from his eye. The
power of the lens which will enable him to see distant star is:
(a) -2.5 D (b) -0.5 D (c) -2.0 D (d) -1.5 D
17. Wind power of a wind mill is:
(a) directly proportional to the radius of the blades
(b) directly proportional to the wind speed
(c) directly proportional to the cube of the wind speed
(d) directly proportional to the square of the wind speed
18. Using following reaction arrange the elements A ,B C and D in order of their
redox activity:
A + B+ ⟶ A+ + B; C+ + D ⟶ No reaction

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B + D+ ⟶ B+ + D; B + C+ ⟶ B+ + C
(a) A>B>C>D (b) D>C>B> A (c) D>C>A>B (d) A>B >D>C
19. Sodium metal is highly reactive to the moisture (water):
(a) Sodium forms covalent bond with water
(b) Sodium gains one electron to get stable octate i.e. Neon gas like configuration
(c) Sodium loses one electron to get stable octate i.e. Neon gas like configuration
(d) Sodium is highly soluble in water
20. How many nodes are present in 2s orbital :
(a) 1 (b) zero (c) 2 (d) 3
21. When the ferrous sulphate is heated, the green colour of the crystal is changed
due to:
(a) formation of SO3 gas (b) formation of SO2 gas
(c) formation of Fe2O3 (d) ferrous sulphate crystals lose water
22. Which of the following is true for fullerenes
(a) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of diamond like structure
(b) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of graphite like structure
(c) Carbon atoms arranged in the shape of a Soccer ball
(d) Sulphur atoms arranged in the shape of a Soccer ball
23. Oxidation number of the underlined element in following compounds are
respectively
CdS , AlH3, S2O32-, Na2Cr2O7
(a) +2, +3, +2 and +6 (b) -2, +3, +1 and +4
(c) +2, -3, +2 and +2 (d) +2, +3, +2 and +4
24. IUPAC name of the following molecule is:

(a) Pentanol (b) PentanaI (c) Pentanone (d) Butaldehyde


25. Tomato is a natural source of :
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Oxalic acid (d) Tartaric acid

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26. What is 'X' in below reaction:

(a) CH3CHO (b) CH2=CH2 (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COOH


27. Which class of compounds are used in making perfumes and as flavouring
agents?
(a) Alcohols (b) Aldehydes (c) Carboxylic acids (d) Esters
28. The following reaction is an example of :

(a) Addition reaction (b) Substitution reaction (c) Oxidations (d) Reduction
29. Treatment of cancer is done using :
(a) Isotope of Uranium (b Isotope of Cobalt
(c) Isotope of Iodine (d) Isotope of Hydrogen
30. Soda acid fire extinguishers use :
(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) MgCO3 (d) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3
31. pH of Ammonium Chloride (NH4CI) solution in water will be:
(a) Zero (b) 7 (c) More than 7 (d) Less than 7
32. Formula of Magnesium Nitride is
(a) MgN2 (b) Mg3N2 (c) Mg2N3 (d) MgN
33. Burning of candle involves
(a) Physical change (b) Chemical change
(c) Both Physical and Chemical change (d) Only Chemical change
34. Group of elements showing both metallic and non-metallic properties:
(a) Boron, Silicon, Germanium (b) Boron, Sulphur, Germanium
(c) Sulphur, Phosphorous, Coke (d) Coke, Zinc, Sulphur
35. Large scale deforestation decreases :
(a) Soil erosion (b) Rainfall (c) Drought (d) Global warming
36. Sardar Sarovar Dam was built on the river Narmada in the year :
(a) 1950 (b) 1940 (c) 1960 (d) 1930

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37. The vegetative propagation where a branch is defoliated and pegged down in the
ground is called:
(a) Cutting (b) Layering (c) Grafting (d) None of the above
38. Bryophyllum is propagated vegetatively by means of :
(a) Bulbils (b) Leaf buds (c) Grafting (d) Layering
39. Palaeontology is the study of :
(a) Soil (b) Fossils (c) Cell (d) Pollen Grains
40. Out of the total water on the Earth fresh water reserves constitutes
approximates:
(a) 70% (b) 2.7% (c) 10% (d) 8.9%
41. Which of the following relates to multipurpose protected areas meant for
conservation of wildlife?
(a) National parks (b) Biosphere reserves (c) Wildlife sanctuaries (d) Rivers
42. World Water Day is celebrated on
(a) May 22 (b) June 05 (c) March 22 (d) April 11
43. The term Protoplasm was coined by :
(a) Robert Brown (b) Robert Hooke (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Purkinje
44. Lenticels are present on :
(a) leaves (b) stems of soft herbaceous plants
(c) stems of hard and woody plants (d) root hairs
45. The whole process of anaerobic respiration takes place in
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondrion (c) ribosome (d) cytoplasm
46. Which plant hormone promotes dormancy in seeds and buds
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) Abscisic acid
47. Female gametophyte is also known as :
(a) Embryo sac (b) Megaspore (c) Megaspore mother cell (d) Megasporangium
48. Anemophilous flowers are :
(a) Wind pollinated (b) Water pollinated (c Animal pollinated (d) Insects pollinated
49. The structural unit employed for vegetative propagation is called
(a) Propagule (b) Explant (c) Seed (d) None of the above
50. Which state has lndira Gandhi Canal for irrigation

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(a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha (c) West Bengal (d) Karnataka
51. Sania wants to express 1000 in the form of a sum of positive integers involving
only 8s. How many minimum 8s she requires to do so?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 125
52. The largest positive integer which divides 434 and 539 leaving remainders 9 and
12 respectively is :
(a) 9 (b) 108 (c) 17 (d) 539
53. If (-1)n + (-1)8n = 0, then n is :
(a) a positive integer (b) any even numeral
(c) any odd natural number (d) any negative integer
54. Divya's swimming speed in still water to the speed of river is 7:1. She swims 4.2
km up the river in just 14 min. Time taken by Divya to swim 18.4 km down the river
will be
(a) 11 min (b) 12 min (c) 23 min (d) 46 min
55. The value of k so that the following pair of equations have no solution:
(3k+1)x + 3y - 2 = 0
(k2+1)x + (k-2)y - 5 = 0
(a) -4 (b) -2 (c) -3 (d) -1
56. If the polynomial f(x) = x4 - 6x3 +16x2 -25x + 10 is divided by another polynomial
x2-2x+k and the remainder comes out to be x+a then the value of k and a are
respectively
(a) 2 3 (b) 3, 5 (c) 5,5 (d) 5, -5
57. If α, β are roots of the equation x2 – lx + m = 0, then the value of 1/ α2 + 1/ β2 in
terms of l and m is:
𝑙 2 −2𝑚 2𝑙 2 −𝑚 2𝑚+ 𝑙 2 2𝑙 2 + 𝑚
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑚2 𝑚2 𝑚2 𝑚2

58. If α, β are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then


α2 β2
+ =
β α
3𝑎𝑏𝑐 3𝑎𝑏𝑐− 𝑎3 3𝑎𝑏𝑐− 𝑏3 3𝑎𝑏𝑐− 𝑐 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑎+𝑏 𝑏𝑐 𝑎2 𝑐 𝑎𝑏𝑐

59. The roots of the quadratic equation


1 1 1 1
= + + ; 𝑎 + 𝑏 ≠ 0 are:
𝑎+𝑏+𝑥 𝑎 𝑏 𝑥

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(a) -a, -b (b) a, -b (c) -a, b (d) a, b
60. If the squared difference of the of zeroes of the quadratic polynomial f(x) =
x2+px+45 is equal to 144, the value of p is
(a) ±22 (b) ±30 (c) ±45 (d) ±18
61. An A.P. consists of 37 terms. The sum of the three middle terms is 225 and the
sum of the last three terms is 429. Then A.P. is
(a) 3 ,8 ,13, 18, ……………. (b) 2 ,6, 10, 14, ………...
(c) 3, 7, 11, 15, ………........ (d) 2, 7,12,17, ………….
62. If the points (2, 1) and (1, -2) are equidistant from the point (x, y), then:
(a) x - 3y = 0 (b) x + 3y = 0 (c) 3x - y = 0 (d) 3x + y = 0
63. If the points P(6, 1), Q(8, 2), R(9, 4) and S(x, 3) are the vertices of a
parallelogram, taken in order, then the value of x is
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
64. A point P(x, y) is such that PA = PB, where A (a+b, b-a) and B (a-b, a+b), then:
(a) ax = by (b) bx = ay (c) x = a2y (d) None of these
65. ln ∆ABC, right angled at C, if cot A= √3, the value of sin A Cos B + cos A sin B
will be

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1/√2 (d) ½

66. ln triangle ABC, if D is a point on the side BC such that ∠ADC= ∠BAC, then
CB.CD is equal to:

(a) AB2 (b) BC2 (c) CA2 (d) AD2

67. The circumcentre of the triangle ABC is O. Then ∠OBC + ∠BAC is

(a) greater than 900 (b) equal to 900 (c) less than 900 (d) greater than 1800

68. Area of a rectangle gets reduced by 14 square units, if its length is reduced by 4
units and breadth is increased by 2 units. If we increase the length by 6 units and the
breadth by 1 unit the area increases by 91 square units. Area of the rectangle is

(a) 230 square units (b) 196 square units (c) 209 square units (d) 213 square units

69. ABCD is a parallelogram. Points P and Q on BC trisects BC in three equal parts.


Then area of APQ is :
1 1 1
(a) ¼ area (ABCD) (b) 5 area (ABCD) (c) 6 area (ABCD) (d) 3 area (ABCD)

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70. ln the given ,figure two circular flower beds have been shown on two sides of a
square lawn ABCD of side 56m. If the centre of each circular flower bed is the point
of intersection O of the diagonals of the square lawn, find the sum of the areas of the
lawn and the flower beds :

(a) 4302 m2 (b) 3402 m2 (c) 1032 m2 (d) 4032 m2

71. The surface areas of six faces of rectangular solid are 4, 4, 8, 8, 18 and 18 cm 2.
The volume of the solid is :

(a) 324 cm3 (b) 60 cm3 (c) 48 cm3 (d) 24 cm3

72. A right cylindrical vessel is full with water. How many right cones having same
diameter and height as of right cylinder will be needed to store that water

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

73. If Cos 9α = sin α and 9α <900, then tan 5α = ?


1
(a) √3 (b) √3 (c) 1 (d) 0

1 1 1
74. If 𝑥 𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃 – 𝑦 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 = √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 and 𝑎2 𝐶𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 = then which
𝑏2 𝑥 2 + 𝑦2
relationship among the following is correct?

𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑥2 𝑦2
(a) 𝑏2 - 𝑎2 = 1 (b) 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 1 (c) 𝑏2 + 𝑎2 = 1 (d) 𝑎2 - 𝑏2 = 1

75. Due to sun, a 6 feet man casts a shadow of 4,feet, whereas a pole next to the
man casts a shadow of 36 feet. What is the height of the pole?

(a) 54 feet (b) 48 feet (c) 72 feet (d) 63 feet

76. A 1.5 m tall boy is standing at some distance from a 30 m tall building. The angle
of elevation from his eyes to the top of the building increases from 300 to 600 as he
walks towards the building. Then the distance he walked towards the building is :

(a) 19√3 m (b) 20√3 m (c) 21√3 m (d) 22√3 m

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77. The mean of a set of observations x1, x2, x3, ……….., xn is 𝑥̅ . If each observation
is divided by 'α' and then increased by '𝑎', then the new mean is

𝑥̅ 𝑎 𝑥̅
(a) α – 𝑎 (b) 𝑥̅ + (c) α + 𝑎 (d) α𝑥̅ − 𝑎
α

78. The median of set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4
observations of the set is increased by 2, then the median of the new set:

(a) is increased by 2 (b) is decreased by 2

(c) is two times of the original number (d) remains the same as that of the original set

79. If an unbiased die is thrown twice, then the probability of 3 will not come up either
time is:

(a) 2/3 (b) 5/6 (c) 25/36 (d) 35/36

80. If sin θ + cos θ = a and Sin3 θ + Cos3 θ = b, then the value of 3a – 2b is:

(a) a3 (b) b3 (c) 0 (d) 1

81. The autobiography of Subhash Chandra Bose is:

(a) The Indian Struggle (b) Towards Freedom

(c) My Country My Life (d) One Life is Not Enough

82. An island of the Andaman Islands, now named Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
Island, was formerly known as

(a) Neil Island (b) Havelock Island (c) Ross Island (d) St. Lawrence Island

83. Larry Tesler who died in February 2020 was inventor of computer command:

(a) Cut/Copy and Paste (b) Super Fix and Subscript

(c) Capitalisation in Lower and Upper Case (d) Bold, ltalics and Underline

84. Who is the author of Ramacharitamanasa?

(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Kabir Das (c) Tulsidas (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

85. Which British Governor General abolished Sati pratha?

(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Wellesley (c) Lord William Bentinck (d) Lord Dalhousie

86. 'Nagarhole National Park' is located in:

(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan

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87. The Mughal emperor, Humayun died due to:

(a) assassination by his son (b) an accidental fall from the stairs

(c) snake bite (d) arrow shot in the battle field

88. 'Kuchipudi' dance originated in

(a) Rajasthan (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Punjab

89. The I.M.F. and World Bank are also known as

(a) Bretton Woods institutions (b) New York institutions

(c) Washington D.C. institutions (d) Beverley Hills institutions

90. 'Charminar Trophy' is associated with:

(a) Volleyball (b) Football (c) Golf (d) Athletics

91. The angel entrusted with the task of blowing the trumpet (sur) on the day of
judgement is :

a) Hazrat Jibraeel (b) Hazrat lsrafeel (c) Hazrat lzraeel (d) Hazrat Mikail

92. After Hijrah of Madina in whose house did the Prophet reside first in Madina?

(a) Hazrat Ma'az bin Jabal (b) Hazrat Abdullah

(c) Hazrat Abu Ayyub Ansari (d) Hazrat Umar

93. Which of the following books is not part of the 'Sihah-i-Sittah'?

(a) Sahih Muslim (b) Jamie Tirmidhi

(c) Sunan Nasa'I (d) Musnad Ahmad lbn Hanbal

94. Hyder Ali took the control of Mysore in the year :

(a) 1754 (b) 1763 (c) 1771 (d) 1779

95. The task of placing diacritical marks on the Quran was undertaken by:

(a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (b) Zayd B. Thabit (c) Hazrat Ali (d) Hajjaj lbn Yusuf Thaqafi

96. The last Quranic verse was revealed to the Prophet in :

(a) Muzdalfa (b) Mount Safa (c) Marwah (d) Arafat

97. Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti was born in the year :

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(a) 1143 AD (b) 1173 AD (c) 1236 AD (d) 1266 AD

98. Tipu Sultan was born in the year :

(a) 1750 (b) 1755 (c) 1763 (d) 1765

99. The famous Qutub Minar is said to be built by Qutubuddin Aibak but the last two
storeys were completed by :

(a) lltutmish (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (c) Sher Shah Suri (d) Sikandar Lodi

100. Tafsir' 'al-Quran is a commentary of the Quran written by

(a) Ashraf Ali Thanvi (b) Maulana Shibli

(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

Answer Key 2022


1.b 2.b 3.b 4.d 5.c 6.b 7.d 8.a 9.b 10.d 11.b 12.c
13.d 14.d 15.c 16.c 17.c 18.a 19.c 20.a 21.d 22.c 23.a 24.b
25.c 26.b 27.d 28.a 29.b 30.b 31.d 32.b 33.c 34.a 35.b 36.b
37.b 38.b 39.b 40.b 41.b 42.c 43.d 44.c 45.d 46.d 47.a 48.a
49.a 50.a 51.b 52.c 53.c 54.d 55.d 56.d 57.a 58.c 59.a 60.d
61.c 62.b 63.a 64.b 65.b 66.c 67.b 68.c 69.c 70.d 71.d 72.b
73.c 74.b 75.a 76.a 77.c 78.d 79.c 80.a 81.a 82.c 83.a 84.c
85.c 86.b 87.b 88.b 89.a 90.d 91.b 92.c 93.d 94.b 95.d 96.d
97.a 98.a 99.b 100.d

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AMU Class XI (Science)/Diploma in Engg. Entrance Test 2023

1. Which of the following is an irrational number?

(a) 0.254254254……. (b) 22/7 (c) 0.12012001200012…. (d) 0.053125

2. If A > B and C < 0 which of the following is not true?

(a) AC < BC (b) A + C > B + C (c) A – C < B – C (d) Both (a) and (b) are true

3. 12 typist working for 4 hours to type a book in 18 days. In how many days 4 typist
will work for 8 hours to type same book?

(a) 27 (b) 30 (c) 33 (d) 36

4. The sum of a two digit number obtained by reversing its digit is a square number.
How many such numbers are there?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

5. The pair of equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and -3x – 6y + 1 = has:

(a) unique solution (b) exactly two solutions

(c) infinitely many solutions (d) no solution

6. If x = 3 + √8, then the value of x2 + 1/x2 is:

(a) 24 (b) 34 (c) 44 (d) 18

7. Which of the following is a polynomial?

(a) 𝑥2 + 𝑥-2 (b) √3𝑥 + 9 (c) 𝑥2 + 2𝑥 - √𝑥 + 3 (d) √3 + 2𝑥 – 𝑥2

8. The polynomial

f(x) = (x4 – x3 – 11x2 – x + a) is divisible by (x + 3), for a =

(a) -8 (b) -12 12 (d) -6

9. If the roots of the equation (a – b)x2 + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0 are equal, then find the
value of b + c:

(a) 2a (b) 4b (c) 6a (d) 3a

10. If a – b, a and a + b are zeroes of the polynomial x 3 – 3x2 + x + 1 then the value
of (a + b) is:

(a) 1 ± √2 (b) -1 + √2 (c) -1 - √2 (d) 3

11. If a/b + b/a = 1, then the value of a3 + b3 is:

(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) ½ (d) 0

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12. The 5th term of an AP is 11 and its 9th term is 35. The common difference of the
AP is:

(a) 4 (b) -4 (c) 6 (d) -6

13. Let a be the nth term an AP. If

then the common difference of the AP is:


𝛼− 𝛽 𝛼− 𝛽
(a) (b) β – α (c) (d) α – β
100 200

14. The value of tan 1⁰, tan 2⁰, tan 3⁰ ………. tan 89⁰ is equal to:

(a) 0 (b) ∞ (c) 1/3 (d) 1


sin 15 cos 75+cos 15 sin 75
15. 𝑠𝑒𝑐 210 – 𝑐𝑜𝑡280 + cos 𝜃 sin(90− 𝜃)+sin 𝜃 cos(90− 𝜃) is equal to:

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 3

16. Let A, B, C, D be the angles of a quadrilateral. If they are concyclic, then the
value of cos A cos B+ cos C+ cos D is:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 2

17. In figure AB||CD. If ∠AOC = 30⁰ and ∠OAB = 100⁰ then ∠OCD = ?

(a) 150⁰ (b) 100⁰ (c) 130⁰ (d) 80⁰

18. A circle with centre O is shown in figure. If ∠BOC = 120⁰, then ∠CDE will be of:

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(a) 30⁰ (b) 45⁰ (c) 60⁰ (d) 15⁰

19. If AB = 12cm and BC = 16cm and AB ⊥ BC, then the radius of the circle passing
through A, B and C is:

(a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 20 cm

20. The area of the sector of a circle of radius 4 cm and of angle 30⁰ is:

(a) 4.02 cm2 (b) 4.19 cm2 (c) 4 cm2 (d) 22/7 cm2

21. The are of the parallelogram PQRS, shown in figure, is 36 units. The area of
quadrilateral PURT if PT||UR and PT ⊥ SR is:

(a) 9 units (b) 64 units (c) 24 units (d) 12 units

22. A conical flask is full of water. The flask has base radius ‘r’ and height ‘h’. This
water is poured into a cylindrical flask of base radius 'm', height of water in cylindrical
flask is:
ℎ 𝑟2ℎ
(a) 𝑚/2ℎ (b) 2 𝑚2 (c) 2ℎ/𝑚 (d) 3𝑚2

23. The height of the cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane
parallel to its base. If its volume is of 1/27 of the volume of the cone. At what height
above the base, is the section made?

(a) 6cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 20 cm

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24.The area of the shaded region will be (O is the center of semicircle AED; ABO
and OCD are also semicircles):

(a) 64 π (b) 32 π (c) 16 π (d) 8 π

25. A farmer connects a pipe of internnl diameter 25 cm from a canal into a


cylindrical tank in his field which is 12 m in diameter and 2.5 m deep. If water flows
through the pipe at the rate of 3.6 km/hr, the tank will be lilled in:

(a) 4/5 hrs (b) 8/5 hrs (c) 6/5 hrs (d) 7/5 hrs

26. The points (a, a), (-a, -a) and (-√3 a, √3 a) form the vertices of:

(a) a right angle triangle (b) an equilateral triangle

(c) an isosceles triangle (d) a scalene triangle

27. 2 boys and 2 girls are in Room A and 1 boy and 3 girls in Room B. The total
number of otltcomes for the experiment, in which a room is selected and then a
person, are:

(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 8

28. What is the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2,
2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4 and 4 will be their average?

(a) 2/5 (b) 1/10 (c) 2/7 (d) 3/10

29. What is the chance of having 53 Sundays in a leap year?

(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 4/7

30. Arithmetic mean of n numbers 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , …. 𝑥𝑛 is 𝐴. If 𝑥𝑛 is replaced by (𝑛+1)𝑥𝑛 then


the new average is:
(𝑛−1) 𝐴 + 𝑛𝑥𝑛 𝑛𝐴 +(𝑛+1)𝐴+ 𝑥𝑛 (𝑛+1)𝐴+ 𝑛𝑥𝑛
(a) (b) (c) (d) (𝐴 + 𝑥𝑛 )
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛

31. Al-Aqsa Mosque, which was in news recently is located in which city?

(a) Rome (b) JerusaIem (c) Riyadh (d) Muscat

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32. Which of the following former Japanese Prime Minister was assassinated in
2022?

(a) Naoto Kan (b) Yoshihide Suga (c) Shinzo Abe (d) Yoshihiko Noda

33. The US House of Representatives Speaker Nancy Pelosi was in news because
of her visit in August, 2022 to:

(a) Taiwan (b) South Korea (c) Japan (d) China

34. Which one of the following fundamental rights is also available to foreigners in
lndia?

(a) Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or


place of birth

(b) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

(c) Article 25 - Freedom of Religion

(d) Article 29 - Protection of language, script and culture of minorities

35. Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Decree (b) Writ (c) Ordinance (d) Notification

36. Who is the author of the book “Anand Math"?

(a) Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) M. K. Gandhi (d) Sarojini Naidu

37. ln which of the following states is black soil found?

(a) Jamrnu and Kashmir (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand

38. Which one of the following is a rabi crop?

(a) Rice (b) Gram (c) MiIIets (d) Cotton

39. The term ‘Butterfly Stroke’ referred to in which sport:

(a) WrestIing (b) Volleyball (c) Tennis (d) Swimming

40. Rakesh Jhunjhunwala who passed away recently was associated with which
profession?

(a) Politician (b) lnvestor (c) Scientist (d) Musician

41. On the occnsion of the Treaty of Hudaybiya rumour was spread of the death of
which companion (Sahabi)?

(a) Khalid b. Walid (b) Hamza (c) Umar (d) Uthman

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42. The title 'al-Farooq’ is associated with which Sahabi?

(a) Abu Bakr (b) Umar b. Khattflb (c) Uthman Ghani (d) Ali Murtaza

43. Who experimented with the ‘Control of the Markets’?

(a) Sikandar Lodi (b) Alauddin Khalji

(c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq (d) Gheyasuddin Balban

44. The founder of Syed Dynasty was:

(a) Khizr Khan (b) Daulat Khan (c) Muhammad Shah (d) Sikandar Lodi

45. Mndarsatul Uloom in Aligarh was founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in the year .

(a) 1870 (b) 1875 (c) 1880 (d) 1885

46. The ‘Battle of Plassey’ was fought in the year :

(a) 1757 AD (b) 1800 AD (c) 1900 AD (d) 1617 AD

47. The Victoria School was establishcd by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan at:

(a) Aligarh (b) Meerut (c) Ghazipur (d) Muradabad

48. The ‘Comrade’, an English weekly was launched by:

(a) Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar (b) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(c) Maulana Shibli Nu'mani (d) Maulana Abul KaJam Azad

49. Tipu Sultan succecded to the throne of the Kingdom of Mysore in the year:

(a) 1754 (b) 1768 (c) 1782 (d) 1790

50. Who among the following was the leading disciple of Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti?

(a) Iltutmish (b) Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

(c) Nizamuddin Awliya (d) Fariduddin Ganj-e-Shakar

51. A train travels some distance with a speed of 30 km/hr and returns with a speed
of 45 km/hr. The average speed of the train is:

(a) 36.0 km/hr (b) 34.5 km/hr (c) 36.8 km/hr (d) 37.5 km/hr

52. The numerical ratio of distance to displacement for a moving object is:

(a) always less than one (b) less than or equal to one

(c) always greater than one (d) greater than or equal to one

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53. A and B are two spherical objects. If object B is twice larger than object A; but
their densities are same. The ratio of force required to move them at same rate will
be :

(a) 1:8 (b) 2:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 8:1

54. ln the following velocity - time graph, the distance travelled by the body in meters
is :

(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 400

55. The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit
distance is called

(a) Gravitational potential (b) Acceleration due tO gravity

(c) Gravitational field (d) Universal gravitational Constant

56. A body weighs 64 N on the surface of the earth. If the diameter of the earth
becomes two times its present value and its volume and mass remains unchanged,
then weight of the body on the new surface of the earth is equal to:

(a) 64 N (b) 28 N (c) 20 N (d) 16 N

57. A 4 kg mass and 1 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of
their moment is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

58. An electricity user pays 1200 rupees electricity bill for every month, on which his
electric consumption charge is 900 rupees. If he operates a dual coil electric heater
(each of 750 W), a fan of 75 W and 10 W LED lamp, for 1, 12, 10 hours, respectively
on regular basis. The amount he pays for each of the consumed unit will be:

(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 23

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59. A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifth of its volume submerged. If the
relative density of wood is 0.8, the density of liquid is (in kg/m3):

(a) 1000 (b) 800 (c) 500 (d) 400

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Speed of sound in a medium depends on the temperature of the medium.

(b) A sound of single frequency is called a note.

(c) Sound propagates through a medium at a finite speed.

(d) Sound cannot travel in vcuum.

61. Three resistors of 2Ω ,3Ω and 5Ω. are connected in parallel across a battery of
10 V and of negligible internal resistance. The potential drop across 3Ω resistor is :
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 10V
62. Weight of the solid is 80 gms in air and 62 gms in water. Relative density of the
solid will be:
(a) 0.22 (b) 0.77 (c) 1.29 (d) 4.44
63. An electric bulb is rated at 200 V- 100 W. Five such bulbs burn for four hours.
The cost of the electrical energy consumed, if the rate is 50 paise per unit, will be:
(a) ₹ 0.50 (b) ₹1.00. (c) ₹1.50. (d) ₹ 2.00
64. An object vibrates at 100 Hz. Its time period will be:
(a) 0.01 second. (b) 0.1 second. (c) 10 second (d) 100 second
65. From the law of refraction of light, the refractive index (μ) of a medium is given
by:
(a) μ = cot r, if incident light falls normal on surface of given medium
(b) μ=cosec r, if incident light falls normal on the surface of given medium
(c) μ = 0, if angle of incident equal to angle of refraction i.e. ∠i = ∠r
(d) μ is independent of incidence angle
66. The refractive index of water is 4/3 and that of glass is 3/2. The refractive index
of glass with respect to water is :
(a) 2 (b) 9/8 (c) 8/9 (d) 1/2
67. The electrical resistivity of the material of the conductor depends on:
(a) its length. (b) its area of cross section
(c) the nature of its material. (d) all the above
68. Electrovalent compounds are soluble in:

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(a) Kerosene (b) Petrol (c) Benzene (d) Water
69. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanol with ethanoic acid in presence
of an acid catalyst is:

70. Which oxide is more basic in the following?


(a) Na₂O (b) MgO (c) ZnO (d) CuO
71. Which of the following reaction is not correct?
(a) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(b) 2Ag + Cu(NO3)2 → 2AgNO3 + Cu
(c) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
(d) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
72. Mass of one atom is equal to :
(a) 1/16th the mass of O¹⁶ atom.
(b) 1 /14th the mass of C¹⁴ atom.
(c) 1/12th the mass of C¹² atom.
(d) one atom of Hydrogen.
73. What are the number of moles in 12.04 x 10²³ atoms of Helium ?
(atomic mass = 4)
(a) 1.2044 moles. (b) 0.12 moles. (c) 2.0 moles. (d) All the above
74. The number of molecules of sulphur (S8) in 16g of solid sulphur are:
(a) 0.062 x 6.023 x 10²³ molecules
(b) 6.2 x 6.023 × 10²³ molecules
(c) 0.620 × 6.023 × 10²³ molecules .
(d) 62 x 6.023 × 10²³ molecules

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75. Which one is the Dobereiner's triads in the periodic table?
(a) F, Cl, I (b) N, P, As (c) Ca, Sr, Ba (d) Na, K, Li
76. Which gas is released when acetic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate?
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Hydrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen
77. 3MnO2 + 4Al → 2Al2O3 + 3Mn + Heat. The above reaction is not an example of:
(a) redox reaction (b) exothermic reaction
(c) displacement reaction (d) decomposition reaction
78. Number of carbon atoms present in 0.65 mole of C are:
(a) 3.09 × 10²³ (b) 3.95 × 10²³ (c) 3.91 × 10²³ (d) 3.85 x 10²³
79. The solubility of gases in liquids increases with:
(a) Decrease in temperature and increase in pressure
(b) Increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
(c) Decrease in temperature and decrease in pressure
(d) Increase in temperature and increase in pressure
80. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high
melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as:
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si
ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
81. (i) 2 ZnS(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2 ZnO(s) + 2 SO2(g)
ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
(ii) ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Which statement is true for the above reactions in the following?
(a) Reaction (i) is calcination and (ii) is roasting.
(b) Reaction (i) is roasting and (ii) is calcination.
(c) Both reactions, (i) and (ii) are the example of calcination.
(d) Both reactions, (i) and (ii) are the example of roasting.
82. Which of the following is the most reactive metal ?
(a) Cu (b) Fe (c) Al (d) Zn
83. 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacts with 6 g of ethanoic acid to give 2.2 g of carbon
dioxide, 0.9 g water and 'x' g sodium acetate. According to law of conservation of
mass, the value of 'x' shall be:
(a) 8.2 g (b) 8.8 g (c) 11.3 g (d) 14.4 g
84. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergoes addition reaction?

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(I) C₂H₂ (II) C₂H4 (III) C2H6. (IV) C3H6
Choose the correct option:
(a) only I (b) only I and II (c) only I and III (d) only I, II and IV
85. Which chamber of the heart receives the oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?
(a) Left atrium (b) Left ventricle (c) Right atrium (d) Right ventricle
86. Number of nephrons in each human kidney is:
(a) One thousand (b) One hundred thousand (c) One million (d) Ten million
87. The cuboidal epithelium forms the lining of:
(a) Oesophagus (b) Intestine (c) Skin (d) Kidney tubules
88. The cell organelles containing their own genetic materials are:
(a) Mitochondria and Glyoxysomes (b) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(c) Mitochondria and Plastids (d) Mitochondria and Golgi apparatus
89. The innermost layer of anther wall is called:
(a) Epidermis (b) Endothecium (c) Endodermis (d) Tapetum
90. Saccharomyces (Yeast) reproduces by:
(a) Fission (b) Budding (c) Fragmentation (d) Sporulation
91. In autotrophic nutrition the substance which is not taken up from outside is:
(a) CO₂ (b) H₂O (c) Light (d) Chlorophyll
92. Nitrogen is an essential element for the synthesis of:
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Oil
93. Breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in :
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Mitochondria (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Endoplasmic Reticulum
94. Which of the following occupies the lowest level in an energy pyramid?
(a) hawk (b) mouse (c) grass (d) snake
95. All the living organism in an area together with the non-living constituents of the
environment forms :
(a) Universe (b) Surroundings (e) Ecosystem (d) Ecotones
96. The phenotypic ratio of Mendel's monohybrid cross between pure tall and dwarf
varieties, in F2 generation is:
(a) 9:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 3:9
97. Which one is considered as micronutrient ?

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(a) Calcium (b) Molybdenum (c) Magnesium (d) Nitrogen
98. In classification the kingdom Protista include:
(a) Unicellular eukaryotes (b) Unicellular prokaryotes
(c) Multicellular prokaryotes (d) Multicellular eukaryotes
99. Which of the following is not triploblastic animal?
(a) Planaria (b) Euplectella (c) Ascaris (d) Fasciola
100. Specify the water fern which is used as a green manure in rice fields:
(a) Salvinia (b) Mucor (c) Aspergillus (d) Azolla

Answer Key 2023

1.c 2.c 3.a 4.d 5.d 6.b 7.d 8.b 9.a 10.a 11.d 12.c

13.a 14.d 15.a 16.a 17.c 18.c 19.c 20.b 21.c 22.d 23.d 24.b

25.b 26.b 27.d 28.d 29.b 30.d 31.b 32.c 33.a 34.c 35.b 36.a

37.b 38.b 39.d 40.b 41.d 42.b 43.b 44.a 45.b 46.a 47.c 48.a

49.c 50.b 51.a 52.d 53.a 54.a 55.d 56.omitted 57.c 58.a 59.a 60.b

61.d 62.d 63.b 64.a 65.d 66.b 67.c 68.d 69.a 70.a 71.b 72.c

73.c 74.a 75.c 76.c 77.d 78.c 79.a 80.b 81.b 82.c 83.a 84.d

85.a 86.c 87.d 88.c 89.d 90.b 91.d 92.b 93.b 94.c 95.c 96.b

97.b 98.a 99.b 100.d

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