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Q.1 A process of searching for prospective employees and Marks

1
stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organization.
A. Selection
B. Recruitment
C. Placement
D. On-boarding

Q.2 More play, less work signifies- Marks

1
A. Understaffing
B. Overstaffing
C. Friendly environment
D. Optimum staffing

Q.3 The process of giving instructions and guiding people to Marks

1
doing work is known as-
A. Staffing
B. Controlling
C. Directing
D. Coordination

Q.4 A mining engineer explains about safety precautions to Marks

1
be followed while working in a coal mine is an example of-
A. Motivation
B. Leadership
C. Supervision
D. Communication

Q.5 Which of the following is not a necessary feature of the Marks

1
controlling?
A. It maintains order and discipline
B. It prevents action coordination
C. It aids in the evaluation of standard accuracy.
D. It boosts worker motivation.

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Q.6 The function of controlling is performed by- Marks

1
A. Senior management
B. Management at the lower levels
C. Management at the middle levels
D. All of the above

Q.7 The Concept of Control Management is built on the idea Marks

1
that attempting to control everything would likely result in
controlling nothing-
A. Critical point control
B. Key result ideas
C. Management by exception
D. Deviations

Q.8 Which of the following is an example of internal source Marks

1
of finance?
A. Bank loan
B. Venture capital
C. Retained earnings
D. Debentures

Q.9 Which of the following is an example of an external Marks

1
source of finance?
A. Trade credit
B. Personal savings
C. Equity financing
D. Leasing

Q.10 Which source of finance involves selling ownership Marks

1
shares in a company?
A. Debt financing
B. Equity financing
C. Trade credit
D. Crowdfunding

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Q.11 Which source of finance is commonly used to fund Marks

1
short-term operational needs?
A. Angel investment
B. Trade credit
C. IPO proceeds
D. Corporate bonds

Q.12 Which of the following is a long-term source of finance? Marks

1
A. Bank overdraft
B. Factoring
C. Lease financing
D. Supplier credit

Q.13 Which source of finance involves borrowing from Marks

1
financial institutions against assets as collateral?
A. Trade credit
B. Venture capital
C. Asset-based lending
D. Equity financing

Q.14 Which source of finance involves pooling funds from Marks

1
multiple investors to support a business venture?
A. Crowdfunding
B. IPO proceeds
C. Angel investment
D. Retained earnings

Q.15 Which source of finance is suitable for small businesses Marks

1
with limited credit history?
A. Private equity

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B. Bank loans
C. Debentures
D. Mezzanine financing

Q.16 Which source of finance allows businesses to sell their Marks

1
accounts receivable at a discount to a third party?
A. Trade credit
B. Factoring
C. Equity financing
D. Grants

Q.17 Which source of finance is a non-repayable fund Marks

1
provided by government agencies or charitable
organizations?
A. Trade credit
B. Angel investment
C. Grants
D. Leasing

Q.18 External sources of finance do not include: Marks

1
A. Debentures
B. Retained earnings
C. Overdrafts
D. Leasing

Q.19 Preference shares: Marks

1
A. must always pay dividends.
B. have limited voting rights
C. are not part of a company's share capital
D. are eligible for interest.

Q.20 A debenture issued for a period of ten years: Marks

1
A. is a long-term loan.
B. cannot be issued as a secured instrument

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C. is a short-term loan
D. receives dividend payments

Q.21 Perpetual Debt capital refers to: Marks

1
A. funds raised through the sale of shares.
B. funds raised by borrowing that need not be repaid
C. factoring accounts receivable.
D. inventory loans.

Q.22 If EBIT is 15,00,000, interest is 2,50,000, corporate tax is Marks

1
40%, degree of financial leverage is;
A. 1.1:11
B. 2.1.20
C. 3.1.31
D. 4.1.41

Q.23 Operating Leverage is calculated as: Marks

1
A. Contribution/ EBIT
B. EBlT/ PBT
C. EBlT/ Interest
D. EBlT/ Tax
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Q.24 Which of the following is correct? Marks

1
A. CL OL+ FL
B. CL OL–FL
C. CL OL x FL
D. OL = OL/ FL

Q.25 Which of the following indicates business risk? Marks

1
A. Operating leverage
B. Financial leverage
C. Combined leverage
D. Total leverage

Q.26 The Degree of Operating Leverage is calculated as: Marks

1
A. Contribution/ EBIT
B. EBIT + Interest
C. EBIT + PBT
D. EBIT + Tax

Q.27 Which of the following best indicates the business risk? Marks
1
A. Operating leverage
B. Financial leverage
C. Combined leverage
D. Total leverage

Q.28 The more limited the payback period— Marks

1
A. The more will the NPV of the venture
B. The more dangerous the undertaking is
C. Less will the NPV of the venture
D. The safer the venture is.

Q.29 The last function in the sequence for attainment of Marks

1
organization objectives, is:
A. Organizing

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B. Coordinating
C. Controlling
D. Planning

Q.30 Which of the following schools of management focuses Marks

1
on motivation?
A. quantitative school
B. neoclassical school
C. system school
D. contingency school of management

Q.31 A learning organisation is important because Marks

1
A. it helps an organisation its costs.
B. it makes the employees the best in the industry.
C. it helps managers to impose their views on their subordinates.
D. it increases the effectiveness and efficiency of the organisation.

Q.32 Which of the following is true about principles of Marks

1
management?
A. The principles of management are in a continuous process of evolution
B. The principles of management have evolved
C. The principles of management have not evolved
D. None of the above

Q.33 State the stage at which the preventive control takes Marks
1
place.
A. Input
B. Output
C. Process
D. None of the above

Q.34 Trade credit comes under the category of: Marks

1
A. Short term funds
B. Long term funds
C. Internal sources of funds
D. Owner’s fund
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Q.35 ________ is an example of esteem needs: - Marks

1
A. Status
B. Self-fulfilment
C. Hunger
D. Pension

Q.36 It means the process of making subordinates to act in a Marks

1
desired manner to achieve certain organisational goals.
A. Supervision
B. Communication
C. Leadership
D. Motivation

Q.37 Controlling function finds out how far __________ Marks

1
deviates from standards.
A. Actual performance
B. Improvement
C. Corrective actions
D. Cost

Q.38 Operating leverage indicates the tendency of operating Marks

1
profits (EBIT) to vary disproportionately with –
A. Profit
B. Fixed cost
C. Sales
D. EPS

Q.39 Degree of total leverage can apply in measuring change Marks

1
in –
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A. EBIT to a percentage change in sales

B. EPS to a percentage change in EBIT
C. EPS to a percentage change in sales
D. Sales to a percentage change in EBIT

Q.40 The values of the future net incomes discounted by the Marks
1
cost of capital are called –
A. Average capital cost
B. Discounted capital cost
C. Net capital cost
D. Net present values

Q.41 Incorporating flotation costs into the analysis of a Marks

1
project will:
A. Have no effect on the present value of the project.
B. Increase the NPV of the project.
C. Increase the project’s rate of return.
D. Increase the initial cash outflow of the project.

Q.42 Ranking projects according to their ability to repay Marks

1
quickly may be useful to firms:
A. When experiencing liquidity constraints.
B. When careful control over cash is required.
C. To indicate the prospective investors specifying when their funds are likely
to be repaid.
D. All of the above

Q.43 Which of the following method of capital budgeting Marks

1
ignores the time value of money?
A. Discounted payback period
B. Net present value
C. Internal rate of return
D. None of the above

Q.44 What type of approach is the home currency approach Marks

1
to capital management?
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A. Long-run
B. Short-run
C. Spot-run
D. Long-form

Q.45 Which of the following is not a relevant cost in Capital Marks

1
Budgeting?
A. Sunk Cost
B. Opportunity Cost
C. Allocated Overheads
D. Both (a) and (c) above

Q.46 Depreciation is incorporated in cash flows because it: Marks

1
A. Is unavoidable cost
B. Is a cash flow
C. Reduces Tax liability
D. Involves an outflow

Q.47 Decision science encompasses a number of Marks

1
mathematically oriented technique such as _____.
A. Natural sciences
B. Mathematics and statistics
C. Engineering
D. All of the above

Q.48 CVP analysis relies on the assumptions that costs are Marks
1
either strictly fixed or strictly variable. Consistent with these
assumptions, as volume decreases total
A. Fixed costs decrease.
B. Variable costs remain constant.
C. Costs decrease.
D. costs remain constant

Q.49 Leasing of machinery can be categorized as______ Marks

1

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A. Fixed asset
B. Investment decision
C. Financing decision
D. Capital budgeting decision

Q.50 Promotion of welfare of human by corporate is called Marks

1
as_______.
A. Social service
B. Philosophy
C. NGO work
D. Corporate philanthropy

Q.51 Which of the following valuation methods is based on Marks

1
“Going concern concept”
A. Market value method
B. Book value method
C. Liquidation method
D. Salvage value method

Q.52 How is the P/E ratio calculated? Marks

1
A. Market value/quick ratio
B. Earnings per share/market capitalization
C. Market value per share/earnings per share
D. None of the above

Q.53 Making gifts of money, goods, or time to help non-profit Marks

1
organizations, groups or individuals is:
A. Corporate social marketing
B. Cause marketing
C. Cause-related marketing
D. Corporate philanthropy

Q.54 A profitability index (PI) of .92 for a project means that Marks
1
__________.
A. The project's costs (cash outlay) are (is) less than the present value of the
project's benefits
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B. The project's NPV is greater than zero

C. The project's NPV is greater than 1
D. The project returns 92 cents in present value for each current dollar
invested (cost)

Q.55 What are intangible assets? Marks

1
A. Non-monetary assets with tangible value
B. Financial assets devoid of physical substance
C. Non-monetary assets devoid of physical substance
D. Monetary assets having material form

Q.56 Discounted cash flow valuation is based upon______. Marks

1
A. Expected future discount that is likely to be earned
B. Real worth of the business
C. Expected future cash flows and discount rates
D. Earning capacity of the company

Q.57 Provisions relating to ‘valuation by registered valuer’s Marks

1
is contained in –
A. Section 247 of the Companies Act, 2013
B. Section 242A of the Income-tax Act, 1961
C. Section 347 of the Companies Act, 2013
D. Section 240AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961

Q.58 Analysts commonly consider all of the following to be Marks

1
indicators that the market is overvalued except.
A. High average P/E ratio
B. High average price-to-book ratio
C. High average dividend yield
D. All of the above

Q.59 When one of the existing companies take over business Marks
1
of another company or companies, it is known as
____________.
A. Amalgamation
B. Absorption
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C. Internal reconstruction
D. External reconstruction

Q.60 In case of amalgamation, miscellaneous expenses are Marks

1
shown _____________.
A. New Company Account
B. Equity Shareholders Account
C. Cash Account
D. Realization Account

Q.61 In case of ________, one existing company takes over Marks

1
the business of another company and no new company is
formed.
A. Amalgamation
B. Absorption
C. Reconstruction
D. None of the Above

Q.62 The manner in which an organization’s assets are Marks

1
financed is referred to as its –
A. Capital structure
B. Financial structure
C. Asset structure
D. Owner’s structure

Q.63 A would-be acquirer's offer to buy stock directly from Marks

1
shareholders is referred to as __________.
A. white knight
B. joint venture
C. tender offer
D. takeover

Q.64 When liquidation expenses is paid and borne by seller Marks

1
company then it is debited to_____
A. Bank A/c
B. Goodwill A/c
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C. Realisation A/c
D. Capital Reserve A/c.

Q.65 Proxy vote is a _____. Marks

1
A. M & A transaction type
B. Defence against a Hostile Takeover
C. Valuation methodology
D. Hostile takeover strategy

Q.66 The various financing options, available to an acquirer Marks

1
are:
A. Issue of equity and/or preference shares
B. internal accruals
C. long Term loans from banks or other lenders
D. Issue of convertible/non-convertible debentures or other types of
domestic or foreign debt instruments.

Q.67 What is the full form of NAV? Marks

1
A. Net Assessment Value
B. National Asset Value
C. Net Asset Value
D. National Asset variation

Q.68 To whom mostly the treasure report? Marks

1
A. CFO
B. CEO
C. BOD
D. VPO

Q.69 A _________________ is a trust that pools the savings Marks

1
of a number of investors who share common financial goals.
A. Shares
B. Mutual Funds
C. Government Securities
D. Derivative

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Q.70 What is the most appropriate goal of the firm? Marks

1
A. Shareholder wealth maximization
B. Profit maximization
C. Eps maximization
D. Stakeholder maximization

Q.71 In how many categories process of Artificial Intelligence Marks

1
is categorized?
A. Categorized into 5 categories
B. processes are categorized based on the input provided
C. categorized into 3 categories
D. process is not categorized

Q.72 ______ Number of informed search method are there Marks

1
in Artificial Intelligence.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
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Q.73 What is a hypothesis? Marks

1
A. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected
in a study
B. A research questions the results will answer
C. A theory that underpins the study
D. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could
have happened by chance

Q.74 A good data analytics solution includes a viable self- Marks

1
service ___.
A. Data mining
B. Data wrangling
C. Data warehouse
D. None of the mentioned above

Q.75 Tableau is a ___ tool Marks

1
A. Visualization
B. Analytical
C. Data Exploration
D. All of the mentioned above

Q.76 Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? Marks

1
A. John Tukey
B. Hans Peter Luhn
C. Gregory Lon
D. None of the mentioned above

Q.77 Which of the following IS not a "renewable" source of Marks

1
energy?
A. Wave
B. Wind
C. Solar
D. coal

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Q.78 ISO 14001 is Marks

1
A. An extremely dangerous greenhouse gas
B. A Union law on the reduction of pollution
C. A water quality regulation established by the Environment Act
D. An international standard that specifies auditing best practises for
organisaticms environmental management systems and policies

Q.79 Which was the first Indian Bank to issue Green Marks
1
Infrastructure Bonds in India?
A. State Bank of India
B. Bank of Baroda
C. HDFC Bank
D. Yes Bank

Q.80 When did the phrase “Sustainable Development” first Marks

1
appear?
A. 1987;
B. 1980;
C. 1978;
D. 1992;

Q.81 Which of the following was not listed as one of the Marks
1
biggest problems we are facing as humanity?
A. Climate change
B. Species extinction
C. Economic collapse
D. Overpopulation

Q.82 How many goals for sustainable development (SDGs) Marks

1
are there?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 15
D. 19

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Q.83 Recently SPAC (Special purpose Acquisition Company) Marks

1
was in news. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the SPAC?
A. It is an entity set up by RBI to acquire non-performing assets of banks.
B. It is a holding company set up by the Government of India, in which the
government Will transfer all Of its shares Of Public sector enterprises
(PSUs)
C. It is a company formed by the Government of India to acquire other
companies which are of strategic importance.
D. It is a company that is formed to raise money through an initial public
offering to buy another company.

Q.84 What is the other name of SPAC Marks

1
A. blank check company
B. blank cheek company
C. bold check company
D. blank cheque company

Q.85 What is the time specified in the SPAC for acquisition? Marks
1
A. 2 years
B. 1 years
C. 3 years
D. 1.5 years

Q.86 ___________ loan are normal loans, but their interest Marks
1
is not fixed, but is provisional upon the results of business.
A. Mortgage loans
B. Participating loans
C. Long term loans
D. Short term loans

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Q.87 Holders of _________ bonds have right to acquire Marks

1
shares or other equity instruments of the company instead
of accepting repayment
A. Non-convertible
B. Warrants
C. Convertible
D. Debentures

Q.88 Arranging for mezzanine finance is ____________ Marks

1
process.
A. Simpler
B. Easier
C. Lengthy
D. Short

Q.89 Investing in Fund of Funds results in___________ of risk Marks

1
of investing in the private equity since they invest in variety
of funds.
A. Increase
B. Avoiding
C. Spread
D. Decrease

Q.90 Venture capital takes different stages of a project Marks

1
A. Early stage
B. Startup stage
C. 2nd stage
D. All of the above

Q.91 __________ is a smaller but growing sector of private Marks

1
equity market
A. LBO
B. Expansion Credit
C. Distressed Buyout
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D. Mezzanine finance

Q.92 Due diligence is a ____________. Marks

1
A. Mandatory test
B. Reality Test
C. Blind test
D. Acid test

Q.93 In India, the acquiring company can form a Marks

1
____________ which is a 100% of subsidiary of the acquirer
with a minimum capital for the purpose of LBO.
A. Special Purpose Vehicle
B. Hedge Fund
C. Venture Capital
D. Merchant Bank

Q.94 Private Equity Firms Are in The Process Of Marks

1
A. Raising Investing and Distributing
B. Raising Funds Only
C. Investing In Ipo
D. All Of the Above

Q.95 __________ Valuation is the act of assessing value or Marks

1
price of financial assets or liability.
A. Business
B. Financial
C. Share
D. Debenture

Q.96 What is the full form of VCT? Marks

1
A. Venture Capital Trusts
B. Venture Capital Trading

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C. Value Capital Trading

D. Value Capital Trusts

Q.97 The P/E firm takes the help of _______ for valuation & Marks
1
legal advice.
A. Agents
B. Brokers
C. Advisors
D. RBI

Q.98 Entrepreneurship can best be described as: Marks

1
A. A process that requires setting up a business
B. Taking a significant risk in a business context
C. Having a strong vision
D. a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value
creation

Q.99 Which of these statements best describes the context Marks

1
for entrepreneurship:
A. Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses
B. Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises
C. Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts
D. Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses

Q.100 Having more than 50% ownership position that Marks

1
provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called
___________.
A. Joint venture
B. Majority interest
C. Horizontal merger
D. Diversified activity merge

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ANSWER KEY:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
B B C C B D C C A B
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
B C C A A B C B B A
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
B B A C A A B D C B
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
D A A A A C A C C D
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
D D D A D C D C C D
51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
B C D D C A C B B B
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
B B D C D D C A B A
71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
C A A B D A D D D B
81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
D A D A A D C C C D
91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
C B D A A A C D C B

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