51

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

National Standard Examination in Junior Science – 2023
Date of Examination November 26, 2023
Time: 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM
Question Paper Code: 51

Student’s
Roll No:

Write the Question Paper Code (mentioned above) on YOUR OMR Answer Sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your Answer Sheet will NOT be evaluated. Note that the same Question
Paper Code appears on each page of the Question Paper.

Instructions to Candidates:

1. Use of mobile phone, smart watch, and iPad during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this Question Paper, you are given OMR Answer Sheet along with candidate’s copy.
3. On the OMR sheet, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK
CAPITALS as well as by properly darkening the appropriate bubbles.
Incomplete/ incorrect/ carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
4. On the OMR Answer Sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK BALL POINT PEN for making entries
and filling the bubbles.
5. Your 10-digit roll number and date of birth entered on the OMR Answer Sheet shall remain
your login credentials means login id and password respectively for accessing your performance /
result in National Standard Examination in Junior Science 2023.
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No.1 to 48) each question has four alternatives, out of
which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as shown.
Q.No.12 a c d
In part A2 (Q. No. 49 to 60) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of
alternative(s) (1, 2, 3, or 4) may be correct. You have to choose all correct alternative(s) and fill
the appropriate bubble(s), as shown
Q.No.52 a c
7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked and no incorrect. No
negative marks in this part.
8. Rough work should be done in the space provided. There are 11 printed pages in this paper
9. Calculator is not allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting answer paper, take away the question paper & candidate’s copy of the OMR for
your future reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the
space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.

OMR Answer Sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT
ALLOWED. Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE OMR ANSWER SHEET.

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Instructions to Candidates (Continued) :
You may read the following instructions after submitting the Answer Sheet.

12. Comments/Inquiries/Grievances regarding this question paper, if any, can be shared on the
Inquiry/Grievance column on www.iapt.org.in on the specified format till Dec 3, 2023

13. The Answers/Solutions to this Question Paper will be available on the website:
www.iapt.org.in by Dec 2, 2023. The score card may be downloaded after Dec 24, 2023

14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS:

Following certificates are awarded by IAPT to students, successful in the
National Standard Examination in Junior Science – 2023
(i) “CENTRE TOP 10 %” To be downloaded from iapt.org.in after 30.01.24
(ii) “STATE TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iii) “NATIONAL TOP 1 %” Will be dispatched to the examinee
(iv) “GOLD MEDAL & MERIT CERTIFICATE” to all students who attend OCSC – 2024 at
HBCSE Mumbai
Certificate for centre toppers shall be uploaded on iapt.org.in

15. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above Minimum
Admissible Score will be displayed on the website: www.iapt.org.in by Dec 26, 2023. See the
MAS clause on the student’s brochure on the web.

16. List of students eligible to appear for Indian National Junior Science Olympiad (INJSO – 2024)
shall be displayed on www.iapt.org.in by Dec 30, 2023.

Physical constants you may need….

31
Mass of electron me  9.11  10 kg Magnitude of charge on electron e  1.60 1019 C

34
27
Mass of proton m p  1.67  10 kg Planck’s constant h  6.625 10 Js

Density of water at   1.0 10 kg m

3 3
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 ms-2

1  x 
11 2
Universal gravitational constant G  6.67  10 Nm kg
2
 1  nx, if x  1
n

Universal gas constant R  8.31 Jmol 1 K 1 1 eV  1.6 10

 19
J

Boltzmann constant k  1.38 1023 J K1 sin  A  B   sin A cos B  cos A sin B

Avogadro’s constant A  6.02 10 mol

1
E  m c , It’s an equation which gives mass and
23 2

energy equivalence.
5 -2
7. Atmospheric pressure (at STP) = 1.013 × 10 Nm
One unit of electric power = 1kWh
1
Speed of light in free space c  3.0 10 m s
8

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INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE
(NSEJS – 2023)
Time: 120 minute Max. Marks: 216
Attempt All Sixty Questions
A–1
OUT OF THE FOUR OPTIONS ONLY ONE IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.

1. In animals, heart is the main pumping station, supplying and collecting blood from various parts of
the body. In mammals, which of the following structures regulates the unidirectional flow of blood
and found between left auricle and ventricle?
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Aortic semilunar valve
(c) Pulmonary seminular valve (d) Mitral valve

2. Which of the following refer to the units involved in most of the Reflex Arcs?
(a) Stimulus receptor, afferent nerve, efferent nerve and an effector neuron
(b) Two receptor neurons, one or more internuncial neuron(s) and an effector neuron
(c) One receptor neuron, one or more internuncial neuron(s) and an effector neuron
(d) One receptor neuron, afferent nerve and an effector neuron

3. Through the process of cross-breeding/mutation breeding or cytoplasmic hybridization of animals

and plants, new improved, high yielding varieties or exclusively distinct hybrids are obtained.
Which of the following are cytoplasmic hybrids/cybrids?
(a) Triticale & Fairchild Mule (b) Tigon & Leopon
(c) Pomato & Bromato (d) Jaya & Ratna Rice

4. In a kind of animal tissue all cells rest on a basement membrane, but the basal cells do not reach
the free surface of the epithelium. Two layers of cells and two layers of nuclei are, therefore,
observable. Thus, without being stratified, the epithelium appears to have 2 or 3 layers of cells.
Such epithelia are mostly ciliated and contain mucus-secreting goblet cells. These epithelia are
characteristic to which of the following?
(a) Thin bronchioles, Uriniferous tubules, Ciliary body
(b) Bile ducts, lining of stomach, Trachea
(c) Skin epidermis, Anal canal, Cornea of eye
(d) Trachea, Vasa deferentia, Epididymes

5. Phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) has a bitter taste. Non-tasting ability is reported to be due to recessive
allele of the taster gene. In random populations about 30% people lack the ability to taste PTC. A
non-taster woman is married to a PTC taster man and has three children. The first two children are born
as non-tasters. What is the probability that their third child will be born a non-taster?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.75

6. The diagram presented here is a sectional view of an

endocrine gland. Its histologically characteristic layers
are labeled as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of these is/are
responsible for the secretion of C21 Cortisol and
Corticosterone hormones?
(a) 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3

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7. Which of the following eye defects, arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and
diminishing flexibility of the eye lens?
(a) Hyperopia (b) Presbyopia (c) Astigmatism (d) Myopia

8. Which of the following is an Angoumois grain moth, causing severe damage to the stored grains,
like paddy or wheat?
(a) Sitophilus sp. (b) Sitotroga sp. (c) Gnorimoschema sp. (d) Plodia sp.

9. To effect fertilization in angiosperms, pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give out pollen
tubes which grow through the style and reach the ovule where the male gametes are discharged
close to the egg. Suppose a brinjal plant has to produce 300 seeds in a particular fruit. How many
cell divisions will be required to produce the desired fruit?
(a) 250 Meiotic divisions (b) 375 Meiotic divisions
(c) 375 Mitotic divisions (d) 300 Mitotic and 125 Meiotic divisions.

10. In the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following examples is considered peculiar for the anatomical
characters namely Carinal canals and Vallecular canals?
(a) Magnolia (b) Gnetum (c) Equisetum (d) Lycopodium

11. The secondary constriction on the chromosomes always has a constant position. Therefore, it can
be used as marker to identify specific chromosomes. In addition to the centromere, one or more
secondary constrictions can be observed in Metaphase stage chromosomes. These chromosomes
are called Satellite or SAT chromosomes. In man they are usually associated with the short arm of
acrocentric chromosomes. Select the correct option for such types of chromosomes
(a) 1, 10, 15, 16 and Y (b) 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22
(c) 13, 14, 16, 18 and 21 (d) 13, 14, 18 and 22

12. In some plants the secondary cell wall has depressions or pits. Adjacent pits are separated by the
middle lamella and the primary cell wall, together forming the pit membrane. Which of the
following is the thickening formed on the pit membrane by circular deposition of microfibrils?
(a) Margo (b) Torus (c) Zona occludens (d) Sclereid

13. The arrangement of flowers and their mode of

distribution on the shoot system is characteristic to a
particular plant. The diagrammatic presentation given
herewith, illustrates various types of inflorescences.
Select the option exemplifying a kind of Cymose type:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 6
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 5

14. Genes that are normally important in mammalian embryogenesis include members of all of the
following classes, EXCEPT:
(a) Proto-oncogenes (b) Growth factor genes
(c) Tumor suppressor genes (d) Hox genes

15. During a type of Carbon dioxide fixation occurring at night while the stomata are still open, the
first step is the combination of CO2 with phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to form 4-carbon
oxaloacetate in the chloroplast of mesophyll cells. To which kind of ecological type of plant this
process is related to?
(a) Cocos (b) Rhizophora (c) Aloe (d) Vallisneria

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16. Some plants are specifically called hemiparasitic epiphytes. Included among them are the plants
called as mistletoes. Which of the following is the most common hemiparasitic mistletoe occurring
in India?
(a) Monotropa uniflora (b) Dendrophthoe falcata
(c) Orobanche cernua (d) Cuscuta reflexa

17. During the formation of which of the following ionic species, the process will be exothermic and
endothermic respectively:
(a) Na+ and Cl– (b) Cl– and O2– (c) He+ and Mg2+ (d) F – and Br –

18. H2 reacts faster with Cl2 at 13 times faster rate than D2 because:
(a) H2 has high activation energy
(b) In H2, H – H bond energy is higher than D – D bond energy in D2
(c) H2 has low activation energy because H – H bond energy is lower than D – D bond energy
(d) In H2 there is no neutron therefore it reacts faster

19. Select the correct order of dielectric constant, refractive index and intermolecular forces for water
(H2O) and heavy water (D2O) at 293 K respectively among those given below
(i) Dielectric constant – H2O > D2O
(ii) Dielectric constant – D2O > H2O
(iii) Refractive index – H2O > D2O
(iv) Refractive index – D2O > H2O
(v) Intermolecular forces – H2O > D2O
(vi) Intermolecular forces – D2O > H2O
The option containing all correct statements is
(a) (i), (iii), (vi) (b) (i), (iv), (v) (c) (ii), (iii), (v) (d) (i), (iv), (vi)

20. The compound which is used to purify air in space shuttles, submarines and breathing masks is:
(a) K2O2 (b) KO2 (c) K2O (d) Na2O


21. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in I 3 .
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 9

22. Among the elements of atomic number (Z) from 1 to 92 (i.e., from H to U), the elements having
atomic number …… and …… are not found in nature.
(a) 89, 92 (b) 83, 89
(c) 48, 61 (d) None of these

23. Which state of matter exists at very high temperature and at very low temperature (near absolute
zero) respectively? BEC stands for Bose Einstein Condensate.
(a) BEC, fermionic condensate (b) Plasma, BEC
(c) Fermionic condensate, Plasma (d) Gas, BEC

24. The bond which will break in first step when following compound reacts with H3O+ is
O
b
CH3 a C c O H
d

(a) bond a (b) bond b (c) bond c (d) bond d

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25. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of Lewis base strength

CH2 NH2
(i) (ii) (iii)
N N

The option containing correct increasing order is

(a) iii, ii, i (b) i, ii, iii (c) ii, i, iii (d) iii, i, ii

26. The maximum number of –CH3 groups which may be present in alkane C11 H24 is close to
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 2

27. A glass bulb of 1 liter capacity contains 4 g methane. The bulb is so as to burst out if the pressure
exceeds just 10 atm. The temperature, at which the pressure of gas reaches the bursting point is
close to (Given: R = 0.0821 lit atm K–1 mol–1)
(a) 480 K (b) 487.6 K (c) 500 K (d) 373 K

28. The pH of 108 M HCl is

(a) 7 (b) < 7 (c) 8 (d) > 8

10 11
29. An element X has two natural isotopes: 5 X (atomic mass 10.013 u) and 5 X (atomic mass
11.009 u). Relative abundance of these isotopes in nature has been recorded 19.8 % and 80.2 %
respectively. On the basis of these data, average atomic mass of element X is close to
(a) 10.210 u (b) 10.511 u (c) 10.799 u (d) 10.812 u

30. A mass 0.75 g of the mixture of Na2CO3 and K2CO3 is completely neutralized by 50 mL 0.25 N
HCl. The percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture is:
(a) 50.6 (b) 49.4 (c) 50 (d) data insufficient

31. A boy gifted a diamond ring to his mother on her wedding anniversary. If this diamond ring
contains 3 carat diamond then number of carbon atoms he gifted to his mother is
Given – (1 carat = 200 mg)
(a) 3.01 × 1023 (b) 2.1 × 1023 (c) 3.01 × 1022 (d) 2.1 × 1022

32. Which of the following will form foam in water containing Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions?
(a) Ba-stearate (b) Na-palmitate
(c) Potassium n-dodecyl benzene sulphonate (d) All of these

33. Two blocks A and B of masses 1 kg and 4 kg respectively are moving with equal kinetic energies
Read the following statements S1 and S2
Statement S1: Ratio of speed of the block A to that of B is 1: 2 A
Statement S2: Ratio of magnitude of linear momentum of A to that of B is 1: 2 1 kg
Now choose the correct option:
(a) Both S1 and S2 are true (b) Both S1 and S2 are false B
(c) S1 is true, S2 is false (d) S1 is false, S2 is true
4 kg

34. The mass of a straight copper wire is 20.95 g and its electrical resistance is 0.065 Ω. If the density
and resistivity of copper are d = 8900 kg/m3 and ρ = 1.7 × 10– 8 ohm-meter respectively, the length
of the copper wire is
(a) 3 m (b) 6 m (c) 12 m (d) date is insufficient

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35. It is known that the speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to square root of its absolute
temperature T measured in Kelvin i.e. v  T Speed of sound in air at 0°C is 332 m/s. On a
hot day, the speed of sound was measured 360 m/s in NCR Delhi, the temperature of air in Delhi
on that very day must have been close to
(a) 40°C (b) 42°C (c) 44°C (d) 48°C

36. A small bar magnet is allowed to fall vertically through a metal ring lying in a horizontal plane.
During its fall, the acceleration of the magnet in the region close to the ring must be (g is the
acceleration due to gravity)
(a) equal to g (b) less than g and uniform
(c) less than g and non-uniform (d) greater than g and uniform

37. A U-tube of uniform cross section contains two different

liquids in its limbs namely water (density )
h
Water
and Mercury (density ) as shown in figure. H = 1.5 cm

The difference of height of mercury column in two limbs of

20 cm Mercury
the tube is H = 1.5 cm. The height h of the water column in
the left limb above the Mercury column must be nearly
(Neglect surface tension effects)
(a) 13.6 cm (b) 20.4 cm (c) 27.0 cm (d) 9.0 cm

38. An object pin is placed at a distance 10 cm from first focus of a thin convex lens on its principal
axis, the lens forms a real and inverted image of this object pin at a distance 40 cm beyond the
second focus. The focal length of the lens is
(a) 16 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 40 cm

39. A bullet of mass 0.25 kg moving horizontally with velocity v (m/s)

strikes a stationary block of mass 1.00 kg suspended by a long
inextensible string of negligible mass and length . The bullet gets
embedded in the block and the system rises up to maximum height
h = 19.6 cm (as shown in the figure. The string still remains taut). v h

The value of initial speed v of the bullet is m = 0.25 kg 1 kg

(a) 5.9 m/s (b) 7.8 m/s

(c) 9.8 m/s (d) 11.8 m/s

40. The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the following electrical network is
3Ω

A 1Ω 1Ω 3Ω 1Ω 1Ω B

6Ω

3 4 2 9
(a)  (b)  (c)  (d) 
4 3 5 14

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41. The order of magnitude of the pressure (in pascal) exerted by an adult human on the Earth when
he stands bare footed on the Earth on both of his legs, is
(a) 102 (b) 104 (c) 107 (d) 109

42. On the board of an experiment, three bulbs B1 (100 W, 200 V),

A B
B2 (60 W, 200 V) and B3 (40 W, 200 V) are connected to a
200 V fluctuating supply with a fuse in series as shown in the B1 B2 B3

figure. The electric current rating of the fuse required in the

circuit to protect all the three bulbs must be Fuse Box 200 V
(a) 0.2 Amp (b) 0.3 Amp
(c) 0.5 Amp (d) 1.0 Amp

43. An ant is sitting on the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length f, at a distance 2f from the
pole in front of the mirror. It starts moving on principal axis towards the mirror. During the course
of motion, the distance between the ant and its image
(a) throughout increases (b) throughout decreases
(c) first increases, then decreases (d) first decreases, then increases

44. You are given three resistance of values 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 6 Ω. Which of the following values of
equivalent resistance is not possible to get by using/arranging these three resistors in any circuit?
(a) Less than 2 Ω (b) Equal to 4.4 Ω
(c) Equal to 5.5 Ω (d) Equal to 7.6 Ω
A
45. ABC is a 0.8 meter long curved wire track in a vertical plane. A
bead of mass 3 g is released from rest at A. It slides along the wire
and comes to rest at C. The average frictional force opposing the C
motion in a single trip from A to C is 0.5m
(a) 18.40 103 N (b) 29.4 103 N 0.3m
3 3
(c) 11.04 10 N (d) 7.36 10 N
B
46. Two long straight conductors 1 and 2, carrying parallel currents I1 and I2 in the same direction, are
lying parallel and close to each other, as shown in the figure. Fe and Fm respectively represent the
electric and the magnetic forces, applied by conductor 1 on conductor 2. 1 2
Choose the correct alternative regarding nature of Fe and Fm
(a) Fe is repulsive while Fm is attractive I1 I2
(b) Fe is repulsive and Fm is repulsive too
(c) Fe is zero and Fm is repulsive
(d) Fe is zero and Fm is attractive

47. A doctor measures the temperature of a patient by a digital thermometer as 37.3° C. As a Physics
student you will record his temperature in Kelvin as
(a) 310.30 K (b) 310.45 K (c) 310.46 K (d) 310.31 K

48. Two planets P1 and P2 are moving around the Sun, in circular orbits of radii 1013 m and 1012 m
respectively. The ratio of the orbital speeds of planets P1 and P2 in their respective orbits is
1
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 10 10 (d)
10

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A–2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT
MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED AND NO INCORRECT.

49. In a classroom, students were taught typical mammalian characters along with the names of Orders
and representative examples. In the Table given below, column 1 includes the names of examples
or Orders whereas column 2 shows related characteristics.

Order/ Characteristics
Representative example
1. Lagomorpha (i) First finger clawed, tail enclosed in an interfemoral membrane.
2. Microchiroptera (ii) Toothless and Polyembryony.
3. Armadillo (iii) Baleen.
4. Proboscidea (iv) Incisors open-rooted and continue to grow throughout life.

Choose the option(s) that has the correct match in the above table.
(a) 1 → (iv) (b) 2 → (i) (c) 3 → (ii) (d) 4 → (iii)

50. Continuous inheritance of some characteristics in certain human families had attracted the
attention of scientists. To improve human race by selective breeding led Sir Francis Galton to
collect and statistically analyze genealogies or pedigrees of a number of families where some or
the other traits were regularly transmitted through generations. Which of the following relate(s) to
pedigree of beggars and scoundrels?
(a) Bach family of Germany (b) Zero family of Switzerland
(c) Kallikaks of America (d) Jukes of New York

51. An important feature of plants is the ability to adapt their growth towards or away from external
stimuli such as light, water, temperature and gravity. The physiological process of root
gravitropism comprises gravity perception, signal transmission, growth response and the
reestablishment of normal growth. Following are some of the modern concept(s) explaining the
mechanism of root gravitropism. Which of the following best explain(s) the root gravitropism ?
(a) Statoliths within columella cells of root cap sediment in the direction of gravity, resulting
in the generation of a signal that causes asymmetric growth.
(b) Auxin influx and efflux carriers facilitate creation of a differential auxin gradient between
the upper and lower side of gravi-stimulated roots. This causes differential growth
responses in the gravi-responding tissue of the elongation zone, leading to root curvature.
(c) Curvature in geo-stimulated roots is due the lateral redistribution of an inhibitor formed in
the root cap.
(d) Proplastids in root cap containg carotenoids and protochlorophyll respond to gravity.

52. Photosynthesis is the process in which the phosphorylation of ADP to generate ATP occurs with
the help of sunlight energy. The process is known as photo-phosphorylation. Only two sources of
energy are accessible to living organisms: sunlight and reduction-oxidation (redox) reactions.
Following are the requirements of cyclic and noncyclic phosphorylations occurring in green plants.
Choose the correct option(s) related to cyclic photo-phosphorylation:
(a) Photo system II is not involved
(b) Only ATP molecules are generated but no NADH
(c) Water is required
(d) P 680 is the active reaction center

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53. Select the correct statement(s) pertaining to Bohr model of an atom.
(a) An electron near the nucleus is attracted more by the nucleus; thereby has lower potential
energy.
(b) An electron continuously radiates energy as long as it revolves in a discrete orbit.
(c) The model could not explain the spectra of multi-electron atoms.
(d) This is the first atomic model based on quantization of energy.

54. The correct order(s) of first ionization energy for the following pairs is/are:
(a) Ag < Au (b) Pd < Pt (c) Pb > Sn (d) Sb > Bi

55. Every solvent undergoes self-ionization (autodissociation) and gives cations and anions. The
substances which give solvent cations when dissolved in that particular solvent (or) increase the
concentration of solvent cations are called acids. Similarly substances which give solvent anions
when dissolved in that particular solvent (or) increase the concentration of solvent anion are called
bases. Autoionisation of H2O and H2SO4 are as below
2H 2 O H3O+ + OH 
2H 2SO4 H3SO4 + HSO4

(a) CH3COOH acts as a strong acid in liquid NH3 solvent

(b) H2SO4 acts as strong acid in H2O and liquid NH3 solvent
(c) CH3COOH acts as base in liquid HCl
(d) H2O acts as base in liquid NH3 solvent

56. The reaction KI + I2 → KI3 involves

(a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) complex formation (d) neutralization

57. Crane A and crane B take 1 minute and 2 minute respectively to lift a car of mass 2 ton (2000 kg)
upward through a vertical height h = 3 meter. If the efficiencies of the engines (defined as the ratio
of work output to fuel energy input) of both the cranes are equal, your inference is that
(a) the power supplied by crane B is 1000 kW
(b) the crane A and the crane B consume equal amount of fuel
(c) the power supplied by crane A is more than the power supplied by crane B
(d) the crane A consumes more fuel in lifting the car than the crane B

58. Two tungsten filament bulbs with rating 100 watt, 200 volt and 60 watt, 200 volt are connected in
series with a variable supply of 0  400V range, as shown. The supply voltage is gradually
increased from 0 to 400 V. Choose the correct statement(s).
100 W, 200 V 60 W, 200 V
(a) When supply voltage is 200 volt, 60 W bulb glows brighter
(b) When supply voltage is 200 volt, total power dissipated in
both the bulbs is greater than 37.5 W
(c) When the supply voltage is 400 V, the 100 W bulb gets fused
(d) When supply voltage becomes 400 V, none of the bulbs glow 0 - 400 V

59. A solid sphere of radius R  10 cm floats in water with 60% of its volume submerged. In an oil,
this sphere floats with 80% of its volume submerged. If the density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The
correct statement(s) is/are that
(a) the density of the material of sphere is 600 kg/m3
(b) the density of the oil is 750 kg/m3
(c) the weight of the sphere in air is close to 24.64 N
(d) the loss in weight of the sphere when floating in oil is close to 30.82 N

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60. A particle starts moving from origin O along x axis. The velocity-time graph of motion of particle
is given below. The positive values of v refer to direction of motion along +x axis, the negative
values of v refer to direction of motion along – x direction. Choose the correct statement(s).
Velocity (m/s)
A B
+20

E D
0 t (sec)
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
-15
C

(a) Initial acceleration of the particle is 4 m/s2

(b) The displacement of particle from origin is 130 m after 16 second
(c) Average speed of the moving particle during 0 –16 second is 11.88 m/s
(d) Somewhere during the motion for 0 – 16 second, the retardation of the particle is 10 m/s2

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Rough Work

12