AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS (AIRBUS A320)

AIRCONDITIONING

1) The airconditioning system provides continuous air renewal and maintains a

constant, selected temperature in the following zones:

a) Cockpit, Forward Cabin & Aft Cabin

b) Cockpit, Forward Cabin & Avionics Bay
c) Cockpit, Cabin & Cargo Bays
d) Cockpit, Main Galleys & Aft Cabin

2) Air is supplied through the airconditioning system, by what system?

a) Hydraulic system
b) Pneumatic system
c) Electrical system
d) Airbleed system

3) In an emergency, what can provide ambient air in to the mixing unit?

a) Ram Air Inlet

b) Outlfow Valve
c) Skin Air Inlet Valve
d) Skin Exchange Inlet Valve

4) Temperature in the flight deck and in the cabin can be selected from the
cockpit’s AIR COND panel.

a) Yes
b) No

5) Air is supplied via:

a) Two pack control valves, Three packs and the mixing unit
b) One pack control valve, Two packs and the mixing unit
c) Two pack control valves, Two packs and Two mixing units
d) Two pack control valves, Two packs and the mixing unit

6) How is low-pressure supplied to the mixing unit?

a) by APU
b) by Engine 2
c) by a ground connection
 d) by Engine 1

7) How is temperature regulation optimized?

a) it is optimized via the hot air pressure regulating valve.

b) it is optimized via the hot air pressure regulating valve, and the trim air
valves that add hot air, tapped upstream of the packs to the air coming
from the mixing unit.
c) it is optimized via the hot air pressure regulating valve, and the trim air
valves that add cold air, tapped upstream of the packs to the air coming
from the mixing unit.
d) it is optimized via the cold air pressure regulating valve, and the trim air
valves that add hot air, tapped upstream of the packs to the air coming
from the mixing unit.

8) The two packs operate automatically and dependent on each other.

a) Yes
b) No

9) Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the pack flow
control valve, and is ducted to the primary heat exchanger.

a) Yes
b) No

10) What generates power to drive the compressor and the cooling air fan?

a) Cooled bleed air that is cooled again in the main heat exchanger that
enters the turbine section where it expands.
b) Hot bleed air that is cooled in the main heat exchanger that enters the
turbine section where it expands.
c) Cooled bleed air that is cooled again in the main heat exchanger that
enters the turbine section where it compresses.
d) Hot bleed air that is cooled in the main heat exchanger that enters the
turbine section where it compresses.

11) What system dries the air before it enters the turbine section?

a) Cold air separator system

b) Hot air separator system
c) Water drier system
d) Water separator system
12) This valve is pneumatically-operated and electrically controlled. It regulates
the air flow in accordance with signals received from the pack controllers.

a) Anti Ice Valve

b) Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve
c) Pack Flow Control Valve
d) By Pass Valve

13) It ventilates the cockpit and cabin to remove smoke, or if both packs fail.

a) Trim Air Valve

b) Pack Flow Control Valve
c) Emergency Ram Air Inlet
d) Emergency Ram Air Outlet

14) The outflow valve opens about ____%, provided that it is under automatic
control and ∆P is less than 1 PSI.

a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50

15) The outflow valve automatically opens if it is under manual control, even if
∆P is less than 1 PSI.

a) Yes
b) No

16) This unit mixes cold fresh air from the packs with the cabin air being
recirculated through the recirculation fans.

a) Mixer Unit
b) Main Heat Exchanger
c) Primary Heat Exchanger
d) Pack Controller

17) This valve regulates the pressure of hot air, tapped upstream of the packs
and it is pneumatically-operated and electrically controlled.

a) Pack Flow Control Valve

b) Trim Air Valve
c) Hot-Air Pressure Regulating Valve
d) Cold-Air Pressure Regulating Valve
18) The hot-air pressure regulating valve closes automatically, if:

a) duct overheats or both cabin trim air valves fail

b) cockpit trim air valve fails or both cabin trim air valves fail
c) duct overheats, cockpit trim air valve fails or both cabin trim air valves
fail
d) duct overhears, cockpit trim air valve fails or either one cabin trim air
valves fail

19) The hot-air pressure regulating valve remains operative, even if either the
forward or aft cabin trim air valve fails.

a) Yes
b) No

20) What valve, associated with each zone, adjusts the temperature by adding
hot air?

a) Trim Air Valve

b) Pack Flow Control Valve
c) Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve
d) By Pass Valve

21) What closes during takeoff and landing to avoid ingestion of foreign matter?

a) Ram Air Inlet

b) Outlet Flaps
c) Ram Air Inlet and Outlet Flaps
d) Trim Air Valve

22) Ram Air Inlet and Outlet Flaps open _____ seconds after the speed drops
below 70kts.

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

23) Actual temperature is measured by these sensors.

a) In the cockpit, for the cockpit zone

b) In the lavatory extraction circuit
c) Galley ventilation system, for the cabin
d) All of the above
 24) The temperature selection range for the zone controller is from

a) 18 C (64 F) to 30 C (86 F)
b) 16 C (60 F) to 32 C (90 F)
c) 10 C (50 F) to 20 C (68 F)
d) 18 C (64 F) to 36 C (98 F)

25) The Flight crew may use the temperature selectors on the airconditioning
panel to select the reference temperatues.

a) Yes
b) No

PRESSURIZATION

1) The cabin pressurization system has ____ general functions.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

2) There are ___ Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC) in this system.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

3) The outflow valve incorporates how many electric motors?

a) 2 automatic and 1 manual

b) 1 automatic and 2 manual
c) 2 automatic and 2 manual
d) 1 automatic and 1 manual

4) Cabin pressurization is fully automatic in normal operations.

a) Yes
b) No
5) Air pressure in the cabin follows external schedules that the system receives
as signals from what system?

a) Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS)

b) Pneumatic System
c) Hydraulic System
d) Electrical System

6) Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC’s) receive signals from what systems?

a) Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS)

b) Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC)
c) Engine Interface Unit (EIU)
d) Landing Gear Control Interface Unit (LGCIU)
e) All of the above

7) The outflow valve is located where?

a) Right-hand side of fuselage, behind the forward cargo compartment and

below the flotation line
b) Right-hand side of fuselage behind the aft cargo compartment and below
the flotation line
c) Left-hand side of fuselage, behind the aft cargo compartment and above
the flotation line
d) Left-hand side of fuselage, behind the forward cargo compartment and
above the flotation line

8) Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent cabin pressure from going
too high (____ PSI above ambient) or too low (____ PSI below ambient).

a) 1 PSI above, 8.6 PSI below

b) 8.6 PSI above, 1 PSI below
c) 1 PSI above, 1 PSI below
d) 8.6 PSI above, 8.6 below

9) Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC’s) operate simultaneously.

a) Yes
b) No

10) CPC’s limit the cabin pressure to __________ ft maximum and optimizes it
during climb and descent phases.

a) 8000 ft
b) 9000 ft
c) 10000 ft
 d) 11000 ft

11) Before takeoff, and 55s after landing, the outflow valve _______ to ensure that
there is no residual cabin pressure.

a) fully opens
b) opens partially
c) fully closes
d) None of the above

12) To avoid pressure surge at rotation, the controller pre-pressurizes the

aircraft at a rate of ______ ft/min, until ∆P reaches ____ PSI. At lift off, the
controller initiates the climb phase.

a) 400 ft/min, 0.2 PSI

b) 400 ft/min, 0.1 PSI
c) 500 ft/min, 0.1 PSI
d) 500 ft/min, 0.2 PSI

13) During climb, the cabin altitude is maintained according to a fixed pre-
programmed law that takes into account the aircraft’s actual rate of climb.

a) Yes
b) No

14) During cruise, the controller maintains cabin altitude at the level-off value,
or at the landing elevation, whichever is lower.

a) Yes
b) No

15) During descent, the controller maintains a cabin rate of descent, such that
the cabin pressure is equal to the landing field pressure of _____ PSI, shortly
before landing.

a) +1.0 PSI
b) -1.0 PSI
c) -0.1 PSI
d) +0.1 PSI

16) If the aircraft does not climb after takeoff, the abort mode prevents the
cabin altitude from climbing.

a) Yes
b) No
 17) If both automatic system fails, the flight crew may use the _______________
control panel to take over manual control of cabin pressurization.

a) OXYGEN
b) FLT CTL
c) CABIN PRESS
d) EMER ELEC PWR

18) When the DITCHING pb is pressed the following closes.

a) Outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and
extract valves, pack flow control valves and FWD cargo outlet isolation
valve (if installed).
b) Outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, pack flow control valves and FWD
cargo outlet isolation valve (if installed).
c) Outflow valve, avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, pack flow
control valves and FWD cargo outlet isolation valve (if installed).
d) Outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and
extract valves and FWD cargo outlet isolation valve (if installed).

19) CAB ALTFT (cabin altitude) digital and analog presentations appear in red if
the cabin altitude goes above _____________ ft.

a) 8000 ft
b) 8550 ft
c) 9000 ft
d) 9550 ft

20) The safety valve opens when the cabin differential pressure is between _____
and _____ PSI.

a) 8.6 and 1 PSI

b) 8.2 and 8.9 PSI
c) 8.5 and -0.4 PSI
d) 8.5 and +0.4 PSI

VENTILATION

1) The ventilation system includes ventilation for:

a) Avionics bay, Cargo bay & Cockpit

b) Avionics bay, Cargo bay & Batteries
c) Lavatories & galleys, Batteries & Avionics
d) Lavatories & galleys, Cargo bay & Cockpit
2) The avionics ventilation system is fully automatic.

a) Yes
b) No

3) The avionics ventilation system uses what to force circulation of cooling air?

a) It uses one electric fan.

b) It uses two electric fans.
c) It uses one electric motor.
d) It uses two electric motors.

4) These valves admit air from outside the aircraft and release hot air from the
avionics equipment.

a) Skin exchange inlet and outlet bypass valves

b) Skin exchange inlet and outlet valves.
c) Skin air inlet and outlet bypass valves.
d) Skin air inlet and outlet valves.

5) These valves enable air to circulate between the avionics bay and the space
under the cargo compartment floor.

a) Skin exchange inlet and outlet bypass valves.

b) Skin exchange inlet and outlet valves.
c) Skin air inlet and outlet bypass valves.
d) Skin air inlet and outlet valves.

6) This valve opens to enable the air conditioning circuit to supply fresh air to
the avionics bay.

a) Airconditioning Inlet Valve

b) Skin Exchange Isolation Valve
c) Skin Air Inlet Valve
d) Skin Exchange Inlet Valve

7) This valve connects or isolates the skin heat exchanger.

a) Airconditioning Inlet Valve

b) Skin Exchange Isolation Valve
c) Skin Air Inlet Valve
d) Skin Exchange Inlet Valve
8) What do you call the equipment that controls the operation of all fans and
valves in the avionics ventilation system?

a) Flight Management & Guidance Computers (FMGC)

b) Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU)
c) Avionics Equipment Ventilation Controller (AEVC)
d) Avionics Electronic Ventilation Controller (AEVC)

9) What are the different configurations of the ventilation system?

a) Open-circuit, Closed-circuit & Intermediate configuration

b) Open-circuit, Closed-circuit & Partial configuration
c) Open-circuit & Intermediate configuration
d) Open-circuit & Closed-circuit

10) During the open-circuit configuration, both the skin air inlet valve and skin
air outlet valve are open while the skin exchange inlet and outlet valve, skin
exchange isolation valve and air conditioning inlet valve are closed.

a) Yes
b) No

11) During close-circuit configuration, air is circulated between the avionics bay
and under the cargo compartment floor wherein both skin exchange inlet
and skin exchange outlet bypass valves are open.

a) Yes
b) No

12) During intermediate configuration, the skin air inlet valve is open to let air
circulate through to the avionics bay, cargo underfloor and cockpit.

a) Yes
b) No

13) What happens if when the BLOWER or EXTRACT pb switch is set to OVRD
position?

a) The system is in open-circuit configuration and adds air from the air
conditioning system to the ventilation air.
b) The system is in close-circuit configuration and adds air from the air
conditioning system to the ventilation air.
c) The system is in intermediate configuration and adds air from the air
conditioning system to the ventilation air.
d) The system enables the pilots to manually control the aircraft ventilation
system.
14) What draws ambient cabin air through the lavatories and galleys and
exhausts it near the outflow valve?

a) Extraction fan
b) Blower fan
c) Skin Air Inlet Valve
d) Skin Air Outlet Valve

15) How is battery ventilation done in the A320?

a) A venturi in the skin of the aircraft draws air from the space around the
batteries and vents it overboard.
b) An extraction fan draws air from the lavatories and galleys then blows it
around the batteries and vents it overboard.
c) A blower fan draws air from the avionics bay then blows it around the
batteries and vents it overboard.
d) A venturi in the skin of the aircraft draws air from the space around the
batteries and circulates it.

16) What symbol can you see on the ECAM display when the inlet and outlet
valve position is not available or the received status of the valve is
inconsistent?

a) XX appears in green
b) XX appears in white
c) XX appears in amber
d) No display

17) An extraction fan draws air from the forward cargo compartment or aft
cargo compartment, and exhausts it overboard.

a) Yes
b) No

18) Air from the cabin goes via the inlet isolation valve to the forward cargo
compartment, driven either by an extraction fan or by _________________ in
flight.

a) Atmospheric pressure
b) Over pressure
c) Differential pressure
d) Absolute pressure
 19) The inlet valve closes and the extraction fan stops when the flight crew sets
the DITCHING pb-sw to ON.

a) Yes
b) No

20) Air from the cabin goes via the inlet isolation valve to the aft cargo
compartment. Air is controlled by the ________________ and then goes outboard
through the outflow valve.

a) Cargo Trim Air Valve

b) Cargo Pressure Regulation Valve
c) Inlet Isolation Valve
d) Outlet Isolation Valve

A320 LIMITATIONS

1) The A320 family can operate in the following conditions:

a) VFR and IFR

b) Extended over-water flight
c) Flight in icing conditions
d) All of the above

2) What is the maximum seating capacity for the A320?

a) 117 seats
b) 142 seats
c) 180 seats
d) 220 seats

3) What is the maximum altitude with slats and flaps retracted?

a) 39,000 ft
b) 20,000 ft
c) 12, 000 meters
d) Both a and c

4) What is the maximum altitude with slats and flaps extended?

a) 20,000 ft
b) 39, 000 ft
 c) 12,000 meters
d) None of the above

5) What is the maximum crosswind demonstrated including gusts?

a) 35 knots
b) 36 knots
c) 37 knots
d) 38 knots

6) What is the maximum runway altitude and runway width for the A320?

a) 9200 ft and 45 meters

b) 9200 ft and 40 meters
c) 9000 ft and 45 meters
d) 9000 ft and 40 meters

7) What is the maximum runway slope?

a) ±2°
b) ±3°
c) ±4°
d) ±5°

8) What is the maximum wind for passenger door operation?

a) 50 knots
b) 55 knots
c) 60 knots
d) 65 knots

9) What is the maximum wind for cargo door opening?

a) 30 knots
b) 35 knots
c) 38 knots
d) 40 knots

10) If the nose of the aircraft is oriented into the wind, or the cargo door is on
the leeward side. What is the maximum wind?

a) 40 knots
b) 45 knots
c) 50 knots
d) 55 knots
11) The cargo door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds how many
knots?

a) 60 knots
b) 65 knots
c) 70 knots
d) 75 knots

12) If alternate law or direct law is active, can we use full ailerons and rudder
application to speeds above VA?

a) Yes
b) No

13) What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE)?

a) 280 knots
b) 290 knots
c) 300 knots
d) 310 knots

14) What is the maximum speed with which the landing gear may be
extended (VLO extension)?

a) 220 knots
b) 230 knots
c) 240 knots
d) 250 knots

15) What is the maximum speed with which the landing gear may be
retracted (VLO retraction)?

a) 220 knots
b) 230 knots
c) 240 knots
d) 250 knots

16) What is the maximum altitude where the landing gear may be extended?

a) 23,000 ft
b) 24,000 ft
c) 25,000 ft
d) 26,000 ft
17) Windshield wipers may be used up to a maximum of ______ knots?

a) 210 knots
b) 220 knots
c) 230 knots
d) 240 knots

18) The cockpit window can be open up to a maximum of ______ knots?

a) 170 knots
b) 180 knots
c) 190 knots
d) 200 knots

19) Under normal liftoffs using SRS mode. What is the minimum height above
ground wherein the autopilot can be activated?

a) 100 ft AGL
b) 200 ft AGL
c) 300 ft AGL
d) Autopilot can be activated 5 seconds after liftoff regardless of feet AGL

20) The use of the auto thrust function is allowed with or without the
autopilot or flight director in the selected or managed mode.

a) Yes
b) No