Form Four Holiday Package-1
Form Four Holiday Package-1
Form Four Holiday Package-1
BASIC MATHEMATICS
1. a) Find the LCM of 24, 60 and 72
b) Represent0.63̇ as a fraction
𝑀−𝑁 𝑀+𝑁
3. a) Given that 𝑀 ∗ 𝑁 = + . Find a) 4 ∗ 2 b) a if 1 ∗ 𝑎 = 2
2𝑁 2𝑀
b) Find the equation of the line through the points (4, 6) and the midpoint of (2, 4)
and (10, 4)
5. a) Construct a triangle ABC, such that ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 = 3𝑐𝑚, ̅̅̅̅̅
𝐵𝐶 = 4𝑐𝑚, 𝑎𝑛𝑑
̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐶 = 6𝑐𝑚 .Hence find the value of the largest angle in the triangle ABC by
measuring.
b) What is the area of a regular 36 sided polygon inscribed in a circle of radius
10cm?
6. a) A bus travels 240km using 16 liters of diesel. How many liters of
diesel are needed to drive 90km?
b) If y is directly proportional to x, find the value of each of a, b and c in the table
below
y 8 12 b 32
x 2 a 6 c
7. a) Irshaad, Irfat and Murhat contributed 800,000, 1,200,000 and 850, 000
Shillings respectively while starting their business.
i) Find the ratio of their contributions in its simplest form
ii) If the business made a profit of 1,900,000 shillings; find how much each got
if the profit was shared in the same ratio as their contributions.
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b) A dealer bought 100 books for 200,000. He sold of them at 30,000
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Shillings each and the remaining at 25,000 shillings each. What was
his percentage profit?
8. a) Find the geometric Mean of 9 and 25
b) The second, fourth and eighth terms of an arithmetic progression form three
consecutive terms of a geometric progression. If the sum of the third and fifth
terms of the geometric progression is 20, find the sum of the first ten terms of
the geometric progression.
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9. a) If N is an acute angle and tan 𝑁 = without using tables find the
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value of sin 𝑁 + 5 cos N
sin 30 cos 30
b) i) Without using tables, simplify;
tan 30
ii) Given the value of tan ɵ = −1, find the possible value of x in the
interval 0° ≤ x ≤ 360°
10. a) Factorize completely 𝑝𝑞 + 𝑝𝑟 − 𝑟𝑞 − 𝑞 2
b) Find the value of the expression in (a) above, if p = 11.1, q = 7.1 and
r = 2.9
11. A shopkeeper sells refrigerators and washing machines. Each refrigerator takes up
1.8 𝑚2 of space and costs 300,000 shillings; whereas each washing machine takes
up 1.5 𝑚2 of space and costs 500, 000 shillings. The owner of the shop has
6,000,000 shillings to spend and has 27 𝑚2 of space. If he makes a profit of 30,000
shillings on each refrigerator and 40,000 shillings on each washing machine, find
how many refrigerators and washing machine he should sell for maximum profit.
12. The following were the scores of 35 students in a mathematics mock examination;
7, 19, 78, 53, 43, 67, 12, 54, 27, 22, 33, 80, 25, 58, 50, 36, 65, 33, 16, 19, 34, 20,
55, 27, 37,41, 4, 32, 48, 28, 70, 31, 61, 8, 35.
b) A ship sails due north from latitude 20° S for a distance of 1440nm.
Find the latitude of the point it reaches.
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14. At the bearing of August 2008. Kitomondo Secondary School started up a school
project shop with a capital of Tsh. 1,800,000/=. The school project manager made
the following transactions.
On August 6th She Bought some stationeries for the worth Tsh.
180,000/=
th
On August 9 She sold goods to the students worth Tshs.
270,000/=
th
On August 11 She bought soft drinks for the shop from SSB
Company worth Tsh. 630,000/=
th
On August 13 She sold foodstuffs to teachers worth Tshs.
450,000/=
th
On August 15 She sold foodstuffs to villagers worth Tshs.
360,000/=
th
On August 17 She bought loaves of bread for the shop worth Tsh.
450,000/=
th
On August 19 Paid transport charges Tshs. 50,000/= and the shop
management paid wages to the shop manager Tshs. 90,000/= on August 28th
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CHEMISTRY
1. For each of the items (i – x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its
letter besides the item number
i) The mass number of a carbon atom that contains six protons, eight neutrons and six electrons is
A. 6 B. 14 C. 8 D. 12 E. 20 ( )
ii) How many moles of oxygen are required for the complete combustion of 2.2g of 𝐶3 𝐻8 to form
carbon dioxide and water?
A. 0.050moles B. 0.15moles C. 0.25moles D. 0.50moles E. 0.025moles ( )
iii) Which of the following hydrocarbons does NOT belong to the same homologous series as the
others?
A. 𝐶𝐻4 B. 𝐶3 𝐻8 C. 𝐶4 𝐻10 D. 𝐶6 𝐻12
iv) An element in the periodic table with atomic number 18 belongs to which of the following?
A. Group I and period I C. Group 0 and period III
B. Group III and Period III D. Group V and period IV ( )
E. Group VII and Period
vi) Alcohols react with carboxylic acids to form a group of organic compounds called
A. Alkynes
B. Aldehydes ( )
C. Ethers D. Esters E. alkanols
vii) _______ is the general term used to explain a mixture of different metals
A. Alloy B. Allotrope C. Amphoteric D. Amorphous E. Isotope.
viii) A mixture of ammonium chloride salt and sand can be separated by using a method
known as
A. Evaporation B. Sorting C. Fractional distillation
D. Sublimation E. Decantation
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2. Match the item in List A with a response in list B by writing its letter below the number of
corresponding item in table provided.
LIST A LIST B
i) Hypothesis A. Loss of oxygen from a substance
4. a) What are the four (4) disadvantages of using artificial fertilizers in the farms
b) i) Why are calcium carbonate, calcium oxide and calcium hydroxide sometimes spread on
fields
c) What are the advantages of crop rotation/
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b) How can you convert the following
i) Bromoethane to ethane
ii) Butan – 1 – ol to butanoic acid
iii) Calcium carbide to ethyne
c) Write a balanced chemical equation for complete combustion of
i) Ethane ii) Ethyne
d) The weight of fresh soil collected from a farmer’s field was 24g. it was oven – dried at 106℃
for 22 hours, cooled in a desiccator and weighed. The oven dry weight was 19.5g. What was
the percentage of moisture in the soil sample?
10. a) List down four (4) common stages in the extraction of less reactive metals like zinc and
copper
b) Name the ore commonly used in the extraction of iron metal
c) The following are series of chemical reactions which occur in the blast furnace during the
process of extraction of iron metal
𝐶(𝑠) + 𝑂(𝑔) → 𝐶𝑂2(𝑔) + ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡............................. (1)
𝐶𝑂2(𝑠) + 𝐶(𝑠) → 𝐶𝑂(𝑔) … … ….............................. (2)
𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3(𝑠) + 3𝐶(𝑆) → 2𝐹𝑒 + 3𝐶𝑂(𝑔) ....................... (3)
𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3(𝑠) + 3𝐶𝑂(𝑆) → 𝐹𝑒 + 2𝐶𝑂2(𝑔) ....................... (4)
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BIOLOGY
1. For each of the item (i) – (x) choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives and writes
it’s latter behind the item number.
(i) Organisms which do not have nuclei are called
A. Prokaryotes C. Protist
B. Eukaryotic D. Non-nucleus
(ii) Farhat has a problem of seing well at dim light (Night blindness), she is lacking
A. Vitamin A C. Fruits
B. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
(iii) Which of the following physiological processes will help to cool down body temperature when
the environmental temperature is extremely hot?
A. Shivering C. Sweating
B. Contraction of hair erector muscles D. An increase of rate of respiration
(iv) The factors which contribute to spread of dental carries in human being include.
A. Prolonged exposure to cold water
B. Prolonged exposure to warm water
C. Prolonged to exposure to sugary food
D. Prolonged exposure to hard water
(v) If Albino marries heterozygous normal skinned woman. The chance that they will produce an
albino is,
A. 100% C. 75%
B. 50% D. 25%
(vi) The release of egg cell from the ovary known as,
A. Ovulation C. Evolution
B. Menstruation D. Fertilization
(vii) The only best way of preventing school boys and girls from being infected with
HIV/AID’s is,
A. Abstain from sex C. Having only one partner
B. Using condoms during sexual intercourse D. Faithfulness
(viii) An object to be observed under the microscope is placed on
A. Eye piece
B. Stage
C. Hinge screw D. Condenser
(ix) Food is moved along the oesophagus by the process known as
A. Assimilation
B. Ingestion
C. Chewing D. Peristalysis
(x) The functions of cones of human eyes is
A. Sense light
B. Reflects light
C. Protect the eye D. Sense colour
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2. Match the following items by writing the latter of the correct answer from LIST B beside the item
number in LIST A.
LIST A LIST B
i. Pairs of compound eyes raised on stalks A. Diplopoda
ii. Numerous segments each bear one pair of leg. B. Co-elenterata
iii. Numerous segments each bear two pairs of jointed leg. C. Leech
iv. Have well defined head, thorax and abdomen D. Arachnida
v. Consists of organisms which give birth to young ones E. Liver flukes
vi. Have four par of jointed appendages F. Mammal
vii. Phylum which consists of Earthworm G. Insecta
viii. Phylum consisting of elongated round worm with pointed ends. H. Nematoda
ix. Phylum consisting of endoparasites which have suckers and I. Platyhelmirithes
hooks on proscolex J. Chordata
x. Endoparasites which have thin and leaf like body. K. Arthropoda
L. Chilopoda
M. Annelida
N. Crustacea
O. Vertebrata
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(a) Name the parts labeled P, Q, R, S, T and U
(b) What does the diagram represents?
(c) What is the outcome of the following structures after fertilization
(i) S
(ii) U (10-Marks)
7. (a) Differentiate between the following
(i) Inhaled air and exhaled air
(ii) Communicable and non-communicable disease
(iii) Natural classification and artificial classification
(iv) Monocots and dicots
(b) State one function to each of the following
(i) Medulla oblongata (ii) Cerebrum (10-Marks)
8. In a breeding experiment with maize seeds. Yellow colour was expressed in heterozygous state
while White was expressed in a homozygous state only.
(a) What would be the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring if a heterozygous yellow seeded plant
was crossed to white seeded plant? Show how you drive your answer.
(b) Write down genotypic ratio and phenotypic ratio (6-Marks)
9. (a) For each of the following biological substance, give its name and describe its function
(i) Green pigment in flowering plants (ii) Red pigment in the blood of Mammals
(b) The diagram shown below represents feeding relationship in which food in an ecosystem is
passed from one organism to another.
Bacteria
Lion Hyenas
Gazelles
Zebra Wildebeests
Grass Shrubs
CIVICS
1. For each of the items (i – x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its
letter besides the item number in you answer sheet
(i) A school authority which discourage female students to opt for technical subjects is likely to
be influenced by
A. Gender discrimination D. Gender stereotyping
B. Gender analysis E. Gender
C. Gender balance
(ii) The experiences of the past which are inherited by the society and are unchangeable are
called
A. Traditions D. Norms
B. Customs E. Ethics
C. Moral values
(iii) The leader of government business in the Parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania is the
A. Attorney General D. Speaker
B. Prime Minister E. Chief Justice
C. President of the United of Republic
(iv) Which of the following is not a function of the commission for Human Rights and Good
Governance in Tanzania?
A. Promote the protection and preservation of human rights
B. Receive allegation and complaints of violation of human rights
C. Visit prisons with the view of assessing conditions of prisoners
D. Instate legal proceeding to public officials accused of corruption
E. Cooperate with agencies of the United Nation in the area of human rights
(v) The national motto of the United Republic of Tanzania inscribed on the coat of arm is
A. Freedom and unity
B. Freedom and work
C. Ujamaa and self – reliance
D. People and development
E. Education for self – reliance
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(vi) A custom of having more than one wife is known as
A. Courtship D. Cohabitation
B. Engagement
C. Polygamy E. Extended family
(vii) Which of the following organ is responsible for planning and coordinating village activities?
A. Village assembly D. Village committees
B. Ward committee
C. Ward development committee E. Village council
(ix) Bus accidents in Tanzania are caused by both human and external factors. The external
factors include
A. Excessive speed
B. Overtaking errors
C. Parking errors
D. Reckless driving
E. Poor road condition
(x) Which of the following is not a core function of Commercial Banks in Tanzania?
A. Receive deposit from people
B. Advance loans to people
C. Provides insurance services to clients
D. Agents of money transfer
E. Provides business advice to clients
2. Match the items in LIST A with the correspondent answer from LIST B and write the correct letter
in the box provided below
LIST A LIST B
i) Zanzibar Constitution introduced a bill of rights and made the house of A. 1961
Representatives more representative B. 1962
ii) Eighth Constitutional amendment introduced the multi – party system in C. 1963
D. 1964
Tanzania
E. 1965
iii) The interim constitution of the United Republic of Tanzania was replaced F. 1966
by a permanent one. G. 1967
iv) The Tanganyika independence constitution enacted H. 1971
v) The constitutional amendment provided for a Presidential candidate with I. 1974
the highest but not the majority of votes to get elected J. 1977
vi) The Tanganyika Republican Constitution enacted K. 1978
L. 1979
vii) One party state Constitution enacted
M. 1984
viii) The Zanzibar independence constitution enacted N. 1992
ix) Zanzibar Constitution introduced House of Representatives and election O. 2000
for the first time
x) The interim union of Zanzibar and Tanganyika Constitution enacted.
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3. Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow.
Natural resources can be classified as non – renewable and renewable. Non – renewable or
exhaustible resources such as fossils fuels, copper and gold exist in fixed amount in various places in
the earth crust. They can be used completely or economically depleted to the point where it costs too
much to get what is left, when 80 percent of its total estimated supply ha been removed and used.
A renewable resource is the one that can theoretically last forever, because it replaced through
natural process. Examples are trees in the forest, grasses in grasslands, wild animals, fresh surface
water in lakes and rivers, fresh air and fertile soils. The earth most valuable resources is its diversity
of potentially renewable forms of the life. But over use can convert renewable resources to non –
renewable by using them faster than they can be replenished.
Some non – renewable resources can be recycled or reused to extend supplies. Iron, aluminium,
glass for example, can be collected, remelted, reprocessed and made into new products. Also to
avoid excessive use of resources recycling of papers products needlessly burned or thrown away.
Reduced timbers needs for the paper industry. Domestic refuse can be used to generate power
particularly for local districts heating and lighting, schemes, through care must be taken when
incinerating to avoid air pollution problems.
Other non – renewable resources, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), cannot be recycled
or reused. When burned, the high quality useful energy in these fuels is converted to low quality
waste heat and exhausted gases that pollute the atmosphere
QUESTIONS
(a) From the passage, identify two resources which can be replaced through the natural process
(b) State three merits of recycling non – renewable resources.
(c) List down three environmental problems associated with burning of fossil fuels
(d) Explain the condition under which renewable resources cannot be renewed
(e) Suggest two measures to promote suitable use of natural resources
(b) Briefly explain the importance of family stability by giving five points
5. Despite the fact that Tanzania is endowed with may resources, it is economically underdeveloped.
Discuss six factors needed for economic development of Tanzania to taken for
6. “Currently proper moral behaviors have been violated by the agents of globalization especially at
family level”. Discuss six (6) measures to be taken against such behaviors in our society
7. With examples from African culture, analyse the impact of negative cultural values
8. Discuss six (6) functions of the parliament of the United Republic of Tanzania in the governing
process of the country
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
To the ordinary man, one kind of oil may be as important as another. But when the politician or
the engineer refers to oil, they almost always mean mineral oil, the oil that drives tanks, aero
planes and warships, motor-cars and diesel locomotives. i.e. The oil that is used to lubricate all
kinds of machinery.
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This is the oil that has changed the life of the common man. When it is refined into petrol; it is
used to drive the internal combustion engine. To it, we owe the existence of the motorcar, which
has replaced the private carriage drawn by the horse. To this also, we owe the possibility of
flying. It has changed the methods of warfare on land and sea. This kind of oil comes out of the
earth.
Because it burns well, it is used as fuel and in some ways it is superior to coal. In this respect,
many big ships nowadays burn oil instead of coal. Because it burns rightly, it is used for
illumination. Countless homes are still illuminated with oil-burning lamps.
Apart from that, it is used for lubrication due to the fact that it is very slippery. Two metal
surfaces rubbing together cause friction and heat; if they are separated by a thin film of oil, the
friction and heat are reduced. No machine would work for long if it were not properly lubricated.
The oil used for this purpose must be of the correct thickness. If it is too thin it will not give
sufficient lubrication and if it is too thick it will not reach all parts that must be lubricated.
QUESTIONS
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viii) What is the possible title of this passage?
a) Oil c) Importance of Oil
b) Mineral oil d) Petrol and Diesel
2. Read and summarize the following passage in about (80) eighty words
One great defect of our civilization is that it does not know what to do with its knowledge.
Science as we have seen, has given up powers fit for the gods, yet we use them like small
children. For example, we do not know how to manage our machines. Machines were made to be
man’s servant; yet he has grown so independent on them that they are in a fair way to become his
masters.
Already most men spend most of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines. And the
machines are very stern masters. They must be fed with coal, and given petrol to drink, and oil to
wash with and must be kept at the right temperature. And if they do not get their meals when
they expect them, they grow sulky and refuse to work or burst with rage and blow up and spread
rain and destruction all around them. So we have to wait up on them very alternatively and do all
that we can to keep them in a good temper.
Already we find it difficult either to work or play without the machines and a time may come
when they will rule us altogether, just as we rule the animals
3. Complete the passage below with correct words from the box.(04 Marks)
The newspaper were full of reports of the murder (i)………………which had lasted three weeks.
The court had heard all the (ii) …………………. given by the four (iii) ………………Now at
last after staying out of court for hours, the (iv) ………………came back into the court and sat
down. Tension was high in the public gallery and the (v) …………………looked very pale. The
judge asked the jury, for their (vi) ………………… After a moment’s silence their reply was
(vii) ……………!! The judge therefore, (viii) ………………………….the man to fifteen years
in prison.
4. In each of these sentences, one of the words is wrong. Correct them by writing the right spellings
of the wrong words.(04 Marks)
a) My waste is too big. My skirts do not fit any more.
b) I am expecting a letter. I don’t know if the messenger has brought any male today.
c) Don’t stair at Wakuvanga. He will act on you.
d) His mother has opened a stationary at Mlandizi
5. Fill in the blanks by writing the correct form of the word from the bracket. (04 Marks)
Dar es Salaam (i) ………… (be) only a small (ii)…………(fish) village when the Sultan
(iii)…………… (decide) to build a town there in 1862. At one time, Tanga (iv) ……… (be)
more important because the first railway in Tanganyika (v) ……………(use) that port. But when
the railway to Kigoma (vi) finish in 1914, Dares Salaam (vii) …………(able) to serve a much
larger hinterland than Tanga. It now (viii)………… (carry) more than 2/3 of mainland trade.
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6. Give the meaning of the underlined words in the following paragraph. (04 Marks)
Further (a) evidence was that about a week ago a (b) strange young woman had turned up in the
village of Bodi and made straight for the hut of Mama Baloi where she had died a (c) sudden
death. This had made Mama Baloi run (d) screaming from her hut.
A B C D E
8. Match the phrasal verbs in List A below with their meanings from list B.
LIST A LIST B
i) Cut down a) praise
ii) Check in b) end
iii) Look in c) exhaust
iv) Press for d) reduce
v) Sum up e) arrive
vi) Throw up f) demand
vii) Wear out g) investigate
viii) Cry up h) vomit
ix) Sign away i) summarize
x) Split up j) transfer
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GEOGRAPHY
1. For each of the items (i) – (x) choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its
letter beside the item number.
i) The Earth is said to be oblate spheroid because it is :-
A. A planet
B. Having a flattened surface
C. Round
D. A flattened sphere
ii) Rift valley lakes are normally deep and narrow. A good example is
A. Lake Victoria in East Africa
B. Quattara depression in Egypt
C. Lake Shala in Ethiopia
D. Lake Tanganyika in Tanzania
iii) The grid reference of station Q is 666,888, what are numbers of Easting and the Northing
A. 868 are Easting and 668 are the Northing
B. 886 are Easting and 666 are the Northing
C. 666 are Easting and 888 are the Northing
D. 888 are Easting and 666 are the Northing
iv) The process of cultivating crops and keeping animals/ livestock is known as
A. Tourism
B. Agriculture
C. A map of human activities
D. Sedentary agriculture
viii) What is the temperature of Arusha 1400m above sea level when it is 28ºC at Tanga
800m?
A. 31.6ºC B. 24ºC
B. 30.2ºC D. 24.4ºC
ix) Which of the following is not related to the water cycle?
A. Evaporation
B. Infiltration
C. River erosion
D. Condensation
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x) Soil texture refers to the
A. Size of soil particles
B. Arrangement of soil particles
C. Soil minerals and water content
D. Soil catena
2. Match the items in list A with the responses in list B by writing the letter of the correct response
LIST A LIST B
i) Hot deserts A. Endogenic forces
ii) Anemometer B. Wind direction
iii) Barchans C. Finger-like projections growing from the
iv) Backwash floor of the cave in the karst region
v) Dynamite nuclear bombs D. Growing feature from the roof of the cave
vi) Stalagmite in the karst region
vii) Organic weathering E. Construction waves
viii) Weather F. Neutral
ix) Earth’s core G. Large decimal temperature change
x) Number seven (7) of the pH H. Wind depositional feature
scale I. Destructive waves
J. Average weather condition of a region
recorded over a long period of time
K. Daily atmospheric condition at a place
L. Iron and nickel
M. Actions of plant roots
N. Wind speed
O. The middle layer of the earth’s
P. Artificial forces
Q. Natural forces
4. The form four students of Mizimbini secondary school visited their school library and asked the school
librarian questions on the books of the subjects found in the library.
These are the information recorded by the form four students from their school library as shown in the
table below
Subject Number of books available
Geography 86
Chemistry 90
Biology 120
Basic mathematics 74
English language 60
Kiswahili 75
Civics 110
Book keeping 72
Commerce 91
By using the data, in the table obtained from the school library
a) Construct a simple Pie chart to represent the data
b) What are the merits and demerits of using Pie chart in representing data
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5. Use the following data to answer the questions. The contribution of agriculture to the gross domestic
product (GDP) in East Africa
YEAR TANZANIA KENYA UGANDA
1950 65 45 65
1951 60 40 65
1952 60 40 60
1953 55 35 55
11. what are the factors that influence the location of rural settlement
12. explain with eight (8) points, how Tanzania benefited from tourism industry
HISTORY
1. For each of the following statements or items choose the best answer from the given alternatives.
(i) Which of the following peoples are most probably descendants of the original stone Age
Inhabitants of East Africa?
A. The Nyamwezi
B. The Kikuyu
C. The Hadzabe [ ]
D. The Masai
E. The Kinye
(ii) The earliest written evidence of life on the East African Coast was the work of the
A. British
B. Arabs
C. Bantu [ ]
D. Indians
E. Greek
(iii) One important reasons why the French wanted slaves from East Africa was to
A. Work on their plantations in Mauritius and Reunion
B. Sell them to the British for work on their cotton plantations [ ]
C. Exchange them for gold with the Boers of South Africa.
D. Get domestic servants in the homes of aristocracy in France.
E. Sell them to Sayyid Said
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(iv) The centre of the French slave trade on the East African coast was
A. Pemba
B. Zanzibar
C. Kilwa
D. Mombasa [ ]
E. Malindi
(v) One reason why the Portuguese were able to conquer the East African Coast was the
A. Alliance with its states of the interior
B. Military skills of Vasco Dagama
C. Help they obtained from Arabs [ ]
D. Numerical superiority of their troops
E. Lack of unity between the Coast States
(vi) By 1914 the British had decided that in ruling Zanzibar
A. They would share power with the Arabs [ ]
B. The Sultan would control internal matters but not external matters.
C. The island should be in exactly the same administrative position as the
Mainland.
D. The Africans should be regarded as equal will Arabs.
E. Dual rule with Arabs should be abandoned.
(vii) After the end of the first world war the British policy towards the Akidas in
Tanganyika was to
A. Abolish them
B. Subject them to the chiefs
C. Use them where they existed [ ]
D. Increase their powers.
E. Use them to implement indirect rule
(viii)One result in Kenya of the Great economic depression was a decline in the
production by Europeans of
A. Tea
B. Maize
C. Pyrethrum [ ]
D. Coffee
E. Sisal
(ix) Chief Lobengula first granted exclusive rights to exploit the mineral wealth in
his country by means of the
A. Grobler Treaty
B. Moffat treaty
C. Rudd concession
D. Lippest concession [ ]
E. British – S. African agreement.
(x) One consequence of the discovery of gold in Trans Vaal in the late 19th C was
A. A strengthening of African tribal life.
B. A decline in the British population of Uluve
C. An increase in the population of Basutoland [ ]
D. A decline in the British political interest in the area
E. A weakening of African tribal life.
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2. Match the items in list A with correct response in list B by writing the letter of the correct response beside
the item number.
LIST A LIST B
Fasho da It led also to the formation of new Nations eg. Yugoslavia
Mesolithic age The formation of the Young Kavirondo Association
The Hominid which led to the The place where the crisis between France and British was
development of man. solved.
Paleolithic age. The leaders of Nama and Herero.
Over production Mostly man depended on what was obtained on nature.
Martin Kenyamba Introduced marshal plan in 1947
Woodrow Wilson (President of Dryopithe cus
U.S.A)
Versailles treaty Led to the economic slump (1923 – 1933)
Holo cust Discovery of fire by man
Chief Witbool and Maherero Proposed the formation of LN (league of Nation) in 1919
Mass killing of the Jews by the German’s
Ramapithe cus
Tanganyika Territory Civil Servant Association
(TTACSA)
The Genocide in Rwanda.
Proconsul
It led also to the formation of new Nations eg. Yugoslavia
The formation of the Young Kavirondo Association
The place where the crisis between France and British was
solved.
The leaders of Nama and Herero.
Mostly man depended on what was obtained on nature.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x)
3. Draw a sketch map of East Africa and show the following Historical sites. (10 marks)
a) Nsongezi
b) Olorgesailie
c) Kondoa
d) Isimila
e) Kilwa
5. Analyse four causes and four effects of the first would war on Africa.
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6. Analyse six factors which determined the variation of agricultural systems during the colonial
period.
7. ‘’Various forms of struggles of Nationalism, which have been taking place in African states
before 1945 were a result of inevitable internal grievances’’. Discuss. (6 points)
8. Colonial military and legal institution served colonial interests. Support the above statement with
any six (6) historical evidence
9. Show the importance of iron technology to the development of African societies before the
arrival of people from outside World.(6 points)
10. How did the Great Depression affect East Africa? (4 points) and what were solutions to the problem (4
points)
KISWAHILI
UFAHAMU
1. Soma kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha jibu mawsali.
Umbo nasura yake vililimrudia Gamba akilini tena. Siku zote kila alipowa za juu ya
UKOMBOZI, sura ya John haikukosa kumjia akilini. Mara akiwacheka adui baada ya kuwazuia
kuingia kambini, mara akifoka aliposema …… anastahili kipigo ………… na pengine ili mjia ile
sauti ya mwisho aliponong’ona“UMEKUWA MWISHO WA KIUME……”.Haya yalimfanya
Gamba ajikute siku baada ya siku akizidi kumheshimu, kumthamini pamoja na kukubali sana
sana mchango wake katika kulinda nchi na kutetea haki ya waganda.
Mchango usio sahahaulika kamwe si wezi kuruhusu MAHARAMIA kuiteka sehemu ya nchi
yangu. Amini hawezi, asijaribu tena kamwe. Kadri Shaibu alivyozidi kuwaza na kuwazua
hatimae alikumbuka tena maneno ya kishujaa ya kiongozi wao”….. tumevamiwa MWENDA
WAZIMU katuvamia …….. wananchi tulieni msibabaike…….. sikilizeni na tulieni, muone
vijana wetu watafanya nini……”
Baada ya kutafakari kwa makini Gamba alisonya kwa hasira, akaweka silaha yake begani kisha
akasongambele.
Maswali:
UANDISHI
8. Andika insha ya kisanaa yenye maneno yasiyopungua 300 kwa kutumia moja ya mada
ulizopewa
a) Mafuriko inchini
b) Ugonjwa wa kipindupindu
MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI
9. Elezea mambo manne (4) yaliyosaidia kukua kwa lugha ya Kiswahili inchini Tanzania
kabla ya uhuru.
MALI
i) Kwa mali mtu huvuma
Ikamtambua umma,
Hata kama hakusoma
Watesema ni msomi
PHYSICS
1. For each of the item (i) – (x), choose the correct answer among the given alternatives and write its
letter beside the item number.
(i) The heat energy from the sun reaches the earth by _______
A. Radiation B. Conduction
C. Convection D. Light rays E. Vacuum ( )
(ii) A card appears to be blue when it is seen in which light. In yellow light, it will appear to be
A. Green B. Dark blue
C. Yellow D. Black ( )
E. White
(iii) A constant wire of diameter 0.40mm has a resistance of 10Ω. What is its length if the
resistivity of the wire is 5.0 x 10 -7 Ω m?
A. 0.39m B. 2.52m
C. 3.62m D. 0.82m E. E. 5. 41m. ( )
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(iv) Which of the following describes particles in a solid at room temperature?
A. Close together and vibrating
B. Close together and stationary
C. Close together and moving around at random
D. For a part and moving at random ( )
E. For apart and vibrating
(v) The figure below shows the motion of radiation emitted from a certain source
(vii) A girl of mass 50kg runs with a velocity of 2m/S. The movement energy of the girl is
A. 100N B. 100J/S
C. 100W D.100J E. 100 KW ( )
(viii) Pond stakers and mosquitoes are able to walk on the surface of water because of the _
A. Density of water B. Capacity
C. Up thrust of water D. Apparent weight ( )
E. Surface tension of water
(ix) The heat energy from the sun reaches the earth by _______________________
A. Radiation B. Conduction
C. Convection D. Light rays ( )
E. Vaccum
2. Match the items in LIST A with responses in LIST B by writing the letter of the correct response
beside the item number.
LIST A LIST B
i. Identification of direction of magnetic field around a A. Has fever turns on the secondary
conductor carrying current. them on the primary coil.
ii. Currents induced in a metal conductor are subjected to a B. Galvanometer
magnetic field. C. Multiplier (Series resistor)
iii. Step down transformer D. Increase voltage
iv. Enables a millimeter to be used as a volt-meter. E. Shunt
v.Effect produced by an interaction of electric current with F. Transformer
magnetic field. G. Eddy current
vi. Increasing strength of magnetic field. H. Self induction
vii. Current-indicating instrument I. Solenoid
viii. Increases the range of a moving coil mill ammeter. J. Mutual induction
ix. e.mf induced in the secondary coil placed near to the K. Electromagnetism
primary coil. L. Fleming Right-Hand Rule
x.Concerned with production of electric current from M. Electromagnetic induction
magnetic field. N. Using soft iron core
O. Right Hand Grip Rule
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3. For each of the item (i) – (x), fill in the blank spaces by writing the correct answer on the answer
booklet provided.
i. A body is said to move with uniform velocity if ________________________
ii. Two factors affecting evaporation of liquid are ___________________ and ___________
iii. A person of mass 70g when on the surface of the earth. What is the mass of hat person will be
on the moon? ____________________
iv. A microphone convents sound energy to __________________ energy.
v. The force which holds the earth and the moon in their position is called ______________
vi. A convex mirror always produces ________________ and _______________ image.
vii. The linear expansively of copper is 1.7 x 10-5 K -1. By how much will a copper bar of 3.0m
length expand when it is heated from 00c to 600C?
viii. A person in a submarine under the sea is able to view objects like ships which are on the surface
of sea by use an instrument known ____________________
ix. A. piece of iron sinks when placed on the surface of water because ________________
x. Two defects of simple cell are __________ and ________________
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9. (a) What is meant by the term
(i) Isotopes
(ii) Thermonuclear fusion
(b) (i) Draw a fully labeled diagram to show how you would demonstrate the deflection of
β radiation in a magnetic field. Indicate clearly the direction of field and direction.
(ii) The half-life of 21483Bi is 20min. What fraction of the sample of this
radioactive bismuth remained after 2 hours?
10. (a) Explain the meaning of the following terms
(i) E.m.f of a cell
(ii) Internal resistance of a cell
(b) A cell supplies a current of 0.6A through a 2Ω coil and a current of 0.2A through a 7Ω
coil. Calculate the e.mf and internal resistance of the cell
11. (a) Define the following terms
(i) Transistor
(ii) Doping
(iii) Rectification
(b) Explain how an extrinsic semiconductor is constructed.
(c) The diagram below shows a circuit in which components A and B are removed
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