Module 5 ENV 2021 Scheme

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Module-5

Latest Developments in Environmental Pollution Mitigation Tools

1. Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its procedure?


a) Electric field
b) Sonar waves
c) Gamma- rays
d) Electro-magnetic waves

2. The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency can be given as


a. λ = c / r
b. λ = c / f
c. λ = c / h
d. λ = h*c / f

3. Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?


a) Interaction of energy with satellite
b) Electromagnetic energy
c) Electro-magnetic spectrum
d) Interaction of energy with atmosphere

4. Which among the following waves is having less wavelength range?


a) 0.03mm
b) 0.03nm
c) 0.03m
d) 0.03km

5. In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of


a) 0.42-0.52 micrometer
b) 0.24-0.52 micrometer
c) 0.42-0.92 micrometer
d) 0.22-0.32 micrometer

6. Which of the following is not a classification of scattering principle?


a) Faraday scattering
b) Rayleigh scattering
c) Mie scattering
d) Non-selective scattering

7. Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of


a) 7-15km
b) 7000-15000km
c) 700-1500km
d) 70-150km

8. Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?


a) Solar field
b) Polarized field
c) Electric field
d) Micro field

9. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the electromagnetic


radiation?
a) These are produced by the motion of electric charge
b) The oscillation of charged particles sets up changing electric fields
c) he changing electric fields induce the changing magnetic fields in the surrounding
medium
d) None of these

10. The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is called:


a) Spectral variation
b) Spatial variation
c) Temporal variation
d) None of these

11. For interpolation of satellite data used for monitoring dynamic changes that occurs onthe
earth surface, the most suitable orbit for the satellite is:
a) Circular orbit
b) Sun-synchronous orbit
c) Near polar orbit
d) None of these

12. The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about
a) 26,000 km
b) 30,000 km
c) 36,000 km
d) 44,000 km
13. Remote sensing includes gathering of
a. Images
b. Changes
c. Movements
d. Sounds

14. GIS stands for


a. Geographic Information System
b. Generic Information System
c. Geological Information System
d. Geographic Information Sharing

15. GIS deals with which kind of data


a) Numeric data
b) Binary data
c) Spatial data
d) Complex data

16. Which of the following statements is true about the capabilities of GIS
a) Data capture and preparation
b) Data management, including storage and maintenance
c) Data manipulation and analysis
d) Data presentation
e) All of the above

17. By ‘spatial data’ we mean data that has


a) Complex values
b) Positional values
c) Graphic values
d) Decimal values

18. ‘Spatial databases’ are also known as


a) Geodatabases
b) Monodatabases
c) Concurrent databases
d) None of the above

19. Successful spatial analysis needs


a) Appropriate software
b) Appropriate hardware
c) Competent user
d) All of the above
20. Electromagnetic radiation
a) produces a time varying magnetic field and vice versa
b) once generated, remains self-propagating
c) is capable to travel across space
d) consists of magnetic and electric fields
e) All of these

21. Electromagnetic spectrum contains


a) Gamma rays (wave length < 10-10 m)
b) Ultraviolet rays (wave length < 10-6 m)
c) Infrared rays (wave length < 10-4 m)
d) All of these

22. The code based GPS receivers are generally used for
a) Vehicle tracking
b) Land navigation
c) Trans movement
d) All of these

23. Among the following can be expressed as an example of hardware


component
a) Keyboard
b) Arc GIS
c) Auto CAD
d) Digitalization

24. Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?
a) DXF
b) PDF
c) GIF
d) HTML

25. Among the following, which do not come under the components of GIS?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Compiler
d) Data

26. Which of the following doesn’t determine the capability of GIS?


a) Defining a map
b) Representing cartographic feature
c) Retrieving data
d) Transferring data

27. Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?


a) Maintaining geo spatial data
b) Data sharing
c) Accurate data information
d) Presence of data retrieval service

28. Which among the following is a server based hardware platform of GIS?
a) Autodesk Revit
b) STAAD Pro
c) Arc GIS
d) Google-maps

29. Mapmakers use GIS to


A) store geographic information
B) use geographic information
C) view geographic information
D) store, use and view geographic information

30. The information in GIS is entered and stored as


A) panels
B) layers
C) single panel
D) dual-panel

31. The user can use GIS to make


A) complex analyses only
B) display maps only
C) complex analyses and display maps
D) none of these

32. Melting of polar ice is expected to cover a sea level rise of approximately
a) 10 metre
b) 20 metre
c) 60 metre
d) 100 metre

33. Global Warming Potential (GWP) of a greenhouse gas (GHG) is a factor comparing the
global warming impacts of
a) 1 m3 of GHG with 1 m3 of CO2
b) 1 kg of GHG with 1 kg of CO2
c) 1 gram mole of GHG with 1 gram mole of CO2
d) 1 kg of GHG with 1 mole of CO2

34. The term B10 implies


a) Blending of 10 percent biodiesel with 90 percent conventional diesel.
b) Blending of 90 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.
c) Blending of 50 percent biodiesel with 50 percent conventional diesel.
d) Blending of 1 percent biodiesel with 10 percent conventional diesel.

35. The validity period of Environmental Clearance after Environmental Impact Assessmentis
least for
a) Mining projects
b) River valley projects
c) Harbor projects
d) Area development projects

36. In Environmental assessment study, interpretation and evaluation should consider


a) Uncertainty of possible impacts
b) Significance of measured impacts
c) Comparison of alternatives
d) All of the above

37. Who are responsible for the public consultation process of EIA?
a) State Pollution Control Board
b) State Pollution Control Board and District Collector
c) State Pollution Control Board and CPCB Chairman
d) State Pollution Control Board and Civil Society

38. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under which one of the following
India legislations:
a) Indian Forest Act
b) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
c) Wildlife Protection Act
d) Environment (Protection) Act

39. What is Eutrophication?


a) thermal change in water
b) filling up of water body with aquatic plants due to excessive nutrients
c) pollution of water due to solid waste
d) none of the above

40. In which year EIA was started in India?


a) 1967-68
b) 1976-77
c) 1986-87
d) 1972-73

40. ISO 14000 standards are for the


a. Quality Management System
b.Environmental Management System
c. Administration
d. Supply chain

41. Which is the first environmental management system standard?


a. BS 7750
b. ISO 9000
c. ISO 9001
d. ISO 9004

42. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
a) 2010
b) 2011
c) 2015
d) 2016

42. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environment auditing
c) Life-cycle assessment
d) Quality management system

43. What is the full form of NGOs?


a) Non-Governmental Organizations
b) Non Governance Organizations
c) No Governance Organizations
d) Null Governmental Organizations

44. In which of the following sector NGOs are playing an important role?
a) In governing the police force
b) In framing the policy related to laws
c) In framing the environmental policy
d) In deforestation
45. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization Evaluation
Standards in ISO 14000 series?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environmental auditing
c) Environmental performance evaluation
d) Environmental labels and declarations

46. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of
Environmental Management System?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004

47. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of
Environmental Auditing?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004

48. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental Performance
Evaluation?
a) ISO 14001
b) ISO 14004
c) ISO 14010
d) ISO 14031

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