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Module-5 Question Bank

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views

Module-5 Question Bank

Uploaded by

bharathsindhe03
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Module-5

Latest Developments in Environmental Pollution Mitigation Tools


1. Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its procedure?
a) Electric field b) Sonar waves c) Gamma- rays d) Electro-magnetic waves
Explanation: Electro-magnetic waves are used in case of remote sensing. The different waves
present in this spectrum enables us to use a variety of waves based on the condition present and
can be able have a better output.

2. The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency can be given as


a) λ = c / r b)λ = c / f c)λ = c / h d)λ = h*c / f
3. Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?
a) Interaction of energy with satellite c) Electromagnetic energy
b) Electro-magnetic spectrum d) Interaction of energy with atmosphere
Explanation: Remote sensing involves certain principles which are applied for having a good
result of the desired output. The principles are electromagnetic energy, electro-magnetic
spectrum, interaction of energy with atmosphere etc.

4. Which among the following waves is having less wavelength range?


a) 0.03mm b)0.03nm c) 0.03m d) 0.03km
Explanation: A wide range of waves are present in case of electromagnetic spectrum, off which
the gamma-rays are having a Nano level wave length capacity i.e., less than 0.03nm
5.In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of
a) 0.42-0.52 micrometer c)0.24-0.52 micrometer
b) 0.42-0.92 micrometer d) 0.22-0.32 micrometer
Explanation: Visible region consist of three-color waves red, blue and green remaining are the
combination of those. The blue light is having a wavelength range of 0.42-0.52 micrometer.
6. Which of the following is not a classification of scattering principle?
a) Faraday scattering c) Rayleigh scattering
b) Mie scattering d) Non-selective scattering
Explanation: Scattering involves in distribution of the light ray in more than two directions. It can
be further classified as Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, non- selective scattering.
7. Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of
a) 7-15km b) 7000-15000km c) 700-1500km d) 70-150km

Explanation: Polar orbiting satellites are also known as sun-synchronous satellites, which are
generally placed at an altitude range of 700-1500km from the ground level. These are able to
deliver accurate information about the object which we need access to.
8. Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?
a) Solar field b) Polarized field c) Electric field d) Micro field
Explanation: EM waves used two major sources of fields i.e., electric and magnetic fields. Both
are placed orthogonal to each other in a wave pattern. The electric components are placed in
vertical manner and magnetic components in horizontal manner.
9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the electromagnetic radiation?
a) These are produced by the motion of electric charge
b) The oscillation of charged particles sets up changing electric fields
c) The changing electric fields induce the changing magnetic fields in the surrounding
medium
d) None of these
10. The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is called:
a) Spectral variation b)Spatial variation b)Temporal variation
b) None of these
11. For interpolation of satellite data used for monitoring dynamic changes that occurs on the
earth surface, the most suitable orbit for the satellite is:
a) Circular orbit c) Sun-synchronous orbit
b) Near polar orbit d)None of these
12. The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about
a) 26,000 km b) 30,000 km c) 36,000 km d) 44,000 km
13. Remote sensing includes gathering of
a) Images b) Changes c) Movements d) Sounds
14. GIS stands for
a. Geographic Information System c. Generic Information System
b. Geological Information System d. Geographic Information Sharing
15. GIS deals with which kind of data
a) Numeric data b) Binary data c) Spatial data d)Complex data
16. Which of the following statements is true about the capabilities of GIS
a) Data capture and preparation
b) Data management, including storage and maintenance
c) Data manipulation and analysis
d) Data presentation
e) All of the above
17. By ‘spatial data’ we mean data that has
a) Complex values b) Positional values c) Graphic values d) Decimal values
18. ‘Spatial databases’ are also known as
a) Geodatabases b) Mono databases c) Concurrent databases d) None of the above
19. Successful spatial analysis needs
a) Appropriate software b)Appropriate hardware c) Competent user d)All of the above

20. Electromagnetic radiation

a) produces a time varying magnetic field and vice versa


b) once generated, remains self-propagating
c) is capable to travel across space
d) consists of magnetic and electric fields
e) All of these
21. Electromagnetic spectrum contains
a) Gamma rays (wave length < 10-10 m) c) Ultraviolet rays (wave length < 10-6 m)
b) Infrared rays (wave length < 10-4 m) d) All of these
22. The code-based GPS receivers are generally used for
a) Vehicle tracking b) Land navigation c)Trans movement d)All of these
23. Among the following can be expressed as an example of hardware
component
a) Keyboard b)Arc GIS c)Auto CAD d)Digitalization
24. Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?
a) DXF b) PDF c) GIF d) HTML
25. Among the following, which do not come under the components of GIS?
a) Hardware b) Software c) Compiler d) Data
26. Which of the following doesn’t determine the capability of GIS?
a) Defining a map b) Representing cartographic feature
b) Retrieving data d) Transferring data
27. Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?
a) Maintaining geo spatial data c) Data sharing
b) Accurate data information d) Presence of data retrieval service
28. Which among the following is a server-based hardware platform of GIS?
a) Autodesk Revit b) STAAD Pro c) Arc GIS d) Google-maps
29. Mapmakers use GIS to
a) store geographic information c) use geographic information
b) view geographic information d) store, use and view geographic information
30. The information in GIS is entered and stored as
a) Panels b) layers c) single panel d) dual-panel
31. The user can use GIS to make
A) complex analyses only C) display maps only
B) complex analyses and display maps D) none of these
32. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
a) 10-meter b) 20 meter c)60 meter d)100 meter
33. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a factor comparing the
global warming impacts of
a)
1 m3 of GHG with 1 m3 of CO2 c)1 kg of GHG with 1 kg of CO2
b)
1-gram mole of GHG with 1 gram mole of CO2 d) 1 kg of GHG with 1 mole of CO2
34. The term B10 implies
a) Blending of 10 percent biodiesel with 90 percent conventional diesel.
b) Blending of 90 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
c) Blending of 50 percent biodiesel with 50 percent conventional diesel.
d) Blending of 1 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.

35. The validity period of Environmental Clearance after Environmental Impact Assessment is least
for
a) Mining projects b) River valley projects
c)Harbor projects d) Area development projects
36. In Environmental assessment study, interpretation and evaluation should consider
a) Uncertainty of possible impacts c) Significance of measured impacts
b) Comparison of alternatives d) All of the above
37. Who are responsible for the public consultation process of EIA?
a) State Pollution Control Board

b) State Pollution Control Board and District Collector

c) State Pollution Control Board and CPCB Chairman

d) State Pollution Control Board and Civil Society


38. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under which one of the following India
legislations:
a) Indian Forest Act

b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

c) Wildlife Protection Act

d) Environment (Protection) Act


39. What is Eutrophication?
a) thermal change in water

b) filling up of water body with aquatic plants due to excessive nutrients


c) pollution of water due to solid waste
d) none of the above
40. In which year EIA was started in India?
a) 1967-68 b) 1976-77 c) 1986-87 d) 1972-73
41. ISO 14000 standards are for the
a. Quality Management System c) Environmental Management System
b. Administration d) Supply chain
42. Which is the first environmental management system standard?
a) BS 7750 b) ISO 9000 c) ISO 9001 d)ISO 9004
43. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
a) 2010 b) 2011 c) 2015 d) 2016
44. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental management system c) Environment auditing
b) Life-cycle assessment d) Quality management system
45. What is the full form of NGOs?
a) Non-Governmental Organizations c) Non-Governance Organizations
b) No Governance Organizations d) Null Governmental Organizations
46. In which of the following sector NGOs are playing an important role?
a) In governing the police force
b) In framing the policy related to laws
c) In framing the environmental policy
d) In deforestation

47. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization Evaluation
Standards in ISO 14000 series?
a) Environmental management system c) Environmental auditing
b) Environmental performance evaluation d) Environmental labels and declarations
48. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of
Environmental Management System?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 c) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001
b) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001 d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004
49. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of
Environmental Auditing?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 c) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
b) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001 d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004
50. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental Performance
Evaluation?
a) ISO 14001 b) ISO 14004 c) ISO 14010 d)ISO 14031
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