Physics 2022

1. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Electromagnetic waves) (Wavelength)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10-10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10-2 m
-4
(d) X-rays (iv) 10 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

2. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in
the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The
curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2(2)
When a thermodynamic system undergoes a change in such a way that no exchange of
heat takes place between it and the surroundings, the process is known as adiabatic
process.Graph 4 is isobaric process, 1 is isochoric. Of 2 and 3,2 has the smaller slope
(magnitude) hence is isothermal. Remaining process is adiabatic.

3. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200rpm to
3120rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is :
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 12
(4) 104
3(2)
ω=ω0+αt
ω−ω0
α=
t
(3120−1200)
= rpm
16 s
 1920 2 π
= × rad/s2
16 60
= 4rad/s2

4.

In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in
(1) Circuit (a) only
(2) Circuit (b) only
(3) Circuit (c) only
(4) Both circuits (a) and (c)
(4)
In (a) & (c) circuits, both the junctions are in same biasing conditions so offers equal resistances. Since both are in
series, therefore equal potential will drop across the junction.

5. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the
power of the lens is
(1) +2 D
(2) +20 D
(3) +5 D
(4) Infinity
Answer (3)
R1 = R2 = 20 cm = 0.2
3
=
2
1
P = = (-1)
f
1 1
−
(
R1 R 2 )

P= ( 32 −1)( 0.21 + 0.21 )

1 0.2
= ( )
2 0.2
 10
=
2
= +5D

6. The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated
momentum (p) is

7. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance

(1) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(2) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(3) Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(4) Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors

8. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which
represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

9.
The dimensions [MLT–2A–2] belong to the
(1) Magnetic flux
(2) Self inductance
(3) Magnetic permeability
(4) Electric permittivity

10. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
(1) Zero (2) 30 Hz
(3) 60 Hz (4) 120 Hz
Answer (3)
11. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse
wave along the string is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2
Answer (3)
12. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the
fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the
third (lighter) fragment is
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) 2 2v (4) 3 2v
Answer (3)
13. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m
with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is
(1) 10 m
3
(2) 20 m
3
(3) 10 m (4) 5 m
Answer (2)
14. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
(1) Decreases (2) Increases
(3) Remains the same (4) Is equal to the atmospheric pressure

An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of
1.5 ms–1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to
the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 23000 (2) 20000
(3) 34500 (4) 23500
Answer (3)
16. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
(1) 0° (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 180°
Answer (3)
17. When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and
2
v are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping
potential becomes
2
Vs and Vs respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is
(1) 2v (2) 3v
(3) 2
3
v (4) 3
2
v
Answer (4*)
18. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field
strength at the centre of the solenoid is
(1) 6.28 × 10–2 T (2) 12.56 × 10–2 T
(3) 12.56 × 10–4 T (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
Answer (2)
19. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is
22
11Na → X + e+ + v
(1) 23
11Na (2) 23
10Ne
(3) 22
10Ne (4) 22
12Mg
Answer (3)
20. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Biot-Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal
current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the former
being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source,
q.
In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Answer (3)
21. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal
to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1: 2
4) 1 × 105 J
Answer (1)
24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a
monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the
number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 12
Answer (4)
25. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
(1) 2 weber (2) 0.5 weber
(3) 1 weber (4) Zero weber
Answer (2)
26. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the
thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
Answer (2)
27. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Answer (3)
28. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The
magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
(1) 0.05 N/kg (2) 50 N/kg
(3) 20 N/kg (4) 180 N/kg
Answer (2)
29. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3 , at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted
and reflected rays would be
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 90° (4) 120°
Answer (3)
(4) Dependent on the material property of the sphere
Answer (2)
32.
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius
10 2 m
−
   π 
has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in
the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is
(1) 104 A/m2 (2) 106 A/m2
(3) 10–5 A/m2 (4) 105 A/m2
Answer (4)
33. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown
in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 3
Answer (4)
34. Plane angle and solid angle have
(1) Units but no dimensions (2) Dimensions but no units
(3) No units and no dimensions (4) Both units and dimensions
Answer (1)
35. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms,
respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Gravitational constant (G) (i) [L2T–2]
(b) Gravitational potential energy (ii) [M–1L3T–2]
(c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT–2]
(d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [ML2T–2]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Answer (2)
37. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their
mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the
two are again in phase at the mean position is:
(1) 11 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 8
Answer (1)
38. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct
significant digits is
(1) 138 × 101 (2) 1382
(3) 1382.5 (4) 14 × 102
Answer (4)
39. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest
point of its trajectory will be
(1) Zero (2) 5 3 ms−1
(3) 5 ms–1 (4) 10 ms–1
Answer (2)
The truth table for the given logic circuit is
(1)
000
011
101
110
A B C (2)
001
010
100
111
ABC
(3)
001
010
101
110
A B C (4)
000
011
100
111
41. From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the
variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
(1) Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
(2) A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for
the outside region.
(3) A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with
1
r
dependence for the outside region.
(4) A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing
one for the outside region.
Answer (3)
42. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source
of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v1 and the frequency of the ac
source is v, then
(1) v0 = v = 50 Hz (2) 0
v = v = 50 Hz
π
(3) 0
v = 50 Hz, v = 50 Hz
π
(4) 0
v = 100 Hz; v = 100 Hz
π
Answer (2)
43. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R>>L) varies as:
(1) 2
1
R
(2) 3
1
R
(3) 4
1
R
(4) 6
1
R
Answer (2)
44. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.
Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (3)
45. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s –1.
If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10 –5 T and electrical resistance of the
coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
(1) 0.25 A (2) 1.5 A
(3) 1 A (4) 2 A
Answer (3)
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish
away is
(1) 5.6 × 106 m3 (2) 5.6 × 103 m(1)
(3) 5.6 × 10–3 m3 (4) 5.6 m3
Answer (4)
47. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is
disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as
shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
(1) 4.5 × 10–6 J (2) 3.25 × 10–6 J
(3) 2.25 × 10–6 J (4) 1.5 × 10–6 J
Answer (3)
48. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable
resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q
(1) should be approximately equal to 2X (2) should be approximately equal and are small
(3) should be very large and unequal (4) do not play any significant role
Answer (2)
49. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are
1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is
(1) sin–1 (0.500) (2) sin–1 (0.750)
(3) tan–1 (0.500) (4) tan–1 (0.750)
Answer (2)
50. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of
two daughter nuclei respectively is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 5
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 25 : 16
Answer (3)

Chemistry

51. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.
Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer (1)
53. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
54. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
(1) ununennium
(2) unnilennium
(3) unununnium
(4) ununoctium

55. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
(Drug class) (Drug molecule)
(a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan
(b) Antihistamines (ii) Morphine
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
Answer (2)
56. Match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Hydrides) (Nature)
(a) MgH2 (i) Electron precise
(b) GeH4 (ii) Electron deficient
(c) B2H6 (iii) Electron rich
(d) HF (iv) Ionic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) (2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
Answer (1)
57. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
(1) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(2) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
(3) Enzymes are polysaccharides.
(4) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
Answer (3)
58. The IUPAC name of the complex-
[Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is:
(1) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II) (2) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
(3) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I) (4) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
Answer (4)
59. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
(1) small size
(2) high exchange enthalpy
(3) high electronegativity
(4) high basic character
Answer (2)
60. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair - lone pair’ electron repulsions?
(1) CIF3 (2) IF5
(3) SF4 (4) XeF2
Answer (4)
61. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
(1) There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(2) The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
(3) The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
(4) Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
Answer (4)
62. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole -
dipole
interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar
molecular
masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer (1)
63. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):
In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from
its
unit cells.
Reason (R):
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site,
maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer (2)
64. Given below are two statements
Statement I
The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order –
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
Statement II
The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
are
(1) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
(2) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)
(3) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
(4) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t ½)
Answer (3)
66. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
(1) SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers
(2) The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows
inversion
of configuration
(3) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
(4) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
Answer (3)
67. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
(1) Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
(2) Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl
(3) , HCl
(4) , HCl, Heating
Answer (1)
68. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
(2) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
(3) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
(4) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and
−22xy
d and 2 z
d are similar to
each other.
Answer (4)
69. The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in
which
one of the following compounds?
Answer (3)
70. Choose the correct statement:
(1) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
(2) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
(3) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
(4) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
Answer (3)
71. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
(1) Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
(2) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
(3) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
(4) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
Answer (2)
72. Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure
of gaseous mixture
(1) p = p1 + p2 + p3
(2) 1 2 3
RT RT RT
p = n +n +n
VVV
(3) pi = ip, where pi = partial pressure of ith gas
i = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
(4) i i i p = p  , where i = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
pi
 = pressure of ith gas in pure state
Answer (4)
73. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing
nitro group.
Statement II:
o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro
group
attached to the phenolic ring.
respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
(1) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(2) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(3) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(4) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
Answer (4)
75. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order
Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
Statement II:
In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order
NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer (3)
76. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
(c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
(d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) - (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) (4) (a) - (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
Answer (4)
77. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement II:
Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer (3)
78. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
(1) Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
(2) Fibers possess high tensile strength
(3) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling
respectively
(4) Thermosetting polymers are reusable
Answer (4)
79. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
(1) 500 mL of solvent (2) 500 g of solvent
(3) 100 mL of solvent (4) 1000 g of solvent
Answer (2)
80. +
dry H3O
2 ether RMgX+CO ⎯⎯⎯→Y⎯⎯⎯→RCOOH
What is Y in the above reaction?
(1) RCOO–Mg+X (2) R3CO–Mg+X
(3) RCOO–X+ (4) (RCOO)2Mg
Answer (1)
81. Given below are half cell reactions:
−+−+++→+2
MnO4 8H 5e Mn 4H2O,
2+ − = −
4
º
Mn /MnO
E 1.510 V
+−2+ +→2
1
O 2H 2e H O
2
,
=+
22
ºO
E /H O 1.223 V
Will the permanganate ion, –
MnO4 liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
(1) Yes, because  Ecell = + 0.287 V (2) No, because  Ecell = – 0.287 V
(3) Yes, because  Ecell = + 2.733 V (4) No, because  Ecell = − 2.733 V

each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is

[Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
(1) 5.57 (2) 3.57
(3) 4.57 (4) 2.57
Answer (1)
84. Match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Products formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(a) Cyanohydrin (i) NH2OH
(b) Acetal (ii) RNH2
(c) Schiff's base (iii) alcohol
(d) Oxime (iv) HCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
Answer (4)
85. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
(1) The bond orders of 2 2 2 O , O , O + − and 2
2 O − are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
(2) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate  molecular orbitals
(3) 2H + ion has one electron
(4) 2 O+ ion is diamagnetic
Answer (4)
86. Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity
with
conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II:
Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction
with
Lucas Reagent.