Module 3

Environmental Pollution & Waste Management & Public Health Aspects

Objective type questions & answers:

1. Ground water characteristics must be monitored at least once in a till design

span.
a) Week b) Month
c) Day d) Quarter

2. Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance km.

a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5

3. If no open wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least

monitoring wells.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

4. How should the monitoring wells be arranged in the absence of bore wells?
a) One on up gradient and other three on the down gradient
b) One on up gradient and other two on the down gradient
c) One on up gradient and other one on the down gradient
d) One on up gradient and other four on the down gradient

5. The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least
a) Once in a year b) Once in two years
c) Once in three years d) Once in four years

6. The directions of the ground water flow have to be established with

a) State Ground Water Board b) Water Control Board
c) PCB d) SPCB

7. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?

a) 1970 b) 1972
c) 1974 d) 1976

8. Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?

a) Central Government b) State Government
c) Governor of the State d) President of India

9. Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of
pollutioncontrol?
a) Water Pollution Control Board b) State Pollution Control Board
c) Central Pollution Control Board d) Air pollution Control Board

10. How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the
CentralGovernment?
a) Five b) Ten
c) Twenty d) Twenty Five

11. In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can constitute?
a) One b) Ten
c) Not constitute any committees d) As many committees as
necessary
 12. Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Mumbai b) Raipur
c) Mysore d) New Delhi

13. Who decides the term of the Member Secretary in the Central Pollution Control Board?
a) Chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board b) President of India
c) Prime Minister of India d) Government of
India

14. What is the full form of NAMP?

a) National Air Quality Monitoring Program
b) National Air Quality Measuring Program
c) National Air Quantity Monitoring Program
d) National Air Quality Monitoring Protocol

15. When did the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board for Prevention and Control of Water
Pollution constituted?
a) 1974 b) 1978
c) 1982 d) 1985

16. In how many tier programs the inland water quality monitoring network is operating?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

17. When did the National Green Tribunal Act constituted?

a) 2000 b) 2005
c) 2010 d) 2015

18. Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to
safeguard theenvironment?
a) Brazil b) Denmark
c) China d)
India

19. Groundwater containing bacteria and viruses can result in

a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem

20. is caused by drinking water high in nitrates.

a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d) Liver problem
 21. contaminant causes kidney and liver problems if present in groundwater.
a) Benzene b) Toluene
c) Benzotoulene d) Lead

22. is caused due to groundwater contamination by septic tank.

a) Cholera b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Kidney problem d)
Hepatitis

23. from leachate cause chest pain in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene
c) Mercury
d) Cadmium

24. from leachate can lead to coma in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Lead b) Benzene
c) Phenol d) Cadmium

25. from leachate can lead to gum disease in humans in case of acute exposure.
a) Nickel b) Benzene
c) Phenol d) Cadmium

26. Leachate containing lead causes in humans in case of long term exposure.
a) Anorexia b) Tremor
c) Anaemia d) Renal failure

27. Leachate containing mercury causes in humans in case of long term exposure.
a) Anorexia b) Tremor
c) Anaemia d) Renal failure

28. regulates ground water that is shown to have a connection with surface water.
a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA

29. SDWA established drinking water source protection programs.

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

30. regulates treatment and storage of hazardous waste to prevent contamination.

a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA

31. act authorizes the government to clean up contamination from

hazardoussubstances.
a) CWA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d)
CERCLA

32. regulates pesticide use to prevent groundwater contamination.

a) FIFRA b) SDWA
c) RCRA d) CERCLA

33. The water which in a state of downward movement under gravity is

a) Groundwater b) Vadose water
c) Connate water d) Juvenile water

34. What is the process of movement downwards of vadose water called?

a) Infiltration b) Filtration
c) Deposition d) Down-flow

35. What is the upper surface of the zone saturation called?

a) Aquifer` b) Aquiclude
c) Water table d) Aquifuge

36. What is the water obtained from precipitation called?

a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water

37. Water present in rocks from the time of their deposition is

a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water
 38. What is usually the nature of connate water?
a) Sweet b) Odour
c) Salty d) Odourless

39. Juvenile water is also called

a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Magmatic water d) Secondary water

40. Some hot springs are derived from which water?

a) Meteoric water b) Connate water
c) Juvenile water d) Secondary water

41. The vadose water which is lost to the atmosphere by transpiration and evaporation is

a) Soil water b) Intermediate water

c) Phreatic water d) Water table

42. Which zone is a zone of non-saturation among vadose water?

a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Water table

43. Which zones are together called zone of aeration?

a) Soil water and intermediate zone b) Intermediate zone and zone of capillary water
c) Zone of capillary water and phreatic water d) Soil water and phreatic water

44. The zone of water which occurs only in fine particle size is
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water

45. Which vadose water zone is also called the zone of saturation?
a) Soil water b) Intermediate water
c) Phreatic water d) Zone of capillary water

46. Which of the following is not a negative effect of storm water?

a) Volume b) Runoff
c) Potential contaminants d) Evaporation

47. Pollutants entering surface waters during precipitation events is termed

a) Runoff b) Polluted runoff
c) Contaminated runoff d) Water flow

48. Water is recycled into the atmosphere by vegetation through the process called
a) Evaporation b) Evapotranspiration
c) Precipitation d) Runoff

49. Stream erosion can be caused by excess

a) Precipitation b) Evapotranspiration
c) Penetration d) Transpiration

50. Which of these is a single event?

a) Monsoon rain b) Flash flood
c) Flood d) Volcano eruption

51. What is the amount spent in the UK every year because of flooding?
a) £250 b) £260
c) £270 d) £280

52. When was SWMM developed?

a) 1970 b) 1980
c) 1990 d) 2000

53. Which year was the SWMM approved?

a) 2000 b) 2002
c) 2005 d) 2008

54. In which of the months does the maximum sewage flow occur in India?
a) March b) May
c) July d) September

55. poisoning water in Japan is from fishes.

a) Bismuth b) Arsenic
c) Antimony d) Palladium
56.Fishes can store more quantity of in
their bodies.
a) Mercury b) Bismuth
c) Palladium d) Chlorine
 56. Waste water released from are not the sources of bacteria.
a) Sanitaria b) Municipalities
c) Tanning d) Industries

57. Bacteria and microorganisms present in the water will cause in human and
animals.
a) Indigestion b) Intestinal tract
c) Brain tumour d) Cancer

58. Amoebic dysentery is caused by

a) Viruses b) Bacteria
c) Helminth d) Protozoa

59. Bacteria in water causes

a) Malaria b) Typhoid
c) Dengue d) Chicken guinea

60. Helminth in the water causes

a) Hook worm b) Amoebic dysentery
c) Cholera d) Typhoid

61. The is an important requirement of the aquatic life.

a) Dissolved nitrogen b) Dissolved chlorine
c) Dissolved oxygen d) Dissolved methane

62. The optimum value in natural water is

a) 2-4ppm b) 4-7ppm
c) 4-6ppm d) 2-7ppm

63. What is the full form of BOD?

a) Biochemical oxygen demand b) Biological oxygen demand
c) Biometric oxygen deep water d) Biological oxygen deep water

64. The disappearance of the plants and animals is due to the in water.
a) Nitrogen depletion b) Chlorine depletion
c) Oxygen depletion d) Ozone depletion
 65. The decomposition of the matter produces into and in presence of

a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen b) Oxygen and nitrogen

c) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen and chlorine

66. In which temperature soil develops slowly?

a) Summer b) Wind
c) Rainy d)
Cold

67. Under ideal climatic conditions how many cms of soil is developed?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

68. What is called for the matured soils which are arranged in a series of zones?
a) Soil zones b) Soil layers
c) Soil horizons d) Soil benches

69. What is soil profile?

a) A cross sectional view of the horizons in a soil b) A front view of the horizons in a soil
c) A cross sectional view of the horizons in rocks d) A front view of the horizons in rocks

70. How many horizons are there in soils?

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

71. Which horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil?

a) A b) B
c) C d) O

72. What is called for the mixture of all the contents of soil?
a) Erosion b) Sublimation
c) Degradation
d) Loams

73. What is called for the movement of surface litter and topsoil from one place to another?
a) Soil submerge b) Soil degradation
c) Soil erosion d) Soil pollution
 74. Why continuous contour trenches are used?
a) To decrease the infiltration of air b) To enhance the infiltration of air
c) To decrease the infiltration of water d) To enhance the infiltration of water

75. What is used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands?

a) Check dams b) Water purifier
c) Rain harvesters d) Gradonies

76. Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of

a) Organic manure b) Stored water
c) Modern technologies in harvesting
d) Chemical fertilizers

77. What is noise?

a) Desirable sound b) Desirable and unwanted sound
c) Undesirable and unwanted sound d) Undesirable and wanted sound

78. In which unit sound is measured?

a) Kilometer b) Pascal
c) Kilogram
d) Decibel

79. Which pollution cause hearing loss in organisms?

a) Air pollution b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution d) Soil pollution

80. What is the dB of a threshold of hearing?

a) 0 b) 10
c) 50 d) 100

81. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

a) 100 b) 110
c) 120 d) 146
82. At what decibel instantaneous rupture of membrane happens?
a) 100 b) 120
c) 146 d) 150

83. What is the ambient noise level in the residential one during night time?
a) 40 dB b) 45 dB
c) 50 dB d) 55 dB

84. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?

a) Temporary ear pain b) Temporary hearing problem
c) Temporary threshold shift d) Temporary hearing shift

85. At what level a sound becomes physical pain?

a) Above 50 dB b) Above 70 dB
c) Above 80 dB d) Above 100 dB

86. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?

a) Heavy machinery b) Transportation equipment
c) Loud noise d)
Music

87. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on
a) Noise b) Sound
c) Actions d) Behavior

88. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
a) 2000 b) 2004
c) 2005 d) 2007

89. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?

a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am

90. When can a person complaint to the police regarding noise pollution level?
a) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 10 dB
b) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 20 dB
c) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 30 dB
d) When the ambient noise standards exceeds by 50 dB

91. What is the meaning of silence zone for noise pollution?

a) Area comprising more than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
b) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around hospitals and educational institutes
c) Area comprising more than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets
d) Area comprising not less than 100 meters around clubs and commercial streets

92. When did the Factories Act constitute in India?

a) 1930 b) 1947
c) 1948 d) 1956

93. Which Ministry published a draft of Noise Pollution Rules?

a) Ministry of Foreign Affaires b) Ministry of Pollution Control
c) Ministry of Industries d) Ministry of Environment and
Forests

94. In which year the Motor Vehicles Act came into force?
a) 1983 b) 1984
c) 1988 d) 1990

95. One of the efficient ways to control aircraft noise is

a) Building aircrafts with old technologies
b) Maximize the passengers to 100
c) Increase the amount of pressure it can withstand
d) Constructing aerodromes far away from the residential
areas

96. In which section, if a person violates the noise pollution regulations, is liable for penalty?
a) Section 12 b) Section 15
c) Section 18 d) Section 19

97. What is the db level for heavy vehicles in India?

a) 70 b) 75
c) 77 d) 80
 98. What are the ambient air quality standards in industrial area during day time?
a) 75 db b) 80 db
c) 85 db d) 100 db

99. In which Act, noise is included as an environmental pollutant?

a) 1974 b) 1981
c) 1988 d) 1994

100. What is the primary standard level for carbon monoxide for assuring air quality?
a) 10ppm b) 90ppm
c) 1ppm
d) 9ppm

101. What is the primary function(s) of the alveoli?

a) Transfer of oxygen to the blood

b) Removal of carbon dioxide from the blood
c) Transfer of toxic substances to the blood
d) All of the
mentioned

102. Particles of what size are filtered by the nasal passage?

a) >10micrometre b) >500 micrometre
c) >1 mm d) >5 micrometre
Answer: a
Explanation: The moist nasal passage can capture dust particles above 10 micrometre.

103. What is the effect of ozone on human respiratory system?

a) It has higher affinity to bind with haemoglobin and does not allow binding of oxygen
b) It causes the disfigurement of the alveoli reducing the surface area for gaseous transfer
c) It damages lung tissues and aggravates asthma
d) All of the mentioned

104. Which of the following pollutants is the major contributor to photochemical smog?
a) Peroxynitrates b) Hydroperoxides
c) Nitrogen dioxide
d) Ozone

105. What are the effects of sulphur dioxide on the human body?
a) It causes the malfunction of liver and kidney
b) It breaks down body’s immunity towards particulate matter and bacteria
c) It causes blood cells to dilate thereby affecting blood flow through the circulatory system
d) All of the mentioned

106. How does increase in temperature affect air pollution?

a) Higher temperatures reduce air pollution
b) Higher temperatures increase air pollution
c) Temperature does not affect the air pollution levels
d) Humidity factor is also necessary to predict variance of air pollution with temperature

107. When did the air pollution on earth happened first time?
a) When humans started using tools b) When humans started using firewood
c) When humans started using clothes d) When humans started using wheels

108. Who made the first anti-pollution law?

a) Martin Luther King
b) Nelson Mandela
c) Queen Elizabeth
d) King Edward

109. Which was the first major disaster of air pollution?

a) New York smog
b) London smog
c) Paris smog
d) Delhi smog

110. What is the significance of black color moth in Europe during 19th century?
a) Indication of evolution b) Indication of soil pollution
c) Indication of mutation
d) Indication of air pollution

111. What is the main cause of increase in air pollution in the 20th century?
a) Development of the transport system b) Development of infrastructures
c) Development of electricity d) Development of water resources

112. How many primary pollutants are there?

a) Three b) Five
c) Seven d) Nine
 113. What are secondary pollutants?
a) Pollutants due to fire b) Pollutants due to emission
c) Pollutants due to a chemical reaction d) Pollutants due to oxidation

114. Which is the colorless, odorless and toxic gas which produced when organic materials
incompletely burn?
a) Sulphur oxide b) Carbon monoxide
c) Oxygen d) Particulates

115. Which of the following cause soot in the environment?

a) Hydrocarbons b) Nitrogen oxide
c) Sulphur oxide
d) Particulates

116. What is aerosol?

a) General term for particles in air b) General term for particles in soil
c) General term for particles in water d) General term for particles inside humans

117. What is smog?

a) Mixture of smoke and particulates b) Mixture of smoke and oxygen
c) Mixture of smoke and fog d) Mixture of soot and fog

118. Aerosol + solid particles + liquid particles results in

a) Dust b) Mist
c) Smog
d) Smoke

119. Which of the following is used in ceramic industries?

a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber

120. Wet scrubbers are classified into types.

a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6

121. The centrifugal collectors are classified into how many types?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 2
122. Which of the following air pollution control device has maximum efficiency?
a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Dynamic precipitator
c) Spray tower d) Wet cyclonic scrubber

123. Which of the following fluid is used in web scrubbers?

a) Lime b) MgSO4
c) NaCl d) K2Cr2O7

124. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the fabric filter?

a) They can remove very small particle
b) They are liable to chemical attack
c) They have low efficiency in comparison to venturi scrubber
d) They can handle large volume of gas at relatively high speed

125. Which of the following removes both gaseous and particulate contaminants?
a) Venturi scrubber b) Gravitational settling chamber
c) Dynamic precipitator d) Wet scrubber

126. Identify the correct statement regarding the Electrostatic precipitator.

a) Minimum particle size removal is <0.5μm
b) They can be operated at high temperature
c) It has a low maintenance cost
d) It does not cause any freezing problem

127. Which was the first city to an established system of waste removal?
a) Lahore b) Athens
c) Paris d) London

128. Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
a) Because it is very costly b) Because it requires modern technologies
c) Because it cause several environmental issues
d) Because it requires lot of space

129. What plan should we make to the disposal of solid waste?

a) Integrated waste management plan b) Recycling of waste management plan
c) Reducing of waste management plan d) Use of waste management plan

130. The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?
a) Hazardous b) Toxic
c) Non hazardous d) Non toxic
 131. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

132. Which of the integrated waste management is reduced on an individual level?

a) Source reduction b) Recycling
c) Disposal d) Burning

133. Which of the following can be recycled many times?

a) Plastic b) Wood
c) Organic materials
d) Aluminum

134. Why plastics are difficult to recycle?

a) Because it is very hard material b) Because it is very adhesive in its nature
c) Because of different types of polymer resins d) Because of different sizes of plastic

135. How many key characteristics of a municipal sanitary landfill are there?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

136. How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water d) By the soil particles

137. What is called for the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed
furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?
a) Landfill b) Recycling
c) Vermicomposting
d) Incineration

138. Why the recycled paper is banned for use in food containers?
a) Because it creates contamination b) Because it creates a lot of spaces
c) Because paper can be used only one time
d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
 139. The process of burning of municipal solid waste at high temperature is called

a) Incineration b) Composting
c) Land filing d)
Shredding

140. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

a) Polythene bags b) Synthetic fiber
c) Food waste d)
Paper

141. In which method of disposal of municipal solid waste, the waste is dumped in the
soil?
a) Incineration b) Composting
c) Land filing d)
Shredding

142. Which of the following is correct regarding disposal of waste by land filling?
a) Economical method b) Preferred in low lying areas
c) Foul gases are not produced d) Separation of different types of waste not
required

143. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is a) 100
kg/m3 b) 450 kg/m3
c) 700 kg/m3 d) 1000
kg/m3

144. The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by earthworms is

called

a) Land fills b) Shredding

c) Vermi-composting d)
Composting

145. The waste produced in cotton mills are

a) Municipal solid waste b) Non biodegradable waste
c) Hazardous waste
d) Non hazardous waste

146. Which of the following is not the land filling method?

a) Bangalore method b) Area method
c) Depression method d) Trench
method

147. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from
it.
a) Leachate b) Sludge
c) Distilled water d) Municipal
waste

148. Which of the following is not the municipal solid waste?

a) Radioactive substance b) Ashes
c) Food waste d)
Rubbish

149. Which of the following waste can be decomposed by bacteria?

a) Radioactive substance b) Ashes
c) Food waste d)
Rubbish

150. is the cutting and tearing of municipal solid waste.

a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization d)
Composting

151. is the crushing and grinding of municipal solid waste.

a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization d)
Composting

152. In which method of composting, decomposition of anaerobic waste takes place?

a) Indian method b) Depression method
c) Bangalore method d) Trench
method

153. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid

waste?
a) Land fills b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
 154. The different ways a person can come into contact with hazardous chemicals are
called

a) Exposure pathways b) Toxic pathways

c) Chemical pathways d) Hazard
pathways

155. Minamata, Japan hazard outbreak had effect on the population.

a) Direct b) Acute
c) Minimal
d) Chronic

156. Exposure to caused environmental hazard in USA in the year 1985.

a) Methylisocyanate b) Lead in paint
c) Carbamate pesticide d)
Lead

157. Which of the following chemical is responsible for London smog episode?
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur
c) Sulphur trioxide d) Sulphur
oxide

158. Environmental disease outbreak in Toyama, Japan was due to

a) Lead b) Cadmium
c) Mercury d)
Zinc

159. Which of the following chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from
Bhopal gastragedy?
a) Methylisocyanate b) Methylisocyanade
c) Methyl d)
Methylcyanate

160. Heavy metals like Arsenic, Cadmium and Cyanide effects

a) Immune system b) Nervous system
c) Skin d) Respiratory
system

161. What is chronic toxicity?

a) Effects due to long term exposure b) Effects due to short term exposure
c) Effects due to exposure d) Benefits due to
exposure

162. What is acute toxicity?

a) Effects due to long term exposure b) Effects due to short term exposure
c) Effects due to exposure d) Benefits due to
exposure

163. What is the iron and steel constitute of e-

waste?a) 20 b) 30
c) 40 d) 50

164. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?

a) Lead b) Glass
c) Plastic d)
Iron

165. In 2006, the IAER projected that electronic and electrical appliances
wouldbecome e-waste by 2010.
a) 1 billion b) 2 billion
c) 3 billion d) 4
billion

166. According to the Comptroller and Auditor- General’s (CAG) report what is the amount
of e-waste generated annually?
a) 4LT b) 5LT
c) 6LT d) 7LT

167. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?

a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt d)
Cadmium

168. What is the hazardous pollutant released from electron tubes?

a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt d)
Cadmium

169. What is the hazardous pollutant released from batteries?

a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Cadmium

170. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?

a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Copper

171. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards?

a) Arsenic b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper

172. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones?

a) Lithium b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper

173. What is the hazardous pollutant released from calculators?

a) Lithium b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Copper

174. Nickel is released from

a) Display b) Calculator
c) Alloy
d) Transformers

175. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?

a) Lithium b) PCBs
c) Lead
d) Copper