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Mok 2

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
64 views27 pages

Mok 2

Uploaded by

ERMIAS Amanuel
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Haramaya University

Haramaya Institute of Technology


School of Electrical and Computer Engineering

Mock Test 2023

Electrical Power Engineering

1. Carefully refer to the circuit given below. What are the values of current i and resistor R
respectively _____,______

A. i =10mA and R=20


B. i =  and R=R4=0
C. i= 0 and R= 
D. i=10A and R = ∞
Answer C

2. For the cicuit given in the figure below. The value of R1(round to two decimal) is ___

A. 0.04
B. 40m
C. Cannot be found
D. 16.67
Answer D

3. The number of nodes and branches of the circuit given below is____ and ____ respectively
A. 3 and 6
B. 3 and 5
C. 3 and 7
D. 3 and 3
Answer A
4. The values of Ix, Iy, and Iz in figure below are__ ,__and __ respectively

A. 10mA, 14mA and 15mA


B. -1mA, 3mA and -3mA
C. 9mA, -10mA and -2mA
D. 15mA,-10mA and -2mA

Answer C

5. For the network shown below, the nodal voltage (V1) is equal to_______

1 2

A. 36V
B. 120V
C. 12V
D. 35V
Answer D

6. A load is connected to a network in fig below. At the terminals to which the load is connected,
RTh = 10 Ω and VTh =40 V. The maximum possible power supplied to the load is:

A. 160 W
B. 40 W
C. 80 W
D. 1W
Answer B
7. In the circuit shown in Figure below, the switch opens at t = 0. What the current i1(t) for t > 0.

A. i1(t) = 3e−9t A
B. i1(t) = e−9t A
C. i1(t) = e9t A
D. i1(t) = 2e−9t A

Answer D

8. The capacitor and inductor are the most common known energy storage electrical components.
All of the following are true about the behavior inductor and capacitor expect one

A. For DC source the capacitor is act like open circuit


B. For AC source the Capacitor is act like open circuit
C. For DC source the inductor is act like short circuit
D. For AC source the inductor is act like open circuit
Answer A

9. The balanced three-phase circuit in figure below is given. What is the line currents Ia , Ib and Ic
respectively

a. 6.81 ∠−21.8° A , 6.81 ∠−144 ° A and 6.81 ∠−141.8 ° A


b. 6.81 ∠−218° A , 6.81∠−141.8 ° A∧6.81 ∠ 98.2 ° A
c. 6.81 ∠−21.8° A , 6.81∠−141.8 ° A∧6.81 ∠ 98.2 ° A
d. 6.81 ∠ 21.8 ° A , 6.81 ∠−141.8 ° A∧6.81 ∠ 98.2 ° A
Answer C
10. Which of the following is a Cauer form-I realization for the network function given below
2
S +5 S+ 4
Z ( s) = 2
S +2 S

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer B

11. The two port networks with transmission ( ABCD) parameters given by
A1 , B1 ,C 1 , D1=1 , 2 , 2, 4 and A2 , B 2 , C2 , D2=1 , 2, 2 , 4 respectively are cascaded. The
transmission (ABCD) parameter of the cascaded network is
A. 2,4,4,8 B. 1,4,4,16 C. 0.5,1,1,2 D. 5,10,10,20

Answer D
12. For the following realization which pairs are correct
I. Brune’s realization- realization with ideal transformer
II. Bott Duffin realization-realization with non-ideal transformer
III. Cauer realization-ladder realization
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I,II and III
Answer A

13. A network is composed of two sub-networks N 1 and N 2 as shown in fig below


If the sub-network N 1 contains only linear, bilateral, time-invariant elements then it can be
replaced by its Thevenin equivalent even if the sub-network N 2 contains

A. A non-linear inductance mutually coupled to an element in N 1


B. A two-terminal element which is non-linear
C. An element which is linear, but mutually coupled to some element in N 1
D. A dependent source, the value of which depends upon the voltage or current in some
element in N 1
Answer B

14. In the circuit below, i(∞) is

A.0 A B. 4 A C. 6 A D. 8 A

Answer A

15. A two port network is defined by the relations I 1=2V 1+V 2 and I 2=2 V 1+3 V 2 .Then the
value Z 21 is _______ ohm.
A. -1/2 B.1/2 C. 3/4 D. -1/4
Answer C

16. Which of the following is TRUE regarding a terminated two-port network?


A. For an open circuited output Z L → ∞ , Z ¿=z 11
∆z 1
B. For a short circuited output Z L =0 , Z ¿ = =
z 22 y 11
C. For an open circuited input Z L → ∞ , Z ¿=z 22
D. All of the above are true
Answer D

2
s + 2 s+6
17. In the circuit, the driving impedance is . Hence, the driving point admittance
s( s+ 3)
of the circuit is ________
A. s2 +2 s +6
s ( s+3 )
B.
(s¿¿ 2+2 s+6)¿
C. s ¿)
D. s ( s +3 )∗( s¿¿ 2+2 s+6)¿
Answer B
18. Which of the following is not a signal?

A. Voltage
B. Blood
C. Torque
D. Pressure
Answer: B
A. A signal x(t) is an energy (E) signal if and only if its energy is_____and power
(P) is_____0 < E < ∞ and P = ∞
B. 0 < P < ∞ and E = ∞
C. 0 < E < ∞ and P = 0
D. x(t) = −x(−t)
Answer: C
19. When x[n] is the input of LTI system with the impulse response of h[n] is given. The
convolution of the signals is____

()
n−2
1
x[n] = u[n-2] and h(n) = u(n+2)
2

( ) u[n]
n−2
1
A. 1−
2

2[1 - ( ) ¿u[n]
n +1
1
B.
2

2( ) u[n-2]
n +1
1
C.
2
D. 1
Answer: B
20. A periodic function x(t) can be expanded as a Fourier series if and only if it fulfil
Dirichlet conditions. Which one of the following is deviated from Dirichlet condition
A. x(t) has only a finite number of continuities over any period
B. x(t) has a finite average value over the period T
C. x(t) has only a finite number of maxima and minima over any period
D. x(t) should be integral over any period T
Answer: A
21. The pulse vs(t) in the Figure below is applied to the RL circuit. If the impulse response
of the circuit is h(t) = e−t u(t), the response vo(t) in the given interval of 0 < t < 4 is___

a. 0
b. e4 e-t-1
c. 1- e-t
d. et- e-t

Answer: C

22. The convolution of the discrete signals shown in Figure below is ___. (The signals
are all zero outside the range indicated)

a. [3,5,3,1]
b. [3,3,2,1]
c. [0,1,4,3]
d. [3,6,2,1]

Answer: A

23. Z-transform and region of convergence of the discrete-time unit step signal x[n] = u[n]
is :
Z
A. , |Z | ¿1
Z−1
Z
B. , |Z |¿1
Z−1
1
C. , |Z |¿ 1
Z−1
1
D. , |Z | ¿0
Z
Answer: A

24. Laplace transform of x(t) = e-3tu(t) cos(2t)is :


s+3
A. ( s+2)+4

B.

s+3
C. ( s+3)+ 4

s+ 4
D. ( s+2)+3

Answer: B

25. Fourier transform of the following square pulse signal shown in the figure below is ___

1 ω
A. X1(jω) = (e − e−ω )
ω
B. X1(jω) = sincω
2 ω −ω
C. X1(jω) = (e − e )
ω
D. X1(jω) = 2sincω

Answer: B

26. All of the following are true about a computer except


a. A computer has input and output circuitry.
b. A computer has a central processing unit for carrying out operations
c. A computer has memory for the storage of programs and data
d. A computer can communicate using human language
Answer D

27. Which one of the following is true about C++?


a. The source code can be executed by the computer directly
b. The output of compilation in C++ is an executable code
c. A file with “.OBJ” extension is an executable code
d. Linking in C++ creates an executable file
Answer B
28. Consider the following code fragment
*/ Program to determine the sum of numbers /*

int firstnum, sum, 2ndnum =10;

cout<<”enter the first number”;

cin>>firstnum;

firstnum + 10 = sum;

cout<<”the sum of numbers is:”<<sum;

Which line(s) results in compilation error?

a. 1 and 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. all except B
Answer D

29. Given the following nested loop, how many times will "hello" be displayed to the screen?

a. 50
b. 100
c. 25
d. 45
int x = 1;
int i = 1;
while(i < 25){
int j = 100;
while (j > 50){
x = x + (i * j);
j -= 10;
cout<<“hello”<<endl;
}
i = i + 5;
}
Answer C

30. Given following code fragment


float num [4] = {0.0, 1.0, 3.0, 5.5};
float *ptr;

ptr = num;

Assume the address of the first element of array num is 7000. Which of the following is false?

a. num is the same as &num[0]


b. ptr++ is equal to 1.0
c. num[3] is equal to *(ptr+3)
d. ptr+3 is equal to 7012
Answer B
31. Consider the following code fragment
char a[11];

strcpy(a, “hello there” );

cout << a;

Which of the following is false?

a. a will have a value “hello there”


b. It will print hello there on the console
c. There is an error on strcpy
d. a is wide enough to store the string “hello world”
Answer C
32. Consider the following code fragment
int num = 10;
void display ()
{
int num =15;
cout<<”num here is:” <<num<<endl;
}
int main ()
{
int num = 5;
cout<<”num in main is:”<<num<<endl;
cout <<”num here is :”<<::num<<endl;
return 0;
}
The value of num displayed by the 3rd cout statement is

a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. A and C
Answer B
33. What are the output for the following program
#include<iostream.h>
int main()
{
int value1 = 5, value2 = 15;
int *p1, *p2;
p1 = &value1;
p2 = &value2;
*p1 = 10;
*p2 = *p1;
p1 = p2;
*p1 = 20;
cout<<"value1=="<<value1<<"value2=="<<value2;
return 0;
}
a. value1==5 value2==15
b. value1==20 value2==10
c. value1==10 value2==20
e. none

Answer B

34. Compared to analog systems, digital systems


a. Are less prone to noise c. Can handle much higher power
b. Can represent an infinite number of values d. all of the above

Answer A

35. If you expand two 4-bit comparators to accept two 8-bit numbers, the output of the least
significant comparator is
a. equal to the final output
b. connected to the cascading inputs of the most significant comparator
c. connected to the output of the most significant comparator
d. not used

Answer B

36. The decimal-to-binary encoder shown does not have a zero input. This is because
a. When zero is the input, all lines should be LOW
b. Zero is not important
c. Zero will produce illegal logic levels
d. Another encoder is used for zero

Answer A

37. During the first three intervals for the pulsed circuit shown, the output of
a. G1 is LOW and G2 is LOW c. G1 is HIGH and G2 is LOW
b. G1 is LOW and G2 is HIGH d. G1 is HIGH and G2 is HIGH
Answer C

38. For the K map of the given figure, the simplified Boolean expression is
a. A B D+ BC
b. A C D+ AC
c. A C D+ AC+ BC
d. A B+ A D+ ABC

Answer D

39. When two positive signed numbers are added, the result may be larger that of the size of
the original numbers, creating overflow. This condition is indicated by
a. a zero-result c. change in the sign bit
b. carry out of the sign position d. smoke

Answer C

40. One of the major drawbacks of asynchronous counters is that ___________


a. Low-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation
delays
b. High-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation
delays
c. Asynchronous counters do not have major drawbacks and are suitable for
use in high- and low-frequency counting applications
d. Asynchronous counters do not have propagation delays, which limits their
use in high-frequency applications

Answer B

41. Assume all flip-flops are set initially and FF2 represents the MSB. The counts that are
being decoded by the 3-input AND gates are
HIGH
a. 2 and 3 FF0 FF1 FF2
Q2
b. 2 and 5 J0 Q0
Q0
J1 Q1
Q1
J2 Q2

c. 5 and 6 C C C

d. 3 and 6 K0 Q0
Q0
K1 Q1
Q1
K2 Q2
Q2

CLK

Answer D

42. If an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with a very small amount of boron, then in the extrinsic
semiconductor so formed, the number of electrons ___________ and holes will ___________,
a. Decrease, Decrease
b. Increase, decrease
c. Increase, increase
d. decrease and increase

Answer D

43. The primary function of a rectifier filter is to

a. Remove ripples from the rectified output


b. Minimize ac input variations
c. Suppress odd harmonics in the rectifier output
d. Stabilize dc level of the output voltage
Answer A

44. The negative output swing in a Bipolar junction transistor circuit starts clipping first when
Quiescent Point (Q-Point)
a. has optimum value
b. is near saturation point
c. is near cut-off point
d. is in the active region of the load line.

Answer B

45. If a signal voltage of 50 mV rms is applied to the base of the amplifier shown in Figure below,
the value of output signal voltage is ____________
a. 1.78 mV rms
b. 250.6 mV rms
c. 87.6 mV rms
d. 500 mV rms

Answer D

46. When a negative gate-to-source voltage is applied to an n-channel MOSFET, it operates in the
a. depletion mode
b. cutoff state
c. saturated state
d. enhancement mode

Answer A

47. The drain-to-source voltage in the circuit of Figure below is (The MOSFET data sheet gives
V GSS (OFF )= 8 V and I DSS = 12 mA)

a. 18.5 V
b. 3.1V
c. 11.3 V
d. 1.5V

Answer C
48. The primary cause of linear distortion in amplifiers is

a. change of gain with frequency


b. reactance associated with the circuit and active amplifying element
c. unequal phase shift in component frequencies
d. inherent limitations of the active device.

Answer B

49. RC coupling is popular in low-level audio amplifiers because it

a. is inexpensive and needs no adjustments


b. has better low frequency response
c. provides an output signal in phase with the input signal
d. needs low voltage battery for collector supply

Answer A

50. A signal may have frequency components which lie in the range of 0.001 Hz to 10 Hz. Which
one of the following types of couplings should be chosen in a multistage amplifier designed to
amplify this signal?
a. RC coupling
b. transformer coupling
c. direct coupling
d. double-tuned transformer

Answer C

51. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power
capacity in Ethiopia?

A. Wind power

B. Solar power

C. Biomass power

D. Hydro power

Answer: D

52. Which of the below theory is related to non-renewable resources?

A. Game theory

B. Phlogiston theory

C. Hotelling’s theory

D. Big bang theory


Answer: C

53. What is cut-in wind speed?

A. Wind turbine stops generating output power

B. Wind turbine starts generating output power

C. Wind turbine stops functioning

D. Wind turbine starts functioning

Answer: B

54. Which of the following contributes towards growth of economic and energy?

A. Intermittent capital and human resource investment

B. Continuous capital and human resource investment

C. Decrement in capital and human resource investment

D. No capital and human resource investment

Answer: B

55. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming tide?

A. Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin

B. Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage

C. Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator

D. Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides

Answer: C

56. The allocation of all the non-electrified villages to either on-grid or off-grid status was decided
by_______ of on-grid and off-grid

A. Economic comparison

B. Standard of living (people)

C. Distance between roads

D. Geographic information system

Answer: A

57. To ensure a reliable and economical operation, Microgrid have to include

A. Own generating units (renewables, diesel, microturbine, fuel cell)

B. Storage system (batteries, pumped-storage hydroelectricity, supercapacitors)

C. Smart management system (to ensure the continuous balance between electricity
generation and demand)
D. All of the above

Answer: D

58. In storage hydro power plants, _____ turbines can work with fall heights of up to 2,000 m.
A. Kaplan
B. Pelton
C. Crossflow
D. Francis

Answer: B

59. ____ is an electromagnetic radiation that is capable of affecting the sense of sight

A. Luminous Intensity

B. Luminous flux

C. light

D. all of the above

Answer: C

60. The purpose of electrical plan is to show

A. The type of electrical and utility fixtures on a floor plan

B. Amount of electrical and utility fixtures on a floor plan

C. Locations of electrical and utility fixtures on a floor plan

D. All of the above

Answer: D

61. A small supermarket 20 m long by 15 m wide is to be illuminated to a level of 600 lx by 2400 mm


125 W fluorescent lamps having an efficacy of 65 lm/W. The MF is 0.85 and the UF is 0.6. The
total current drawn by the lighting system is______. Assume a rated voltage of 230 V, a power
factor of 0.95 and DF = 1.0.

A. 12 A

B. 2.845 A

C. 24.85 A

D. 23.6 A

Answer: C

62. A stove circuit runs in a 20 m length of 6.0 mm2 twin cable with cpc, and protected by a 25 A
circuit breaker. The 6.0 mm2 twin cable has a 2.5 mm2 cpc. The external loop impedance Ze is
measured and found to be 0.27 Ω. What is the value of the earth fault loop impedance Zs? (Hint:
At 20oC, resistances of copper conductor in mΩ/m for 6 mm2 and 2.5 mm2 are 7.41 and 3.08
respectively. And at 70 oC, the resistance must be multiplied by 1.2.)

A. 5.3 Ω

B. 0.52 Ω

C. 0.27 Ω

D. 0.53 Ω

E. None of the above

Answer: B

63. A 3-phase, star-connected, 15-kVA induction motor requires a separate branch circuit. The power
factor of the motor is 0.8 and the supply voltage is 380 V. What is the circuit breaker size
recommended for this branch circuit? Assume Cg= 1.0, Ca=0.97 and Ci = 0.7.

A. 3x25 A three-phase circuit breaker

B. 55 A single-phase circuit breaker

C. 3x32 A three-phase circuit breaker

D. 32 A single-phase circuit breaker

E. None of the above

Answer: C

64. One of the following is a major step in the cost estimation of an electrical installation:

A. Review the building plans to calculate the area of the building and the size of its electrical
service.

B. Calculate number and type of electrical outlets, light fixtures and switches needed to do the
job.

C. Contact the municipal electrical office to determine permit fees.

D. Visit the "pro desk" of a home improvement retailer or electrical supply house to price the
materials required to complete the job.

E. All of the above

Answer: E

65. The test required before commissioning an electrical installation is________.

A. Continuity of all protective conductors.

B. Insulation resistance test.

C. Polarity test.
D. Earth electrode resistance test.

E. Earth fault loop impedance test.

F. All of the above

Answer: F

66. For office illumination roughly 7 to 10 Watts/m2 is required. Selecting a lamp with wattage of 40,
the number of lamps required for a 4mx5m office is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

E. All of the above

Answer: E

67. For an ABCD parameter of a transmission line, which of the following is correct?

A. AB – CD = 1 B. BD – AC = 1 C. AD – BC = 1 D. AD – BC = 0

Answer: C

68. If the rms phasor of a voltage is given by V = 120 ∟60° volts, then the corresponding v(t) is given
by
A. 120√ 2 cos(wt +60 °) C. 120√ 2 sin(wt + 60 °)
B. 120cos (wt + 60° ) D. 120sin(wt +60 ° )
Answer: A
69. The real power delivered by a source to two impedances, Z 1 = 3 + j4Ω and Z2 = 10Ω,
connected in parallel, is 1100 W. Determine the real power absorbed by each of the
impedances?

A. 400W and 700W C. 650W and 350W


B. 600W and 500W D. 500W and 600W
Answer: B

70. Type of an insulator used for a voltage below 11kV

A. Shackle type insulators C. Strain type insulators


B. Suspension type insulators D. Stay type insulator
Answer: A

71. Which one of the following statements is wrongly stated about the application of suspension type
insulators?
A. Suspension type insulators are cheaper than pin type insulators for voltages beyond 33 kV.
B. Since suspension type insulators are designed in fixed series string connection, it makes difficult
to replace a damaged unit.
C. The suspension arrangement provides greater flexibility to the line.
D. None of these
Answer: B

72. A transmission line conductor has been suspended freely from two towers and has taken the
form of a catenary that has c = 487.68 m. the span between the two towers is 152 m. and the
weight of the conductor is 1160 kg/km. The length of the conductor and the sag are _____ and
____ respectively.

A. 151.650 km and 6.15 m


B. 152.576 km and 5.934 m
C. 152 km and 5 m
D. 152 km and 2.5 m’
E. None of the above
Answer: B

73. What should be the transformers tap ratios so that the receiving end voltage is equal to the sending
end voltage? The high voltage line operates at 230 kV and transmits 80 MW at 0.8 pf and the
impedance of the line is (40+150) ohm.

. A. Ts=1.14 and TR=0.87


B. Ts=1.0 and TR=0.6
C. Ts=1.05 and TR=0.7
D. None of the above
Answer: A

74. A power system has a maximum load of 15 MW. Annual load factor is 50%. The reserve
capacity of plant is _____ if the plant capacity factor is 40%.

A. 75 MW
B. 7.75 MW
C. 46.75 MW
. D. 8.75 MW
Answer: A

75. A single-phase source delivers 100 kW to a load operating at a power factor of 0.8 lagging. The
reactive power to be delivered by a capacitor connected in parallel with the load in order to raise
the source power factor to 0.95 lagging is ____________.

A. 80 kvar
B. 100 kvar
C. 75 kvar
D. 60 kvar
Answer: C

76. For a 4 pole 2 layer DC Lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer the number of
commutator bars are

A. 80
B. 20
C. 40
D. 160
Answer: B

77. Transformer cores are laminated in order


A. Simplify its construction
B. minimize eddy current losses
C. Reduce the copper losses
D. reduce hysteresis losses
Answer: B

78. The three phase induction motor stator have 4 poles and it is connected to the 440V, three phase
40HZ supply then the speed of the rotating magnetic field is………

A. 1000 rpm
B. 1220 r.p.m
C. 1500 r.p.m
D. None of the above
Answer: D

79. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is

A. To reduce eddy currents


B. To provide mechanical balance for the rotor
C. To amplify voltage
D. To enhance flux density
Answer: B

80. A 30KW, 300V DC shunt generator has armature and field resistances of 0.05Ω and 100Ω
respectively. What is the generated emf?

A. 295.25V
B. 311.25V
C. 305.15V
D. None of the above
Answer: C

81. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

A. rate of flow of ventilating air


B. volume and grade of iron
C. maximum value of flux density
D. frequency of magnetic reversals
Answer: A

82. The series field of short shunt D.C generator is excited by………. Currents

A. shunt

B. armature

C. load

D. external

Answer: B

83. Regenerative braking is not applicable for ………… motor

A. DC shunt motor

B. Three phase induction motor

C. DC series motor

D. Synchronous motor

Answer:C

84. In large alternators damper winding is used to improve

A. Speed.

B. Efficiency.

C. Stability.

D. Power factor.

Answer: C

85. Which one of the following is about An SCR ?

A. Four layer, four junction device

B. Four layer, three junction device


C. Four layer, two junction device

D. Three layer, single junction device

Answer: B

86. In the below given circuit, the SCR is triggered at a certain firing angle α.

The load current falls to zero at ωt =


A. α
B. α/2
C. π
D. π/2
Answer: C

87. For a certain SCR configuration, the below shown waveform is obtained. Find the value of the
average output voltage with α = 30° & Vs = 240 V.

A. 50.27 V
B. 100.8 V
C. 140 V
D. 120 V
Answer: B

88. A 230V, 50Hz, single-pulse SCR is feeding a RL load with α = 40° and β = 210°. Find the value of
average output voltage
A. 54 V
B. 106 V
C. 84 V
D. 32 V
Answer: C

89. If Vo is the output voltage and Vs is the input DC voltage, then for the below given circuit.

A. Vo = Vs
B. Vo < Vs
C. Vo > Vs
D. Insufficient information
Answer: C

90. For a single phase, full bridge, diode rectifier excited from a 230 V, 50 Hz source. With R = 10 Ω &
the inductance(L) large enough to maintain continuous conduction, the average and rms values of
diode currents will be
A. 7.85 A, 8 A
B. 10.35 A, 7.85 A
C. 10.35 A, 14.6 A
D. 8 A, 8 A
Answer: C

91. Which of the following devices should be used as a switch for high power and high voltage
application?
A. TRIAC
B. Thyristor
C. GTO
D. MOSFET
Answer: B

92. The advantage of using a freewheeling diode with bridge type ac to dc converter is
A. improved input power factor
B. regenerative braking
C. reduced cost of system
D. reliable speed control
Answer: A
93. _________ is a branch of electrical power engineering that deals with the protection of electrical
power systems from faults through the disconnection of faulted parts from the rest of the
electrical network

A. Power generation
B. Transmission system
C. Power system protection
D. Distribution system
Answer: C

94. Which type of relay operate by mechanical forces generated on moving parts
A. Electromechanical relays
B. Static relays
C. Numerical relays
D. All of the above
Answer: A

95. _______ is an error sensing device in load frequency control


A. Governor Controlled valves
B. Speed Governor
C. Speed control mechanism
D. Speed changer
Answer: B

96. The speed of shaft is sensed and generated frequency is compared with a _____ and the
feedback signal is utilized to increase or decrease the power generated by controlling the inlet
valve to turbine of steam or water as the case may be.

A. Reference
B. Error
C. A and B
D. None of the above
Answer: A

97. The short-term determination of the optimal output of a number of electricity generation
facilities, to meet the system load, at the lowest possible cost, subject to transmission and
operational constraints is

A. Power generation
B. Economic dispatch
C. Load frequency control
D. Voltage control
Answer: B

98. To remove area control error, ______ sends command signals to the generating units at the
power plants within its area to control the generator out puts.
A. Energy control center
B. Load frequency control
C. Voltage control
D. All of the above
Answer: A

99. Which of the following options is correct regarding the advantages offered by HVDC?
A. Cost of DC circuit is low
B. Changing the voltage level is easier
C. System control stability is high
D. Reduced line cost
Answer: C

100. HVDC Homo polar links uses______


A. One conductor usually of negative polarity
B. One conductor usually of positive polarity
C. Two conductors of positive and negative polarity
D. Two conductors of negative polarity
Answer: D

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