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MINISTRY OF GENERAL EDUCATION

NORTHERN PROVINCE
PROVINCIAL COMMON EXAMINATION QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS
2016

PHYSICS (Pure)

Providing Conducive Environment for Effective Teaching and

Learning

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. MEASUREMENTS …………………………………………………………………………………………………….1
2. LENGTH AND TIME …………………………………………………………………………………………..2
3. MASS AND WEIGHT …………………………………………………………………………………………..6
4. DENSITY ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
5. MECHANICS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..10
6. SCALER AND VECTOR QUANTITIES ………………………………………………………….10
7. LINEAR MOTION ………………………………………………………………………………………………….12
8. FORCES …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..16
9. MOMENTS OF FORCE ………………………………………………………………………………………….21
10. WORK ENERGY AND POWER ……………………………………………………………..23
11. SIMPLE MACHINES …………………………………………………………………………………26
12. PRESSURE ……………………………………………………………………………………………………29
13. THERMAL PHYSICS ……………………………………………………………………………….32
14. MEASUREMENTS OF TEMPERATURE ……………………………………………..35
15. MEASUREMENTS OF HEAT ………………………………………………………………….38
16. HEAT TRANSFER …………………………………………………………………………………….40
17. WAVE MOTION ………………………………………………………………………………………..43
18. ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM ……………………………………………………..47
19. SOUND ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….48
20. LIGHT ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….50
21. MAGNETISM ……………………………………………………………………………………………….54
22. STATIC ELECTRICITY ……………………………………………………………………..57
23. CURRENT ELECTRICITY …………………………………………………………………..60
24. MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT ………………………….63
25. PHONOMENON OF ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION ……………..67
26. BASIC ELECTRONICS ………………………………………………………………………..70
27. ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS ………………………

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GRADE TEN
TOPIC: Measurements
Physics is a natural Science that deals with the properties and
interactions of matter and energy.

Measurements

Matter can be measured in terms of time, length and mass.

Units

The study of science, physics in particular, requires the pupil to

know about the basic units of measurement. There are about seven basic
units.

QUESTION ONE

a) Complete the following tables 1 and 2

Basic Unit Symbol Quantity Measured

m Length
Kilogram kg
s Time
Ampere Current
Kelvin K
Cd Luminous Intensity
Mole Amount of Substance

Table 1

Derived Unit Symbol Quantity Measured

m/s Speed or Velocity
Metre per second squared Acceleration
/Decelaration
Kilogram metre per second kgm/s2
squared

kgm2/s2 Energy
or j
Ampere second Quantity of electricity

Table 2

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QUESTION TWO

a) write down the following numbers in scientific notation correct

to three significant figures
i) 0.0067135 (ii) 299987345 (iii) 0.0101010 (iv) 20000000
(v) 9

b) make the following conversions

i) 2mA to amps (ii) 1.2g/cm3 to kg/m3 (iii) 72km/h to m/s

LENGTH AND TIME

 In this section the topics related to length and time will be
covered and all the apparatus for measuring of length and time
shall be tackled.
 The issues related to precautions for use of the apparatus too
shall be attempted.
 Frequency is 1/T, meanwhile T = 1/t

QUESTION ONE

A boy wanted to determine the density of a box, but he sort to

measure the dimensions of the box first. Study the diagram and
answer the questions that follow.

Figure 1.1 Length measurement apparatus: ruler and box.

(i) From the diagram above, what is the length of AB of the box?
(ii) Explain on precaution one should take to avoid errors in the
reading of length AB above.
(iii) What approach would you apply if you are given the engineers
calipers in order to measure the same length AB?
(iv) Convent the size of length AB into millimeters.

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QUESTION TWO

The diagram below shows one of the vital apparatus that is used to
make measurements in the laboratory. Study the diagram and answer
the questions that follow.

Figure 2.1 Length measurement apparatus.

(i) What is the name of the apparatus shown above?

(ii) Identify the parts with scales marked A and B above.
(iii) What is the reading on the scales marked A and B above?
(iv) What is the reading of the above instrument?
(v) In relation to the above apparatus state three important
precautions one needs to carry out in order to avoid the
errors.
(vi) In another set up the above apparatus had the following
readings when zeroed. If the measurement was done on this
apparatus what is the correct dimensions of an object being
measure?

Figure 2.2 Length measurement apparatus

(vii) From the diagrams in figure 2.2 above and using the diagram
without an object on, what would be the ideal case when the
instrument without object is properly zeroed?

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QUESTION THREE

The diagram in figure 3.1 below show the Vernier scale calipers.

(a) State two precautions you would take when using the above
apparatus in figure 3.1 above.
(b) What is the reading on of an instrument show above in figure
3.1?
(c) State the names and functions of parts marked 1, 2 and 3.
(d) Which part of the Vernier calipers is used to measure the
depth of hollow objects?

QUESTION FOUR

The diagram in figure 4.1 below show the simple pendulum and a stop
watch.

Figure 3.1 A simple pendulum and watch.

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(a) Describe a motion that is termed as a complete oscillation

in terms of letters A, B and C from the diagram in figure 3.1
above.
(b) The motion shown by arrows was timed on the watch and the
time is as shown on the watch. Using the information derived
from diagrams in figure 3.1 above, work out.
(i) The time that would be taken for a complete oscillation
to done.
(ii) The frequency of the simple pendulum.
(c) What would be the time taken to complete 20 full
oscillations from the diagram above in figure 3.1.
(d) In another experiment a physics pupil finds that her
frequency of clapping is 25 hertz. What time would it her to
make 40 claps.

QUESTION FIVE

In the diagram in figure 5.1 below shows a race track used by the
cyclist. If the cyclist track is 100m long, and it takes a cyclist
1minute and 36 seconds to complete 6 circles.

Figure 5.1 cyclist taking turns in the track.

(a) Calculate the period of a cycle.
(b) What is the frequency of the cyclist?
(c) Work out the time it takes a cyclist to cover 100m in the
track.

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QUESTION SIX

Convert each of the following units to the required reading using

the table shown below.

Name Length Time

Meters (m) Millimeters Seconds Minutes
(mm) (s)
Dimension 4.54m
of a bus (a)…………………
Diameter 0.68mm
of an hair (b)………………….
Complete 4000mm 12.0s
lap around
ground (c) ………………… (d)………………….
Revelation 6.8 x 1013m 1440minutes
of earth
around the (f)
sun (e) ……………… ……………….

MASS AND WEIGHT

Mass is the measure of the quantity of matter in a substance. Mass
remains constant at all times and under all conditions anywhere in the
Universe.
Mass is measured in kilograms (kg).

Weight is the pull of gravity on a mass. The weight of an object

depends on two things.
 It depends on the mass. The bigger the mass the greater is the
pull.
 It depends on the distance of the object from the centre of the
Earth. The shorter the distance the greater the pull.
QUESTION ONE

An object of mass 50kg on earth where the gravitational strength is

10N/kg is taken to the moon where the gravitational strength is 1.6
N/Kg.

a. What is the mass of an object on the moon?.

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b. Calculate the weight of an object in the moon

c. Distinguish between mass and weight by completing the table below

Mass Weight
It measured in kilograms It measured in newtons
The mass of an object does not
change
It is measured using a
newtonmeter spring balance
Mass is the quantity of matter
in an object

QUESTION TWO

The figure below shows the measuring instruments used by a grade ten
pupil.

a. Identify the instruments A and B

b. Which physical is measured by each instrument?
c. Briefly describe how you would measure the mass of a liquid using
one of the instruments shown above.

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QUESTION THREE

The figure below shows a spring balance being used to measure the
weight of an object on earth. The reading on the instrument is 50N.
Take the gravitational strength on earth to be 10N/kg.

50N

Spring Balance

Object

a. What is the mass of an object on earth?

b. If the same experiment was performed on planet Jupiter, will the
weight change or remain the same as that on earth. Justify your
answer.
c. Calculate the weight of an object on planet Jupiter if the
gravitational strength is 16N/Kg

DENSITY
Definition

Density can be defined in three ways.

 Density is the amount of matter contained in a given volume.
 It is the mass per unit volume of a substance.
 It is the measure of how closely the particles are packed in a
known volume.

Measurement

The S.I unit of density is kg/m3. However, this unit is too big for
laboratory measurements. Therefore, a smaller unit g/cm3 is used for
the sake of convenience.

Density = mass / volume

= m / v, where, m is the mass in kilograms (kg) or grams (g) v
is the volume in cubic metres (m3) or cubic centimeters (cm3).

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Density of a solid

To find the density of a solid (regular or irregular) measure its mass

as before, on the beam balance, and its volume as described already.

Then use the formula density = mass / volume.

Density of a liquid

Take a known volume of a liquid and measure its mass as described

already. Take all the necessary precautions to avoid errors. Then use
the formula density = mass/volume.

Note: If you are using a volatile liquid, such as ethylated spirit or

ethanol; remember to cover it so that it does not evaporate.

Relative Density

Definition

This is the ratio of the mass of any liquid to the mass of an equal
volume of water.

Relative density = mass of liquid/mass of an equal volume of water.

Relative density of a liquid is numerically equal to its density.
Therefore, it eliminates the need to measure volume when finding the
density of a liquid.

QUESTION ONE

a) Define the following terms

i) Density
ii) Relative density
iii) volume
b) The diagram below shows two different liquids of the same volume
whose masses are being measured.

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Calculate the mass of cooking oil given that the density of water is
1g/cm3 and density of oil is 0.73g/cm3

c) The diagram below shows a measuring instrument

stopper

i) Name the instrument shown above

ii) Describe an experiment to determine the density of a liquid
using the instrument shown
d) Describe an experiment to determine the volume of an irregular
shaped object that floats on water.

e) An empty relative density bottle has a mass of 108g. When filed

with a liquid of relative density of 0.8, its mass become 180g.
calculate:

i) The mass of the bottle when filed with water

ii) The capacity of the bottle

Mechanics
Scalar and Vector quantities.

 Resultant force = Force – frictional force(opposing force)

QUESTION ONE

(i) Define each of the following terms

(a) Scalar quantity

(b) Vector quantity

(ii) State two examples of each of the quantities shown defined

above.

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(iii) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that
follow.

Pull on object.

Figure 7.1 Force applied on an object on ramp.

(a) What is the size of a force pulling on an object?

(b) Predict in which direction mass will go following the size
of the pull added to the mass.
(c) Using your knowledge of vectors work out the size of
resultant force with which the object moves in the direction
you have predicted in (b) above.

QUESTION TWO

Two pupils wanted to push a locker above the ramp as shown in the
diagram below in figure 7.2 and the frictional forces acting
opposite of the two pushes.

Figure 7.2. Respective forces applied by the pupils.

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(a) What was the total force with which this locker was pushed
with?
(b) Calculate the resultant force with which the locker was being
pushed with.
(c) If the friction force is equivalent to the pushing force,
predict in what direction was the locker going to in.
(d) Explain the reason for the choice of your answer in (iv) (c)
above.

QUESTION THREE

A man and a woman are pulling a block of mass 10Kg which they need to
use as a beckon for their yard. The man applies a force of 600N while
the woman applies a force of 800N as shown below.

LINEAR MOTION
 Distance is the total length of the journey taken by an object.
It is measured in meters (m).
 Displacement: it is the distance moved in a specified direction.
It is also measured in metres (m)
 Speed: it is the rate of change distance
S=d/t
 Velocity is the rate of change of displacement
 Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity

Equations used on motion

Speed
 S=d/t

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Velocity
 V =∆s/t
Basic equations of motion
 v = u + at,
 s = (v + u)t/2,
 s = ut + ½ at2
 v2 = u2 + 2as

Average Speed
Average Speed = total distance/total time taken
Where

s= displacement
u= initial velocity
v= final velocity
t= time taken

QUESTIONS ONE

A car of mass 5000kg accelerates from rest to a new velocity of 120

m/s in 1 minute. It then moves at the same speed for 10seconds before
coming to rest in the next 30 seconds.

a. State the meaning of the term acceleration

b. Calculate the
i. acceleration of the car during the first 1 minute.
ii. deceleration of the car in the last 30 seconds.
iii. distance covered in the first 1 minute.

QUESTION TWO

A car with an oil leak travelling along the road loses oil exactly one
drop per second. The oil drops o the road as shown below.

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a. Explain what happens on the portion of the road where,

i. the spaces between the dots are increasing
ii. the dot are equally spaced
iii. the spaces between the dots are decreasing
b. If the time taken to move from the 4m to 8 m marks on the road
was 0.5 second, calculate the fastest speed at which the car was
travelling.

QUESTION THREE

The graph below shows a velocity- time graph of an object moving along
a straight road.

a. What is the total time taken for the journey?

b. What is the maximum velocity for the journey?
c. Describe the motion of an object in the first 40 seconds.
d. Calculate the
i. Acceleration of the car
ii. The total distance covered by the car.

QUESTION FOUR

A parachutist jumps from an aircraft. Sometime later, the parachute

opens.
The figure below is a graph of the vertical speed of the parachutist
plotted against time t.

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(a) State what happens at t = 20 s and t = 55 s.

i. at 20 s
ii . at 55 s
(b) Describe the motion of the parachutist between t = 0 and t = 20 s.
(c) Explain, in terms of the forces acting, why the speed of the
parachutist is constant
betweent = 25 s and t = 55 s.
(d) Calculate the distance travelled by the parachutist between t =
25 s and t = 55 s.

QUESTION FIVE

A cyclist of mass 70Kg rides a bicycle of mass 30kg and moves with a
constant speed of 20m/s. whilst traveling at this speed, he sees a
child crossing the road at exactly 50m away and decides to apply the
brakesat 45m away and the bicycle stops at 5m away from the child.

a. What is the total mass of the bicycle and the cyclist?

b. Calculate the
i. Reaction time
ii. Deceleration of the cyclist
c. State two consequences of over speeding
d. On the road explain measures that are placed to reduce over
speeding.
e. Describe two factors that results from brake failure.

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QUESTION SIX

On a particular rain day, a drop of rain released from a cloud which

is 10000m from the roof top, accelerates from rest and attains a
constant velocity after 250 seconds as shown below.

a. Name the two forces that would act on a rain drop for it to
reach a constant velocity.
b. Describe fully the motion of the rain drop until it hits the
roof top.
c. Calculate the speed attained by the rain drop in 250seconds.
d. With what velocity does the rain drop accelerates with before
reaching a constant velocity.
e. Sketch a speed time graph for this motion of the rain drop.

FORCES

Definition
A force is a pull, push or twist exerted on the body. It is a vector
quantity. Examples include,

 Gravitational pull (weight),

 Air friction (air resistance),
 Nuclear attractions,
 Friction between two surfaces,

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 Up thrust,
 Magnetism
Measurement
Force is measured in Newton’s (N). One Newton is the force that
produces an acceleration of 1m/s2 when it acts on a 1kg mass.

Effects Of force
The following changes may occur when force is applied on an object:
(a) Change in position (motion)
(b) Change in velocity (acceleration or deceleration)
(c) Change in size (shape)
(d) Change in direction
(e) Turning

Change In Position (Motion)

Sir Isaac Newton (1642 – 1727), a scientist, studied motion and its
causes and summarized his discoveries in the three laws.

First Law Of Motion

This law states that:
An object will remain at rest or continue in a state of uniform motion
in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force.

In the absence of frictional resistance an object would move at a

constant velocity forever.

Inertia
Definition
Inertia is the tendency (property) of an object to resist (oppose) a
change to its present state.

Note:
Inertial depends on the amount of matter (mass).
 Lighter objects offer less opposition to change. Try it
 Heavier objects offer more resistance to change.

Effects of Inertia
(a) Passengers are thrown forward when a vehicle makes a sudden stop.
They tend to maintain their forward motion and are only stopped by
the seats in front of them and by friction against the floor.

(b) An object remains behind when a smooth card placed under it is

pulled suddenly.

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The first law of motion deals with inertia and is sometimes referred
to as the law of inertia.
Change In Velocity
Second law Of Motion
This law states that:
An unbalanced force produces acceleration in the direction of the
force.

The acceleration that a force produces is directly proportional to the

size of the force and inversely proportional to the mass of an object.
Force (N) = Mass (kg) x Acceleration (m/s2)

F = ma
Third Law Of Motion
States that:
Action and reaction forces are equal in magnitude (size) but opposite
in direction.

If an object A exerts a force on another object B, B exerts an equal

force on object A in the opposite direction.

Note:
 An acting force is that exerted on the second body by the first
one, while a reacting force is that exerted on the first object
by the second.
 Action and reaction forces act on different bodies along the
same line.

Change In Size (shape)

Hook’s Law
This law states that:
The extension of an elastic material is directly proportional to the
force applied provided that the elastic limit is not exceeded.

Elastic limit (limit of proportionality) is the maximum force that can

be applied to an elastic material without stretching it permanently.

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QUESTION ONE

a) Define a force
b) A car of mass1000kg starts from rest and accelerates uniformly to
20m/s through a distance of 100m. Calculate the driving force
acting on the car.

c) Describe an experiment to verify Hooke’s law

QUESTION TWO

a) The diagram below shows a 0.4Kg block hung on a spring.

10cm

The length of the spring is 10cm when a 0.4Kg mass is hung on it.
When a 0.8Kg block is hung on it, the length becomes 13cm. find
the original length of the spring.
b) An electron of mass 9.11 x10-34Kg circles a nucleus at a
tangential velocity of V = 1.02x10-25m/s. calculates the
centripetal force that keeps an electron in its circular
orbit.

QUESTION THREE
Use inertia to explain or discuss each of the following
situations:
a) You fall forward if, while walking, you trip over a log on the
ground.
b) The driver of the moving car is thrown forward through the
wind screen if a car hits the brick wall head on.
c) A heavy, rolling pram is more difficult to stop than a light,
rolling pram.

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d) The head of a passenger in a stationary car is jerked

backwards when the car he or she is in is struck from behind
by a truck

QUESTION FOUR

A car of mass 800Kg is towed along a straight road so that its

velocity changes from 10m/s to 20m/s in a distance of 200m.
The friction force is constant at 500N.
a) Calculate the acceleration of the car.
b) What is the magnitude of the net force acting on the car
during this 200m?
c) What is the magnitude of the force exerted on the car by the
towing vehicle?
d) When the speed of 20m/s is reached, the towing force is
adjusted so that a car now moves at a constant velocity.

QUESTION FIVE

A hot - air balloon is tied to the ground by two ropes to stop it

from taking off. The diagram below shows the forces acting on the
balloon.

The ropes are untied and the balloon starts to move upwards.
a) Calculate the size of the unbalanced force acting on the
balloon. State the direction of this force.
b) b) The mass of the balloon in 765Kg. calculate the initial
acceleration of the balloon.
c) Explain how the acceleration of the balloon changes during the
first 10s of its flight.

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d) When the balloon is still accelerating, the balloonist throws

some bags of sand over the side. Explain how this affects the
acceleration of the balloon

MOMENTS OF A FORCE.
 Moments of a force = F1d1 = F2d2. The sum of the clockwise moments
are equal to the sum of anticlockwise.

QUESTION ONE

The diagram in figure 8.1 below shows a human arm. The total mass of
the bones in the forearm is 1.0kg, study the diagram in figure 8.1,
and answer the questions that follow. On the palm of the arm was
placed a block of 10kg.

Figure 8.1 an arm lifting block on a palm.

(i) Define the term moments
(ii) State what does the principle of moments states.
(iii) Calculate the size of the force exerted on the biceps
muscles.
(iv) Using your knowledge of moment explain why a shorter spanner
requires more effort to unscrew a nut than a longer spanner.
(v) At construction site a general worker attempts to move a
block by lever system as shown in diagram in figure 8.2
below if both right and left hand applies equal force F at
positions as shown in the figure below.

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Figure 8.2 Using of lever system to lift a load at

construction site.
(i) Work out what is the size of a force F applied by each
hand of a general work.
(ii) From your knowledge of moments state one advance would
you give to the general worker if he is reduce on the
force F the innovation he should make on the lever
system to allow for such to take place.

QUESTION TWO

A track and trailer designer proposed the model of a type of a track

and trailer she would wish her company to be making in order to
maximize on the load tonnage.

Figure 9.1 Show a new design of a track and trailer that

maximizes the tonnage carrying capacity.

(a) Identify the point which will act as a fulcrum of this

design of the lorry when it is carrying a load on its trailer.
(b) Work out the clockwise moments about the fulcrum you have
identified in part (b) above.

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(c) Hence find the amount of force applied on the point X where
the trailer is connected to the cab of the track.
(d) If you are the advisor to the designer, suggest two changes
you would wish to make to the design of trailer of the track
in order to increase load carrying capacity and lessen force
on point X of the cab.
(e) Predict what would happen to the size of a force applied on
point X if another set of tires were added right next to the
only tires on the trailer.

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

QUESTION ONE
a. Define the following
i. Work
ii. Energy
iii. Power
b. A girl of mass 50kg pushes a box of mass 20kg along a
frictionless floor by applying constant force of 600N. If the
horizontal distance moved by the box is 250cm.

a. What is the weight of an object?

b. Calculate the work done by the by the girl in pushing the girl.
c. If she takes 25 seconds to push the box across the same distance,
calculate
i. The power developed by the girl in pushing the box
ii. The efficiency of the system if the work input is 1800
joules
d. If the floor was now modified such by increasing the force of
friction. Do you expect the rate at which work is done to reduce
in increase? Give a reason for your answer.

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QUESTION TWO
A boy of mass 50kg runs up a flight of stairs. There are 20
stairs and each stair is 20cm high. To calculate his power, he
makes three trials to find the average time taken for the man to
climb the stairs as shown below.

Figure 2.1

T1 T2 T3 T4
0.56s 0.53s 0.54s 0.55s
Table 2.1
Take the gravitational strength to be 10N/Kg
a. What is the average time taken by the man to climb the stairs
b. Calculate the height of the stairs.
c. Calculate the
i. Gravitational potential energy of the man on the 20
th
stair
ii. Rate at which work is done
d. Explain why a person carrying a bucket of water on the head
does no work.

QUESTION THREE

A 25 kg bag of rice is released from the top of a truck to the ground

in 0.6 seconds. Taking the gravitational strength to be 10N/Kg

a. Into what form is the energy of the bag converted to upon

striking the ground.
b. Calculate the energy of the bag and the power developed in
dropping the bag of rice.
c. With what velocity does the bag of rice fall with before striking
the ground?
d. After striking the ground, into what form of energy is the energy
of the bag converted to.

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QUESTIONS FOUR

Energy is classified as potential and kinetic energy. Below is a

list of different types of energies: sound, light, gravitational
potential energy, electric, chemical and elastic energy.

a. Classify in the table below energies that are examples of

potential energy and kinetic energy.

POTENTIAL ENERGY KINETIC ENERGY

b. State the principle of energy conservation.

c. What energy changes would you expect in the following things?

i. Electric bulb

A B
ii.Car battery

C
Chemical

iii. Solar cells in panel

D Electrical

iv. Electric lifting motor

Electrical E F

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QUESTION FIVE

Coal is non -renewable source of energy while wind energy is a

renewable source of energy.

a. Explain what is meant by term renewable source.

b. State other two examples of non -renewable source of energy.
c. The figure 5.1 shows piles of wood gathered at Mbala boarding
a fuel for cooking pupils food.

Figure 5.1
i. What type of energy is stored in wood?
ii. Is the source of energy in figure 5.1 renewable of non-
renewable? Justify you answer.
iii. Discuss two environmental effects of using this type of
energy.
d. Apart from the example given above on renewable sources of
energy, state other two examples and advantages of renewable
sources of energy.
e. What is the relationship between mass and velocity according
to Einstein mass –energy equation?

SIMPLE MACHINES

QUESTION ONE
Explain the meaning of the following terms:
a) Simple machine
b) Mechanical advantage
c) Velocity ratio
d) Efficiency

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QUESTION TWO

The diagram below shows system lever that can be used to lift a car of
mass 500Kg

a) Calculate the minimum force that can be used to lift the car.
b) How much force is exerted by lever on the pivot?
c) Calculate the velocity ratio for this machine

QUESTION THREE

The Figure below shows an incline being used to lift a katundu from
the ground to a height of 12m, using a force of 800N. [Assume g =
9.8N/kg]

(a) What is the weight of the katundu?

(b) Calculate the MA and VR of this machine.
(c) Work out the efficiency of the incline.

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QUESTION FOUR

The diagram below shows a simple machine

(a) Name the machine shown above.

(b) Identify any device where this simple machine is used.

(c) Calculate the velocity ratio of the simple machine shown above.

QUESTION FIVE

The diagram below shows a pulley system.

a) State the value for the velocity ratio of this pulley

b) When the effort moves a distance of 1.00m, by how much does the
load move?

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c) Given that the efficiency of this pulley system is 75%, calculate

the;
i) Mechanical advantage
ii) Value of the effort
d) Given also that the pulleys are frictionless, calculate the mass
of the lower pulley

TOPIC: PRESSURE.
Pressure is the force applied on a unit area. The SI unit for area
Pascal. P = F/A. Pressure can also be found as product of height,
gravity and density of a liquid under consideration. P = hῥg.
Meanwhile pressure is affected by the volumeP1V1 = P2V2.

QUESTION ONE

(i) Defined pressure.

(ii) State the S.I unit for pressure.

(iii) The S.I unit for pressure is a derived unit, write down the
S.I units for pressure in terms of their fundamental (basic)
units of measurement.
(iv) During boiling of water a spherical bubble of radius 0.04m
develops at the bottom of a water head formed from the
height of 16cm at the bottom were the bubble had formed.
Take the volume of a sphere as V = 4/3ᴫr3, density of
water=1000kg/m3

Figure 10.1 Water container with a bubble at the bottom.

(i) Work out the pressure suffered by the bubble when at
the bottom of the container.
(ii) What would be the pressure on the bubble at half
height of the container when it starts it ascend
process?
(iii) How big is the size of the radius of the bubble at
half height?

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(iv) Explain why does bubble normally burst open when it

reaches the surface of the water head. You may show by
calculation if you desire.

QUESTION TWO

In a Bell jar experiment, suction the excess pressure from the

jar is vital to demonstrate the dependence of sound movement on
presence of particles. The diagram below shows the model of
suction jar.

Figure 11.1 Electric bell in a bell jar model.

(a) State the formula that connects the pressure to the area it
is acting on.
(b) During one suctioning session the pressure inside the jar
was lowered to 45 Kpa from the atmospheric pressure of 101Kpa.
The area of the entire jar on glass is 28cm2.
(i) What is the area of the bell jar in squared meters (m2)?
(ii) Evaluate the size of pressure down suffered by the inside
of the jar.
(iii) Calculate the amount of force require to rip the jar open
from the glass surface.
(c) What suggestions would you recommend be made if the bell jar
is to stand a stronger force to lift it open?

QUESTION THREE

Figure below shows two cylinders. In each cylinder there is a

piston and the space below each piston if full of oil. The
object of 2.5kg is placed on the master cylinder as shown
below.

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a) The area of the master cylinder is 80cm2 and the area on

the Slave cylinder is 400cm2. A 2.5 kg mass is placed on A.
[1m2=10,000cm2]

(i) What is the weight of the object?

(ii) Determine the downward force acting on the

master cylinder?

(iii) Calculate the pressure created in the oil.

(iv) Calculate the upward force.

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GRADE ELEVEN
TOPIC: THERMAL PHYSICS
 Thermal physics is the branch of physics that deals with the
measurements of heat.
 It is also referred to as thermal dynamics

QEESTION ONE

a) state the kinetic theory of matter

b) draw the arrangement of particles in all the three states of
matter
c) The diagram below shows the arrangement of particle of in
three different substances

i) Which diagram is representing the arrangement of particles in:-

Dirty air Mazoe Dry ice
ii) Compare the average kinetic energy of particles in A and C when
the substances are heated.

iii) Kinetic theory of matter states that matter is made up of

particles which are in a continuous random motion. With help of a
diagram describe Brownian motion

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QUESTION TWO

During a marathon race, the runner shown in the diagram is very hot

a) At the end of the race, evaporation and convection cool the runner.
i) Explain how evaporation helps the runner to lose energy. Use
ideas about molecules in your answer.

(ii) Explain why hot air rises around the runner at the end of the
race.

(b) At the end of the race, the runner is given a shiny foil blanket,
as shown in Figure below wearing the blanket stops the runner from
cooling too quickly.

Explain how the shiny foil blanket helps to reduce energy losses.
Use ideas about conduction, convection and radiation in your answer.

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QUESTION THREE

The diagram below shows the apparatus used in an experiment to

demonstrate Brownian motion.

(a) Label and complete the diagram to show how particles in the
air cell can be illustrated.

(b) How is the motion of the smoke particles best described?

(c) What accounts for the motion of the smoke particles?

(d) Describe the conclusion that can be drawn from the Brownian
motion

(e) Suggest two differences between boiling and evaporation.

QUESTION FOUR

The diagram below shows the heating curve of a pure substance

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Points A, B, C and D are at temperatures 1200, 980, 450 and 250

respectively

a) State the values for the melting point and boiling point of the
substance
b) describe the movement of particles in a substance between V and W
c) Explain why the substance cannot be water.
d) What will be the state of the substance at 1500?

QUESTION FIVE

Explain the following observations

a) Cloths dry faster on a hot sunny day

b) You feel cold when after stepping out of a swimming pool
c) Perfume spread in one corner the room, scent eventually spreads
to all parts of the room.

MEASUREMENTS OF TEMPERATURE.
Temperature: This can be understood as the average kinetic energy of
the particles. Temperature is measured using thermometers. Temperature
is measured into scales the Celsius temperature scale and the Kelvin
temperature scale.

QUESTION ONE.

The diagram below in figure 1.0 shows a thermometer held vertically

upright and recorded a temperature as shown.

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Figure 1.0 Thermometer and a plumbline.

(i) What is meant by the symbol OC?

(ii) What would be the estimated temperature of this thermometer?
(iii) Describe how you should place your eyes on the thermometer
to read the temperature.
(iv) The section of the stem of the thermometer is shown in
figure 1.2 below representing the full size scale of
thermometer.

Figure 1.2 Show a stem of the thermometer.

What is the reading on the scale of the thermometer?

QUESTION TWO.

The figure 2.1 below shows a type of a thermometer in use in our

everyday life.

Figure 2.1 Type of thermometer commercially in use.

(i) What is the name of the type of the thermometer shown in the
diagram above?

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(ii) Identify two features the thermometer that justifies your

selection of the name given to the type of thermometer in
figure 2.1 above.
(iii) Ice at -10OC is heated at the constant rate until the
temperature of water is at 10OC.
(a) Using the information given to you in the data above
draw a sketch of the graph of time.
(b) What would be the temperature in Kelvins when ice is
at -2OC?
(iv) What is the temperature in degree Celsius at absolute zero
temperature?

QUESTION THREE

An un-graduated liquid – in – glass thermometer was used to measure

the temperature of cooking oil in the laboratory. The ice and steam
points of the thermometer were found at 2cm and 22cm above the bulb
respectively. There after the bulb of the thermometer was placed in
cooking oil, the level of mercury was found to be at 6.0cm.

(a) Describe how the ice and steam points were to be determined.
(b) Calculate the temperature of the cooking oil.
(c) Explain why the thermometers are made with thin glass.
(d) State two physical properties that make mercury suitable for
the function it performs in the liquid-in-glass thermometer.

QUESTION FOUR

The diagram in figure 4.1 shows the type of thermometer used to

measure temperature.

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Figure 4.1 A type of thermometer.

(a) What is the name of the apparatus shown above in figure 4.1?
(b) What principles do the thermometer shown above use?
(c) State two advantages of using the above type of thermometer
over the other types.
(d) What would happen if the constantan wire was replaced with
iron wire?

MEASUREMENTS OF HEAT
QUESTION1.

A kettle containing 1kg of water (c= 4200JKg-1 0C-1) is placed on top of

an electric heater of power 1000W. It takes 5 min for the water
temperature to increase from 20 0 C to 90 0 C. Find
i. The energy released by the heater and
ii. The energy absorbed by the water.
Account for any losses in energy

QUESTION 2
The figure below shows how an experiment was set to determine the
specific heat capacity of liquid.

a. What quantity is measured by

i. M1 and
ii. M2
b. Explain brief the purpose of lagging.
c. If it takes 5 minutes for a heater rated 12V,5A to raise the
temperature of 2kg of liquid by 300 C. Find the specific heat
capacity of the metal.

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QUESTION 3

A person running in a race generates, on average, 800 J of heat energy

every second. Half of this heat energy is lost from the body by the
evaporation of water.
a. Explain, in terms of molecules, how the loss of water by
evaporation cools the body.
b. Calculate the mass of water evaporated from the body in a 2 hour
race.
The specific latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.25 × 106
J/kg.

QUESTION 4
If 200g of cold water at 20 °C is added to 50 g of hot water at 80 °C
in an insulated vessel, find the final temperature of the water.

EXPANSION OF SOLIDS, LIQUIDS AND GASES

 Expansion is the increase in size when an object is heated or

when they is an increase in temperature.
 Contraction also involves the decrease in size when temperature
is reduced on an object
 Expansion occurs in three ways
i. Linear expansion
ii. Superficial expansion
iii. Cubic expansion

QUESTION ONE

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a. Define the following terms

i. Expansion
ii. Temperature
b. Thermal expansion can be a problem.

Small gaps are left in railway lines and in bridges, as shown above.
(a) Explain in detail why the gaps are needed.

(b) State one other problem caused by thermal expansion and

explain how it can be solved.

HEAT TRANSFER
QUESTION ONE

The diagram below shows the processes in which heat can be

transferred from one point to another.

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Figure 1.1 heat transfer processes.

(a) Identify the process of heat transfer occurring at

(i) M (ii) C

(b) Compare the movement of heat at process M and at process C.

(c)Which part of the thermal flask reduces the heat loss by the
process at J?

(d) Explain why the heating filament an electric kettle is fitted at

the bottom.

QUESTION TWO

(a) Define the term conduction

(b) State the physical features of:-

(i)Good absorbers of radiations

(ii)Poor absorbers of radiations

(c) Describe an experiment to show that dull surfaces are good

emitters of radiations.

QUESTION THREE

Figure 4.1 shows an electric kettle used to boil water.

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Figure 4.1 An electric kettle

(a) Describe in terms of motion of particles how thermal energy

is conducted through the wall of the kettle.
(b) Water may evaporate or boil inside the kettle, what is the
difference between boiling and evaporate.
(c) State by what the method is the heat transferred from:
(i) Boiling water to the plastic casing
(ii) The plastic casing to air particles
(d) What is the name of electromagnetic spectrum responsible for
warming surroundings around the plastic casing of the
kettle?

QUESTION FOUR

The device shown in figure 5.1 below is known as the thermal energy
transmitter. This transmitter is far more capable of transferring
energy a 1000 times faster than a copper rod by itself. The design of
the device is such that it is connected to a black metal fin by a
copper pipe with alcohol in the tube. The pipe is sealed and transmits
the energy along its length to the cold water tank.

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Figure 5.1 the heat trapping device

(a) State by what means does the black metal absorb energy from
the sun?
(b) Explain why the pipe leading to a tank of cold water is made
of copper instead of plastic?
(c) Black surfaces absorb and emit infra red radiation better
than white surfaces.
(i) Describe an experiment to show that black surfaces absorb
radiation better than white surfaces.
(ii) Describe an experiment that shows that black surfaces
are better emitters of radiation than white surfaces.
(d) Describe how the copper particles transfer heat energy to
the cold water tank.

WAVE MOTION
QUESTION ONE:
The diagram shows how displacement varies with time as a wave
passes a fixed point.

a) What is the value for the:

i) Amplitude
ii) Period.
b) Calculate the frequency of the wave
c) The wave shown above is electromagnetic. Calculate the wavelength
of this wave.

QUESTION TWO

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The diagram below shows ball floating on water.

a) Name the type of wave travelling in water

b) State the difference between the wave shown and that of sound.
c) Draw arrows on the diagram to show how the ball will move as the
wave passes

QUESTION THREE

The diagram below shows a long spring fixed at end A and stretched
so that the other end is at B.

(a) Describe how end B should be moved so that a longitudinal

wave travels from B towards A.

(b) A wave has a frequency of 3.0 Hz and its speed is 1.2m/ s.

Calculate the wavelength of the wave.

QUESTION FOUR

(a) Water waves are transverse waves. Sound is a longitudinal wave.

(i) Describe the difference between transverse waves and
longitudinal waves. In your account, draw a diagram of each
type of wave.

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(ii) Sound contains regions of compression and regions of

rarefaction. Describe what is meant by a compression and by a
rarefaction.
(b) A ripple tank is used to demonstrate the reflection of water
waves.
(i) Draw a labeled diagram of a ripple tank.
(ii) Draw a diagram showing the reflection of waves from a plane
barrier in a ripple tank.

(c) The diagram below shows a water wave passing a floating log. The
log is stationary.

The log is 6.0 m long and 5 complete waves take 10 seconds to pass
point A.
Determine
(i) The wavelength of the water waves,
(ii) The frequency of the water waves,
(iii) The speed of the water waves.

QUESTION FIVE

Figure 1.1 shows the propagation of a water wave formed in a ripple

tank and the direction of the wave indicated by the arrow. The point
PQ shows boundary of with two distinct depths. The waves at R had the
distance of 3cm between the crest, and a speed of 12cm/s. Then
distance between the after the boundary was 1.5cm.

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Figure 1.1 The wave form at two boundary of PQ.

(a) What name is given to the distance between two successive

troughs?
(b) State from information shown in the waves in figure 1.1
above, the depths at R and S of the wave was encountering.
(c) What phenomena shown by the wave in the diagram in figure
1.1 above called?
(d) Calculate the frequency of the wave at position R?
(e) After crossing the boundary PQ state:
(i) The feature of the wave that remains unchanged
(ii) The feature of the wave that changes
(iii) What factors affect the feature of the wave that
changes?
(f) Calculate the speed of the wave at S after crossing the
boundary PQ.

QUESTION SIX

Figure 2.1 below shows the waves in a ripple tank as they approach a
barrier submerged in water.

Figure 2.1 showing the wavefront as it approaches the barrier

(a) Complete the diagram showing reflection of the wavefront at

the barrier

Figure 2.2 below shows another diagram with waves approaching a glass
submerged into the ripple tank.

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Figure 2.2 The wavefront approaching the submerged glass block.

(b) Complete the diagram in figure 2.2 above showing the

wavefront as it goes past the piece of glass beneath the
water.
(c) Predict what would happen if the wavefront found the glass
to be vertically upright and perpendicular to the direction
of the wavefront.

QUESTION SEVEN

The diagram in figure 3.1 below shows pattern of waves in a ripple

tank under various conditions.

The arrow shows the direction of propagation of a wavefront.

Figure3.1 Wavefront through the space.

(a) What is the name given to the behavior exhibited by the

waves in figure 3.1 above?

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(b) In another experiment the physics pupil wanted to find out

what would be the effect of reducing the size of space. The
diagram in figure 3.2 below shows the wavefront just before
it emerges after the blocks.

(i) Complete the diagram in figure 3.2 above with the wave
front now passing through a narrow space.
(ii) Do you expect the wave the length of this wave after
passing through a narrow space to:
increase/decrease/remain the same? Explain your answer
briefly.

ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM
QUESTION ONE

The figure below shows components of electromagnetic spectrum in

order of increasing frequency.

Radio Infra- Visible

red
Wave A light ultraviolet x- B
rays rays

Increase in wave length

a. Suggest the names of waves represented by A and B.

b. Which electromagnetic wave has?
i. the longest wavelength
ii. lowest frequency
c. State the speed of these waves in a vacuum.
d. State any two properties other than speed, all electromagnetic
waves have in common.

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e. Which of the following radiations is used to

i. Detect an air craft
ii. Treat cancer
iii. Study the crystalline structure.
iv. Sterilization of medical equipment.

SOUND
QUESTION ONE
This question is about the sound produced by a mobile phone and the
energy changes
while it is operating.
(a) The sound produced by a ringing phone consists of two
notes, one after the other. The figure shows the trace on
an oscilloscope screen produced by the first of the
notes.

The second note is louder and has a higher pitch.

(i) On the figure, continue the trace to show what happens
when the second note is sounding.
(ii) Explain the differences between the two traces.
(b) The mobile phone contains a rechargeable battery.
Energy is stored inside the battery as it is charged.
Describe the useful energy change that takes place inside
the battery as it is charged from the mains.

QUESTION TWO

Describe an experiment to show that sound is a mechanical wave

QUESTION THREE

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A student standing between two walls claps once and hears the first
echo after 0.60s and the second echo after 1.00s. How long after the
clap will she hear the next echo?

QUESTION FOUR
a) Describe an experiment to determine the speed of sound using echo
method
b) A woman stands 120m away from a high wall. She claps two blocks
of wood together at a steady rate such that 40 claps are made in
30 seconds. If each clap coincides with the echo of the one
before, what is the speed of sound in air?
c) Explain why, during thunder, a flash is seen first before sound

LIGHT
QUESTION ONE

The diagram in figure 1.0 below shows a green light represented by the
line AB striking the shiny surface.

Figure 1.0 The ray of green light striking a shiny surface.

(a) (i) On striking the surface at an angle shown above complete

the diagram of the green light wavefront to how it behaves.
(ii) From the diagram you have completed for the diagram of
figure 1.0 shown above, what principle is depicted by the green
light wavefront?
(b) State two properties that the green light will satisfy even
when it strikes the shiny surface.

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(c) In another experiment two rays of green light were used but
on a rough surface as shown in figure 1.1 below.

Figure 1.1 the two rays of green light striking in rough surface.

Complete the diagram in figure 1.1 to show the behavior of the two
rays as they strike the rough surface.

(d) What name is given to the phenomena shown in the diagram in

figure 1.1 above called?

QUESTION TWO

a. Define refraction of light

b. State the two laws of refraction.
c. Figure 2.1 shows a ray of light being projected into a
rectangular glass block

i. From the experiment shown above, do you expect light to slow

down or speed up when projected into the glass block?
ii. Calculate the refractive index of glass, the value of angle X
and Y.

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QUESTION THREE

a. You are provided with optical pins, a drawing board, a plain

paper and a pencil. Describe an experiment you would perform to
determine the refractive index of glass.
b. The figure below shows the rectangular glass block with the real
depth of 3m and refractive index of glass to be 1.50 .

i. Calculate the apparent depth as observed above the glass

block.
ii. Distinguish between real depth and apparent depth.
c. On the diagram below, show how a swimmer observes the base of
the swimming pool before jumping into the pool.

iii. Calculate the mass of water that must completely fill the
swimming pool to its full capacity.

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QUESTION FOUR
The figure below shows a semi-circular glass block used to
demonstrate total internal reflection.

a. Explain the term ‘critical angle’.

b. Explain how total internal reflection occurs on a
semicircular glass block.
c. Calculate the refractive index of the glass block about
point o.
d. Describe the relationship between critical angle and
refractive index.
e. State one use of total internal reflection.

QUESTION FIVE
The figure below is drawn full scale. The focal length of the lens is
3.0 cm.

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(a) On the figure, draw two rays from the top of the object O that
meet at the image.
(b) (i) Define the term linear magnification.
(ii) Determine the magnification produced by the lens in
the diagram
(c) Fig. 5.2 shows a normal eye viewing an object close to it. Fig.
5.3 is a long-sighted eye
viewing an object at the same distance.

Complete Fig. 5.3 to show the rays travelling through the eye.

QUESTION SIX

a) An object 5cm high is placed 15cm from a converging lens of focal

length 30cm. determine using a scale diagram ;
i) The characteristics of the image formed
ii) The position of the image formed
iii) The magnification

QUESTION SEVEN

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Describe an experiment to determine the focal length of a converging

lens a distant object.

MAGNETISM
A magnet is a material that attracts magnetic materials. Every magnet
has two poles and the magnetic field lines seem to run from north to
south. The magnet when suspended aligns itself in the north-south
orientation.

QUESTION ONE

(a) Write down any one of the properties of magnets.

(b) Write down two properties of magnetic field lines.
(c) Explain the difference between a permanent magnet and a
temporal magnet.
(d) The diagram in figure 1.0 below shows a method of creating
magnets.

Figure 1.0 Method of making the magnet.

(i) Describe this method and indicate the polarities of the

created magnet.
(ii) Iron is a soft magnetic substance while steel is a hard
magnetic material. Explain the meaning of this statement.

(e) Diagram below shows steel being magnetized using electric current.

Figure 1.2 The electromagnets and cobalt material.

(i)Indicate the polarities of both steel turned magnet and cobalt

turned magnet.

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(ii)Explain what will happen between those two substances.

QUESTION TWO.

(a) From diagram in figure 2.0 which of the following materials

is: - Non magnetic a magnet and magnetic substance.

(b) Give a reason for your answer.

Figure 2.0 The various materials and arrangement of particles.

(c) What are domains?

(d) What is magnetic saturation?

(e) Describe the true test for a magnet.

(f) Explain why attraction is never a good test for a magnet.

(g) State the methods of making magnets.

(h) State the methods of destroying magnets.

QUESTION THREE

Figure 3.1 shows the wound 10 turns of copper wire to the iron nail as
shown below

Figure 3.1 The electromagnet and its effect on iron filling.

(a) What would happen when the switch is closed?

(b) If more iron fillings are to be attracted state two this you
could change to the above diagram in figure 3.1.
(c) In another experimental set up, a steel nail was used
instead of iron nail explain two things you will notice that
will happen differently in this set up.

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(d) A permanent magnet accidently was dropped in a furnace, Joan

took too long to pull it out of the fire. Predict what
would be the strength of the magnet thereafter.
(e) In what other two ways can you attain the strength predicted
in (d) above, stating the conditions necessary.

QUESTION FOUR
Figure 4.0, shows a mechanism for storing data on a material known a
tape.

Figure 4.0 The component of the tape making process.

(a) What is the phenomenon shown applied in the above tape

making process?
(b) From your knowledge of magnetism, what do you think about
the tape itself is it a magnet, or magnetic material or non-
magnetic material explain your answer.
(c) Describe how the pattern created in the tape built or
printed on it.
(d) What materials should the recording head be made off for
this process to actually take place successfully?
(e) State two ways in which the pattern created above could be
preserved for a long period.

GRADE TWELVE

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STATIC ELECTRICTY
Question 1
1. (a) State the first law of electrostatics
(b) Describe an experiment you would perform to put a charge
on a cellulose acetate and polythene rod by rubbing. In your
description, state clearly
i. the flow of electrons
ii. The charge the rod will acquire.

Question 2

2. An experiment to show charging by induction uses a metal

sphere mounted on an insulated support. The sphere is
initially uncharged and is shown in Fig. 2.1.

(a) A negatively charged rod is brought near the sphere, as

shown in Fig. 2.2.

(i) State and explain the movement of electrons in the sphere that
occurs as the rod is brought near.
(ii) Draw the charges on the metal sphere.
(b) The metal sphere is now touched at point A by a wire connected to
earth, as shown in
Fig. 2.3.

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On Fig. 2.3, draw the charges on the metal sphere.

(c) The wire connected to earth is removed. Then the negatively
charged rod is also removed, as shown in Fig. 2.4.
On Fig. 2.5, draw the charges on the metal sphere.

(d) The support is made from an insulator. State one material that may
be used to make the support.

QUESTION 3.

An electrostatic generator is used to produce sparks, as shown in Fig.

3.1.
Fig. 3.1

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The belt carries negative charge to the dome, making the dome
negatively charged.
(a) Before a spark is produced, the discharge ball becomes positively
charged.
(i) By what method does the metal discharge ball become positively
charged?
(ii) Describe and explain the movement of electrons in the discharge
ball and in the rod as the ball becomes charged.
(iii) On Fig. 3.1, mark with an X where there is the most positive
charge on the discharge ball.
(b) A spark jumps between the dome and the discharge ball when
there is enough negative charge on the dome. A charge of
0.00016C flows in the spark in a time of 0.012 s.
Calculate the average current in the spark. State the equation
that you use.
d. Explain how static electricity
QUESTION 4

Static electricity can be used in painting of metal structures by

using the first law of electrostatics. A metal surface can be given a
negative charge and the paint may be charged by friction force when
being released by the spray gun.

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a. State the effect that charges have on each other

i. Like charges
ii. Unlike charges
b. From the diagram, explain why the metal surface should be given a
negative charge.
c. How is the paint released by the gun become evenly distributed on
the metal surface?

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
 Electric current is the rate of flow of charge
 Current is measured in amperes A using an ammeter
 Electricity is a form of energy and it can be converted from one
form to another.

PARALLEL CONNECTION

 Sum of current flowing through individual resistor is equal to

the total current in the circuit.
 The P.d across each resistor is the same.
 Effective resistance is calculated by using the formular;1/R=
1
/R1 + 1/R2 +1/R . . .

SERIES CONNECTION

 Same amount of current flows through them.

 Sum of the potential difference across each resistor is equal to
the total voltage from the source
 Total resistance in the circuit is equal to the sum of the
resistance of the individual resistors.

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QUESTION ONE

A current of 2.0A is drawn from a 6.0V power supply for 10.0s.

a) How much charge is drawn during this time?

b) How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge?
c) Calculate the energy given out in 10.0s

QUESTION TWO

A heating element, a stove and a DVD player are connected in parallel

across a 250V dc power supply with internal resistance of 10Ω. The
appliances have resistances 120Ω, 100Ω and 90Ω respectively.

a) Draw the circuit diagram to show how these appliances are

connected. In your diagram, include
1. an ammeter to measure current across the heating element
2. a volt meter to measure a quantity across the power supply
3. an arrow to show the direction of flow of electrons
b) calculate the total resistance in the circuit
c) How much current flows in the DVD?
d) Calculate the energy released in the circuit in 1minute
e) Calculate the cost of using all the appliances for 10hour if
electrical energy costs K3.0 per unit

QUESTION THREE

a) Draw the diagram of the apparatus you could use to show how
current through a conductor varies with potential difference
across it. Give the results you expect and show how the
resistance can be calculated from the typical graph

QUESTION FOUR

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a) Explain the function of each of the following and give their

standard colours
i) Live wire
ii) Neutral wire
iii) Earth wire
b) Explain why the earth wire is connected to a metal case of an
electrical appliance.
c) A battery can be made from cells connected in parallel, as shown
in the diagram
Below

State one advantage of connecting the cells in parallel and one

advantage of connecting cells in series

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT.

QUESTION ONE.

Figure 1.0 shows the effect of electric current in the coil.

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Figure 1.0 a coil with two pieces of iron inserted in.

(a) The plotting compass place at three different places marked

A, B and C. Complete diagram in figure 1.0 by way of drawing
the pointer on the compass use arrows when the switch is
closed.
(b) (i) Predict the direction of the two soft iron bars after
the switch has been closed.
(ii) Explain the reason as to the choice of the direction
indicated in (i) above.
(c) What observation will you make when the following conditions
are changed:
(i) The current is increased.
(ii) The direction of current is reversed but remains
compass at A, B and C remain?

QUESTION TWO

Figure 2.0 show the wire carrying current and the magnetic field is
shown.

Wire
carrying
current.

Figure 2.0 shows a wire carrying current.

(a) (i) Mark in the wire by means of arrows the direction of

current
(ii) The direction of a force exerted on the wires by the
current.
(b) What would be the effect of:
(i) increasing of current through the wire,
(ii) winding the wire more turns round?
(c) The diagram in figure 2.1 shows a solenoid connected to the
source of D.C current.

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Figure 2.1 The solenoid connected to the power supply.

(i) When the switch is closed indicate in which direction will
the magnetic field go.
(ii) Predict the effect of reversing the polarity of the cells.
(d) State two ways in which the magnetic field can be increased.

QUESTION THREE

The diagram in figure 3.0 shows an application of magnetic effect of

electric current.

Figure 3.0 shows an application of magnetic effect of electric

current.

(a) Describe and explain what would happen when the switch S is
opened in the above figure 3.0.
(b) From the application point of view, what do you think switch S
represent?
(c) Indicate by way of an arrow the direction of magnetic field going
through the coil with an iron core.
(d) In order to improve the design the circuit controlled by pivoted
iron was replaced with a device as shown in the figure 3.1 below.

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Figure 3.1 shows the reed switch device.

(i) Describe how the reed switch operates based on the circuit
shown in figure 3.0 above.
(ii) Where do you think this application can really be made?

QUESTION FOUR

The diagram in figure 4.0 shows a magnet and a coil.

Figure 4.0 coil with a magnet.

(a) From the diagram in figure 4.0 what should be the polarity
of the coil at position A and B.
(b) If direction of the magnet is changed, what effect would it
have on the polarity the coil?
(c) In the diagram in figure 4.0, what is the role of the
instrument labeled G?
(d) Indicate the direction of current through the wire, when the
magnet is moving in the direction shown above.

QUESTION FIVE

The diagram in figure 5.0 shows the output signal of the type of
generator.

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Figure 5.0 showing the output wave signal of the generator.

(a) What is the type of the generator that produces the signal
shown above in figure 5.0?
(b) If the speed of the generator was double draw a wave form of
the signal produced.
(c) In one of the output signal a diode was placed in the
forward bias what effect will it have in the signal output
of the wave form?
(d) The other way of producing the wave form suggested in (c)
above is to introduce slit rings on the output terminal of
the generator, as shown in figure 5.1 below.

Figure 5.1 showing split rings on output.

(i) Suggest the effect of reversing the direction of rotation of
the coil of many turns.
(ii) Outline the structural differences in the between the
generator in figure 5.0 and figure 5.1

QUESTION SIX

Fig. 6.1 shows a coil of wire wound on a cardboard tube.

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There is a d.c current in the coil. The direction of the current is

shown in the key.

(a) On Fig. 6.1, draw the magnetic field produced by the coil.
(b) Fig. 6.2 shows a simple loudspeaker that uses the coil shown in
Fig. 6.1 attached to a

Figure 6.2 showing the cone with the coil attached.

The coil is connected to a signal generator.

There is an alternating current of frequency 100 Hz in the coil.
(i) State what is meant by a frequency of 100 Hz.
(ii) Describe and explain the movement of the coil.

PHENOMENON OF ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

 Electromagnetic induction involves the inducing of EMF / current in
a wire by cutting magnetic flux ) Faraday’s law
 Factors affecting magnitude and direction of induced EMF:
i. speed of either magnet or coil,
iii. strength of magnet,
iv. number of turns of a coil
The direction of induced current can be predicted using Lenz and
Fleming right hand law.

QUESTION ONE

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A small coil is connected to a sensitive ammeter. The ammeter needle

can move to either side of the zero position of an ammeter.

a. What pole will be at end X?

b. Indicate clearly on the diagram the direction of induced current.
c. State two factors that would increase the size of induced
current
d. To predict the direction of induced current, Lenz’s law can be
used.State Lenz’s law.
e. Predict the pole on end Y on the figure below.

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QUESTION TWO

The diagram below shows the construction of a simple a.c. generator.

When the coil is rotated an e.m.f. is induced in the coil.

a) What is the name of the parts labelled P and Q

b) given that current flows from Z to Y, state the poles that are on A
and B. Explain how you identified the poles
c) Explain why emf is induced in the coil
d) State two ways in which the induced emf can be reduced
e) Explain the change you can do the device above so that it becomes a
dc generator
f) sketch a graph you expect to obtain when the output voltage of an ac
generator is connected to a cathode ray oscilloscope. The graph
should start when the coil is horizontal.

QUESTION THREE
The diagram below shows a simple structure of a transformer.

a) Name the type of transformer shown and explain why you give it that
name
b) Explain why a soft iron core is used rather than steel.
c) Calculate the current in the primary coil given that the transformer
is 100% efficient.

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d) The secondary coil has 1500 turns. How many turns are in the primary
coil?
e) Explain the meaning of each of the following
i) Copper losses
ii) Iron losses
iii) Eddy current
QUESTION FOUR
a) Draw the diagram of a transformer that that can reduce voltage
from 240V to 12V
b) The transformer in a) above can be used to charge a battery that
can be used as a power bank for a Nokia phone. This can be done
by passing an electric current of 2.5A
i) Draw a circuit diagram to show how the output of the
transformer can be connected to electrical components to
achieve this.
ii) Explain how you can tell that the battery is fully charged

QUESTION FIVE
The diagram below shows a model of power transmission system that is
done at chishimba falls

a) Explain the purpose of transformer labelled A

b) Why is it that the current in the cables is very low?
c) Calculate the power that is being transmitted through the cables
given that the cables are carrying current of 2.0A and they have the
resistance of 10Ω.

BASIC ELECTRONICS
THERMIONIC EMISSION
 Electronics is the branch of physics that studies electric and
electronic components.
 Cathode rays are beams of fast –moving electrons. Cathode rays
are produced by thermionic emissions
 Thermionic emissions involve the release of electrons from heated
cathode when it reaches white.

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 Properties of cathode rays

Cathode rays are
i. Deflected by electric and magnetic field
ii. The travel in a straight line etc.
iii. They posses kinetic energy
Cathode rays are produced in the Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO). A
CRO consists of a cathode ray tube and additional circuit elements. It
can be used to display wave forms, to determine frequencies and to
measure voltages, etc

QUESTIONS ONE

The diagram below shows an experiment to demonstrate thermionic

emission

(a) Explain what is meant by the term thermionic emission.

(b) Name the two electrodes in the glass tube.
(c) Suggest why the glass tube should be a vacuum.
(d) How do you tell that the particles are being emitted from the
cathode filament?
(e) Suggest what would happen if the current were switched off
through the filament.
(f) Explain what will happen if the cathode and anode connections are
reversed.
(g) What is the charge of the particle being emitted?

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QUESTION TWO

The diagram below shows the construction of a simple Cathode ray

oscilloscope (C.R.O).

(a) Name the three (3) main features of the cathode ray oscilloscope.
(b) Explain how electrons in the oscilloscope are: -
(i) Emitted (ii) given kinetic energy (accelerated)
(c) Suggest the function of the (i) Grid. (ii) Anodes
(d)Name the parts labeled p and Q and state their function.
(e) When there is a voltage of 150V across the plate labeled P, the
dot on the screen is deflected by 13mm.

(h) Estimate the deflection of the dot when the voltage across p is
increased to 250V.
(ii) Explain the normal use of the plate labeled P in an
oscilloscope when the oscilloscope is used to display a waveform.
QUESTION THREE

The diagram below shows the wave form produced on the screen of the
C.R.O. when an A.C is supply is connected to the input

If the gain control is set to 50mV/cm and

the time base control to 10ms/cm.

Calculate the

a) Period
b) frequency

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QUESTION FOUR

. Fig. 2.0 shows a trace obtained on an oscilloscope screen.

The time base is set at 10ms/cm
i. Determine the time for one complete oscillation on the screen.
Calculate the frequency of the signal applied

QUESTION FIVE

The diagram below shows a potential divider circuit. A weak light is

falling on the LDR

a) Name the component marked with the letter X

b) Name the device that can be connected at A to measure the rate of
flow of charge
c) The resistor has a resistance of 500Ω and the volt meter reads
4.0V. What is the voltage across the 500Ω resistor?
d) What is the current through the LDR ?
e) What is the resistance of the LDR at this light intensity?
f) When a bright light falls on the LDR, what happened to its
resistance and the voltage across a fixed resistor?

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QUESTION SIX

The diagram below shows the color- coded bands on a resistor and the
table showing the color codes

a) State the colours on the first three bands of a 4700Ω resistor

b) Draw a circuit symbol for an AND gate
c) Complete the table below for an AND gate

QUESTION SEVEN

The figure below shows a transistor used in the circuit of a simple

moisture detector.

(a) Describe what happens when the water level in the beaker
reaches the metal contacts.

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(b) State one use for this simple moisture detector.

QUESTION EIGHT

The diagram below shows a simple time delay circuit that uses a
transistor and a capacitor.

a) Describe what happen to the lamp when both S1and S2 are closed.
b) Explain in detail what happens when S1is opened keeping S2 closed
c) State two ways in which the time it takes for the lamp to switch
off if the circuit is to be used as a time delay may be
increased.

QUESTION NINE

The diagram shows a control system which may be fitted in an automatic

washing machine.

a) Which part of the system forms the control circuit?

b) What conditions will stop the machine from working?

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QUESTION TEN

A car may be fitted with an automatic parking light which switches on

when the car is parked at night. The diagram below shows an incomplete
system for a parking light

a) Name a logic gate marked A

b) Copy and complete the diagram to show how a NOT gate can be used
to make a parking light work. Use the correct symbol for a NOT
gate.

QUESTION ELEVEN

The circuit diagram below shows one design for a burglar alarm. The
alarm is activated when a burglar steps onto a pressure switch, S,
placed hidden under the door mat.

a) Copy and complete the truth table to show what happens to the
outputs X and Y when the burglar steps onto and then off the door
mat.

S R X Y

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Burglar steps onto the door mat 1 0

Burglar steps off the door mat 0 0

b) Explain in terms of outputs X and Y, the effect on the alarm if

the switch R is momentarily closed after the alarm has been
activated.

ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS

QUESTION ONE

a. Define the following terms

i. Mass( Nucleon) number
ii. Atomic (Proton) number
b. Two isotopes of Thorium decays by emitting an alpha particle. The
mass and atomic numbers are given in the table below.

S/N Mass Atomic

number number
1 234 90
2 235 90

i. State the number of protons and neutron for isotope 1.

ii. Construct an equation to show the decay of isotope 2 by alpha
radiation.
c. Explain why alpha particles have a strong ionization effect.

QUESTION TWO
(a)Define the term half-life.

(b)A radioactive substance has a mass of 160g. Its half-life

is 40 years.
(i) How much of this substance will remain after 200 years.
(c) The following were obtained from the reading of a counter
connected to a Geiger-Muller tube placed in front of
radioactive source. Given that the corrected counts of
background radiation recorded by the Geiger-Muller tube was 15.
Time(s) 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140

Corrected 135 89 53 45 35 27 23 20
counts

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(i) Draw another table showing the actual corrected counts taking
into account of the background.
(ii) Plot the graph of the count-rate against time and deduce the half-
life of radioactive.

QUESTION THREE

(a) Uranium-234 decays to polonium-218 by emitting alpha particles.

The atomic number of uranium is 92.
(i) Write down the nuclear equation representing the decay.
(ii) How many alpha particles are emitted?

(b) Uranium -234undergoes decay to become Neptunium (Np) of atomic

number 93.
(i)Find the number of beta particles emitted in the process.
(ii)Write down the nuclear equation to show the decay.

(c) Bismuth undergoes a series of decay processes first by releasing

two (2) alpha particles, then one (1) beta particle followed by
gamma rays.
(i)State the mass of an alpha particle.
(ii)Write down the charge on an alpha particle.

(iii)Show, by way of constructing decay equations

QUESTION FOUR
(a) Define the term half-life.

b) Radon -222 has half-life of 4 days. A sample of radon has mass

of64g.
How many grams will remain after:-
(i) 4 days (ii) 8 days

(c)The graph below shows how some atoms of a radioactive substance

decayed.

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(i) State the value of the half-life of

the substance. Show how you
arrived at the answer your answer

(ii)The half-life of another substance

is 10 minutes. What is the fraction
of this sample has decayed after
30 minutes?

(c)(ii) What is the fraction of the

undecayed?
QUESTION FIVE

(a)Write down four uses of radioactive radiations

(b)List three dangers of radioactive radiations.

(c)State the precaution which must be taken when handling radioactive
substances.
(d)Describe how radioactive substances are stored.
QUESTION SIX

A stream of charged particles is deflected in magnetic field. The

diagram below shows alpha beta and gamma radiations being emitted
from a radioactive source S into the region where there is magnetic
field.

(a) (i)Suggest which one of the three tracks A, B

or C shows the gamma radiation.
(ii) Give a reason for your answer.

(b) The tracks A and C show opposite deflections.

What does this tell you about the difference
between the radiation A and C?
(c) Suggest why the deflection of C is much
stronger than that of A.

QUESTION SEVEN
The following were obtained from the reading of a counter connected to
a Geiger-Muller tube placed in front of a radioactive source. Plot the
graph of the count-rate against time and deduce the Half-life of
radioactive.

Time(s) 0 20 40 60 80 100 120

Corrected 120 74 48 30 20 12 8
counts

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(a) What is?

I. An alpha particle
II. Beta particle
III. Gamma particle
(b)(i)A scientist claims that a small radioactive source is emitting
alpha, beta and gamma particle. Give an outline description of an
experiment which could be carried out to check the claim.
(ii) What observations would be made during the experiment?
(ii)What is a radioisotope?
(c) A certain radioactive source emits particles which make
straight
tracks in a cloud chamber. Explain how the tracks are formed and
suggest why they are all straight.

QUESTION EIGHT

The diagram below shows the penetrating power of the 3 radioactive

radiations. Identify the radiations P, Q and R and suggest the
absorbing material M, C and J.

a. Which of the following radiations is a

i. Beta
ii. Alpha
iii. Gamma
b. Suggest the materials from which J must be made from
c. Explain one the use of radiation R

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QUESTION NINE
The table below gives details about some radioactive isotopes.

(a) (i) Uranium-235 has a proton number (atomic number) of 92 and a

nucleon number (mass number) of 235.Describe the structure
of an atom of Uranium-235.
(ii) Uranium-235 and Uranium-238 are isotopes. Explain what is meant
by this
statement.
(iii) Uranium-235 can be involved in nuclear fission. Describe what
happens to a nucleus in nuclear fission.
(iv) When the Earth was formed there was about 64 times more Uranium
235present than there is now. Use this information to estimate the age
of the Earth.
(b) Radioactive sources are used to detect leaks from pipes
underground.
A liquid containing the source is placed in the pipe. Some liquid
leaks from the pipe and then radiation it emits can be detected
above ground.
(i) State the most suitable radioactive isotope in Table 11.1 for this
purpose.
(ii) Explain why the half-life of the isotope you have chosen and the
radiation it emits are suitable for this purpose.

QUESTION TEN
a. State the nature of
i. Alpha particles
ii. Beta particles
iii. Gamma rays
b. Explain why the
i. Alpha particles have a strong ionization effect
ii. Beta particles are deflected toward the positive plate in an
electric field.
iii. Gamma rays have a high penetrating power

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QUESTION ELEVEN
The figure below shows the process that occurs in the core of a
nuclear reactor.

(a) State the name of the process illustrated in the figure above.
(b) Describe what happens during this process.

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Solutions
MEASUREMENTS
QUESTION ONE

Basic Unit Symbol Quantity Measured

METRE m Length
Kilogram kg MASS
SECOND s Time
Ampere A Current
Kelvin K TEMPERATURE
CANDELA Cd Luminous Intensity
Mole mol Amount of Substance

Table 1

Derived Unit Symbol Quantity Measured

m/s Speed or Velocity
Metre per second squared Acceleration
/Decelaration
Kilogram metre per second kgm/s2
squared

kgm2/ Energy
s2 or
j
Ampere second Quantity of
electricity

Table 2

QUESTION TWO

ii) 0.0067135 = (6.71X10-3) (ii) 299987345 = (3.00X108)

(iii) 0.0101010 = (1.01X10-2) (iv) 20000000 =

(2.00X107)
(v) 9 = (9.00X100)

LENGHT AND TIME

QUESTION ONE

(i) 46cm
(ii) Place the eye at a correct position when viewing the scale

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(iii) Clamp AB with the calipers then transfer the length on the
ruler
(iv) 46 x 10 = 460mm.

QUESTION TWO

(i) Micrometer screw gauge

(ii) A= sleeve
B = Thimble
(iii) A = 3.50mm
B = 0.46mm
(iv) Reading = 3.96mm
(v) 7.88 – 0.90 = 6.98mm
(vi) The zero mark on thimble scale must be in line with the mark
on the sleeve scale

QUESTION THREE

(a) (i) Wipe clean the anvil and the spindle.

(ii)Zero the instrument
(b) Vernier Scale = 0.020cm
Main Scale = 2.20cm
Reading = 2.220cm
(c) (1) to measure external diameter (external jaws)
(2) to measure internal diameter (internal jaws)
(3) to measure depth of holes (stem)
(d) Part 3

QUESTION FOUR

(a) A to C and back to A

(b) (i) T = t/n = 10s/3/4 = 10 x 4/3 = 13.33 sec
(ii) f = 1/T = 1/13.333 = 0.75Hz
(c) t = Tn = 13.33 x 20 = 266.6S
(d) t = n/f = 40/25 = 1.6s

QUESTION FIVE

(a) T = t/n = 96/6 = 16sec

(b) f = 1/T = 1/16 = 0.0625Hz
(c) time taken to cover 100m is equal to a period = 16 sec

QUESTION SIX

(a) 4.54m = 4540mm

(b) 0.00068m = 0.68mm

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(c) 4m = 4000mm
(d) 12/60 = 0.2min
(e) 6.8 x 10 13m 86400sec

MASS AND WEIGHT

QUESTION ONE

a. Mass of an object =50kg

b. W=mg
W= 50kg x 1.6N/Kg
W= 80N

Mass Weight
It measured in kilograms It measured in newtons
The mass of an object does The weight of an object
not change changes due to changes in
gravitational strength
It measures using triple beam It is measured using a
balance newtonmeter spring balance
Mass is the quantity of Weight is the gravitational
matter in an object pull exerted on an object.

QUESTION TWO
a. A= Triple beam balance
B= Newton meter
b. A= Mass
B= Weight
c. To measure the mass of a liquid, you need to use instrument A
and a beaker or any container.
i. Place the empty beaker on the pan and record the mass as
M1
ii. Pour the liquid in the beaker and measure the mass of the
beaker and the liquid as M2
iii. The mass of the liquid is then calculated by subtracting
M1 (mass of the empty beaker) from the M2 (mass of the
beaker and the liquid)
M= M2-M1
QUESTION THREE
a) Use the formula; weight = mass x acceleration due to gravity
Mass = weight/gravity = 50/10 = 5.0Kg
b) The weight will change because gravity is different in Jupiter.
c) Weight = mg = 5.00 x 16.00 = 80N

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DENSITY
QUESTION ONE
a) Definitions:
i) Density is the mass per unit volume or concentration of
matter in a unit volume
ii) Ratio of mass of a liquid to mass of equal volume of
water
iii) Amount of space occupied by an object
b) Since the two liquids have the same volume, make use of the
mass and density of water to calculate the volume of oil.
c) i) Relative density bottle
procedure:

Weigh a clean, dry empty density bottle on a beam balance (m 1).

Fill the bottle with water and put a stopper. Wipe the outside
and top of the stopper using a blotting paper. Weigh the bottle
containing water (m2). Empty the bottle and fill it with the
liquid (not water). Weigh the bottle with the liquid (m3). Then
find the relative density using the following formula:

Relative density = m3 – m1/m2 – m1 =mliquid / mwater

Multiply the relative density by 1g/cm3 (density of water) to
find the density of the liquid.

d) Pour water into a dry clean measuring cylinder and record

its volume (V1). Then tie a stone to a thin thread and
gently lower it into the measuring cylinder containing water
and note the volume (V2). The volume of the stone (V) is the
difference between V2 and V1.

 Volume of stone (V) = V2 – V1

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Tie a stone to a floating object and repeat the procedures above

to find the total volume VT of the stone and the floating object.
Determine the volume of the floating by using the formula: VF =
VT – V

WHERE: VF = VOLUME OF A FLOATING OBJECT

VT = VOLUME OF STONE + VF

V = VOLUME OF STONE

e) i) use the formula: Relative density = m3 – m1/m2 – m1

=mliquid / mwater
iii) use density = mass / volume

VECTORS

QUESTION ONE

(i) (a) Scalar quantity has magnitude only but no direction

(b) Vector has both magnitude and direction
(ii) Any vector quantity and any scalar quantity
(iii) (a) 5N
(b) it will move down the ramp
(c) F = 5N -1N = 4N

QUESTION TWO

(a) F total = (200 + 70) -140 = 130N

(b) F resultant = 130N
(c) the locker will be stationary
(d) since the forces are balanced, the resultant force is zero.

QUESTION THREE

Make constructions using parallelogram rule.

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LINEAR MOTION

QUESTION ONE
a. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
b. i. a=?, u= 0, v=120m/s, t =1min = 60s
a = v-u/t

60s
ii. a = v-u/t
a = 0m/s-120 m/s = 4m/s2
30s
iii. s= ut x 1/2at2
s= 0 x 60 x 1/2x2m/s2 x 3600s2
s=3600m o r 3.6 km

QUESTION TWO
a) i) the car was accelerating
iv) the car was moving with a constant velocity
v) the car was decelerating
vi) speed = change in distance / time
= 8-4/0.5 = 4/0.5 = 8m/s
QUESTION THREE

a. Total time =60s

b. Maximum velocity = 10 m/s
c. In the first 10s the car accelerated uniformly between OA and in
the next 30s the car moved with a constant velocity at AB
d. i. a = v-u
t
a = 10m/s-0 m/s = 1m/s2
10s

ii. Total distance covered = area under the graph

1
T.d= (a+b)h
2
1
T.d= (30+60)10
2
1
T.d= (90)10
2
T.d = 450m

QUESTION FOUR

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a. Total mass= 70kg+30kg= 100kg

b. i. v= 20m/s, s= 50m-45m = 5m, t=?
s
v=
t

s 5m
t= t= t= 0.25 s
v 20 m/s
0−20 m/ s
ii. a= v−u /t t= t= 8m/s2
0.25 s

c. Consequences of over speeding e.g. brake failure resulting

into car crush, loss of control
d. To reduce over speeding, the following measured are put
in place ;speed limits , road humps, speed traps etc.
e. loss of control and car crush or accidents.
QUESTION FIVE

a. weight and air résistance

b. When a rain drop is released from the cloud, it accelerates
uniformly until a point when the weight of the drop equals the
opposing force which is the air resistance. At this stage the
drop falls with a constant speed called terminal velocity until
it strikes the roof top.
s
c. v=
t
1000 m
v= =4m/s
250 s
QUESTION SIX

a. v2 = u2 + 2as
02 = 402 + 2(-10)s
0-1600=-20s
S=80m
b. t=2u/g
t=2x40m/s/10m/s2
t=8s
c.

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FORCES
QUESTION ONE
a)pull or push on an object
b)use the equation v2 = u2 + 2as to solve for
acceleration then apply Newton’s second law of
motion; F = ma

c) Verification of Hook’s law

Experiment
Suspend a spring vertically from a rigid support. Place a 100cm
rule next to the spring as shown.
cm

Metre rule

Elastic material
Standard masses

Fix a pointer to the lower end of the spring. Note the initial
reading on the metre rule. Add standard masses, e.g. 20g, to the
lower end of the elastic material (spring) one at a time.

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Mark the new position of the pointer each time a standard mass is
added. Record the readings in the results table.

Load (g) Extension (cm) Extension / Load

1 20 10 0.50
2 40 20 0.50
3 60 30 0.50
4 80 40 0.50
5 100 43 0.43

Plot a graph of extension against load using the results in the

table. A straight-line graph will be obtained. This shows that
the extension of the spring is directly proportional to the
load.

Extension (cm)

Load (g)

Note: When the limit of proportionality is exceeded, the

extension – load graph will be a curve. This means that
Hook’s law is no longer obeyed. Only the straight-line
region follows Hook’s law.

 On the above graph, the region from x to y shows the spring

disobeying Hook’s law.

 What is the elastic limit in the example? It is 80g or 0.8N.

QUESTION TWO

a) Let the original length be equal to x

[(L1 – x)/(m1g)] = [(L2 – x)/(m2g)]

(10 – x)/(0.4x10) = (13 – x)/(0.8x10)
Then solve for x
(Other methods may apply)

b) Use the equation F = mV2/radius(r)

(1µm =10-6m)

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QUESTION THREE

a) Due to inertia, you tend to keep on moving in a straight

line at a constant velocity, since your mass resists
change in its motion.
b) Similar explanation as in (a)
c) Because it has a large mass, it has a large inertia since
inertia depends on the mass.
d) Due to inertia, you tend to remain in your state of rest,
as a result you feel as though you move backwards.

QUESTION FOUR

a) Use the equation a = (v2 – u2)/2s

=(202 – 102)/2 x
100
=0.75m/s2
b) F = ma
=800 x 0.75
= 600N
c) Fnet = 600 + 500
=1100N
d) Friction force must be equal in magnitude but opposite
in direction with a towing force for it to move with a
constant velocity; = 500N

QUESTION FIVE

a) 8000N – 7650N
= 350N
b) a =F/m
=350/765
= 0.46m/s2
c) as the balloon moves up, the acceleration decreases
because the balloon is slowly approaching terminal
velocity
d) The acceleration increases because the mass is
decreasing. From Newton’s second law of motion, mass
is inversely proportional to mass.

MOMENTS
QUESTION ONE
(i) Moment is the turning effect of a force.

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(ii) For a body to be in equilibrium, the sum of the clockwise

moments about a point must be equal to the sum of
anticlockwise moments about any point.
(iii) Sum Clockwise =sum anticlockwise
(100 x 32) + (20 x 10)/4 = 4F/4, F = 3400/4 = 850N
(iv) A short spanner creates a low turning effect than a long
spanner, hence larger force is needed to unscrew the nut using
a shorter spanner.
(v) (i) F1s + F1s1 + F2s2 = F3s3. = F1 x 30 + F1 x 20 + 50 x 10 =4000
x10 = 30F1 + 20F1 + 500 = 4000 = 50F1 = 35000 therefore F1 =
39500/50 = 790N
(ii) Increase the length of the lever.

QUESTION TWO

(a) On a back wheel

(b) Clockwise moment = 30 000 x 10 = 300 000Nm
(c) Fx = 300 000/20 = 15000N
(d) Introduce another wheel between the two back wheels.

Work, energy and power

QUESTION 1
a. i. work is the product of force and distance moved in
the direction of force
ii. energy is the ability to do work
iii. power is the rate at which work is done
b. a. w = mg
w= 20kg x10 N/Kg
w=200kg
b.wd =F x d
Wd= 600N x 2.5m
Wd= 1500 j
wd 1500 j
c. i. P= = = 60watts
t 25 s
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work output
ii. Eff= x100%
work input
1500
Eff= x100% = 83.3%
1800 j
d. It will reduced ,because some energy is lost due to
frictin force

QUESTION 2
T 1+T 2+T 3
a. . TavA=
3
0.56+0.54 +0.55
TavA= =0.55s
3
b. Height =20 X 20cm = 400cm/m/100cm =4m
c. i. GPE= mgh
GPE= 50Kg x 10N/Kg x 4m
GPE=2000J
wd 2000 j
ii. P= = = 363.63watts
t 0.55 s
d. This is because the distance moved is note in the same
direction of the force .

QUESTION 3
a. Internal potential energy
b. GPE= mgh
GPE= 25Kg x 10N/Kg x 1.8m
GPE=450J
1
c. KE= mv2
2
1
450 = x25v2
2
V=6m/s
d. Internal potential energy [sound and heat]

QUESTION 4

POTENTIAL ENERGY KINETIC ENERGY

Sound
chemical
Light

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Gravitational PE
Elastic Electric

d. Principle of energy conservation states that energy can

neither be created nor destroyed but converted from one
form to another.
c.
i. Electric bulb
Heat
Electrical Light

ii.Car battery

Electrical
Chemical

v. Solar cells in panel

Solar Electrical

vi. Electric lifting motor

Electrical Kinetic Gravitational PE

QUESTION 5

a. These are sources of energy that can be recycled or used

over and over again.
b. Petroleum /crude oil/wood
c. i. chemical energy

ii.Non-renewable: it cannot be recycled or used again.

vii. Effects of use of energy sources on the environment:

it causesair pollution, water pollution,
deforestation, land degradation etc
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d. Renewable sources of energy: (solar, hydroelectric ,

geothermal, bio-gas
e. Energy is direct proportional to the mass. As mass
increases, energy does increase (E = mc2 )

SIMPLE MACHINES

QUESTION ONE

a) A simple machine is a device by means of which a

force applied at one point is used to overcome a
force acting at another point.
b) Mechanical advantage = load/effort
c) Velocity ratio = distance moved by effort/distance
moved by load
d) Efficiency is the ratio of work output to work input
expressed as a percentage
Or
Efficiency = (power output/power input) x 100%
QUESTION TWO
a) Use the principle of moments
Eg fx1.6 = 5000x 0.8
F =2500N
b) Upward forces = downward forces
= 5000N + 2500 = 7500N
c) VR = 1.6/0.8 = 2

QUESTION THREE
a) W = mg
= 120 x 10
= 1200N
b) MA = L/E = 1200/800 = 1.5
VR = 30/ 12 = 2.5
c) Eff = MA/VR x 100%

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= 1.5/2.5 x 100
= 60%
QUESTION FOUR
a) Gears
b) Car engines/ bicycle
c) VR = No of teeth in a driven wheel/No of teeth in a
driving wheel
(pupils should count the number of teeth in each wheel)
QUESTION FIVE
a) VR = 4 (count the number of pulleys)
b) Distance = ¼ = 0.25
c) MA = (VR x eff) /100
= 3
Effort = load/MA
= 900/3
= 600N
d) Weight = (300x4) -900
= 300N
Mass = w/g = 300/10
30kg

PRESSURE
QUESTION ONE
(i) Pressure is force acting normally per unit area.
(ii) Pressure is measured in Pascals or N/m2.
(iii) N/m2
(iv) (a) P = e x g x h = 1000 x 10 x0.16 = 1600 Pa
(b) P = 1600N/2 = 800Pa

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(c)The radius will be twice the initial radius

(d) when the bubble reaches the surface, the pressure inside the
bubble is too large hence it bursts.

QUESTION TWO

(a) Pressure = force/area

(b) (i) )0.0028m2.
(ii) 101Kpa – 45Kpa = 56 Kpa = 56000Pa.
(iii) F = P x A = 56 000 x 0.0028 = 156.8 N
(c) Reduce the pressure inside the bell jar
Increase the strength of the material of the bell jar is made
off.

QUESTION THREE
a) i) w = mg = 2.5 x 10 = 25N
ii) 25N
iii) p = f/A = 25/0.008 = 3125Pa

iv) F = PA =3125 X 0.04 = 125N

GRADE 11 WORK
SIMPLE KINETIC THEORY OF MATTER
QUESTION ONE
a) Matter is made up of discrete individual particles that are
continuous in random motion
b) (Note that for liquids, particles should be closely packed but
not in a regular pattern as in solids)

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c) Dirty air C Mazoe B Dry ice A

d) When heated, the average kinetic energy in A will be less
than that of that in C
e) Brownian motion is the motion of the smoke particle in an
haphazard manner as shown below .

Smoke particle

QUESTION TWO
a) i) This is because as particles of sweat evaporate, they takes
away energy from the body, hence, leaving the body at a lower
temperature.
ii) Hot air rises because it expands and become less dense
b) The trapped air between the foil prevents heat loss by conduction
since air is a poor conductor of heat. The shiny foil prevents
heat loss by radiation by reflecting heat.
QUESTION THREE
a) Label the source of light, lense/glass rod, smoke cell and
microscope
b) The motion is haphazard/random
c) The smoke particle collides with the invisible air molecules
d) Any two differences
QUESTION FOUR
a) Melting point is 450 while boiling point is 1200C
b) The particles are just vibrating

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c) The boiling point for water is 1000C while its melting point is
00C. the graph represents a substance whose melting point is 450C
and boiling point of 1200C
d) It will be a gas
QUESTION FIVE

a) During a hot sunny day, the temperature is high, hence the

rate of evaporation increases causing the cloth to lose
water faster.
b) This is because the water surrounding the body evaporates
and since the water escaping from the body carries energy,
the body feels cold. Evaporation has a cooling effect
c) The perfume spread in one corner spreads to all parts of the
room because the particles of perfume diffuse from their
region of high concentration to their region of low
concentration.

TEMPERATURES
QUESTION ONE

(i) Degrees Celsius

(ii) 50 OC
(iii) Place the eye level to the mercury column
(iv) 36.5 OC

QUESTION TWO

(i) Clinic thermometer . (ii) - a kirk/constriction, -range 32-

42OC

(iii) (a)

b) T + 273 = Kelvin, -2 + 273 = 271K

(iv) -273OC

QUESTION THREE

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a) Place the bulb of the unmarked thermometer in pure melting

ice. When the mercury level indicates a constant
temperature, mark it as your steam point. To determine the
steam, point, place the bulb of the unmarked thermometer in
steam from boiling water which is boiling at normal
atmospheric pressure. When the mercury level gives a
constant temperature, mark it as your steam point.
b) Temp = (Lᶿ - L0/(L100 – L0)= [6 – 2/22-2]x 100 = 200C
c) To improve on its sensitivity

QUESTION FOUR
(a) Thermocouple (b) The potential differences generated due
to different wires at the junction

(c) - It is rapid, - it has the wider range of temperatures it can

measure. (d) zero.

MEASUREMENTS OF HEAT

QUESTION ONE
i) Energy = power x time = 1000 x 5 x 60 = 300000j
ii) Q = mcΔT = 1 x 4200 x 70 = 294000j. energy was lost to the
surrounding.

QUESTION TWO
(a) (i) M1 = current (ii) M2 = voltage
(b) To prevent heat losses to the surrounding.
(c) Heat loss = heat gain
M1cΔT = mcΔT
C = VIt/ΔTm = 12 x 5 x 5 x 60/ 30 x 2 = 300j/KgK

QUESTION THREE

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a) During evaporation, the water molecules take away latent heat

from the body, leading to loss of heat. Evaporation has a cooling
effect.
b) First we calculate the heat energy
Heat energy = power x time = 800 x 2 x 60 x 60 = 5760000j
Energy = mass x latent heat
Mass = energy / latent = 5760000/2.26x106 = 2.55Kg

QUESTION FOUR
let the final temperature be equal to T

fall in temperature = 80 – T

rise in temperature = T – 20

m1cΔT = m2cΔT

since c is the same, it cancels

m1ΔT = m2ΔT

T = [(80 x 50)+ (20 x 200)]/ 200+50 = 320C

EXPANSION OF SOLIDS, LIQUIDS AND GASES

 i. Expansion is the increase in size when an object is heated or
when they is an increase in temperature.
ii. temperature is the degree of coldness and hotness of a body.

 i. Gaps are left to allow or give room for expansion when

temperature increases.
ii. thermal expansion causes cracks in floors and pavement and
this is allowed by leaving small gaps.

HEAT TRANSFER
QUESTION ONE

(a) M = Conduction, C = convection

(b) The at M is conduction because it is a solid, at C is
convection because gaseous molecules are being heated.
(c) The shiny walls of the thermal flasks
(d) To allow for convection to take place properly from the
bottom to the top.

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QUESTION TWO

(a) It is movement of heat in solids

(b) (i) Black surfaces
(ii) Shinny/white surfaces

QUESTION THREE

(a) The particles from water molecules as they bump into the
particles of the wall of kettle cause them to vibrate and knock
into each other. Then this pass the heat energy into the next
particles.
(b) Boiling takes place at a specific temperature and may
require a lot of heat or low pressure to boil, but evaporation
can take place at temperature and pressure and may not require a
lot of heat energy.
(c) (i) Conduction (ii) Radiation
(d) Infra red radiation.

QUESTION FOUR

(a) Radiation
(b) Copper is a metal and a metal is good conductor heat than
plastic.
(c) (i) Polished/shiny surface and black surface both exposed to
the small amount of heat and both fixed on the other side with
wax. Observe after heating which wax drop first. The black
surfaces will have the wax dropped first showing that it absorbs
heat fast.
(d) By vibration and collision of particles with each other and
by movement of electrons.

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WAVES
QUESTION ONE

a) i) amplitude = 0.10m
ii) period = 2.0s
b) frequency = 1/T
= ½
= 0.5Hz
c) use the equation V = fƛ (the speed of electromagnetic waves
is 3.0x108m/s)

QUESTION TWO

a) transverse wave
b) sound is longitudinal while the one shown is longitudinal

c)

QUESTION THREE

a) B should be moved to and fro as shown by the arrow on the

diagram

b) Velocity = frequency x wavelength

1.2 = 3.0 x ƛ
ƛ = 1.2/3
= 0.4m

QUESTION FOUR
a) i) a transverse wave is a wave in which particles of a
transmitting medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of
energy while in a longitudinal wave, particles of the
transmitting medium vibrate parallel to the direction of
energy.

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b) a compression is a region in a longitudinal wave where the

particles of the medium are concentrated while a rarefaction
is a region in a longitudinal wave where the particles of a
medium are spaced, ie, they are in low concentration
i)

ii)
c) i) wave length = 6/4 = 1.5m
ii) frequency= number of complete oscillations/ time
= 5/10
= 0.5Hz
iii) speed = frequency x wavelength
= 0.5 x 1.5
=0.75m/s

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QUESTION FIVE

(a) Wavelength
(b) R = deep, S = shallow
(c) Refraction of waves
(d) C = νλ, = 12cm/s/3cm = 4Hz.
(e) (i) Speed, (ii) Frequency and wavelength, (iii) The depth of
water.

QUESTION SIX

(a)

(b)

(c) Reflect backwards and interference of waves with each other.

QUESTION SEVEN

(a) Diffraction of waves

(b) (i)
(ii) It will remain the same because the depth has not changed
which affects wavelength.

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ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM
QUESTION 1

a. A=micro waves
B= Gamma rays
b. i. radio waves
ii. radio waves
c. speed = 3 x 108 m/s
d. i. they travel in a vacuum
ii. they are affected by both magnetic and electric field.
e.
v. Microwaves
vi. Gamma rays
vii. Ultra-violet light
viii. Ultraviolet/gamma rays

SOUND
QUESTION ONE
a) i) the trace should have a large amplitude with short wavelength
ii) the first trace has a short amplitude and long wavelength
while the second trace has a large amplitude with a short
wavelength.
b) Electric energy to heat energy
QUESTION TWO
Hung an electric bell under a bell jar and connect it to a battery so
that it rings. Slowly pump the air out of the bell jar by means of a
vacuum pump. As the density of air reduces, the sound becomes fainter
until no more sound is heard although the hummer continues to strike
the bell. Slowly readmit the air into the bell jar and you will hear
that the sound becomes louder. This shows that sound is a mechanical
wave which requires a tangible medium for its transmission.
The experimental set up is shown below.

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Question three
Just add the times eg; 0.6 + 1.0 + 0.6=2.20s
Question four
a) Two experimenters, one with a stop watch and the other with two
pieces of wood which she can use for clapping stand about 100m
from a smooth, vertical wall. The one with the pieces of wood
claps at regular intervals and adjusts the claps until the echo
coincides with the next clap. The length of time between the drum
beats is now the time taken by sound to travel to the wall and
back, that is twice the distance to the wall.
The one with the stop watch should time 50 steady claps and then
calculate the average time interval between the claps. Then
calculate the periodic time taken using the formula;
Period= average time taken/number of claps
Calculate the speed of sound using the formula;
Speed = (2 x distance)/periodic time
b) First calculate the periodic time;
Period= average time taken/number of claps
= 30/40 = 0.75s
: speed of sound = (2 x distance)/periodic time
= (2 x 120)/0.75
= 320m/s
c) Because light travels faster than sound

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LIGHT
QUSTION ONE

(a) (i)

Show that angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.

(ii) Wavelength remains the same and the angle of incidence =
angle of reflection
(b) – the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal all lie on
the same plane.
- The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
(c)

(d) Diffuse reflection

QUESTION TWO

a. Refraction of light: as Bending of light rays after passing

through different media.
b. i. Laws of refraction: as The ratio sin i/sin r is a constant
value(snells law)
ii. The incident ray ,the normal, and the refracted ray all lie
in the same plane
c. i. it will slow down because it passing from a less dense medium
to a more dense medium.
sin i sin 60
ii. n= = . n= = 1.5
sinr sin 30
Value of x= 300

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Value of Y= 600

QUESTION THREE

e. To verify snells law. The following procedure can be taken

1. Put a rectangular glass block on a plain paper placed on the
board.
2. Draw the outline of the block
3. Put 2 pins on one side of the block, (P1 and P2)
4. Connect P1 and P2 with a straight line,and extend it to the
surface of the block.
5. Look at thepins through the block from the opposite side
6. Put another pins in line with p1 and p2 through the block on
the opposite side.(p3 and p4)
7. Connect p3 and p4 with a straight line, and extend it to the
surface of the block.

f. The figure below shows the rectangular glass block with the real
depth of 3m and refractive index of glass to be 1.50.
R. D R .D 3m
n= = A.D= = A.D= = A.D= 2m
A .D n 1.5
Real depth is the actual depth/height while the apparent
depth is the point where the depht appears to be.
C i.

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ii. V= l b h
V = 5m x 2.5m x 2m
V = 25 m3

QUESTION FOUR
a. Critical is the angle of incidence at which the angle of
refraction is 900.
b. Total internal reflection occurs when light from a high
refractive is directed towards a low refractive index medium
and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical
angle.
sin i sin 60
c. n= = . n= = 1.9
sinr sin 27
d. the relationship between critical angle and refractive
index:

n = sin 90o/ sin c, Angle of incidence

greater than critical angle
e. it is used in optical fibres.
f. and refractive index.
g. State one use of total internal reflection.

QUESTION FIVE

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a)

b) i) ratio of Vto U as labeled in the diagram; ie. M = V/U

ii) m = v/u = 5cm/8cm =0.625

c)
QUESTION SIX
This question requires the use of a graph paper to draw a scale
diagram. You may use any appropriate scale; say 1cm = 5cm
Then answer the questions. Note that the image will be virtual and
magnified

QUESTION SEVEN

Hold the lens in front of the white screen. The focal length can
now be measured when an image a distant object (such as a tree or
building) is obtained.

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MAGNESTISM: SIMPLE PHENOMENON OF MAGNETISM

QUESTION ONE
(a) – it has two ends north and south, -when hanged rests in north-
south direction – repels like poles of another magnet.
(b) – the magnetic fields originate from north to south, -they run
parallel to each other
(c) – permanent magnets returns the magnetic properties, temporal
magnets lasts on for a short while.
(d) (i) double stroking S N S
(iii) Soft iron gets magnetized easily and loses the magnetic
effect easily, meanwhile steel is hard to magnetize and takes
long to demagnetize.
(e) (i)

(ii) The steel will be induced with magnetic effect which will produce
the field that will attract cobalt causing it to have domains
temporally align in order with North near steel.

QUESTION TWO

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(a) A= magnetic material B= Non magnetic material C= Magnet

(b) A = The domains are not disorderly arranged causing it to be
easily magnetized.
B = Total randomly arranged particles (domains) shows non
magnetic material
C = Orderly arrangement of domains in the head to tail mode
typical of a magnet.
(c) These are tiny particles forming a magnet that have the north
– south alignment. (Basic particles that make up magnetic
material)
(d) It is a state in which the increase in applied external
magnetic field does not increase the magnetization of material
any further.
(e) When to poles of a magnet repel that is a true test for a
magnet.
(f) Even magnetic material can easily be attracted to a magnet
just like unlike poles of a magnet.
(g) Induction and hammering
(h) Heating, hammering while lying in east-west direction, and
through electromagnetic distorting using a.c supply.

QUESTION THREE

(a) The iron fillings will be attracted to the iron nail.

(b) Increase current and turns in the coil.
(c) Fewer iron filling will be attracted and after switching off
the iron fillings still remain attached
(d) The magnet will lose its magnetic strength.

QUESTION FOUR

(a) Electromagnetic induction

(b) Magnetic materials, because it can temporally be induced with
magnetic properties by electromagnet of the recording head.
(c) It is electromagnetically induced
(d) Soft iron
(e) Exposing it to heat, dropping the tape often.

STATIC ELECTRICITY
Question 1
a. Like charges repel while unlike charges attract.
b. Rub acetate rod and polythene rod with a cloth. An acetate rod
acquires a positively charge because it loses electrons while
polythene rod will be negatively charged because it gains
electrons.

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Question 2
a. i. electrons will move on the far end of the sphere away from the
charged rod because electrons and have the same charge.

ii.

(d) .plastic or wood

Question 3
a. (i) by induction method
(ii) Electrons flow from the earth to the sphere through the
connecting wire between the rod and base.
(iii)

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b. Q = It
I= 0.00016C /0.012s = 0.0133 A
Question 4
a. (i)Like charges repel each other
(ii) Unlike charges attract each other.
b. To attract all the paint droplets
c. Since like charges repel each other, the paint droplet are
evenly distribute because droplets have the same charge and
are repelling each other as they are attracted to metal
sheet.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY

QUESTION ONE

a) Charge = current x time

= 2 x 10
= 20C
b) Energy = voltage x charge
= 6 x 1
= 6j
c) Enegy = voltage x current x time
= 6 x 2 x 10
= 120j

QUESTION TWO

a)

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b) 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3

= 1/120 + 1/100 + 1/90

RT = 33.4Ω
Since the circuit has internal resistance, we add the
internal resistance to find the total resistance for the
circuit.
Rtotal = 33.4 + 10 = 44.4Ω
c) First we find the total current:
IT = VT/RT = 250/ 44.4 = 5.63A
we then find the voltage across the parallel circuit
voltage // = current x resistance
= 5.63 x 33.4 = 188.06V
Current through DVD = VDVD/RDVD = 188.06/90 = 2.09A
d) Energy = voltage x current x time
= 250 x 5.63 x 60
= 84450j

e) First we calculate power in kilo watts;

Power = voltage x current/ 1000
= 250 x 5.63/1000 = 1.408kW
Then we calculate energy
Energy = power x time
= 1.408 x 10 = 14.08kWh
Cost = energy x cost pre kWh
= 14.08 x K30.0
= K42.2

QUESTION THREE

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Expected results;( Note that any results may be used as long as a

graph obtained is a straight line)
Current (A) Voltage (V) V/I
1 2 2
2 4 2
3 6 2
4 8 2
5 10 2
6 12 2

The expected graph is shown below

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QUESTION FOUR
a)
iv) Live wire = it has a brown or red color. It carries
alternating current to the appliance
v) Neutral wire = it has a blue or black color. It completes
the circuit by providing a return path to the mains
vi) Earth wire = this has a yellow or green color. It is
for safety purposes. It protects the user of an appliance
from getting an electric shock in case charges from the live
wire leak to the metal case.
b) In order to allow current to flow to earth in case electrons
from the live wire leak to the metal case.it neutralizes the
appliance.
c) Advantage of parallel connection is that the cells last
longer
Advantage of connecting cells in series is that the cells
provide a larger emf

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT

QUESTION ONE

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(a)

(b) (i) They draw close to each other. (ii) The two soft iron ends
line as south-North and South North as result they attract
each other.
(c) (i) - The deflection will be quicker and stronger.
-they will move closer together very fast.

(ii)The field changes the direction hence the deflection on the

compasses will also change into opposite direction.

QUESTION TWO

(a) (i)

(ii)
(b) (i) stronger attraction between wires
(ii) The magnetic field strength increases.
(c) (i)

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(iv) The magnetic field in the solenoid also reverses.

(d) - Increase the coils, - increase the current

QUESTION THREE

(a) The iron will make contact with the metal and cause the circuit
to be closed and the bell will ring because the on field
attracting an iron contact.
(b) It would be a window or a door.
(c)

(d) (i) The electromagnetic fields cause the contacts to close

hence turning the bell on.
(ii) Bugler or car alarm.

QUESTON FOUR

(a) A = South B = North

(b) The polarity on the coil also reverses/changes
(c) Measure small amounts of current

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QUESTION FIVE

(a) AC generator
(b)

(c) The negative voltage will be removed and only remain with the
positive voltage.

(d) (i) The wave form for output will still be the same.
(ii) The one that produce structure of output ac in figure 5.0
has two rings each for the contact end and the one in figure
5.1 has split/slit rings.

QUESTION SIX

(a)

(b) (i) 100 vibration per second

(ii) The coil will be moving back and forth towards the coil.

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ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

Question ONE
 X is south ole


c.
 moving the magnet into the coil faster
 increase the number of turns in the coil
 using the a strong magnet
(d) .It states that the direction of induced current is
such that is opposes the change producing it.
(e). Y is North Pole.
QUESTION TWO
a) P = carbon brushes Q = slip ring commutator
b) A = south B = North
c) Emf is induce because as the coil rotates, it cuts the magnetic
flux.
d) 1. Reduce the number of turns in the coil
2. reduce the speed of rotation
e) The slip rings should be replaced with the split rings

f)

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QUESTION THREE
a) Step down transformer
b) Soft iron is easly magnetized and easily demagnetized while steel
is difficult to magnetize and difficult to demagnetize.
c) Since the transformer is 100% efficient, the; power input must be
equal to power output
Voltage primary x current primary = voltage secondary x current
secondary
VpIp = VsIs
240Ip = 36
Ip = 36/240 = 0.15A

d) Vp/Np = Vs/Ns
Np = Vp X Ns/Vs
= 1500 x 240/24
= 15000turns
e) i) copper losses are caused by heat produced from power (I2R)
consumption because of the resistance of the wire in the coil.
(copper losses can be minimized by using large diameter wire for
the coil)
ii) iron losses are caused by heat produced due to rapid
magnetization and reversal of magnetic flux in the core. (iron
losses can be minimized by using a soft material for the core)
iii)these are tiny circulating currents that that are
induced in the soft iron core. They are produced because the core
itself cuts the magnetic field causing currents to be induced.
QUESTION FOUR

a)

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b) i)
ii) When the current is slightly below 2.5A
QUESTION FIVE
a) to step up voltage
b) so that less energy is wasted due to resistance of in the cables
c) P = I2 x R
= 22 x 10
= 40W

ELECTRONICS
QUESTION ONE
a. Thermionic emissions involve the release of
electrons from heated cathode when it reaches white
hot.
b. Anode and cathode
c. It must be evacuated in order to speed up the process
of releasing electrons by thermionic emission by
preventing electrons from colliding with air particles
and stick back to the cathode.
d. By observing a bright spot on the screen
e. Light on the screen will go off.
f. Thermionic emission will not take place
g. Negative.

QUESTION TWO
a. (i) Electron gun
(ii) Deflecting system
(iii) Detecting system [screen]
b. (i) Electrons are emitted by thermionic emission
(ii) by increasing the P.d between the cathode and anode

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c. (i) Grid controls the amount of electron reaching the

screen.
(ii) Anode accelerates and focuses the electrons into a
narrow beam.
d. (i) P = Y- Plates
() Q = X-Plates
e. (i) 150V =13mm
250V = x
X=250 x13/150 =21.66mm
(ii) to deflect the beam of electrons vertically.
QUESTION THREE

d. Period T = 4.X 10-4s

e. Frequency f= 2500Hz
f. Voltage.

QUESTION FOUR
T =0.0005s
f= 2000Hz

QUESTION FIVE
a) Light dependant resistor (LDR)
b) Ammeter
c) V = 6 – 4 = 2V
d) I = V/R = 2/500 = 0.004A
e) R = V/I = 4/0.004 = 1000Ω
f) When the light is bright, the LDR has low resistance so more
current will flow through the circuit. The pd across a fixed
resistor will be high, means pd across LDR will be low
QUESTION SIX
a) 1. = yellow
2. = violet
3. = red
b) AND gate

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c) TRUTH TABLE
INPUT INPUT OUTPUT
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

QUESTION SEVEN
a) When the water level reaches the metal contacts, it completes
the circuit causing a current to flow through the base of the
transistor. This current switches the ON, hence, the lamp
glows.
b) Any use, eg to detect floods or to detect the amount of water
in the soil.
QUESTION EIGHT
a) When S1and S2 are closed, no current flows in the base
circuit. The lamp is ON while the transistor is OFF.
b) When S1 is opened, the capacitor charges through the resistor
R. when the pd across the base and the emitter is high enough,
the current through the base switches the transistor ON. The
contact in the relay open and switches the bulb off.
c) 1. Increase the value of capacitance of the capacitor
2. increase the value of resistor R
QUESTION NINE
a) Power switch
b) If the switch is opened and the water level is low or either the
door switch is open or the water level is low

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QUESTION TEN
a) AND gate
b)

QUESTION ELEVEN
a)
S R X Y
Burglar steps onto the door mat 1 0 0 1
Burglar steps off the door mat 0 0 0 1

b) The alarm will be off

ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS

QUESTION ONE
a. i.Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons of a
nuclide.
iii. Mass( Nucleon) number is the sum of protons and
neutrons of a nuclide
iv. Atomic (Proton) number is the number of protons in a
nuclide.

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b.Two isotopes of Thorium decays by emitting an alpha

particle. The mass and atomic numbers are given in the table
below.

S/N Mass Atomic

number number
1 234 90
2 235 90

i. protons = 90 neutron = 144.

ii. Correct equation showing an alpha decay in which the mass
number reduces by 4 while the atomic number reduces by 2.
g. Because of their +2 charge which tend to cause intense attraction of
electrons away from atoms in a gas

QUESTION TWO
(a)Half-life is the time taken for the unstable nuclide to
decay by half of the original.

.
b. (i) mass remaining = 5g
background radiation = 15.

Time(s) 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140

Corrected 150 104 68 60 50 42 38 35

counts

QUESTION THREE

(a) (i) correct equation showing the decay by emitting 4 alpha

particles
(ii)4
(b) (i)correct equation showing the emission of 2 alpha particles
and one beta particle

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(c) Bismuth undergoes a series of decay processes first by

releasing two (2) alpha particles, then one (1) beta particle
followed by gamma rays.
(i)State the mass of an alpha particle.
(ii)Write down the charge on an alpha particle.

(iii)Show, by way of constructing decay equations

QUESTION FOUR
(a) time taken for the activity of a radioactive sample to
decrease by half of the original.

(b)(i)32g (ii)16

(c)(i)15min (ii) 150g

QUESTION FIVE

(a)sterilization, treatment of cancer, thickness control,

treatment of milk and fresh foods etc

(b)cause cancer, cause death, pollution caused by wastes etc

(c)State the precaution which must be taken when handling
radioactive substances.
(d)stored in lead shields.

QUESTION SIX

a) i) B ii) it is not deflected by the magnetic field

b) they have opposite charges. C) C is heavier than A

QUESTION SEVEN
(a)
IV. An alpha particle is a helium nucleus.
V. Beta particle is an electron.
VI. Gamma particle high energy electromagnetic wave
(b)(i)Arrange the apparatus as shown below.

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The paper, Aluminium and lead will stop alpha, beta and gamma
respectively. The count rate will reduce on the detector
each time a material is introduced.

(ii)A radioisotope is an atom of the element having the

same atomic number but different number of neutrons and it
emits radiation.
(c) Tacks are formed because alpha particles ionize the air
molecules and this causes the vapor to condense around the
ionized gas. The tracks are straight due to strong ionizing
effect of alpha radiation.

QUESTION EIGHT

d.
iv. Beta = Q
v. Alpha= P
vi. Gamma= R
e. materials must J be made from LEAD
f. treatment of cancer.

QUESTION NINE

(a) (i) this atom has the nucleus containing 92 protons and 143
neutrons. There are 92 electrons orbiting the nucleus.
(ii) Uranium-235 and Uranium-238 are elements having same number of
protons but different number of neutrons.
(iii) the nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei releasing energy as a
result.
(iv) the fraction of uranium-235 present now is 1/64. 1/64 = (1/2)6, 6
half lives. Hence estimate of the age of the earth = 6 x (7.1 x 108) =
4.3 x 109 years.
(b) Radioactive sources are used to detect leaks from pipes
underground.
A liquid containing the source is placed in the pipe. Some liquid
leaks from the pipe and then radiation it emits can be detected
above ground.
(i) Technetium-99 .
(ii) Since it has a short half life, it would pose little health risk.
Also it produces gamma ray, the most penetrating radiation. It can
pass through pipe walls and the ground.

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QUESTION TEN
c.
iv. Alpha particles are helium nuclei
v. Beta particles are electrons
vi. Gamma rays high energy electromagnetic waves
d. Explain why the
iv. They have the highest value of charge of +2
v. Because they are negatively charged.
vi. Because gamma has high frequency and has no charge.

QUESTION ELEVEN

(a) Nuclear fission

(b) The neutron that is fired into a parent nucleus causes it to
split into two daughter nuclei, releasing more neutrons. The neutrons
released again collide with other nuclei. The process continues
causing a chain reaction to take place.

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