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Performance Issue: 00 08-2011

QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

1) Given that: VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum
control speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick
speed V1= Take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-
off safety speed The correct formula is:
a)1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
b)VMCG<=VEF < V1
c)1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
d)V2min<= VEF<= VMU

2) Given: VS= Stalling speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU=
Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed VLOF: Lift-off
speed. The correct formula is:
a) V2min< VMCA> VMU
b)VR< VMCA< VLOF
c) VMU<=VMCA<V1
d)VS< VMCA< V2 min

3) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

a) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
b) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made
a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot
is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off
surface.

4) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
c) Induced drag is independant of the speed.
d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

5) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a) the resultant from lift and drag
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b) the thrust
c) the drag
d) the lift

6) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to
the drag (D)?
a) In a descent with constant TAS
b)In accelerated level flight
c)In a climb with constant IAS
d) In level flight with constant IAS

7) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a) the true airspeed and the bank angle.
b)the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
c)the bank angle only.
d)the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

8) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is

highest at
a) VA (design manoeuvring speed)
b)VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
d)VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)

9) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is

a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
b) the lowest point of the drag curve.
c) at stalling speed (VS).
d) on the "back side" of the drag curve.

10) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
a) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
b) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
c) c is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
d) d is the maximum drag speed.
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Performance Issue: 00 08-2011

QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

11) The rate of climb

a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
c) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

12) Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,

a) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.
b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
d) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.

13) In unaccelerated climb

a) lift is greater than the gross weight.
b) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in
the flight path direction.
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight
path direction.

14) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated

percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

15) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust
a) has no change during take-off and climb.
b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
c) varies with mass changes only.
d) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

16) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
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Performance Issue: 00 08-2011

QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
d) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

17) Which of the following combinations will give the most limiting weight if
identical slope and wind component values exist?
a) an up-sloping runway with a tailwind component
b) a down-sloping runway with a tailwind component
c) an up sloping runway with a headwind component
d) a down-sloping runway with a headwind component

18) Other factors being equal, an increase in take-off weight will

a) increase lift off speed and decrease stalling speed
b) increase lift off and stalling speed
c) increase lift off speed and stalling speed remains
d) weight has no effect on take-off speed or lift-off speed

19) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of

a) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
b) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a
percentage.
c) true airspeed to rate of climb.
d) rate of climb to true airspeed.

20) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.4) With regard to the
landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane
Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 1400 feet
b) approximately : 950 feet
c) approximately : 1300 feet
d) approximately : 750 feet
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21) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.4) With regard to the
landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a
height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T : 0°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass:
3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps:
a) a approximately : 940 feet
b) b approximately : 1150 feet
c) c approximately : 1480 feet
d) d approximately : 1650 feet

22) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.1) With regard to the
take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off
distance to a height of 50 ft . Given : O.A.T :30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs Tailwind component: 2.5 kt Fl
a) approximately : 2200 feet
b) approximately : 1440 feet
c) approximately : 2800 feet
d) approximately : 2470 feet

23) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.2) With regard to the
take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum
allowable take off mass . Given : O.A.T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Run
a) 3000 lbs
b) 3240 lbs
c) 2900 lbs
d) > 3650 lbs

24) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.1) With regard to the
take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off
speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given: O.A.T: ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5
a) 65 and 75 KIAS
b) 73 and 84 KIAS
c) 68 and 78 KIAS
d) 71 and 82 KIAS
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25) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.2) With regard to the
take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off
distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : 38°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Fl
a) approximately : 5040 ft
b) approximately : 3680 ft
c) approximately : 4200 ft
d) approximately : 3960 ft

26) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.3) With regard to the
climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed
(ft/min). Given : O.A.T: ISA + 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass:3400
lbs Flaps: up Sp
a) 1370 ft/min
b) 1290 ft/min
c) 1210 ft/min
d) 1150 ft/min

27) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.3) Using the climb
performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance
to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:
Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass:
3300
a) 20 109 ft
b) 18 909 ft
c) 18 073 ft
d) 16 665 ft

28) (For this Question use Performance Manual SEP1 Fig. 2.3) Using the climb
performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and
the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs Sp
a) 1030 ft/min and 8,4%
b) 1120 ft/min and 9,3%
c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9%
d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3%
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Performance Issue: 00 08-2011

QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

29) (For this Question use Flight Planning & Monitoring SEP1 Fig. 2.2)Using the
Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS
and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions: Given: OAT: 13°C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300
a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr
b) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr
c) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr
d) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

30) (For this Question use Flight Planning & Monitoring SEP1 Fig. 2.4)Using the
Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range,
with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given : O.A.T.
ISA -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ft Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300
RPM
a) 875 NM
b) 902 NM
c) 860 NM
d) 908 NM

31) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's
angle of climb?
a) Weight and drag only.
b) Weight, drag and thrust.
c) Thrust and drag only.
d) Weight and thrust only.

32) Which of the following statements is correct? If the aircraft mass, in a

horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases
a) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
c) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

33) A higher outside air temperature

a) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
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c) reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

34) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind

condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a) improves angle and rate of climb.
b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
c) has no effect on rate of climb.
d) decreases angle and rate of climb.

35) A constant headwind

a) increases the descent distance over ground.
b) increases the angle of descent.
c) increases the rate of descent.
d) increases the angle of the descent flight path.

36) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The
carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
b) Improved
c) Unchanged
d) Degraded

37) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the
landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
a) 120 kt
b) 115 kt
c) 125 kt
d) 130 kt

38) Vx is defined as :
a) Speed for best cruise
b) speed for best angle of climb
c) speed for best rate of climb
d) speed for best glide
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QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

39) Vy is defined as:

a) speed for best rate of climb single engine
b) speed for best angle of climb
c) speed for best rate of climb
d) speed for soft field landing

40) in a multi engine aeroplane the critical engine is:

a) The engine which causes the largest reduction in climb performance upon
engine failure
b) The engine which causes the largest yawing moment upon engine failure
c) The engine which causes the longest landing distance upon engine failure
d) The engine which causes the greatest rolling moment upon engine failure

41) Stalling speed in landing configuration is defined as the stalling speed

a) with flaps in landing configuration and gear down.
b) with flaps in landing configuration and gear up.
c) with flaps up and gear up.
d) with flaps up and gear down

42) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA).
Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
a) Straight flight
b) Straight flight and altitude
c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
d) Altitude

43) The speed for best rate of climb is called

a) VY.
b) VX.
c) V2.
d) VO.

44) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
a) Lift-off IAS.
b) Lift-off groundspeed.
c) Lift-off TAS.
d) Lift-off EAS.
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QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

45) If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.
b) independent from the centre of gravity position.
c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
d) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.

46) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
a) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the
climb limited take-off mass.
b) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the
climb limited take-off mass.
c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited
take-off mass.
d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited
take-off mass.

47) When the outside air temperature increases, then

a) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass
increases.
b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass decreases.
c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off
mass increases.
d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off
mass decreases.

48) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a) decreases the take-off speed V1.
b) decreases the TAS for take-off.
c) increases the IAS for take-off.
d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

49) What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding

aeroplane?
a) The speed for best angle of descent increases.
b) There is no effect.
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c) The gliding angle decreases.

d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.

50) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature

a) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
b) decreases the take-off distance.
c) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

51) The take-off distance required increases

a) due to slush on the runway.
b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.

52) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will
be
a) lower.
b) higher.
c) unaffected.
d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

53) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased

a) by headwind.
b) by uphill slope.
c) by low outside air temperature.
d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

54) A change of runway in use from a runway slope of 1 % downhill to a runway

slope of 1 % uphill will:
a) increase take-off run, decrease take-off distance
b) decrease take-off run, decrease take-off distance
c) increase take-off run, increase take-off distance
d) d decrease take-off run, increase take-off distance
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55) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for
the take-off?
a) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient
temperature and short runway.
b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and
a high ambient temperature.
c) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long
runway and a high ambient temperature.
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a
low ambient temperature.

56) What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?

a) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and
"gross" take-off flight paths.
b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for
rotation.
c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals
the available runway length.
d) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the
event of an engine failure.

57) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :

a) the take-off distance available.
b) the take-off run available.
c) the accelerate-stop distance available.
d) the landing distance available.

58) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin
climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high
obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a) 85 m
b) 100 m
c) 115 m
d) It will not clear the obstacle
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QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

59) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot
chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

60) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot
chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
a) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

61) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a
gradient of 5%. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
margin of:
a) 90 m
b) 105 m
c) 75 m
d) it will not clear the obstacle

62) Considering a turbine powered aircraft, when passing 35 feet at the end of the
take-off distance, the speed should not be less than
a) 1.3 Vmcg
b) 1.1 Vmcg
c) 1.2 Vs1 or 1.1 Vmca
d) 1.1 Vs1 or 1.3 Vmcg

63) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases
pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains the same.
d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.
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QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

64) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of
descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.)
a) Configuration and angle of attack.
b) Mass and altitude.
c) Altitude and configuration.
d) Configuration and mass.

65) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance
during glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a) Decrease of aircraft mass.
b) Increase of aircraft mass.
c) Tailwind.
d) Headwind.

66) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a) High mass.
b) Low mass.
c) Headwind.
d) Tailwind.

67) When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means

a) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
b) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

68) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb
gradient is about :
a) 3°
b) 3%
c) 5°
d) 8%
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QUESTIONS BANK Revision: 00 01-2022

69) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given
mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed
(minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb speed will be
obtained for a speed:
a) inferior to 95 kts
b) equal to 95 kt
c) is between 95 and 125 kt
d) equal to 125 kt

70) A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly
over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should
choose:
a) the speed at the maximum lift.
b) the long range speed.
c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift /drag)^3/2.
d) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.

71) The optimum altitude

a) decreases as mass decreases.
b) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific
range reaches its maximum.
c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

72) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

73) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No
compressibility effects.)
a) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
b) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
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74) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to
100ft/min is called:
a) Absolute ceiling
b) Service ceiling
c) Thrust ceiling
d) Maximum transfer ceiling

75) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a) 125 ft/min
b) 0 ft/min
c) 500 ft/min
d) 100 ft/min

76) To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed
should be
a) reduced to the gust penetration speed.
b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
d) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no
wind.

77) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is
correct?
a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel
mass.
d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

78) Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of
climb speed.
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
c) The speed for minimum drag.
d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.
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79) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :

a The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
b The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
c The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
d The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

80) (For this Question use Performance Manual MRJT1) With regard to the graph
for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a
take- off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set?
a) Performance will be better than in the chart.
b) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.
c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.
d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.

81) The take-off decision speed V1 is:

a) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off
must be aborted.
d) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the
take-off must be aborted.

82) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control

being maintained by:
a) primary aerodynamic control only.
b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.
d) nosewheel steering only.

83) The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
based upon:
a) only one engine operating.
b) all engines operating.
c) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the
largest take off distance.
d) failure of critical engine.
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84) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
a) All Engine Take-off distance
b) Take-off distance
c) Accelerate Stop Distance
d) Take-off run

85) The length of a clearway may be included in:

a) the take-off distance available.
b) the accelerate-stop distance available.
c) the take-off run available.
d) the distance to reach V1.

86) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an

aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i)….and
allowing for a reaction time of (ii)….a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of
decelerating to a halt within the (iii) ....
a) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
b) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

87) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed
immediatly above the correct value of V1?
a) It may lead to over-rotation.
b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance
available.
c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
d) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

88) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition.
b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
c) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind
component.
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89) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

90) The speed V2 is

a) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with
aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the
case of an engine failure.
c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
d) the take-off safety speed.

91) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted
take-off.
b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an
aborted take-off.
c) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support
the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least
at the end of the permanent runway surface.

92) Which of the following will decrease V1?

a) Inoperative anti-skid.
b) Increased take-off mass.
c) Inoperative flight management system.
d) Increased outside air temperature.

93) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1

a) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
d) the take-off must be continued.
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94) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller
powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
a) 1.15 Vs
b) 1.3 Vs
c) 1.2 Vs
d) 1.15 Vs1

95) The correct definition of TODA

a) TORA plus stopway
b) TODA with a safety factor of 1.33
c) TORA plus clearway
d) d TORR plus stopway

96) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors
remain constant and not limiting?
a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass.
c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

97) Uphill slope

a) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
c) decreases the take-off distance only.
d) increases the allowed take-off mass.

98) Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?

a) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for
a dry runway
b) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight
penalties
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can
still be used
d) Screen height reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle
clearance.
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99) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for
a balanced take-off? Down-slope...
a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

100) At a given aerodrome the runway length, pressure altitude and OAT, as well
as other data are known, and the flap setting for takeoff is selected to be flaps 10°
to get maximum possible takeoff weight at this aerodrome.As the aircraft departs,
the flap handle is erroneously set to 20°. Now the takeoff performance
a) RWY increases
b) vs climb requirement increases.
c) vs service ceiling increase
d) vs OBST increases (determined by a distant obstacle)

101) If the ANC is larger than the PNC for the runway you:
a) Cannot land on the runway
b) Can land only in the opposite direction
c) Can land on the runway
d) Can land only if the runway is bare and dry.

102) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off
Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case.
What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap
position?
a) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
c) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

103) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

a) it is dark.
b) windshear is reported on the take-off path.
c) the runway is dry.
d) the runway is wet.
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104) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

a) anti skid is not usable.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is wet.
d) the OAT is ISA +10°C

105) Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?

a) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than
the field length limited take-off mass.
b) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
c) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

106) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope
would
a) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
d) increase the required take-off distance.

107) Which T/O condition is most likely resulting in the poorest climb
performance?
a) Sea level field, ISA -10o, T/O flaps 10°.
b) Sea level field, ISA + 5o, T/O flaps 10°
c) 5000' field elevation, ISA + 20o, T/O flaps 30°
d) 5000' field elevation, ISA -5o. T/O flaps 10°

108) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing
pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.
b) Allowable take-off mass increases.
c) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
d) Allowable take-off mass decreases.

109) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure

altitude is decreased?
a) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
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b) It will increase the take-off distance required.

c) It will increase the take-off ground run.
d) It will decrease the take-off distance required.

110) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following

statements is correct?
a) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more
V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
c) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by
means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
d) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the
performance data for contaminated runway is available.

111) Which of the following answers is true?

a) V1 > Vlof
b) V1 <= VR
c) V1 > VR
d) d V1 < VMCG

112) Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?

a) VLOF
b) VMCG
c) VMU
d) VR

113) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max
tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a) V2
b) VMCA
c) VR
d) VREF

114) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the
pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a) deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
b) reverse engine thrust.
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c) apply wheel brakes.

d) reduce the engine thrust.

115) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
a) V2 has the same value in both cases.
b) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway
length only.

116) Vr for transport category aircraft must be at least:

a) less than V1
b) 1.05 x Vmca
c) 1.05 x Vth
d) 1.2 x Vmca

117) The effect on a too late rotation will be an

a) increase the ground roll but climb ability will be good
b) decrease both the ground roll and climb ability
c) decrease the ground roll but increase the climb ability
d) increase the ground roll and decrease the climb ability

118) Maximum tire speed Vmax tyre are limited to speed due to
a) centripetal force on the tire
b) heat released during braking
c) gear retraction speed
d) gear operating speed Vlo

119) During take-off calculation, using a low V1 will, assuming other condition
being equal give
a) a shorter accelerate stop distance required and a relative long take-off
distance required
b) a long accelerate stop distance required and a relative short take-off distance
required
c) V1 have no influence on take-off distance required
d) a short accelerate stop distance required, take-off distance required remains the
same
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120) With a decreased flap setting from 20° to 10° on take off the effect will be:
a) VLOF and V2 would both increase
b) VLOF would increase but V2 would decrease
c) VLOF would decrease
d) VLOF would decrease and V2 would increase

121) During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is
found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what
way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting
obstacles.
a) By selecting a higher V2.
b) By selecting a higher flap setting.
c) By selecting a lower V2.
d) By selecting a lower flap setting.

122) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following
alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?
a) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.
b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-
off mass.
c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap
setting.
d) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.

123) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is

true?
a) The accelerate stop distance increases.
b) The accelerate stop distance decreases.
c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
d) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.

124) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off

calculation is correct?
a) The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
b) The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
c) V1 is increased.
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d) V1 remains constant.

125) If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced
Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow
a) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
b) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
d) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1

126) Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the
take-off mass?
a) Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.
b) Tyre pressure and brake temperature.
c) Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
d) Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature.

127) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to

a tyre speed limited take-off?
a) A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
b) A high runway elevation and tail wind.
c) A high runway elevation and a head wind.
d) A low runway elevation and a head wind.

128) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For
what reason?
a) a Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of
a rejected take-off.
b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

129) May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Only for take-off.
b) No.
c) Yes.
d) Only for landing.
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130) The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments
are only specified for:
a) 2 engined aeroplane.
b) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
c) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.

131) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
a) When gear retraction is completed.
b) 35 ft above ground.
c) 400 ft above field elevation.
d) 1500 ft above field elevation.

132) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance
to clear all obstacles is
a) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
b) based on pressure altitudes.
c) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane
and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.
d) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

133) A head wind will:

a) increase the climb flight path angle.
b) increase the angle of climb.
c) increase the rate of climb.
d) shorten the time of climb.

134) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet
aeroplane, is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of
climb.
b) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited
take-off mass.
d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will
always be climb limited.
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135) The second segment begins

a) when landing gear is fully retracted.
b) when flap retraction begins.
c) when flaps are selected up.
d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

136) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment
may be avoided
a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the
runway elevation.
b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway
elevation.
c) only by using standard turns.
d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

137) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

a) at 35 ft above the runway.
b) at completion of flap retraction.
c) at reaching V2.
d) at completion of gear retraction.

138) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What
would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
a) None.
b) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the
net take-off flight path.
c) The climb limited take-off mass would increase.
d) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

139) Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration
height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise
abatement.
b) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
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d) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case
to case during the calculation of the net flight path.

140) What is the maximum angle of bank allowed when planning a curved flight
path during climbout (A/C weight > 5700 kg)?
a) 10°
b) 15°
c) 25°
d) 30°

141) Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at

the begining of the 3rd climb segment?
a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-
off thrust may be applied.
b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the
acceleration height.
d) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case
of all engines operating.

142) Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as
follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s2 Drag = 72 569 N Minimum
gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) /
Weight The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
a) 101596kg
b) 286 781 kg
c) 74064kg
d) 209 064 kg

143) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
a) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
c) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
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144) The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb
gradient is:
a) larger.
b) smaller.
c) equal.
d) depends on type of aircraft.

145) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

a) V2.
b) V2+10kt.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed
is maximum.

146) What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
b) The time to climb increases.
c) The time to climb decreases.
d) The time to climb does not change.

147) (For this question use Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) With regard
to the should clear all obstacles by take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane,
why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure
altitude 0?
a) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher
temperatures they are temperature limited.
b) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
c) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into
account.
d) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the
climb limit mass.

148) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new
crossover altitude is
a) higher.
b) lower.
c) unchanged.
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d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

149) Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:

a) same as that for clean configuration.
b) higher than that for clean configuration.
c) lower than that for clean configuration.
d) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean
configuration.

150) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust,
how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
a) Reduce / decrease.
b) Reduce / remain constant.
c) Remain constant / decrease.
d) Remain constant / become larger.

151) With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at
approximately:
a) 1.1 Vs
b) The highest CL/CD2 ratio.
c) 1.2 Vs
d) The highest CL/CD ratio.

152) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after
take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.)
a) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
b) The drag increases considerably.
c) The drag decreases.
d) The drag remains almost constant.

153) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

a) The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
c) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
d) The lift coefficient increases.
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154) The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass

a) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases
due to the lower air density.
b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower
air density.
c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
d) is independent of altitude.

155) Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?

a) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g
altitude is reached.
b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded
the optimum altitude.
c) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.
d) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet
onset at g-loads larger than 1.

156) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in
the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
a) Aerodynamics.
b) Theoretical ceiling.
c) Service ceiling.
d) Economy.

157) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses
and power settings.
b) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet
occur at various masses and altitudes.
c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
d) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at
various weights and altitudes.

158) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?

a) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used
for piston engine aeroplanes only.
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b) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more
tailwind can be expected.
c) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass
reduces.
d) To respect ATC flight level constraints.

159) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on

specific range?
a) Decreases.
b) Increases.
c) Does not change.
d) Increases only if there is no wind.

160) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:

a) a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise
speed.
b) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
c) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
d) a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and
higher cruise speed.

161) At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% -

assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly
consumption is approximately increased by:
a) 7.5%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 2.5%

162) The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:

a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
b) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
c) is independent of the aeroplane mass.
d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
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163) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use
of “maximum range speed”?
a) Minimum specific fuel consumption.
b) Minimum fuel flow.
c) Longest flight duration.
d) Minimum drag.

164) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range

speed'?
a) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
b) In order to achieve speed stability.
c) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
d) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

165) A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. The speed

corresponds to:
a) the minimum drag.
b) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus
TAS curve.
c) the minimum required power.
d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr)
versus TAS curve.

166) The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range
cruise.
a) Depending on the OAT and net mass.
b) Lower
c) Higher
d) Depending on density altitude and mass.

167) The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum
a) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the
minimum drag speed in the descent.
b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
d) is the same as the minimum drag speed.
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168) The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a) improves the maximum range.
b) increases the stalling speed.
c) improves the longitudinal stabiity.
d) decreases the maximum range.

169) At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) is independent of the airspeed.
b) increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
d) increases with decreasing OAT.

170) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
b) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
c) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
d) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.

171) The optimum cruise altitude is

a)the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b)the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
c)the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be
maintained.
d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a
maximum.

172) The optimum cruise altitude increases

a) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c) if the tailwind component is decreased.
d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.

173) Below the optimum cruise altitude

a) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing
altitude.
b) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with
decreasing altitude.
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c) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing
altitude.
d) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with
decreasing altitude.

174) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more)
than the optimum altitude ?
a) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be
expected.
b) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
c) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
d) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or
considerably more tailwind can be expected.

175) Considering driftdown requirement which one of the statements are correct?
a) Clearance between terrain and net drift down path be at least 2500 feet
b) Clearance between terrain and net drift down path be at least 1500 feet
c) Service ceiling at alternate airport must be at least 1500 AGL
d) No requirements for alternate airports.

176) The drift down requirements are based on:

a) the landing mass limit at the alternate.
b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
d) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an
engine has failed.

177) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel
dumping may be taken into account.
b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine
failure at cruising altitude.
c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down,
because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines
operating.
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178) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he
has to fly the speed corresponding to:
a) the minimum power
b) the critical Mach number
c) the minimum drag
d) the maximum lift.

179) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to:
a) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes
from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather
condition with one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising
speed
d) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine
inoperative.

180) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route,
where no suitable airport is within an area of
a) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise
speed.
c) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

181) After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude.
What is the procedure which should be applied?
a) Drift Down Procedure.
b) Emergency Descent Procedure.
c) ETOPS.
d) Long Range Cruise Descent.

182) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied

a) after cabin depressurization.
b) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out
maximum altitude.
c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
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d) to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.

183) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:

a) obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
b) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
c) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
d) weight during landing at the alternate

184) Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?

a) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine
failure at cruising altitude.
c) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel
dumping may be taken into account.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down,
because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine
inoperative as with all engines operating.

185) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the
following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
a) Maximum Operational Mach Number
b) Never Exceed Speed
c) High Speed Buffet Limit
d) Maximum Operating Speed

186) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum
lift to drag ratio speed?
a) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
b) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
d) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.

187) The approach climb requirement is established to safeguard:

a) Obstacle clearance in the approach area.
b) Manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
c) Obstacle clearance in case of an overshoot with one engine inoperative.
d) Manoeuvrability during approach with flaps full and gear down, all engines
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operating

188) How is obstacle clearance assured in a pull-up?

a) By approach climb requirement
b) By landing climb requirement
c) By minima calculations
d) By correcting required landing runway length

189) May the whole runway always be used for landing?

a) Yes, unless closed due to work or damage.
b) Yes, unless marked with white crosses.
c) Yes, if the actual A/C weight is less than max. all-up weight for the whole
runway.
d) No, obstacles in the approach area may decrease the usable part of the
runway.

190) When flying a glideslope on a ILS with a headwind with same descent speed
(CAS)
a) the rate of descent is lower and more power is needed
b) the rate of descent is higher and more power is needed
c) the rate of descent is lower and less power is needed
d) the rate of descent is higher and less power is needed

191) Which of the following is the most limiting situation on landing?

a) upslope with tailwind
b) downslope with tailwind
c) downslope with headwind
d) upslope with headwind

192) How does airplane weight influence best angle of glide?

a) Glide angle increases with airplane weight.
b) Glide angle decreases with airplane weight.
c) Glide angle is not affected by airplane weight
d) It depends on the type of airplane.

193) The allowable landing weight will:

a) Increase with uphill runway slope.
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b) Increase with downhill runway slope.

c) Is not affected by runway slope.
d) Increase with runway contamination.

194) For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet
runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
a) 1800 m.
b) 1565 m.
c) 2609 m.
d) 2070m.

195) For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?

a) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop
point.
b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when
determining the required landing field length.
c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field
length.
d) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination,
60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is
expected to be dry.

196) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
a) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the
hydroplaning speed.
c) make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and
brakes as quickly as possible.
d) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

197) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing

reference achieve: speed (VREF):
a) Lowering VREF
b) Increasing VREF
c) Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of
spoilers.
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198) Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes

a) is 60% longer than at an alternate airport.
b) is less then at an alternate airport.
c) is more than at an alternate airport.
d) is the same as at an alternate airport.

199) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination
(wet requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing
configuration: condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 67%
b) 92%
c) 70%
d) 43%

200) The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:

a) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine
inoperative.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
c) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines
operating.

201) In high density the landing TAS and distance will be:
a) Higher / shorter
b) Lower / shorter
c) higher / remains
d) Lower / remains

202) The approach climb requirement (A/C weight > 5700 kg) is normally met
by:
a) Reducing flap setting for approach with one engine inoperative (2-
engine airplanes)
b) Selecting a landing field with no obstacles in the pull-up area.
c) a threshold speed of 2 x stall speed
d) Reducing final approach speed
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203) For multiengine airplanes with MTOW < 5700 kg. the landing distance must
not exceed:
a) a 1.67 x runway length of landings distance available
b) b 0.6 x runway length of landings distance available
c) c 0.8 x runway length of landings distance available
d) d 0.7 x runway length of landings distance available

204) What is the minimum landing threshold clearance height for calculating
landing distance?
a) 50m.
b) 5 m.
c) 50feet
d) 5 feet

205) The required landing distance available in category A for landing is equal to
a) The distance from 50 ft to complete stop, using wheel brakes only.
b) 1.15 x the distance from 35 ft. height to stop, using the wheel brakes and
reversing.
c) A landing distance available which, multiplied by 0.60 gives the landing
distance, the landing distance being the distance from 50 ft. to complete
stop.
d) 2.0 x the distance from touchdown to a complete stop.

206) When calculating landing distance, wind correction factor must not be more
than
a) 50 % headwind and 50 % tailwind
b) 50 % headwind and 150 % tailwind
c) 150 % headwind and 50 % tailwind
d) No wind correction required

207) If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of
the following will occur?
a) A better maximum range.
b) A lower cruise mach number.
c) A higher cruise mach number.
d) A better long range.