JEEA-MT-(Paper-2)-1

FIITJEE MOCK TEST

JEE (Advanced)
PAPER-2
(18.04.2024)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 186
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specially for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the examination hall before end of the test.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side–1 and Side–2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use to Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Instructions
Note:
1. The question paper contains 3 sections (Sec-1, Physics, Sec-II, Chemistry & Sec-III, Mathematics.)
2. Each section is divided into one part, Part-A.
3. Part – A contains 18 questions which are further divided as follows:
 Q. 1 – 6 are multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
 Q. 7 – 14 are multiple correct answer type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which one or more answer(s) is/are correct.
 Q. 15 – 18 contains 2 Paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.

Marking Scheme
1. For each question in the group Q. 1 – 6 to Part – A you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
2. For each question in the group Q. 7 – 14 of Part – A you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
3. For each question in the group Q. 15 – 18 of Part – A you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened all
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no
negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :

Enrolment Number :

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Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. A particle charge q and mass m is projected with a velocity v 0 towards a

circular region having uniform magnetic field B perpendicular and into Magnetic field
the plane of paper from point P as shown in the figure. R is the radius × ×O ×
and O is the centre of the circular region. If the line OP makes an angle × × ×
 with the direction of v0 then the value of v0 so that particle passes v0 × × ×
through O is q,m P

qBR qBR 2qBR 3qBR

(A) (B) (C) (D)
m sin  2m sin  m sin  2m sin 

2. A vertical cylinder with a massless piston filled with one mole of an ideal gas. The piston can move
freely without friction. The piston is slowly raised so that the gas expands isothermally at temperature
25
300 K. The amount of work done in increasing the volume two times is ( R  J/mol/K , loge 2=0.7)
3
(A) 1750 J (B) 2500 J (C) 750 J (D) 4250 J

3. A coil of resistance R is connected to an external battery is placed

inside an adiabatic cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston and
containing an ideal gas. A current I = a0t flows through the coil (a0 is a m
+ve constant). For time interval t = 0 to t = t0, the piston goes upto a
height of (assume isothermal process and negligible atmospheric
pressure)

a02 R 2 t 02 a02 Rt03

(A) (B)
2mg 2mg R I

a02 Rt03 a02 Rt02

(C) (D)
3mg 3mg

4. An insect of negligible mass is sitting on a block of mass M, tied with a

spring of force constant k. The block performs simple harmonic motion
with amplitude A infront of a plane mirror placed as shown. The maximum
speed of insect relative to its image will be
k A 3 k
(A) A (B) 600
M 2 M
k A k
(C) A 3 (D)
M 2 M
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5. A very long current carrying wire is placed along z-axis having current
of magnitude i1 towards negative z-axis. A semicircular wire of radius i2 y
R and having current i2 is placed in x-y plane, such that line joining
two end points of the semicircular wire passes through long wire as R
i1
shown in figure. Nearest distance of semicircular wire from long wire  R x
is R. Net magnetic force on semicircular wire will be
 0 i1i2  0 i1i2 3
(A) ln 3 (B) ln
2 2 2
 0 i1i2
(C) zero (D)
2

6. There is a small metallic ring of radius 0 and having negligible R1

resistance placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field B0. One
end of a rod is hinged at the centre of ring O and other end is placed B0
× ×l0 R2
on the ring. Now rod is rotated with constant angular velocity 0 by O
× ×× C
some external agent and circuit is connected as shown in the figure, × ×
initially switch is open and capacitor is uncharged. If switch S is
closed at t = 0, then calculate heat loss from the resistor R2 from t = 0 S
to the instant when voltage across the capacitor becomes V0.
(Assume plane of ring to be horizontal and friction to be an absent at
B0l0 0  4V0 )
2
all the contacts). (Assume, R2 = 2R1,
1 1 2 1
(A) CV 02 (B) CV 02 (C) CV 0
2
(D) CV02
2 6 3 3
(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. In the given circuit C1 = C, C2 = 2C, V1 = V2 = V & R1 = R2 = R3 = R and switch switch

all switches-are closed at t = 0 then choose the incorrect statement at R1
time t = RC (initially all capacitors are uncharged)
C1
V
(A) Current through V1 is less than
2Re
e  1 V1
R3 C2

V2
(B) Power delivered by V2 is less than V2 R2
3 eR
V
(C) Current through V1 is greater than
2Re
e  1
V2
(D) Power delivered by V2 is greater than
3 eR
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8. If the electric field E is plotted, with distance from q1 E

along the line joining of two, then (E is positive along +ve
x-axis) it looks as shown in figure. From the plot we can
say that
(A) q1 and q2 both are negative
q1 (a,0)
(B) 4 q1 (0,0)
q2  2a  q2 x-axis
 ,0 
(C) q1 is positive and q2 is negative  3 
q1 1
(D) 
q2 4

9. The diameter of a thick wire measured by an screw gauge apparatus is given as D = 0.256 cm.
Choose from following the correct alternative(s).
(A) The absolute error in the measurement may be upto 0.001 cm.
(B) The absolute error in the above measurements must be 0.01 cm.
(C) The fractional error in the measurement of diameter as well as the radius is the same.
(D) The absolute error in the measurement of radius is same as that of the diameter.

10. In the given figure a block A rests on a smooth triangular block

B and the block B is given an acceleration of a = 2 m/s2 along A
the plane SB
(A) normal force on block A due to block B is m g  a   a
(B) acceleration of block A relative to block B is a cos . 
(C) If friction is present between block and A and B, the coefficient of friction should be greater than
a
cos  , for no relative motion between A and B
g
(D) If friction is present between block and A and B, the coefficient of friction should be greater than
a cos 
, for no relative motion between A and B.
g  a sin 

ab 2
11. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and x is calculated from x  . If the percentage errors
c3
 1%,  3% and  2% respectively.
in a, b, c are
(A) The percentage error in x can be  13% (B) The percentage error in x can be  7%
(C) The percentage error in x can be  20% (D) The percentage error in x can be  26%
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12. n moles of an ideal gas undergo an isothermal process at P

temperature T. P-V graph of the process is as shown in the figure.
A point A (V1, P1) is located on the P-V curve. Tangent at point A,
cuts the V-axis at point D. AO is the line joining the point A to the A (P1, V1)
origin O of PV diagram. Then,
 3V1  O D V
(A) coordinates of points D is  , 0
 2 
(B) coordinates of points D is 2V1 , 0
(C) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
3
(D) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
4

13. Nucleus A decays to B with decay constant 1 and B decays to C with decay constant 2. Initially at t
= 0, number of nuclei of A and B are 2N0 and N0 respectively. At t = t0, number of nuclei of B stop
3N 0
changing. If at this instant number of nuclei of B are , then
2
1 4 1 1 4 1
(A) the value of ln
t 0 is (B) the value of ln
t 0 is
1 3  2 2 3 2
3N 0  2 2N 0  2
(C) the value of NA at t 0 is (D) the value of NA at t 0 is
2 1 3 1

14. Choose from following the correct alternatives.

(A) Random error is minimised by taking the arithmetic mean of a large number of observations.
(B) The source of random error is known and hence it can be corrected completely.
(C) The source of random error is not known and analysis is done by statistical methods
(D) Zero error of an apparatus can be corrected completely.

Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question nos. 15 – 16

A cylindrical vessel of radius 1m and height 3m is filled h1

with an ideal liquid upto a height of 2m as shown in figure. The
cylinder is rotated about its axis with angular velocity . h0

R
15. The maximum value of angular velocity of the cylindrical vessel so that the liquid will not start spilling
over the brim is
(A) 2 5 rad/s (B) 2 10 rad/s (C) 2 15 rad/s (D) 3 10 rad/s

16. The angular velocity of the cylindrical vessel so that half of the initial volume will spill out is
(A) 2 10 rad/s (B) 2 15 rad/s (C) 3 10 rad/s (D) 110 rad/s
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Paragraph for question nos. 17 – 18

A light of wavelength  is incident on a metal sheet of work function  = 2eV. The wavelength 
varies with time as  = 3000 + 40t, where  is in Å and t is in second. The power incident on metal sheet is
constant at 100 W. This signal is switched on and off for time intervals of 2 minutes and 1 minute respectively.
Each time the signal is switched on, the  start from initial value of 3000Å. The metal plate is grounded and
electron clouding is negligible. The efficiency of photoemission is 1% (hc = 12400 eVÅ).

17. The total number of photoelectrons ejected in one hour is

(A) 3.71 × 1020 (B) 3.71 × 1021 (C) 3.71 × 1022 (D) 3.71 × 1023

18. The variation of rate of emission vs time is

Rate of emission
3.12×1018
Rate of emission

(dN/dt)
3.12×1018
(dN/dt)

(A) (B) 1.51×1018

80s 180s 260s

time 260s time

Rate of emission
Rate of emission

3.12×1018
(dN/dt)

(dN/dt)

(C) 1.51×1018 (D) 1.51×1018

80s 180s 260s 80s 180s 260s

time time
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Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. The total no. of compounds(shown below) that form phenyl hydrazone derivatives under acidic
condition is
Et
O
O
CHO C
OEt O
Me
O OH

OH O
OMe
COOH OMe SEt
OMe
S
Me

NH2
C
O
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

2. A mixture of all stereoisomers possible from this structure is subjected to fractional distillation. Then
how many fractions will be obtained?
CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH3
Br Br

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

3.


Cl2
h
 Monochlorinated product
If X = no. of monochlorinated product
and Y = no. of fractions obtained after distillation
then X + Y =
(A) 14 (B) 16 (C) 19 (D) 22
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4. The correct order of enthalpy of hydration for the transition metal ion is
(A) Cr2+ > Mn2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ (B) Ni2+ > Co2+ > Mn2+ > Cr2+
2+ 2+ 2+
(C) Ni > Co > Cr > Mn 2+ (D) Cr2+ > Mn2+ > Ni2+ > Co2+

5. The amount (in moles) of NaOH(M.W = 40) required for complete neutralization of one mole of the
following compound is:
O
NH2
O OH O
HOOC
N NH

O SO3H O
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 6

6. F

I Cl
Br
(A) 1 bromo 2 chloro 3 fluoro 6 iodo benzene (B) 2 bromo 1 chloro 5 fluoro 3 iodo benzene
(C) 4 bromo 2 chloro 5 iodo 1 fluoro benzene (D) 2 bromo 3 chloro 1 iodo 5 fluoro benzene

(Multiple Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

7. Which is/are correct statement about concentration cell?

P t,H2  g | H pH  2  || H pH  1 | H2  g  .Pt
1 bar 1 bar
(A) EoCell > 0 (B) Go = 0 (C) Ecell > 0 (D) G < 0

8. The compound those would NOT respond to tests of both nitrogen and sulfur with sodium fusion
extract are
S
(A) NH2  NH3HSO4 (B)
H2N NH2
O
 
(C) H2N  NH HCO 3 3 (D) CH3
H2N S
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9. A yellow ppt. is NOT formed upon addition of aq. AgNO 3 to a solution of

(A) phosphite (B) pyrophosphate (C) metaphosphate (D) orthophosphate

10. A strongly acidic solution of alanine is titrating against a base

p  of cationic form of alanine = 2.3
Ka

p  of dipolar form of alanine = 9.7

Ka

Then choose the correct statement.

(A) When a pH of 2.3 is reached, the carboxylic acid proton will have removed from half of the
molecules.
(B) When a pH = 9.7 is reached, half of ammonium groups will have lost protons.
(C) When a pH = 6 is reached all the alanines carboxylic acid protons have been removed.
(D) Alanine is chiral and essential amino acids

11. In a fcc unit cell:-

The atoms touching each other are
(atom numbered 3 is face centre of front face)
1
4
3

2
(A) 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 4

12. In an unit cell atoms(A) are present at all corners lattice, (B) are present at alternate faces and all
edge centres, atoms(C) are present at face centres left from(B) and one at each body diagonal at
distance of 1/4th of the body diagonal from corner.
A tetrahedral axis is passed from the given unit cell and all the atoms touching the axis are removed.
Find the possible formula of compound left?
(A) AB3C6 (B) AB6C7 (C) AB5C8 (D) AB4C5

13. Which of the following group of the above molecule having same number of -bond?
(A) C3N3(N3)3 (B) C12O9 (C) C3N3(NH2)3 (D) P4O10

14. [Ag(NH3)2]Cl gives back ppt. with

(A) KI solution (B) alkaline Na2SnO2 solution
(C) 50%HNO3 (D) K2CrO4 solution
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Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question nos. 15 – 16
A student in a lab had a mixture of three compounds, 4-methylbenzoic acid, 4-methylcyclohexylamine and 1,
4-dimethylbenzene. In order to separate the three compounds the following extraction (separation) scheme
was followed. At the end of the procedure the student has six separate flasks containing either an aqueous or
an ether solution. Locate each compound by designating the flask expected to contain each compound some
relevant pKa data is given.

15. Which flask contains the 4-methylcyclohexylamine?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

16. Which flask contains the 4-methylbenzoic acid?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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Paragraph for question nos. 17 – 18

For a given 1st order reaction

k1 B(g)

A(g) k2
2C(g)
k3 D(g)
Reaction is started with B mole of A(g) in a rigid container at 27oC. Overall half life of A(g) is 20 minutes and
k1 : k2 : k3 = 1 : 2 : 3, then

17. No of moles of C after 40 min will be

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 3

18. For the two reactions:

I: A  B
II: C  D
Following graph is obtained

C 1M

Conc.
0.5 M A

60° 30°

Time (Min.)

Which of the following is true?

(A) If [B] = [A] then at that time [D] = 0.75 M
(B) If [C] = [A] then at that time [B] > [D]
(C) (t100%)reaction = (t100%)reaction
I II
3
(D) [A] = [C] at, t  min
2
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Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. Find the value of c such that areas of shaded region are equal.
3
y =8x – 27 x

y=c

32 1 16
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
27 7 9

2. A fair coin is repeated by tossed. If the probability that the first time heads is tossed, twice in

a row, is on the 9th and 10th toss, is

17 15 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
512 512 512 2
3
d2 y  dy  dy
3. If the independent variable x is changed to y, then the differential equation x 2     0
dx  dx  dx
2
d2 x  dx 
is changed to x 2     k where k equals
dy  dy 
(A) 0 B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 4

4. Suppose   i is a solution of the polynomial equation a4 z4  ia3 z3  a2 z2  ia1z  a0  0

where , ,ai  Ri  0,1,2,3,4 . Which of the following necessarily be a solution?
(A)    i (B)    i (C)    i (D)    i

5. The distance of the point (1, 1, 1) from the plane x  y  z  1 , which is measured perpendicular to
x y z
line   is
2 3 6
14 14 7 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
26 13 13 26
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6. Line segments drawn from the vertex opposite to the hypotenuse of a right angle triangle to the points

trisecting the hypotenuse, have lengths sinx and cosx , where 0 x . The length of hypotenuse
2
is
4 3
(A) (B)
3 2
3 5
(C) (D) can’t be determined uniquely
5
(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

x
1
 
2

7. Let f  x    22  4x  2x2 , where '  ' is a real parameter consider F      f  x  dx where x 1
2 x1

and x 2 are the roots of f  x  and x1  x2 then

4
(A) Minimum value of F    2 (B) Maximum value of  
3
(C) Minima and Maxima of F    does not exist (D) Minima doesn’t exist but Maxima exist

8. If f :R  2, 4 be a periodic function such that the equation f  x   1  cos x has a unique
solution, then period of f  x  can be
(A) e (B) 3 (C)  (D) 2017

  4x  4
 f  x  f  x  dx  , then which of the following is/are true
1
3
9. If
0 7
(A) f  x  has a point of inflexion
(B) Global maxima of f (x) does not exist
15
(C) area bounded by y  f  x  , x – axis, x = 1 and x =2 is
2
f x
(D) The function is constant for  x  R
x3
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n
Let f  x   a x  f  x  f "'  x    f "  x   f '  x  x  R . Also f '  0   f ' 1  f '  1  0
r 2 3
10. 1
satisfies
r 0

and f  0   4,f '  1  3 .

(A) f '  x   x  1  0 has two real and equal roots
(B) xf '  x   4f  x   0 has a root at x = 1
(C) f  x   4 has exactly three distinct solutions
(D) f  x   0 has no real roots

If one root of kx2  x  1  0 is real and other is imaginary  k  0  then k cannot be equal to (Here
2
11.
k is complex number)
(A) -4 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 4

  
If x   0,2 ;S  sin x  sin x   sin x  sin x  
2
12.  ..... upto  terms, (where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function). If S is a finite number then exhaustive range of x contain
  
(A)  0,  (B)  0,  (C) ( , ) (D)  ,2 
 2 2

13. If f(x), g(x) be twice differential functions on [0, 2] satisfying f “ (x) = g”(x), f’ (1) = 2g’(1) = 4 and f (2) =
3g(2) = 9, then
(A) f  4   g  4   10 (B) f  x   g  x   2  2  x  0
(C) f  x   g  x   x  1 (D) f  x   g  x   2x has real root

14. If k1  24n  2n  7n  1 and k 2  2

m m
 
C2 72 m C3 73  ............ ,m,n  2 then
k1
k2
is

(A) 1 if n=m (B) less than 1 if n>m

(C) less than 1 if n<m (D) greater then 1 if n>m

Comprehension Type
Paragraph for question nos. 15 – 16
Consider a twice differentiable function f(x) of degree four symmetrical to line x = 1 defined
as f : R R and f(2) = 0 and f(1) = 0.

15. The sum of roots of the cubic, f(x) = 0, is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
space for rough work

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16. The distance between two horizontal tangents of the curve f(x), is
6 7 8 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5
Paragraph for question nos. 17 – 18

A(-2, 0) and B(2, 0) are the two fixed point and P is a point such that PA + PB = 10. Let S be the circle
x2  y2  r 2, then

17. If r = 4 then the number of points P satisfying PA + PB = 10 and lying on x2  y2  r 2 is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

18. For r = 5 the number of common tangent is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
space for rough work

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FIITJEE MOCK TEST

JEE (Advanced)
PAPER-2
(18.04.2024)

ANSWERS
SECTION – I (Physics)
Part – A
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. A 7. ABD 8. AB
9. AC 10. BD 11. AB 12. BC
13. AC 14. ACD 15. B 16. C

17. B 18. B

SECTION – II (Chemistry)
Part – A
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. BCD 8. AC
9. ABC 10. ABCD 11. ABD 12. AD
13. AB 14. ACD 15. D 16. B
17. B 18. A

SECTION – III (Mathematics)

Part – A
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. A 6. C 7. B 8. ABC
9. ABCD 10. ADC 11. ABCD 12. AC
13. ABC 14. ACD 15. D 16. D
17. A 18. C

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