VITEEE Paper - 2023

Physics
Question 1
Light of wavelength λA and λB falls on two identical metal plates A and
B respectively. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is KA and
KB respectively, then which one of the following relations is true
(λA = 2λB)

Options:

K
A. KA < 2B

B. 2KA′ = KB

C. KA = 2KB

D. KA > 2KB

Answer: A

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Question 2
Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance
(Z ) with frequency f in series LCR circuit?
Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: C
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Question 3
6 ∘
A Carnot engine takes 3 × 10 cal. of heat from a reservoir at 627 C, and
∘
gives it to a sink at 27 C. The work done by the engine is
Options:

A. 4.2 × 106J
6
B. 8.4 × 10 J

C. 16.8 × 106J

D. zero

Answer: B

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Question 4
An element of 0.05im is placed at the origin as shown in figure which
carries a large current of 10A. distance of 1m in perpendicular
direction. The value of magnetic field is
Options:
−8
A. 4.5 × 10 T

B. 5.5 × 10−8T

C. 5.0 × 10−8T
−8
D. 7.5 × 10 T

Answer: C

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Question 5
A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 volt and frequency 50 Hz is applied
to a half wave rectifier using P-n junction diode. No filter is used and
the load resistor is 1000Ω. The forward resistance Rf of ideal diode is
10Ω. The percentage rectifier efficiency is
Options:

A. 40%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 15%

Answer: A

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Question 6
A flask contains a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in the ratio of 4 : 1 by
mass at a temperature of 300K The ratio of average kinetic energy per
molecule of the two gases is
Options:

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 1 : 4
Answer: A

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Question 7
The potential energy of a particle (U x) executing S.H.M. is given by

Options:

A. Ux = 2k (x − a)2

2 3
B. U x = k1x + k2x + k3x

C. U x = Ae−bx

D. U x = a constant

Answer: A
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Question 8
→
Consider an electric field E = E 0^x where E0 is a constant. The flux
through the shaded area (as shown in the figure) due to this field is

Options:

A. 2E 0a2

B. √2 E 0a2

C. E 0a2

E 0a2
D.
√2

Answer: C

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Question 9
−1
The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg m is
given by
y = 0.02(m)sin [ 2π ( t
0.04(s)
− x
0.50(m) )]
The tension in the string is
Options:

A. 4.0N

B. 12.5N

C. 0.5N

D. 6.25N

Answer: D

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Question 10
Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the electric field
strength will be

Options:

A. 100Vm−1 along X-axis

−1
B. 100Vm along Y-axis

C. 200Vm−1 at an angle 120∘ with X-axis

D. 50Vm−1 at an angle 120∘ with X-axis

Answer: C
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Question 11
Water falls from a 40m high dam at the rate of 9 × 104 kg per hour. Fifty
percentage of gravitational potential energy can be converted into
electrical energy. Using this hydro electric energy, number of 100W
−2
lamps, that can be lit, is : ( . Take g = 10ms )
Options:

A. 25

B. 50

C. 100

D. 18

Answer: B

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Question 12
An electron (mass = 9 × 10−31 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10−19C ) moving with
a velocity of 106m ∕ s enters a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of
radius 0.1m, then strength of magnetic field must be
Options:
−5
A. 4.5 × 10 T
−5
B. 1.4 × 10 T

C. 5.5 × 10−5T
−5
D. 2.6 × 10 T

Answer: C

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Question 13
If V 1 is velocity of a body projected from the point A and V2 is the
velocity of a body projected from point B which is vertically below the
highest point C. if both the bodies collide, then

Options:

A. V1 = 1 V2
2

1
B. V2 = 2 V1

C. V1 = V2

D. V 1 = 3V 2

Answer: B

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Question 14
A square frame of side 10 cm and a long straight wire carrying current
1A are in the plate of the paper. Starting from close to the wire, the
frame moves towards the right with a constant speed of 10ms−1 (see
figure).
The e.m. finduced at the time the left arm of the frame is at x = 10 cm
from the wire is

Options:

A. 2µV

B. 1µV

C. 0.75µV

D. 0.5µV

Answer: B

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Question 15
For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the inductor is
0.9A while the current through the condenser is 0.4A. Then

Options:

A. current drawn from source I = 1.13A

B. ω = 1 ∕ (1.5 LC)

C. I = 0.5A

D. I = 0.6A

Answer: C

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Question 16
The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs
Options:
A. only the radiowaves

B. only the visible light

C. only the γ-rays

D. X-rays and ultraviolet rays

Answer: D

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Question 17
The P − V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system going under cyclic
process as shown in figure. The work done during an adiabatic process
CD is (Use γ = 1.4 ):

Options:

A. −500J

B. 200J

C. −400J

D. 400J

Answer: A
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Question 18
In YDSE, how many maximas can be obtained on a screen including
central maxima in both sides of the central fringe if
λ = 3000Å, d = 5000Å
Options:

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 1

Answer: C

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Question 19
A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8× 1014 Hz and
2.2 × 1014 Hz. Two identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each are
incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted in (Take
h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js )
Options:

A. B alone

B. A alone

C. neither A nor B

D. both A and B

Answer: B

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Question 20
A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 volt and frequency 50 Hz is applied
to a half wave rectifier using P-n junction diode. No filter is used and
the load resistor is 1000Ω. The forward resistance Rf of ideal diode is
10Ω. The percentage rectifier efficiency is
Options:

A. 40%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 15%

Answer: A

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Question 21
The force between two short bar magnets with magnetic moments M1
and M2 whose centres are r metres apart is 8 N when their axes are in
same line. if the separation is increased to 2r, the force between them is
reduced to
Options:

A. 4N

B. 2N

C. 1N

D. 0.5N
Answer: D

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Question 22
In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z 1
and mass M 1 approaches a target nucleus of charge Z 2 and mass M 2,
the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is

Options:

A. directly proportional to Z 1Z 2

B. inversely proportional to Z 1

C. directly proportional to mass M 1

D. directly proportional to M 1 × M 2

Answer: A
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Question 23
What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30m
if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4 (Take
2
g = 9.8m ∕ s )
Options:

A. 10.84m ∕ s

B. 9.84m ∕ s

C. 8.84m ∕ s

D. 6.84m ∕ s

Answer: A

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Question 24
A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank of a
stream is swimming with speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120° with the
direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream is
Options:

A. 1 m/s

B. 0.5 m/s

C. 0.25 m/s
D. 0.433 m/s

Answer: C

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Question 25
−1
A car moves at a speed of 20ms on a banked track and describes an
−2
arc of a circle of radius 40√3 m. The angle of banking is (g = 10ms )
Options:
∘
A. 25
∘
B. 60
∘
C. 45
∘
D. 30

Answer: D
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Question 26
→ ^ ^ ^ → ^ ^ ^
A force F = α i + 3 j + 6 k is acting at a point r = 2 i − 6 j − 12 k . The value
of α for which angular momentum about origin is conserved is
Options:

A. 2

B. zero

C. 1

D. -1

Answer: D

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Question 27
A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves along its principal
axis. Further one piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves
perpendicular to the principal axis (as shown in figure). Choose the
incorrect option for the reported pieces.
Options:

P
A. Power of L1 =
2

P
B. Power of L2 = 2

P
C. Power of L3 =
2

D. Power of L1 = P

Answer: A

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Question 28
A ball of radius r and density ρ falls freely under gravity through a
distance h before entering water. Velocity of ball does not change even
on entering water. If viscosity of water is η the value of h is given by

Options:

A.
2 2
9
r ( 1−ρ
η )g
B. 2 r2
81 ( ρ−1
η )g
( )
2
2 4 ρ−1
C. r g
81 η

( )
2 4 ρ−1 2
D. r g
9 η

Answer: C

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Question 29
The pressure inside a tyre is 4 times that of atmosphere. If the tyre
bursts suddenly at temperature 300K, what will be the new
temperature?
Options:
7∕2
A. 300(4)
2∕7
B. 300(4)
7∕2
C. 300(2)
−27
D. 300(4)

Answer: D

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Question 30
A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of
emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric
constant K , which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now
inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?
Options:

A. The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.

B. The chance in energy stored is

1
2
CV
2
( 1
K
−1 . )
C. The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.

D. The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.

Answer: C

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Question 31
A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P.
Additional prism Q and R of identical shape and of the same material as
P are now added as shown in the figure. The ray will now suffer

Options:

A. greater deviation

B. no deviation
C. same deviation as before

D. total internal reflection

Answer: C

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Question 32
If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic field, then the torque is
given by
Options:

→ →
A. m ⋅ B
→|
|m
B.
|→
B|

→ →
C. m × B

D. | m | ⋅ | B |
→ →

Answer: C
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Question 33
An α-particle of 10 MeV collides head-on with a copper nucleus (Z = 29)
and is deflected back. Then, the minimum distance of approach between
the centres of the two is:

Options:
−15
A. 8.4 × 10 cm
−15
B. 8.4 × 10 m
−15
C. 4.2 × 10 m
−15
D. 4.2 × 10 cm

Answer: B

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Question 34
A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the
earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the escape velocity
−1
from the earth's surface is 11 km s s , the escape velocity from the
surface of the planet would be
Options:
 −1
A. 1.1 km s
−1
B. 11 km s

C. 110 km s−1
−1
D. 0.11kms

Answer: C

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Question 35
In fig., two equal positive point charges q1 = q2 = 2.0µC interact with a
third point charge Q = 4.0µC. The magnitude, as well as direction, of
the net force on Q is

Options:

A. 0.23N in the +x-direction

B. 0.46N in the +x-direction

C. 0.23N in the - x-direction

D. 0.46N in the −x-direction

Answer: B

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Chemistry

Question 36
PART - II (CHEMISTRY)

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an

electron in 4 forbital?
Options:

A. n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +1 ∕ 2

B. n = 4, l = 4, m = −4, s = −1 ∕ 2

C. n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +1 ∕ 2
D. n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = +1 ∕ 2

Answer: A

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Question 37
Arrange the following in increasing order of ionic radii?
4 3 2−
C , N , F, O
Options:
4 3− 2− −
A. C < N <O <F
3− 4 2− −
B. N <C <O <F
− 2− 3− 4
C. F < O <N <C
2− 3− 4
D. O <F<N <C

Answer: C
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Question 38
The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of
−1
1 : 0.5 : 1. ∆ H for the formation of X Y is −200 kJ mol . The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be

Options:

A. 200 kJ mol−1
−1
B. 100 kJ mol
−1
C. 400 kJ mol

D. 800 kJ mol−1

Answer: D

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Question 39
Values of dissociation constant, K a are given as follows.

Acid Ka
−10
HCN 6.2 × 10
−4
HF 7.2 × 10
HNO2 4.0 × 10−4
− − −
Correct order of increasing base strength of the base CN , F and NO2
will be :
Options:

A. F < CN− < NO2−

− − −
B. NO2 < CN < F

− −
C. F < NO2 < CN

− − −
D. NO2 < F < CN

Answer: C

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Question 40
The product/s formed when diborane is hydrolysed is/are
Options:

A. B2O3 and H3BO3

B. B2O3 only

C. H3BO3 and H2

D. H3BO3 only

Answer: C
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Question 41
The compounds CH3 CH = CHCH3 and
CH3CH2 CH = CH2

Options:

A. are tautomers

B. are position isomers

3 3 3 2 2 2
C. contain same number of sp − sp , sp − sp and sp − sp carbon-carbon bonds

D. exist together in dynamic equilibrium

Answer: B

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Question 42
Choose the correct option for the following reactions.
Options:

A. ' A ' and ' B ' are both Markovnikov addition products.

B. ' A ' is Markovnikov product and ' B ' is antiMarkovnikov product.

C. ' A ' and ' B ' are both anti-Markovnikov products.

D. ' B ' is Markovnikovand ' A ' is anti-Markovnikov product.

Answer: B

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Question 43
Which of the following has Frenkel defects?
Options:

A. Sodium chloride

B. Silver bromide

C. Graphite

D. Diamond

Answer: C

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Question 44
An element X has a body centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge
−3
of 200 pm. The density of the element is 5 gcm . The number of atoms
present in 300g of the element X is Given:Avogadro Constant,
23 −1
N A = 6.0 × 10 mol .

Options:

A. 5N A

B. 6N A
C. 15N A

D. 25N A

Answer: D

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Question 45
On passing current through two cells, connected in series, containing
solution of AgNO3 and CuSO4, 0.18g of Ag is deposited. The amount of
the Cu deposited is:

Options:

A. 0.529g

B. 10.623g

C. 0.0529g

D. 1.2708g

Answer: C
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Question 46
The limiting molar conductivities of HCl, CH3 COONa and NaCl are
2 −1 ∘
respectively 425,90 and 125 mho cm mol at 25 C. The molar
conductivity of 0, 1MCH3 COOH solutions is 7.8 mho cm2 mol−1 at the
same temperature. The degree of dissociation of 0.1M acetic acid
solution at the same temperature is
Options:

A. 0.10

B. 0.02

C. 0.15

D. 0.03

Answer: B

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Question 47
The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by
n m
Rate = k[A] [B]
On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B,
the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as
Options:

A. (m + n)

B. (n − m)
(n − m)
C. 2
1
D.
2(m + n)

Answer: C

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Question 48
In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to
Options:

A. activation energy + normal energy of reactants

B. activation energy - normal energy of reactants

C. normal energy of reactants - activation energy

D. average kinetic energy of molecules of reactants

Answer: A
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Question 49
Which property of white phosphorus is common to red phosphorous?
Options:

A. It burns when heated in air.

B. It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to give phosphine.

C. It shows chemiluminescence.

D. It is soluble in carbon disulphide.

Answer: A

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Question 50
XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having:

Options:
A. Two pπ − d π bonds

B. One pπ − d π bonds

C. Four pπ − d π bonds

D. Three pπ − d π bonds

Answer: C

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Question 51
Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because
Options:

A. both have half filled p-and d -orbitals

B. cuprous ion has incomplete d -orbital and cupric ion has a complete d -orbital

C. both have unpaired electrons in the d -orbitals

D. cuprous ion has complete d -orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d -orbital.

Answer: D
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Question 52
The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is
attributed to :

Options:

A. actinoid contraction

B. 5f , 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

C. 4f and 5d levels being close in energies

D. the redioactive nature of actinoids

Answer: B

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Question 53
The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

Options:

A. Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

B. Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

C. Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

D. Square planar geometry and paramagnetic

Answer: B

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Question 54
Indicate the complex ion which shows geometrical isomerism.

Options:
+
A. [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2]

2−
B. [Pt(NH3)3 Cl]

3−
C. [Co(NH3)6]

D. [Co(CN)5(NC)]3−

Answer: A
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Question 55
Reaction of C6H5CH2 Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows

Options:

A. SN1 mechanism

B. SN2 mechanism

C. Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction

D. Saytzeff rule

Answer: A

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Question 56
What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following
reaction?
ZnCl2

R − OH + HCl → R − Cl + H2O

Options:
∘ ∘ ∘
A. 1 > 2 > 3

B. 3∘ > 2∘ > 1∘

C. 1∘ < 2∘ < 3∘

D. 3∘ > 1∘ > 2∘
Answer: C

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Question 57
Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson's synthesis?
Options:

A. Methoxybenzene

B. Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether

C. Methyl tertiary butyl ether

D. Di-tert-butyl ether

Answer: D

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Question 58
Which of the following reactions will yield benzaldehyde as a product?

Options:

A. (B) and (C)

B. (C) and (D)

C. (A) and (D)

D. (A) and (C)

Answer: C

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Question 59
In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compounds is treated with
Options:

A. zinc amalgam +HCl

B. sodium amalgam +HCl

C. zinc amalgan + nitric acid

D. sodiumamalgam +HNO3

Answer: A

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Question 60
The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following
compounds is

Options:

A. II < III < I

B. III < I < II

C. III < II < I

D. II < I < III

Answer: D

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Question 61
The major product of the following reaction is :

Options:

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

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Question 62
Blister copper is
Options:

A. Impure Cu

B. Cu alloy

C. Pure Cu

D. Cu having 1% impurity

Answer: D

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Question 63
PA and PB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B,
respectively of an ideal binary solution. If X A represents the mole
fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be.

Options:

A. PA + X A(PB − PA)

B. PB + X A(PB − PA)

C. PA + X A(PA − PB)
D. PB + X A(PA − PB)

Answer: D

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Question 64
Which of the following complex shows sp3d2 hybridization
Options:

A. [Cr(N O2)6]3−

B. [F e(CN )6]4−

C. [CoF 6]3−

D. [N i(CO)4]

Answer: C

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Question 65
2- Pentene contains
Options:

A. 15σ - and one π - bond

B. 14σ-and one π-bond

C. 15σ - and two π-bonds

D. 14σ - and two π - bonds

Answer: B

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Question 66
For the below given cyclic hemiacetal (X), the correct pyranose
structure is :
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D
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Question 67
Sucrose which is dextrorotatory in nature after hydrolysis gives glucose
and fructose, among which
(i) Glucose is laevorotatory and fructose is dextrorotatory.

(ii) Glucose is dextrorotatory and fructose is laevorotatory

(iii) The mixture is laevorotatory.

(iv) Both are dextrorotatory.

Options:

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (iii) and (iv)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) only

Answer: B

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Question 68
Allyl cyanide molecule contains
Options:

A. 9 sigma bonds, 4 pi bonds and no lone pair

B. 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and one lone pair

C. 8 sigma bonds, 5 pi bonds and one lone pair

D. 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and two lone pairs

Answer: B
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Question 69
Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and
isostructural?
Options:

A. TeI2, XeF2

B. IBr2−, XeF2

C. IF., XeF,

D. BeCl2, XeF2

Answer: B

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Question 70
In which case change in entropy is negative?
Options:

A. Evaporation of water

B. Expansion of a gas at constant temperature

C. Sublimation of solid to gas

D. 2H(g) → H2(g)
Answer: D

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Mathematics

Question 71
PART-III Mathematics
The argument of the complex number ( i
2
− 2
i ) is equal to
Options:

π
A. 4

B. 3π
4

C. π
12

π
D. 2

Answer: D
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Question 72
2 2 2 2
The lines p(p + 1)x − y + q = 0 and (p + 1) x + (p + 1)y + 2q = 0 are
perpendicular to a common line for
Options:

A. exactly one value of p

B. exactly two values of p

C. more than two values of p

D. no value of p

Answer: A

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Question 73
The probability that a card drawn from a pack of 52 cards will be a
diamond or king is
Options:

A. 1
52

2
B. 13
 4
C. 13

D. 1
13

Answer: C

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Question 74
If n(A) = 4 and n(B) = 7, then the difference between maximum and
minimum value of n(A ∪ B) is
Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D
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Question 75
1
The domain of the function f (x) = is
√ 9 − x2
Options:

A. −3 ≤ x ≤ 3

B. −3 < x < 3

C. −9 ≤ x ≤ 9

D. −9 < x < 9

Answer: B

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Question 76
1
If sin x + cos x = 5
, then tan 2 x is

Options:

A. 25
17

B. 7
25

25
C. 7
 24
D. 7

Answer: D

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Question 77
a
For binary operation * defined on R − {1} such that a * b = b+1
is

Options:

A. not associative

B. commutative

C. not commutative

D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D
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Question 78

cos−1 ( ) + sin
1
2
−1
(1) + tan−1 1
√3
is equal to

Options:

A. π

B. π
3

C. 4π
3

3π
D. 4

Answer: A

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Question 79

If A = [ 1 −1
2 −1 ] ,B= [ x
y −1
1
] 2 2 2
and (A + B) = A + B , then x + y =

Options:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5
Answer: D

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Question 80

The value of
| −a2

ab
ac
ab
−b
bc
2
ac
bc
−c 2 | is :

Options:

A. 0

B. abc
2 2 2
C. 4a b c

D. None of these

Answer: C

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Question 81

If A = [ ] α β
γ α
, then Adj . A is equal to :

Options:

A. [ δ
−β
−γ
α ]
B. [ δ
−γ
−β
α ]
C. [ −δ
γ
β
−α ]
D. [ −δ −β
γ α ]
Answer: B

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Question 82

If sec ( x−y
x+y ) = a, then dy
dx
is
Options:

A. − yx

B. x
y

x
C. − y

D. yx

Answer: D

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Question 83
The number of non zero terms in the expansion of
(1 + 3√2 x)9 + (1 − 3√2 x)9 is
Options:

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Answer: D
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Question 84
an + bn
If a n−1
+ bn − 1
is the A.M. between a and b, then the value of n is

Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: A

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Question 85
The sum of the series
1 1 1
1 + √2
+ √2 + √3
+ √3 + √4
+ ...
upto 15 terms is
Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: C

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Question 86
The equation of the circle with centre (0, 2) and radius 2 is
2 2
x + y − my = 0. The value of m is
Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 3

Answer: C

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Question 87
∫ xx(1 + log x) dx is equal to
Options:
x
A. x + C
2x
B. x +C

C. xx log x + C

D. 1 ∕ 2(1 + log x)2 + C

Answer: A

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Question 88
π∕2
∫
0
(√tan x + √cot x ) dx =

Options:

A. π
√2

B. π√2
 π
C. 2

√
D. π2

Answer: B

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Question 89
x2 y2
The area of the region bounded by the ellipse 16 + 9 = 1 is

Options:

A. 12π

B. 3π

C. 24π

D. π

Answer: A

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Question 90
If vertex of a parabola is (2, −1) and the equation of its directrix is
4x − 3y = 21, then the length of its latus rectum is
Options:

A. 2

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Answer: B

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Question 91
x2 y2
Eccentricity of ellipse a2
+ b2
= 1, if it passes through point (9, 5) and
(12, 4) is
Options:

A. √3 ∕ 4

B. √4 ∕ 5

C. √5 ∕ 6
D. √6 ∕ 7

Answer: D

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Question 92
In △ABC the mid-point of the sides AB, BC and CA are respectively
2 2
+ CA2
(l , 0, 0), (0, m, 0) and (0, 0, n). Then, ABl 2++BC
m + n2
2 is equal to

Options:

A. 8

B. 16

C. 9

D. 25

Answer: A

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Question 93
x+ | x|
If f (x) = x
, then the value of lim f (x) is
x→0

Options:

A. 0

B. 2

C. does not exist

D. None of these

Answer: C

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Question 94
Negation of the Boolean expression p ⇔ (q ⇒ p) is
Options:

A. (∼p) ∧ q

B. (p) ∧ (∼q)

C. (∼p) ∨ (∼q)

D. (∼p) ∧ (∼q)

Answer: D
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Question 95
If R = { (x, y) : x is exactly 7 cm taller than y }, then R is
Options:

A. not symmetric

B. reflexive

C. symmetric but not transitive

D. an equivalence relation

Answer: A

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Question 96
dy
The particular solution of log dx
= 3x + 4y, y(0) = 0 is

Options:

A. e3x + 3e−4y = 4

B. 4e3x − 3−4y = 3
3x 4y
C. 3e + 4e =7
3x −4y
D. 4e + 3e =7

Answer: D

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Question 97
tan−1x + tan−1y = c is the general solution of the differential equation
Options:
2
A. d y = 1 + y2
dx 1+x

dy 1 + x2
B. d x =
1 + y2

C. (1 + x2)d y + (1 + y2) dx = 0

D. (1 + x2) dx + (1 + y2)d y = 0

Answer: C

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Question 98

= 3, | b | = 4, then a value of λ for which

→ →
If | →a | →
a + λ b is perpendicular to
→ →
a − λ b is :

Options:

A. 9
16

3
B. 4

C. 3
2

D. 4
3

Answer: B

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Question 99
3^ 1^ ^
The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 2
i + 2
j − k and
^ ^ ^
2 i − 6 j + 8 k is :

Options:

A. 5√3

B. 5√2

C. 25√3

D. 25√2

Answer: A

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Question 100
Bag P contains 6 red and 4 blue balls and bag Q contains 5 red and 6
blue balls. A ball is transferred from bag P to bag Q and then a ball is
drawn from bag Q. What is the probability that the ball drawn is blue?
Options:

A. 7
15

8
B. 15

4
C. 19

D. 8
19

Answer: B
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Question 101
The mean and variance of a random variable X having binomial
distribution are 4 and 2 respectively, then P(X = 1) is
Options:

1
A. 4

B. 1
32

1
C. 16

D. 1
8

Answer: B

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Question 102

The value of tan cos ( −1 4

5
+ tan
−1 2
3 )=
Options:

6
A. 17

7
B. 16

C. 16
7

D. None of these

Answer: D

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Question 103

If the function f (x) =

{
is continuous at x = 2 and 4 , then the values of a and b are.
1,
ax + b, 2 < x < 4
7,
x≤2

x≥4

Options:

A. a = 3, b = −5

B. a = −5, b = 3
C. a = −3, b = 5

D. a = 5, b = −3

Answer: A

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Question 104

The derivative of sin

−1
( 2x
1 + x2 ) with respect to cos
−1
[ 1 − x2
1 + x2 ] is equal to :
Options:

A. 1

B. -1

C. 2

D. None of these

Answer: A

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Question 105
The number of distinct real roots of the equation x7 − 7x − 2 = 0 is
Options:

A. 5

B. 7

C. 1

D. 3

Answer: D

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Question 106
4 2
The minimum value of the function y = x − 2x + 1 in the interval

[ 1
2
, 2 ] is
Options:

A. 0

B. 2

C. 8
D. 9

Answer: A

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Question 107
sin 2x − cos2x
∫ sin 2xcos2x
dx =

Options:

A. tan x + cot x + c

B. cosec x + scex + c

C. tan x + secx + c

D. tan x + cosec x + c

Answer: A

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Question 108
Consider a curve y = y(x) in the first quadrant as shown in the figure.
Let the area A1 is twice the area A2. Then the normal to the curve
perpendicular to the line 2x − 12y = 15 does NOT pass through the
point.

Options:

A. (6, 21)

B. (8, 9)

C. (10, −4)

D. (12, −15)

Answer: C

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Question 109
The shortest distance between the lines x = y + 2 = 6z − 6 and
x + 1 = 2y = −12z is
Options:

A. 1
2

B. 2

C. 1

D. 3
2

Answer: B

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Question 110
x+1 y+3 z−4 x−4 y+4 z+1
The angle between two lines 2
= 2
= −1
and 1
= 2
= 2
is:

Options:

A. cos−1 ( )1
9

B. cos
−1
( )4
9

C. cos−1 ( )2
9

D. cos−1 ( )3
9

Answer: B

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Aptitude

Question 111
What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of
Monopoly form 1993 to 1995 ?
Options:

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 25

Answer: B
Solution:

Solution:

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Question 112
For which toy category there has been a continuous increase in the
production over the years?
Options:

A. Ludo

B. Chess

C. Monopoly

D. Carrom

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 113
What is the percentage drop in the production of Ludo from 1992 to
1994 ?
Options:

A. 30

B. 50

C. 20

D. 10

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 114
285, 253, 221, 189, ?
Options:

A. 150

B. 182

C. 157

D. 156

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 115
In a certain code language PRESENTATION is written as
ENESTAITPRON. How would INTELLIGENCE be written in that code
language?
Options:

A. TETGLLTNENCE

B. LUENLINTETG

C. LLKKTGTEEBTB

D. LLTEIGENINCE

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 116
Ram moves from a point X to 20 metres towards North. Then he moves
40 metres towards West. Then he moves 20 metres North. Then he
moves 40 metres towards East and then 10 metres towards right and he
reaches to a point Y . Find the distance and direction of Y from X ?
Options:

A. 30 metres, North

B. 40 metres, North

C. 30 metres, South
D. 40 metres, South

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 117
If the 5 th date of a month is Tuesday, what date will be 3 days after the
3 rd Friday in the month?
Options:

A. 17

B. 22

C. 19

D. 18

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 118
Statements:
I. Some cats are dogs.
II. No dog is a toy.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are cats.
II. Some toys are cats.
III. Some cats are not toys.
IV. All toys are cats.
Options:

A. Only Conclusions I and either II or III.

B. Only Conclusions II and III follow

C. Only Conclusions I and II follow

D. Only Conclusion I follows

Answer: A
Solution:

Solution:

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Question 119
How is H related to B ?
I. H is married to P. P is the mother of T. T is married to D . D is the
father of B.
II. B is the daughter of T. T Is the sister of N. H is the father of N.
Options:

A. if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C. if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 120
Among five persons D, E, F, G and H each of whom having different
height, who is the second tallest ?
I. D is taller than only G and E . F is not the tallest.
II. His taller than F. G is taller than E but shorter than D.
Options:

A. if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C. if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

D. if the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

E. if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:

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English

Question 121
If someone else's opinion makes us angry, it means that
Options:

A. we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry

B. there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them

C. our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously

D. we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 122
"Your own contrary conviction" refers to
Options:

A. the fact that you feel pity rather than anger

B. the opinion that two and two are four and that Iceland is a long way from the Equator

C. the opinion that two and two are five and that Iceland is on the Equator

D. the fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 123
Conviction means
Options:

A. persuasion

B. disbelief

C. strong belief

D. ignorance

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 124
The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five you feel
pity because you
Options:

A. have sympathy

B. don't agree with him

C. want to help the person

D. feel sorry for his ignorance

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

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Question 125
The second sentence in the passage
Options:

A. builds up the argument of the first sentence by restating it from the opposite point of view

B. makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence

C. simply adds, a further point to the argument already stated in the first sentence
D. illustrates the point made in the first sentence

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

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