Pedia 2024
Pedia 2024
Pedia 2024
MAJOR EXAMS
Prelims - Midterms
PRELIMS
QUESTION CHOICES ANSWER/RATIONALE
a. Avalanche and hailstorms
What are the 2 natural hazards that
b. The pacific ring of fire and typhoon belt
challenge the Philippine economy and Answer: B
c. Strong wind and dry soil conditions
healthcare system?
d. Sulfur springs and rotten egg odor
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. Ignore the symptoms
b. Non-compliance with the doctor’s advice
Which approach to childhood illness is
c. May seek divine intervention for Illness
most common in Filipino families?
d. Consult for prescription medicines
immediately
Answer: D
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. Healthcare professionals
Nowadays, the greater majority of the
b. Traditional birth attendants
newborn deliveries in the Philippines is Answer: A?
c. Others
attended by:
d. Nobody
According to Rubel in 1960 “syndromes
a. Folk illnesses
from which members of a particular group
b. Factitious illnesses
laim to suffer, and for which, their culture Answer: A
c. hypochondriasis
provides an etiology, diagnosis, preventive
d. Neurasthenia
measures and regimens of healing.” are:
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. The population is aging ● Population pyramid
If the population pyramid of a particular b. The working population is robust ○ Has a wide base that indicates
nation as a wide base, it indicates that: c. The population is very young population is very young
d. The dependent population is few ○ Ages 0-14 and 65+ constitute the
dependent population
○ Median age of working population is 23
years old
The Garantisadong Pambata or GP
program is celebrated twice a year, 1 week
a. ~Reinforces breastfeeding for 0-6 months old Answer: A, B, C
Answer: C
Rationale:
● Stage 1 No Symptoms, Generalized
lymphadenopathy
Answer: D
Rationale:
Answer: C??
Rationale:
BA, 3 year old girl has been having fever,
loose stools and vomiting for the past 2
days. Mother noted that one day prior to
consult, there were already blood in the a. Give ORS for the 1st 4 hours
stools. Patient is restless, irritable, with b. Give Zinc supplements
sunken eyes. When offered Oral c. Give Anti-diarrheal drugs
rehydration solution, the patient drinks d. Continue feeding
eagerly. The following are the
recommended treatment for this patient
EXCEPT:
Answer: B
Rationale:
A breast milk fed to an infant obtained a. Infant feeding ● Milk feeding - every 3 hrs, 4 hrs, 6 hrs etc
from a lactating women other than the b. Wet nursing ● Infant feeding - for growth and development
mother and must be free of ace, c. Milk feeding (first month of life- milk, 4-6th month- solid
tuberculosis or syphilis: d. Supplementary feeding food introduced)
● Supplementary feeding - Artificial feeding
alternates or replaces breastfeeding
Answer: A
Rationale: Four main ingredients:
Wearing food must have the four main a. True ● Staple
ingredients b. False ● Protein source
● Energy supplement in the form of oil
● Vitamin and mineral source
Answer: A
a. BCG vaccine Rationale:
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine ● Live attenuated: MMR VRO BGC
Live attenuated vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine ○ Measles, Mumps, Rubella
d. Typhoid vaccine ○ Varicella, Rotavirus, Oral Polio
○ BGC
a. Oral Answer: D
Varicella vaccine is given through this b. Intradermal Rationale:
route: c. Intramuscular ● Inactivated- usually given via IM
d. Subcutaneous ● Live - either SQ, PO or ID
Answer: D
Rationale: NIP included vaccines:
● BCG
a. BCG ● Monovalent Hepa B
All of the following are included in the ● Pentavalent vaccine (DTwP-HiB-Hepa B)
b. Hepa B
National Immunization Program of the ● Bivalent OPV
c. OPV
Philippines, EXCEPT: ● IPV
d. Dengvaxia
● PCV
● MMR
● MR
● Td
a. Oral
b. Intradermal
BCG vaccine is given through this route: Answer: B
c. Intramuscular
d. Subcutaneous
Answer: C
a. Given subcutaneously Rationale:
b. Given at birth ● Inactivated - given via IM
True regarding DPT vaccine: ● given at min age of 6 weeks
c. Consists of 3 doses with 4 weeks interval
d. No need for booster dose ● primary series- 3 doses, 4 wks interval
● Booster series- 3 doses (12-23 mos, 4-7 yrs,
9-15 yrs)
a. 1 month old Answer: B
Measles vaccine can be given as early as b. 6 months old Rationale:
___ during outbreaks: c. 9 months old ● Given at 9 mos but can be at 6 mos in cases
d. 3 months old of outbreaks
a. Hepatitis B vaccine (HBV) only Answer: C
Infants born to HbsAg (+) mother should b. Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBIG) only Rationale:
be given: c. Both HBV and HBIG ● for infants born to HbsAg(+) mothers: give
d. Neither HBV nor HBIG HBV and HBIG (0.5ml) within 12 hrs of life
Answer: C
Sheldon is a 3 year old boy who was a. 3 doses given 1 month apart
previously unvaccinated with b. 3 doses given 2 months apart Rationale:
Pneumococcal vaccine. You recommend c. 2 doses given 2 months apart ● PCV: 10 and 13 may be given as young as 6
giving PCV with the following dose: d. 1 dose only wks (IM)
● Unvaccinated:
Answer: C
Rationale:
CR dapat 100-160; RR dapat <60
Answer: B
Rationale:
Danerie James, 9 month old infant is a. 50,000 IU for one dose ● Vitamin A supplementation
brought by his mother for a well-baby b. 100,000 IU for one dose ○ Infants 6-11 mos.
check-up and measles immunization. What c. 200,000 IU for one dose ■ 100,000 iU
is the dose if Vitamin A should be given? d. 200,000 IU every 6 months ■ 1 dose usually at 9 mos
○ Children 12-59 mons
■ 200,000 IU
■ 1 capsule every 6 mos
Answer: B
Rationale:
Answer: A
Rationale:
● Albendazole
a. Mebendazole, 500 mg as single dose ○ 12-24 mos
Mavi, is a 2 year old boy came to you for b. Metronidazole, 500 mg as single dose ■ 200 mg single dose every 6 mos
deworming. Your drug of choice? c. Mebendazole 250 mg as single dose ○ 24 mos and above
d. Metronidazole 250 mg as single dose ■ 400 mg single dose every 6 mos
● Mebendazole
○ 12 mos and above - 500 mg single
dose every 6 mos
Answer: B
Cong T. Vie, is 1 month old boy, came to
your clinic for a well-baby check up. a. 1 month after birth Rationale:
Mother said that this is her first time in b. 3 months after birth ● NB Hearing screening 2009
Manila and she delivered her baby outside c. 5 months after birth ○ RA 9709
of the hospital. Up until what age should a d. 7 months after birth ○ Section 7: Infants not born in the
child be screened for hearing? hospital should be screened within the
first 3 months after birth
MIDTERMS
QUESTION CHOICES ANSWER/RATIONALE
a. Physiologic changes
b. Neurologic development
Adolescence is characterized by: Answer: C
c. Both
d. none
Answer: A
a. Social structure Rationale:
The setting that fosters the transition from b. Puberty ● Social structure - setting that fosters the
childhood to adulthood is: c. Hypothalamic GnRH pulse generator transition from childhood to adulthood
d. Sleep ● Puberty is the biological transition from
childhood to adulthood
● GnRH - associated with onset of puberty
a. weight
50-65% of the total body ____ accumulates b. height
Answer: D
during puberty. c. water
d. calcium
a. Pruning of rarely synaptic connections in the
cortical gray matter Answer: A
What happens during Structural Brain b. Diffuse shrinking of cerebral white matter Rationale:
Development in adolescence? volume ● Cerebral white matter increases until mid to
c. Both late adolescence
d. None
a. Elongation of the optic globe may result in
myopia
b. Larger size of the optic globe may result in
What change can be reasonably expected
hyperopia Answer: A
in the visual acuity of some adolescents?
c. Development of cataracts as the lens
increases in volume
d. Vision improves from 20/200 to 20/20 OU
a. Lying, truancy, trespassing
The hallmark of adolescent development b. Separation from the parents
Answer: B
is: c. Concrete operational thought
d. Acne
Answer: A
a. Increased blood volume and hematocrit Rationale:
b. Cardiac murmur ● Improved aerobic capacity
Which of the following contributes to
c. Enlarged larynx and pharynx ○ Increase in heart size
improves aerobic capacity in adolescents?
d. Shouting at their parents during conflict ○ Increase in blood volume and hematocrit
situations ○ Increase in blood pressure
○ Increase in lung vital capacity
Answer: A
a. It is a risk assessment tool in adolescence Rationale:
b. It assigns patients to early middle or late ● HEADSS
What is the function of the HEADSSS adolescne category ○ Tool for assessment of mental and physical
questionnaire? c. It tests ability to attract partners health risks in adolescents
d. It detects pharmacologic tolerance or ○ Home, Education, Activity, Diet,
withdrawal to substance used illegally Substances, Sexuality,
Self-esteem/self-harm
a. Uninvolved parenting
The parenting strategy that is most b. Corporal punishment
Answer: C
associated with positive outcome is c. Authoritative parenting
d. Laissez-faire parenting
a. It is non-directive, neutral communication
b. It presents the genetic contribution to health &
Which of the following is TRUE about
specific risks of transmission of a trait Answer: C
genetic counseling?
c. both
d. none
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Reciprocal translocation of the
b. Eye color
Philadelphia chromosome t (9:22), Answer: C
c. Chronic myeloid leukemia
(q34:q11) is associated with
d. Familial adenomatous polyposis
Advanced parental age is an indication for a. 45 years old and above Answer: C
genetic counseling. It is a paternal age of b. 40 years old and above Rationale:
035
40 years old and above and/or maternal c.
age of _____. d.
35 years old and above
30 years old and above
●
●
Maternal >35 y.o
Paternal >40 y.o
a. 23, X
The normal karyotype of a somatic cell in a b. 46, XX
Answer: B
female patient is: 40XX c. 23, Y
d. 46, XY
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. Linkage analysis ● Array comparative genomic hybridization
Which type of genetic testing is used in b. DNA-based testing ○ Patient’s DNA sequence is compared
genealogy and ethnicity studies? c. Array comparative genomic hybridization with standard control DNA
d. Mutation analysis ● Mutation analysis
○ Mutation sometimes occur in the
noncoding intronic regions