1. According to Rule V of PRBoA Resolution No.

05-07, what is the registration fee for initial registration,

renewal, or request for reinstatement?
a. P500.00
b. P1,000.00
c. P1,500.00
d. P2,000.00

2. The sum of the total number of hours accomplished from the entire FOP Total number of hours shall not be
less than the required _______.
a. 3,840 hours
b. 3,850 hours
c. 3,860 hours
d. 3,870 hours

3. The following are qualifications of being a member of the Professional Regulatory Board except one.
A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines.
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture conferred by a school,
college or university in the Philippines or abroad that is recognized and/or accredited by
the Commission on Higher Education (CHED).
C. Has never been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude.
D. Be at least 24 years of age.

4. What does PRC stand for?

a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Philippine Regulation Commission
c. Philippine Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Commission

5. In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are replacements appointed?

A) By the President of the Philippines
B) By the IAPOA through an election
C) By the PRC Chairman
D) By the Secretary of the DPWH

6. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what action must a non-registered architectural firm or entity
take upon receipt of a written notice of non-registration from the Board?
a. Continue operating without changes.
b. Immediately apply for registration
c. File an appeal with the Board.
d. Cease engagement in the practice of architecture.

7.The __________ served as the primary spokes-entity for the nine (9) PRBs making
up the Philippine Technology (i.e. Non-Engineering) Professions.
a. PRBCB
b. PRBCE
c. PRBRES
d. PRBoA
8. Under the Mnemonics of PRC given by PRC, what does P stands for
a. Professionalism and Integrity
b. Patriotism and Integrity
c. Professionalism and Unity
d. Patriotism and Excellence

9. How many years of experience are required for the members of the PRC?
A.8 years
B. 9 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

10. It means the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type, disposition, arrangement and
proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work giving due consideration to
safety, cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetics.
A. Structural Planning
B. Structural Building
C. Structural Evolution
D. Structural Conceptualization

11. SPLBE stands for:

a. Special Professional Licensure Board Examinations
b. Senior Practice Licensure Board Examinations
c. Specific Partnership Licensure Board Examinations
d. Selective Performance Licensure Board Examinations

12. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what percentage of the owners, shareholders,
members, incorporators, directors, or executive officers of a registered architectural firm must be registered
and licensed architects?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%

13. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience of 2 years required of a graduate of architecture

prior to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a variation of experiences in the different
phases of architectural service.
A. Architectural Experience
B. Architectural Specialization
C. Diversified Architectural Experience
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization

14. It pertains to the existing official national organization of all architects of the Philippines in which
all registered Filipino architects shall be members without prejudice to membership in other
voluntary professional associations;
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Securities of Exchange
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects
15. Which of the following professionals can compose the remaining 25% ownership of architectural firms or
entities, as stated in Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07?
a. Filipino citizens without any professional license
b. Foreign architects
c. Filipino lawyers who are not members of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
d. Filipino allied technical or technological professionals separately registered and licensed by the
concerned boards and the Commission.

16. Which of the following entities is required to renew their registration every three (3)
years?
a. Individual architects only
b. Architectural partnerships only
c. Architectural firms, companies, partnerships, corporations, or associations
d. Non-registered and non-licensed persons involved in architectural practice

17. This article outlines the requirements and procedures for the examination, registration, and licensure of
architects in the Philippines, detailing the qualifications for applicants, subjects covered by the examination,
passing criteria, issuance of professional identification, and the regulatory framework for maintaining and
enforcing professional standards.
A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF ARCHITECTURE
C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF ARCHITECTURE
D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions

18. According to Article III SECTION 15. Rating in the Licensure Examination. - To be qualified as
having passed the licensure examination for architects, a candidate must obtain a weighted
general average of _________, with no grade lower than fifty percent (50%) in any given subject.
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 75%
D. 80%

19. What action can the Board take against architectural firms or entities found violating
the rules and regulations?
a. Issue a warning letter.
b. Offer a grace period for compliance.
c. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of Registration
d. Impose a fine without further consequences.

20. What permit is required for foreign architects to be allowed to engage in professional
architecture projects in the Philippines?
a. Special/Temporary Permit
b. Sanitary Permit
c. Safety Permit
d. Sales Tax Permit
21. What Article in Republic Act No.9266 contains provisions regarding the composition and functions
of the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture?
A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF ARCHITECTURE
C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF ARCHITECTURE
D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions

22. What do you call the list that shows the names and place of business of all registered
professional architects?
A. Directory
B. Schedule
C. Roster
D. Record

23.CHED shall prepare and promulgate the necessary rules and regulations needed to implement the
provisions of this Act within how many days in accordance to Section 17?
a. 15 working days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

24.What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article IV?

A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Certificate in Professional Development
C. Community Planning & Development
D. Campus Planning Design

25. FOP stands for:

a. Final on Practice
b. Finance on Permits
c. Formality of Performance
d. Field of Practice

True or False
26. The licensure exam does not need to be related to the syllabus of CHED. False
27. There are 46 professions that have a PRBo. False
28. You can file a case to the PRC regarding licenses. True
29. PRC has the right to keep a database on those who took and will take license exams. True
30. PRBo can inquire for help from other institutions regarding filled cases related to the license. True
31. The law is called the PCR Modernization Act Dec 50 2000. False
32. If one part of the law is not related to the case the case is still valid. False
33. The PRBo alone can suspend licenses. False
Multiple Choices

1. Who appoints the Director General, Deputies Director General, Directors, and Assistant
Directors?
The President
The Secretary of Trade and Industry
The Civil Service Law
The Office itself

2. Which refers to the document issued by the PRC signifying that the person named therein has complied with
all the legal and procedural requirements for such issuance, including, in appropriate cases, passing the
licensure examination or registration without examination?
Certificate of Registration
CPD credit unit
Professional ID
Authorship

3. Why is the CPD Council Secretariat created?

To manage the finances of the CPD Councils.
To conduct and deliver CPD programs.
To provide technical, administrative, and operational support to the CPD Councils and PRBs in
implementing CPD programs.
To set the fees for CPD programs.

4. Defined as original intellectual creations in the literary and artistic domain also referred to work.
Works of Government
Literary and Artistic Works
Derivative Works
Pseudonym Works

5. Which of the following is NOT a function, power, and responsibility of the CPD Council?
Evaluate and act on applications for accreditation of CPD Providers and their CPD Programs.
Develop and evaluate the CPD Programs and ensure cohesiveness and quality.
Conduct researches, studies and benchmarking for international alignment of the CPD Programs.
Issue operational guidelines, with the approval of the PRC and the PRB concerned.

6. According to Sec. 221. Points of Attachment for Works under Sections 172 and 173. The protection afforded
by this Act to copyrightable works under Sections 172 and 173 shall apply to:
A. Works of foreign authors who have their habitual residence in the Philippines
B. Works first published in another country but also published in the Philippines within sixty days, irrespective
of the nationality or residence of the authors.
C. Filipino author whose work is first published outside of the Philippines
D. Audio-visual works the producer of which has his headquarters or habitual residence in the
Philippines

7. This refers to a body created to promote and ensure the continuous improvement of professionals, in
accordance with national, regional and international standards of practice.
a. CPD Council
b. AIPO/Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professorial Chair
d. CPD Body

8. The making of one (1) or more copies, temporary or permanent, in whole or in part, of a work or a sound
recording in any manner or form without prejudice to the provisions of Section 185 of this Act (Sec. 41 [E], P.D.
No. 49a).
A. Replication
B. Reproduction
C. Recreation
D. Regeneration

9. Deferment for complying to minimum credit units of an architect due to unforeseen circumstances should not
exceed how many months?
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

10. What is the consequence of not recording an assignment, license, or other instrument relating to patents
within the specified time frame?
a. It becomes void against any subsequent purchaser or mortgagee.
b. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in court.
c. It is automatically extended for another three months.
d. It is considered as pending until the recording is completed.

11. The Professional Track is divided into 5 different major areas which are?
a. Design, Building Technology, Sustainability, Ethics, Interior Design
b. Design, Building Science, Environment, Sustainability, Tropical Design
c. Design, Building Science, Practice, Sustainability and Environment, Others
d. Design, Building Utility, Practice, Sustainability and Environment, Others

12. The natural person whose name is indicated on a work in the usual manner as the author shall, in the
absence of proof to the contrary, be presumed to be the author of the work. This provision shall be applicable
even if the name is a pseudonym, where the a pseudonym leaves no doubt as to the identity of the author.
A. SEC. 219. Presumption of Ownership.
B. SEC. 219. Presumption of Property,
C. SEC. 219. Presumption of Composition.
D. SEC. 219. Presumption of Authorship.

13. This refers to the creation of scholarly ideas/work such as technical or professional books, instructional
materials, design and the like.
a. Research
b. Accreditation
c. Authorship
d. Composition

14. How is the second member of the CPD council selected if there is no national organization of deans or
department chairpersons for the relevant field?
a. The PRC appoints the second member directly.
b. The PRB concerned chooses the second member from their existing members.
c. The second member is selected through a public examination.
d. The PRB submits a list of three qualified individuals from the academe, and the PRC
designates the second member from this list.

15. What is a work created by an officer or employee of the Philippine Government or any of its subdivisions
and instrumentalities, including government-owned or controlled corporations as part of his regularly
prescribed official duties?
A. Work of the Government of the Philippines
B. Work of the Administration of the Philippines
C. Work of the Philippine Government
D. Work of the Republic of the Philippines

16. What options are available for registered professionals working abroad to earn
CPD credits?
a. They cannot earn CPD credits while working abroad
b. They can only earn CPD credits through accredited providers
c. They can earn CPD credits through both accredited and non-accredited providers
d. They can earn CPD credits only through non-accredited providers

17. It means any visible sign designated as such in the application for registration and capable of
distinguishing the origin or any other common characteristic, including the quality of goods or services of
different enterprises which use the sign under the control of the registered owner of the collective mark.
a. Trade name
b. Trademark
c. Mark
d. Collective Mark

18. What is the consequence of not recording an assignment, license, or other instrument
relating to patents within the specified time frame?
a. It becomes void against any subsequent purchaser or mortgagee.
b. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in court.
c. It is automatically extended for another three months.
d. It is considered as pending until the recording is completed.

19. Can CPD credits earned in excess of the required amount be carried over to the next compliance period?
a. Yes, without any exceptions
b. Yes, with the exception of credits earned from doctorate or master’s degree programs
c. No, they cannot be carried over
d. No, unless approved by the CPD Council

20. This refers to the quality assured national system for the development, recognition and award of
qualifications at defined levels, based on standards of knowledge, skills and values, acquired in different ways
and methods by learners and workers.
a. Pathways and Equivalencies
b. Philippine Qualifications Framework .
c. ASEAN MRA
d. National Standards for Quality Assurance
21. Which of the following is not under the Sec. 222. Points of Attachment for Performers.
The provisions of this Act on the protection of performers shall apply to performers who
are not nationals of the Philippines but whose performances are:
A. Take place in the Philippines
B. Are incorporated in sound recordings that are protected under this Act
C. Take place outside of the Philippines
D. Which has not been fixed in sound recording but are carried by broadcast
qualifying for protection under this Act

22. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every sale or lease of an original work of painting or sculpture or of
the original manuscript of a writer or composer, subsequent to the first disposition thereof by the author, the
author or his heirs shall have an inalienable right to participate in the gross proceeds of the sale or lease to the
extent of how many Percentage?
A. Two percent (2%)
B. Five percent (5%)
C. Ten percent (10%)
D. Twelve percent (12%)

23. During what day of the month should the CPDC for Architects be mandated to have meetings?
a. 3rd Saturday
b. 2nd Wednesday
c. 2nd Tuesday
d. 3rd Wednesday

TRUE OR FALSE

24. According to RA 8293, patents protect inventions or discoveries, granting the patent holder
exclusive rights to use and sell the invention for a limited period. True

25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) is responsible for
accrediting CPD providers and programs. True

26.infringement is the unauthorized use of intellectual property. True

27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of articles,
granting their creators exclusive rights to reproduce and distribute them. True

28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires professionals to complete a minimum of 120 CPD units within a
two-year cycle, with at least 30 units earned from accredited activities, to renew their licenses, while
the remaining 90 units can be obtained through self-directed learning. False

29.According to RA 8293, intellectual property rights are granted indefinitely, without any limitations
on their duration. False
30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows professionals to renew their licenses without completing any CPD
units if they can demonstrate significant contributions to their field through published works or
patents. False

31. Under RA 8293, the protection of intellectual property rights extends to ideas and concepts
themselves, regardless of their expression in tangible form.false False

32. Failure to comply with CPD requirements may result in the non-renewal or suspension of a
professional license under the CPD Act of 2016. True

33. According to the CPD Act of 2016, professionals can obtain CPD units by attending social events
and networking activities relevant to their field, even if they are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC). False
 ARCHITECTURE ACT OF 2004
1. What Section in Article IV Practice of Architecture contains “No person shall practice
architecture in this country, or engage in preparing architectural plans, specification or
preliminary data for the erection or alteration of any building located within the boundaries
of this country or use the title "Architect," or display or use any title, sign, card,
advertisement, or other device to indicate such person practices or offers to practice
architecture, or is an architect, unless such person shall have received from the Board a
Certificate of Registration and be issued a Professional Identification Card in the manner
hereinafter provided and shall thereafter comply with the provisions of this Act.” ?

A. SECTION 25. Registration of Architects Required

B. SECTION 30. Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture
C. SECTION 26. Vested Rights: Architects Registered When this Law is
Passed. D. SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of Non-Registered
Persons.

2. What Article in Republic Act No.9266 contains provisions regarding the composition and
functions of the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture?

A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE

B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF
ARCHITECTURE
C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF ARCHITECTURE
D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions

3. In SECTION 31. Liability of Representatives of Non-Registered Persons. It shall be

unlawful for any person or firm or corporation to seek to avoid the provisions of this Act
by having a representative or employee seek architectural work in their behalf, unless
and until, such persons have duly qualified and are duly __________, otherwise, both
those represented and representative, the employer and the employee shall be deemed
guilty of violation of this Act.

A. Forbid
B. Registered/licensed
C. Noted
D. First

4. In SECTION 37. Limitation to the Registration of a Firm, Company, Partnership,

Corporation or Association. The practice of ___________ is a professional service,
admission to which shall be determined upon the basis of individual personal
qualifications.

A. Engineering
B. Accountancy
C. Architecture
D. Communications

5. What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article IV?

A. Continuing Professional Development

 B. Certificate in Professional Development
C. Community Planning & Development
D. Campus Planning Design

6. What Section in Article IV Practice of Architecture contains “Persons not registered as an

architect shall not claim nor represent either services or work as equivalent to those of a
duly qualified registered architect, or that they are qualified for any branch or functions of
function of architectural practice, even though no form of the title "Architect" is used.”

A. SECTION 35. Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and

Licensed Architects.
B. SECTION 27. Reciprocity Requirements.
C. SECTION 34. Non-Registered Person Shall Not Claim Equivalent
Service
D. SECTION 33. Ownership of Plans, Specifications and other Contract
Documents.

7. According to the Section 30 Article VI, when such actions are deemed a misdeed, how
much will the fine offender may face?

A. P20,000.00
B. P200,000.00
C. P2,000,000.00
D. P20,000.00

8. In Section 33 Article IV, What should be duly signed, stamped or sealed, as instruments of
service, are the intellectual property and documents of the architect?

A. Drawings and specifications and other contract documents

B. Blueprints
C. Working Drawing
D. All of the above

9. In SECTION 35. Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and

Licensed Architects. Within _ years from the effectiveness of this Act, all existing and
proposed positions in the local and national government, whether career, permanent,
temporary or contractual and primarily requiring the services of an architect shall be filled
only by registered and licensed architects.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 10

10. What Section in Article IV states that only the Architect-of-record is fully responsible for
all architectural plans, specifications, and other documents issued under their seal or
authorized signature?

A. Section 35
B. Section 34
C. Section 33
D. Section 32
11. In Section 13 of Article III, which is not part of the qualifications of applicant for
examination?

A. He/she is a Filipino citizen or a citizen of a foreign country

B. He/she is of good moral character
C. He/she is a holder of a degree of Bachelor of Science in Architecture
D. He/she has been convicted of any criminal offense involving moral
turpitude.

12. According to Article III Section 14, the examination shall cover the following

subjects except:

A. History and Theory of Architecture; Principles of Planning and Architectural

Practice; B. Structural Design, Building Materials, and Architectural Specifications,
and Methods of Construction and Utilities;
C. Architectural Surveying
D. Architectural Design and Site Planning.

13. In Article III SECTION 24. Re-issuance or Replacement of Revoked or Lost Certificates
of Registration Professional Identification Card or Special and Temporary Permit. - The
Board may, after the expiration of ______ years from the date of revocation of a
Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card or special/temporary permit,
and upon application and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity
of a revoked Certificate of Registration and in so doing may, in its discretion, exempt the
applicant from taking another examination.

A. 3
B. 2
C. 6
D. 4

14. In Article III SECTION 20. Seal, Issuance and Use of Seal, A duly licensed architect shall
affix the seal prescribed by the Board bearing the registrant's name, registration number
and title _______ on all architectural plans, drawings, specifications and all other contract
documents prepared by or under his/her direct supervision.

A. Architect
B. Mr./Mrs.
C. Designer
D. Engineer

15. According to Article III SECTION 15. Rating in the Licensure Examination. - To be
qualified as having passed the licensure examination for architects, a candidate must
obtain a weighted general average of _________, with no grade lower than fifty percent
(50%) in any given subject.

A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 75%
D. 80%
16. SECTION 16. Report of Ratings. - The Board shall submit to the Commission the
ratings obtained by each candidate within _________ calendar days after the
examination, unless extended for just cause. Upon the release of the results of the
examination, the Board shall send by mail the rating received by each examinee at
his/her given address using the mailing envelope submitted during the examination.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

17. The Architecture Act of 2004 is also known as

A. Republic Act No. 8293

B. Republic Act No. 9266
C. Republic Act No.545
D. Republic Act No.3866

18. What official body formulates rules and regulations relating to signing and sealing of
drawings, specifications, and other documents registered by Architects?
A. Board of Architecture
B. Professional Regulation Commision
C. United Architects of the Philippines
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects

19. What do you call the list that shows the names and place of business of all registered
professional architects?

A. Directory
B. Schedule
C. Roster
D. Record

20. This article outlines the requirements and procedures for the examination, registration,
and licensure of architects in the Philippines, detailing the qualifications for applicants,
subjects covered by the examination, passing criteria, issuance of professional
identification, and the regulatory framework for maintaining and enforcing professional
standards.

A. ARTICLE III EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE

B. ARTICLE II PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF
ARCHITECTURE C. ARTICLE IV PRACTICE OF ARCHITECTURE
D. ARTICLE V Final Provisions

21. It is the art, science or profession of planning, designing and constructing buildings in
their totality taking into account their environment, in accordance with the principles of
utility, strength and beauty.

A. Architecture
B. Engineering
 C. Interior Designing
D. Home Planning

22. The following are qualifications of being a member of the Professional Regulatory Board
except one.

A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines.

B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture conferred by a
school, college or university in the Philippines or abroad that is recognized and/or
accredited by the Commission on Higher Education (CHED).
C. Has never been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude.
D. Be at least 24 years of age.

23. ____________ means a sole proprietorship, a partnership or a corporation registered

with the proper government agencies.

A. House of the President

B. Law Firm
C. Architectural Firm
D. Hospital

24. _______________ means the architect registered and licensed under this Act, who is
directly and professionally responsible for the total design of the project for the client and
who shall assume the civil liability for the plans, specifications and contract documents
he/she has signed and sealed.

A. Architect-in-charge of construction
B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect
D. Architect-of-construction

25. DTI stands for;

A. Department of Trade and Industry

B. Department of Technology and Innovation
C. Department of Trust Fund and Income
D. Department of Tourism Involvement

26. It means the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type, disposition,
arrangement and proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work giving
due consideration to safety, cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetics.

A. Structural Planning
B. Structural Building
C. Structural Evolution
D. Structural Conceptualization
27. ____________ means the architect registered and licensed or permitted to practice
under this Act, who is professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or
recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of architecture.

A. Architect-in-charge of construction
B. Architect-of-record
 C. Consulting Architect
D. Architect-of-construction

28. Under what article does the “Powers and Functions of the Board” fall under?
A. ARTICLE II: PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARD OF ARCHITECTURE
B. ARTICLE III: EXAMINATION, REGISTRATION AND LICENSURE
C. ARTICLE IV: PRACTICE OF ARCHITECTURE
D. ARTICLE V: FINAL PROVISIONS

29. SEC stands for;

A. Special Exchange Commission

B. Security Enforcement Commision
C. Secured Exchange Contract
D. Securities of Exchange Commission

30. _____________ means an architect registered and licensed under this Act, who is
directly and professionally responsible and liable for the construction supervision of the
project.

A. Architect-in-charge of construction
B. Architect-of-record
C. Consulting Architect
D. Architect-of-construction

31. According to Sec 36 of article IV “It shall be unlawful for any unregistered person to
collect a fee for architectural services except: _____
A. as a student collecting a fee for his/her own service
B. as an employee
C. as an employee collecting a fee as a representative of a Registered
Architect.
D. as a citizen

32. A group of newly licensed architects and their friends wanted to put-up an architectural
firm. How many percent of the corporation should be owned by the Architects?
A. at least seventy-five percent (75%)
B. At least twenty-five percent (25%)
C. At least sixty-five percent (65%)
D. At least seventy-three percent (73%)

33. Who is responsible for enforcing the IRR of RA 9266?

A. Secretary of Justice
B. Commission and the Board
C. Architects
D. Contractors

34. The SEC 43 of The Architecture Act of 2004 states that :” This Act shall not be construed
to affect or prevent the practice of any other legally recognized profession.”
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
 D. None of the above

35. According to Sec 37 of the article VI, who can only form among themselves, or together
with allied technical professionals and obtain registration as a firm, company, partnership,
association or corporation for the practice of architecture?
A. Registered and licensed Filipino Architect
B. Newly passed Filipino Architects
C. Newly Graduate Filipino Architects
D. Filipino Architecture Apprentice

36. It refers to the author or authors of a set of architectural plans or specifications who are in
charge of their preparation, whether made by them personally or under their immediate
supervision
A. Autorship
B. Leadership
C. Board
D. Commission

37. It means a duly notarized written contract or equivalent public instrument stipulating the
scope of services and guaranteeing compensation of such services to be rendered by an
architect registered and licensed under this Act;
A. Commission
B. Service Agreement
C. Autorship
D. Architectural Agreement

38. It pertains to the existing official national organization of all architects of the Philippines in
which all registered Filipino architects shall be members without prejudice to membership
in other voluntary professional associations;
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Securities of Exchange
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects

39. Which of the following is not included in the scope of practice of

architecture? A. Physical and planning and the design
B. Construction
C. Restoration or alteration of a building or a group of buildings
D. None of the above

40. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience of 2 years required of a graduate of

architecture prior to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a variation of
experiences in the different phases of architectural service.
A. Architectural Experience
B. Architectural Specialization
C. Diversified Architectural Experience
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization

RA8981: PRC Modernization Act of 2000 &

 PRBoA Resolutions
1. According to Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what percentage of the owners,
shareholders, members, incorporators, directors, or executive officers of a registered
architectural firm must be registered and licensed architects?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%

2. CHED shall prepare and promulgate the necessary rules and regulations needed to
implement the provisions of this Act within how many days in accordance to Section 17?
a. 15 working days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

3. Section 21. Effectivity – This Act shall take effect after days following its publication in
the Official Gazette or in two (2) newspapers of general circulation, whichever is earlier.
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

4. In accordance to Section 14. Authority to Use Income, the Commission is authorized to

use its income not exceeding the amount of a year for a period of five (5) years after the
effectivity of this Act
a. P4, 500, 000.00
b. P45,000.00
c. P45,000,000.00
d. P4,500.00

5. How many sections does the Republic Act No. 8981 has?
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22

6. Section 15. Penalties for Manipulation and Other Practices in the Conduct of
Professional Examinations
a. Corrupt
b. Unjustified
c. Erroneous
d. Criminal

7. Section 20. Repealing Clause – Republic Act. No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, as
amended by , Republic Act No. 5181, and Executive Order No. 266, Series of 1995 are
hereby repealed. Section 23 (h) of Republic Act No. 7836, Section 4 (m & s). Section 23
of Republic Act No. 7920, and Section 29 of Republic Act No. 8050, insofar as it requires
completion of the requirements of the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) as a
 condition for the renewal of the license, are hereby repealed. All other laws, orders, rules
and regulations or resolutions and all parts thereof inconsistent with the provisions of this
Act are hereby repealed or amended accordingly.
a. Presidential Decree No. 657
b. Presidential Decree No. 6563
c. Presidential Decree No. 576
d. Presidential Decree No. 765

8. In accordance with Section 18: Transitory Provisions, the incumbent executive director
shall serve the position without the need of new appointment.
a. Assistant Commissioner
b. Chairperson
c. Commissioners
d. Director

9. Under the Mnemonics of PRC given by PRC, what does P stands for
a. Professionalism and Integrity
b. Patriotism and Integrity
c. Professionalism and Unity
d. Patriotism and Excellence

10. What permit is required for foreign architects to be allowed to engage in professional
architecture projects in the Philippines?
a. Special/Temporary Permit
b. Sanitary Permit
c. Safety Permit
d. Sales Tax Permit

11. What section states that, “Any provision of this Act or the application of such provision to
any person or circumstances is declared invalid or unconstitutional, the remainder of this
Act or application of such provisions to other persons or circumstance shall not be
affected by such declaration.”
a. Section 17. Implementing Rules and Regulations
b. Section 18. Transitory Provisions Commissioners
c. Section 19. Separability Clause
d. Section 20. Repealing Clause

12. In accordance to Section 11. Person to Teach Subjects for Licensure Examination on all
Professions, all subjects for licensure examinations shall be taught by persons who
comply with the other requirements of what Philippine Government Agency?
a. DEPED
b. CHED
c. DOF
d. DOLE

13. Which of the following professionals can compose the remaining 25% ownership of
architectural firms or entities, as stated in Rule II of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07?
a. Filipino citizens without any professional license
b. Foreign architects
c. Filipino lawyers who are not members of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
d. Filipino allied technical or technological professionals separately registered
 and licensed by the concerned boards and the Commission.

14. PRC stands for:

a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Philippine Regulation Commission
c. Philippine Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Commission

15. Under Section 7 of Republic Act 8981, PRC has a function to administer and conduct the
licensure examinations of the various regulatory boards in accordance with the rules and
regulations promulgated by the Commission; determine and fix the places and dates of
examinations; use publicly or privately owned buildings and facilities for 4 examination
purposes; conduct more than one (1) licensure examination provided the following
except:
a. when there are two (2) or more examinations given in a year, at least one (1)
examinations shall be held on weekdays (Monday to Friday)
b. if only one (1) examination is given in a year, this shall be held only on
weekdays
c. the Commission is also authorized to require the completion of a refresher
course where the examinee has failed to pass three (3) times, except as
otherwise provided by law
d. none of the above
e. all of the above

16. SPLBE stands for:

a. Special Professional Licensure Board Examinations
b. Senior Practice Licensure Board Examinations
c. Specific Partnership Licensure Board Examinations
d. Selective Performance Licensure Board Examinations

17. What is the period of validity for the Certificate of Registration issued to architectural
firms or entities, according to Rule III of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

18. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what action must a non-registered
architectural firm or entity take upon receipt of a written notice of non-registration from
the Board?
a. Continue operating without changes.
b. Immediately apply for registration
c. File an appeal with the Board.
d. Cease engagement in the practice of architecture.

19. Under “F” of Section 7 of the Republic Act 8981, the PRC have the custody of all the
records of the various boards including the following except:
a. Examination papers
b. Minutes of deliberation
c. Examination results
d. Records of failed examinees
20. According to Section 9, (c.) To hear and investigate cases arising from violations of their
respective laws, the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder and their Codes of
Ethics and, for this purpose, may issue summons, subpoena and subpoena duces tecum
to alleged violators and/or witnesses to compel their attendance in such investigations or
hearings: Provided, That, the decision of the Professional Regulatory Board shall, unless
appealed to the Commission, become final and executory after from receipt of notice of
judgment or decision
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

21. Which of the following is not included in the powers, functions, and responsibilities of the
Commission under Republic Act 8981
a. To adopt and institute a comprehensive rating system for universities,
colleges, and training institutes based on the passing ratio and overall
performance of students in board examinations
b. To exercise administrative supervision over the various professional regulatory
boards and its members
c. To adopt and promulgate such rules and regulations as may be necessary to
effectively implement policies with respect to the regulation and practice of the
professions;
d. None of the above

22. PRC is required to submit and recommend to the President of the Philippines the names
of licensed/registered professionals for appointment as members of the various
Professional Regulatory Boards from among those nominated to fill up vacancies
pursuant to the provisions of Executive Order No. 496, Series of 1991
a. True
b. False

23. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act 8981, the PRC has the power to
administer, implement and enforce the regulatory policies of the national government
with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations
under its jurisdiction including the enhancement and maintenance of professional and
occupational standards and ethics and the enforcement of the rules and regulations
relative thereto Statement 2: They have the power to perform any and all acts, enter into
contracts, make such rules and regulations and issue such orders and other
administrative issuance as may be necessary in the execution and implementation of its
functions and the improvement of its services
a. First statement is true; Second statement is False
b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. statements are False

24. Under Section 4 of Republic Act 8981, the President shall appoint the commission for
how many years?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
 d. 8
25. The __________ served as the primary spokes-entity for the nine (9) PRBs makingup
the Philippine Technology (i.e. Non-Engineering) Professions.
a. PRBCB
b. PRBCE
c. PRBRES
d. PRBoA

26. Section 2 entitled “Statement of the Policy” of Republic Act No. 8981 states that, “The
members of the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive compensation equivalent
to, at least, two salary grades lower than the salary grade of the Commissioners:
Provided, That the Chairperson of the Regulatory Board shall receive a monthly
compensation of two steps higher than the members of the Board, and: Provided,
further, That they shall be entitled to other allowances and benefits provided under
existing laws”.
a. True
b. False

27. Which of the following PRBoA Resolutions call for the conversion of the Logbook of
Diversified Experience in Architecture as a downloadable form from the United Architects
of the Philippines website?
a. PRBoA Resolution No. 10 Series of 2021
b. PRBoA Resolution No. 17 Series of 2012
c. PRBoA Resolution No. 12 Series of 2008
d. PRBoA Resolution No. 05 Series of 2010

28. Statement 1: Under Section 7 of Republic Act 8981, PRC has the power to hold in
contempt in erring party or person only upon application with a court of competent
jurisdiction. Statement 2: They have no power to perform such other functions and duties
as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of Republic Act 8981, the various
professional regulatory laws, decrees, executive orders and other administrative
issuance.
a. First statement is true; Second statement is False
b. First statement is False; Second statement is True
c. Both statements are True
d. Both statements are False

29. The PRBoA was fully reconstituted as of March 30, 2007, in full compliance with
__________.
a. R.A. No. 545
b. R.A. No. 9266
c. R.A. No. 1581
d. R.A. No. 386

30. Which of the following is not a purpose of the PRBoA?

a. Suspension of any member of the Board
b. Regulation and Licensing
c. Administration of the Architecture Licensure Examination
d. Implementation and Enforcement of the Republic Act No. 9266

31. What section states that “Any law enforcement agency shall, upon call or request of the
 Commission or of any Professional Regulatory Board, render assistance in enforcing the
regulatory law of the profession including the rules and regulations promulgated
thereunder by prosecuting the violators thereof in accordance with law and the rules of
court.”
a. Section 10
b. Section 14
c. Section 17
d. Section 12

32. Under Section 3 of the Republic Act No. 8981, “There is hereby created a three-man
commission to be known as the Professional Regulation Commission”. This is composed
of the following except:
a. 1 full time chair person
b. 2 full time commissioners
c. 1 part time commissioner
d. Both a and b

33. According to Rule V of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what is the registration fee for
initial registration, renewal, or request for reinstatement?
a. P500.00
b. P1,000.00
c. P1,500.00
d. P2,000.00

34. Which of the following entities is required to renew their registration every three (3)
years?
a. Individual architects only
b. Architectural partnerships only
c. Architectural firms, companies, partnerships, corporations, or associations
d. Non-registered and non-licensed persons involved in architectural practice
35. FOP stands for:
a. Final on Practice
b. Finance on Permits
c. Formality of Performance
d. Field of Practice
36. Section 10. Compensation of the Members of the Professional Regulatory Boards – The
members of the Professional Regulatory Boards shall receive compensation equivalent
to, at least, lower than the salary grade of the Commissioners: Provided, That the
Chairperson of the Regulatory Board shall receive a monthly compensation of two steps
higher than the members of the Board, and: Provided, further, that they shall be entitled
to other allowances and benefits provided under existing laws.
a. one salary grades
b. two salary grades
c. three salary grades
d. four salary grades
37. The sum of the total number of hours accomplished from the entire FOP Total number of
hours shall not be less than the required _______.
a. 3,840 hours
b. 3,850 hours
c. 3,860 hours
d. 3,870 hours
38. What action can the Board take against architectural firms or entities found violating the
rules and regulations?
a. Issue a warning letter.
b. Offer a grace period for compliance.
c. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of Registration
d. Impose a fine without further consequences.
39. As stated in PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, this group is responsible for issuing
Certificates of Registration to architectural firms or entities.
a. The Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects
(IAPOA).
b. The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
c. The Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) through the Board.
d. The Department of Trade and Industry (DTI).
40. Section 9. Powers, Functions and of the Various Professional Regulatory Boards
a. Regulations
b. Occupation
c. Responsibilities
d. Appropriations

CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT

ACT OF 2016
1. What is the purpose of CPD for registered and licensed professionals under the
PRC?
a. To increase government revenue
b. To ensure professionals keep learning and improving their skills
c. To create unnecessary bureaucratic hurdles
d. To restrict professional development

2. Can CPD credits earned in excess of the required amount be carried over to the
next compliance period?
a. Yes, without any exceptions
b. Yes, with the exception of credits earned from doctorate or master’s degree programs
c. No, they cannot be carried over
d. No, unless approved by the CPD Council

3. Which refers to the document issued by the PRC signifying that the person
named therein has complied with all the legal and procedural requirements for
such issuance, including, in appropriate cases, passing the licensure
examination or registration without examination?
a. Certificate of Registration
b. CPD credit unit
c. Professional ID
d. Authorship
4. What are some activities or programs through which professionals can earn CPD
credits?
a. Only attending international conferences
b. Only reading professional journals
c. Participating in programs initiated by the PRC and the PRB
d. Attending recreational events

5. What options are available for registered professionals working abroad to earn
CPD credits?
a. They cannot earn CPD credits while working abroad
b. They can only earn CPD credits through accredited providers
c. They can earn CPD credits through both accredited and non-accredited providers
d. They can earn CPD credits only through non-accredited providers

6. What penalties could professionals face for fraudulent acts related to CPD?

a. Warning letters only

b. Suspension or revocation of professional registration
c. Monetary fines
d. No penalties for fraudulent acts

7. Which of the following are NOT included in the CPD programs?

a. Informal Learning
b. Non Formal Learning
c. Self-directed Learning
d. Interactive Learning

8. Why is the CPD Council Secretariat created?

a. To manage the finances of the CPD Councils.
b. To conduct and deliver CPD programs.
c. To provide technical, administrative, and operational support to the CPD Councils and
PRBs in implementing CPD programs.
d. To set the fees for CPD programs.

9. This refers to the creation of scholarly ideas/work such as technical or

professional books, instructional materials, design and the like.

a. Research
b. Accreditation
c. Authorship
d. Composition

10. How is the second member of the CPD council selected if there is no national
organization of deans or department chairpersons for the relevant field?
a. The PRC appoints the second member directly.
b. The PRB concerned chooses the second member from their existing members.
c. The second member is selected through a public examination.
d. The PRB submits a list of three qualified individuals from the academe, and the PRC
designates the second member from this list.

11. Who are the people that constitute the CPD Council?
a. Chairman, Secretary, and Members
b. Chairman, First Member, and Second Member
c. Director, Chairman, and Member
d. Director, Chairman, and Secretary

12. Which of the following is NOT a function, power, and responsibility of the CPD
Council?
a. Evaluate and act on applications for accreditation of CPD Providers and their CPD
Programs.
b. Develop and evaluate the CPD Programs and ensure cohesiveness and quality.
c. Conduct researches, studies and benchmarking for international alignment of the
CPD Programs.
d. Issue operational guidelines, with the approval of the PRC and the PRB concerned.

13. This refers to the quality assured national system for the development,
recognition and award of qualifications at defined levels, based on standards of
knowledge, skills and values, acquired in different ways and methods by learners
and workers.
a. Pathways and Equivalencies
b. Philippine Qualifications Framework .
c. ASEAN MRA
d. National Standards for Quality Assurance

14. This refers to a body created to promote and ensure the continuous
improvement of professionals, in accordance with national, regional and
international standards of practice.
a. CPD Council
b. AIPO/Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professorial Chair
d. CPD Body

15. This refers to learning that has been acquired in addition or alternatively to
formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to
educational and training arrangements
a. Lifelong Learning
b. Informal Learning
c. Formal Learning
d. Non-formal Learning
 16. How many credit units are creditable for Self-learning and/or Lifelong Learning
per compliance period?
a. 45
b. 17.5
c. 10 (According to Section 4 of PRBOA Resolution No. 4 S. 2017)
d. 25

17. Deferment for complying to minimum credit units of an architect due to

unforeseen circumstances should not exceed how many months?

a. 12 months (According to Section 9 of PRBOA Resolution No. 4 S. 2017)

b. 6 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

18. During what day of the month should the CPDC for Architects be mandated to
have meetings?
a. 3rd Saturday
b. 2nd Wednesday
c. 2nd Tuesday (According to Section 1 of PRBOA Resolution No. 4 S. 2017)
d. 3rd Wednesday

19. The Professional Track is divided into 5 different major areas which are?
a. Design, Building Technology, Sustainability, Ethics, Interior Design
b. Design, Building Science, Environment, Sustainability, Tropical Design
c. Design, Building Science, Practice, Sustainability and Environment, Others
(According to Section 7 of PRBOA Resolution No. 7 S. 2017)
d. Design, Building Utility, Practice, Sustainability and Environment, Others

20. Can overseas architects also participate in any CPD Program/Activities?

a. Yes, but cannot be credited for applying credit units.
b. Yes, through attending programs of accredited CPD Providers.
c. No, since they are not here in the Philippines.
d. No, since they cannot apply for credit units.

21. What is the timeline for CPD credit requirements for renewing the Professional
Identification Card (PIC) from July to December 2017?
a. No CPD credits required.
b. 30% of total CPD credits required.
c. 60% of total CPD credits required.
d. 100% of total CPD credits required.

22. What is the primary role of government agencies and private companies in
relation to CPD?
a. They have no role in CPD.
b. They should hinder professional development.
c. They should include CPD in their plans for developing their employees.
d. They should discourage professionals from participating in CPD activities.

23. What does the "Separability Clause" in Section 17 of R.A. 10912 mean?
a. It ensures professionals separate their personal and professional lives.
b. It allows for the removal of invalid parts of the CPD rules without affecting the rest.
c. It ensures professionals separate from their employers.
d. It allows professionals to separate themselves from CPD requirements.

24. What is the purpose of the "Repealing Clause" in Section 18 of R.A. 10912?
a. To repeal the CPD requirement altogether.
b. To ensure old laws are not changed.
c. To cancel or change old laws conflicting with R.A. 10912.
d. To increase bureaucracy.

25. When do the rules (IRR) of R.A. 10912 start to apply according to the
"Effectivity" section?
a. Immediately upon approval by the CPD Council.
b. 30 days after publication in the Official Gazette.
c. 15 days after being fully published in the Official Gazette or in a widely read
newspaper in the Philippines.
d. After one year of publication.

26. Refers to a non-degree post graduate training program such as externship,

residency and fellowship in specialty and sub-specialty program/s or
diplomates conferred by an organization or society recognized by the
pertinent government authority.

a. Specified Training
b. Specialization
c. Specialty Training
d. Special Degree

27. Refers to planned and systematic processes that provide confidence in the
design, delivery and award of qualifications within an education and training
system, and is a component of quality management that is focused on
ensuring that quality requirements will be fulfilled.

a. Qualified Background
b. Prior Learning
c. Lifelong Learning
d. Quality Assurance

28. Refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and competencies that have been
acquired through work experience, training, independent study, volunteer
activities and hobbies, that may be applied for academic credit, as requirement
of a training program or for occupational certification;

a. Prior Learning
b. Lifelong Learning
c. Formal Learning
d. Specialty Training

29. Refer to structured or unstructured learning initiatives, which make use of the
internet and other web-based Information and Communications Technology
solutions;

a. Online Learning Activities

b. Online Learning
c. Digital Training
d. Digital Learning Activities

30. Refer to what a learner can be expected to know, understand and/or

demonstrate as a result of a learning experience; LEARNING OUTCOMES

a. Effective Experience
b. Resulting Outcomes
c. Learning Outcomes
d. Learning Turnover

31. The PRBOA Resolution No. 4 Series of 2017 is the Operational Guidelines in the
Implementation of RA 10912 for Architects.

a. True
b. False

32. All architects are required to comply with certain CPD credit units in a
compliance period, how many years is this compliance period?

a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 6

33. There is no age limit in complying with CPD credit units.

a. True, as long as you are able you may comply.

b. True, as long as you want to renew your licence.
c. False, senior citizens are not qualified.
d. False, it is a personal decision to comply.
34. You cannot gain CPD credit units by travelling.

a. True
b. False

35. Winning an International Award is equivalent to?

a. Full CU for 10 compliance period

b. Full CU for 3 compliance period
c. Full CU for 5 compliance period
d. Full CU for 4 compliance period

36. It is hereby created at the PRC Central and Regional Offices to provide
technical, administrative and operational support to the CPD Councils and the
PRBs in the
implementation of the CPD Programs.

a. Secretariat
b. First Member
c. Second Member
d. Chairperson

37. Every CPD Council shall be composed of?

a. Chairman and 3 Members

b. Chairperson and 2 members
c. Chairperson and Secretariat
d. President and Chairperson

38. He/She shall exercise general supervision and control over the staff of CPD
Secretariat.

a. Chairperson
b. The First Member
c. Executive President
d. Executive Director

39. The first and second members shall have a term of office of how many years?

a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
 d. 4 years

40. One of the function of the Secretariat is to release the Certificate of

Accreditation ("COA") of qualified CPD providers, the Certificate of Accreditation of
Program/s ("COAP"), and the Certificate of Credit Units (CCU) for self-directed
and/or lifelong learning.

a. True
b. False

INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY CODE OF

THE PHILIPPINES
1. Who appoints the Director General, Deputies Director General, Directors, and Assistant
Directors?
A. The President
B. The Secretary of Trade and Industry
C. The Civil Service Law
D. The Office itself

2. What function is NOT mentioned among the functions of the Intellectual Property Office
according to Section 5?
A. Granting patents
B. Implement human resource development plans
C. Managing technology transfer
D. Encouraging the use of patent information

3. Which of the following statements accurately describes the retention and utilization of
funds by the Director General, based on the provided information?
A. The Director General requires approval from government agencies to retain and
utilize funds collected by the Office.
B. The retained funds can only be used for personal expenses of the Director
General.
C. The Director General has the autonomy to use the retained funds for various
office operations without separate approval.
D. The retained amount will be commingled with the Office's annual budget for
operational expenses.

4. Which of the following accurately describes the authority of the Director General in
seeking assistance, as outlined in Section 15?
A. The Director General has no authority to seek assistance from external entities.
B. The Director General can only seek assistance from government departments.
 C. The Director General has the authority to seek assistance from technical,
scientific, or other qualified officers and employees from various government entities
when necessary for matters related to the Act's enforcement.
D. The Director General can seek assistance only from privately owned
corporations.

5. What restrictions are placed on officers and employees of the Office regarding patents,
utility models, industrial designs, and marks, as per Section 19?
A. They are authorized from applying or acting as an attorney or patent agent.
B. They are only allowed to apply for patents during their employment.
C. They can acquire patents, utility models, or marks only through purchase.
D. They are prohibited from acquiring patents, utility models, or marks during thei
employment and for one year after leaving their position, except through hereditary
succession.

6. What constitutes prior art according to Section 24?

A. Only materials made available to the public in the Philippines before the filing date
or priority date of the application.
B. Everything made available to the public worldwide after the filing date or priority date
of the application.
C. Everything made available to the public worldwide before the filing date or
priority date of the application, including earlier applications filed in the
Philippines.
D. Only materials made available to the public in the Philippines after the filing date or
priority date of the application.

7. Who holds the right to a patent according to Section 28?

A. Only the inventor.
B. The inventor, their heirs, or assigns.
C. Only the heirs of the inventor.
D. The government.

8. What are the components required for a patent application according to Section 32?

A. The application must include a request, description, and necessary drawings, but
claims and an abstract are optional.
B. The application must be in English only, and it must include a description and
necessary drawings.
C. The application must include a request, description, necessary drawings, one or
more claims, and an abstract, and it can be in either Filipino or English.
D. The application must include a request and an abstract, but description, drawings,
and claims are optional.

9. What elements are required for the filing date of a patent application according to Section
 40?

A. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant identification, and a description with one

or more claims in Filipino only.
B. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant identification, and a description with one
or more claims in English only.
C. An indication of seeking a Philippine patent, applicant identification, and a description
with one or more claims in either Filipino or English.
D. An indication of seeking a patent, applicant identification, and a description with one
or more claims in any language.

10. What is the term of a patent according to Section 54?

A. 10 years from the filing date of the application.
B. 15 years from the filing date of the application.
C. 20 years from the priority date of the application.
D. 20 years from the filing date of the application.

11. Defined as original intellectual creations in the literary and artistic domain also referred to
as works.
A. Works of Government
B. Literary and Artistic Works
C. Derivative Works
D. Pseudonym Works

12. The permission granted under Subsection 187.1 shall not extend to the reproduction of
the following except?
A. A compilation of data and other materials
B. A work of architecture in the form of building or other construction
C. An entire book, or a substantial part thereof, or of a musical work in graphic form by
reprographic means
D. None of the above

13. Defined by Subsection 171.2 as a work which has been created by two (2) or more natural
persons at the initiative and under the direction of another with the understanding that it will
be disclosed by the latter under his own name and that contributing natural persons will not
be identified.
A. Collective work
B. Collaborative work
C. Partnership work
D. Joint work

14. In Sec. 200. Sale or Lease of Work. - In every sale or lease of an original work of painting
or sculpture or of the original manuscript of a writer or composer, subsequent to the first
disposition thereof by the author, the author or his heirs shall have an inalienable right to
participate in the gross proceeds of the sale or lease to the extent of how many
 percentage?
A. Two percent (2%)
B. Five percent (5%)
C. Ten percent (10%)
D. Twelve percent (12%)

15. According to Sec. 221. Points of Attachment for Works under Sections 172 and 173. The
protection afforded by this Act to copyrightable works under Sections 172 and 173 shall
apply to:
A. Works of foreign authors who have their habitual residence in the Philippines
B. Works first published in another country but also published in the Philippines
within sixty days, irrespective of the nationality or residence of the authors.
C. Filipino author whose work is first published outside of the Philippines
D. Audio-visual works the producer of which has his headquarters or habitual
residence in the Philippines

16. What is a work created by an officer or employee of the Philippine Government or any of
its subdivisions and instrumentalities, including government-owned or controlled
corporations as part of his regularly prescribed official duties?
A. Work of the Government of the Philippines
B. Work of the Administration of the Philippines
C. Work of the Philippine Government
D. Work of the Republic of the Philippines

17. The natural person whose name is indicated on a work in the usual manner as the author
shall, in the absence of proof to the contrary, be presumed to be the author of the work.
This provision shall be applicable even if the name is a pseudonym, where the pseudonym
leaves no doubt as to the identity of the author.
A. SEC. 219. Presumption of Ownership.
B. SEC. 219. Presumption of Property,
C. SEC. 219. Presumption of Composition.
D. SEC. 219. Presumption of Authorship.

18. Which of the following is not under the Sec. 222. Points of Attachment for Performers. The
provisions of this Act on the protection of performers shall apply to performers who are not
nationals of the Philippines but whose performances are:
A. Take place in the Philippines
B. Are incorporated in sound recordings that are protected under this Act
C. Take place outside of the Philippines
D. Which has not been fixed in sound recording but are carried by broadcast
qualifying for protection under this Act

19. What is defined as the natural person who has created the work?
A. Author
B. Writer
C. Creator
 D. Maker

20. The making of one (1) or more copies, temporary or permanent, in whole or in part, of a
work or a sound recording in any manner or form without prejudice to the provisions of
Section 185 of this Act (Sec. 41 [E], P.D. No. 49a).
A. Replication
B. Reproduction
C. Recreation
D. Regeneration

21. What is required before a license can be granted under Section 95?
a. The petitioner must file a petition with the Intellectual Property Office.
b. The petitioner must obtain authorization from the patent owner on any terms.
c. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain authorization from the patent owner on
reasonable commercial terms but without any time constraint.
d. The petitioner must make efforts to obtain authorization from the patent owner on
reasonable commercial terms within a reasonable period of time, but if
unsuccessful, a license may still be granted.

22. What action can be taken in cases involving highly technical issues according to Section
64?
a. The case will be automatically heard by a committee of three.
b. The party filing the motion will decide on the committee's composition.
c. The Director of Legal Affairs may order a committee of three to hear and decide the
case.
d. The case will be referred to a regular court for resolution.

23. Under what circumstances can damages be recovered for acts of infringement according
to Section 80?
a. Damages can be recovered regardless of the infringer's knowledge of the patent.
b. Damages can be recovered only if the infringer knew of the patent before
committing the infringement.
c. Damages can be recovered if the infringer had reasonable grounds to know of the
patent.
d. Damages can be recovered if the infringer acknowledges the patent in their
advertising.

24. What action does the court take if it finds a patent or any claim to be invalid in an
infringement case according to Section 82?
a. The court may ignore the invalidity and proceed with the infringement case.
b. The court may suspend the case pending further review of the patent's validity.
c. The court shall cancel the patent or claim and notify the Director of Legal Affairs.
d. The court may issue a warning to the patent holder.

25. What happens if a technology transfer arrangement does not conform with the provisions of
 Sections 87 and 88, according to Section 92?
a. It remains enforceable regardless of non-conformance.
b. It becomes automatically enforceable without registration.
c. It becomes automatically unenforceable unless approved and registered with the
Documentation, Information and Technology Transfer Bureau.
d. It needs approval from the Director General of the Intellectual Property Office to be
enforceable.

26. What are the required elements that must be included in a petition for compulsory
licensing, according to Section 98?
a. Name and address of the petitioner only
b. Name and address of the petitioner, respondents, and patentee
c. Name and address of the petitioner, respondents, and patentee, along with the
statutory grounds for compulsory licensing
d. Name and address of the petitioner, respondents, and patentee, along with the
statutory grounds for compulsory licensing and the relief prayed for

27. What types of assignments are permissible under Section 104?

a. Assignment of the entire right, title, or interest only
b. Assignment of an undivided share only
c. Both assignment of the entire right, title, or interest and assignment of an
undivided share
d. Assignment limited to a specified territory only

28. What is the consequence of not recording an assignment, license, or other instrument
relating to patents within the specified time frame?
a. It becomes void against any subsequent purchaser or mortgagee.
b. It remains valid but cannot be enforced in court.
c. It is automatically extended for another three months.
d. It is considered as pending until the recording is completed.

29. What are the rights and limitations of joint owners of a patent according to Section 107?
a. Joint owners can grant licenses without consent but must share proceeds equally.
b. Joint owners cannot make, use, or sell the invention individually.
c. Joint owners can make, use, sell, or import the invention individually but cannot
grant licenses or assign their rights without consent.
d. Joint owners have equal rights to grant licenses without consent

30. Under Section 115, when can two or more industrial designs be included in the same
application?
a. When they are completely unrelated
b. When they belong to different sub-classes of the International Classification.
c. When they relate to different sets of articles.
d. When they relate to the same sub-class of the International Classification or to the
same set or composition of articles.
31.It means any visible sign designated as such in the application for registration and
capable of distinguishing the origin or any other common characteristic, including the
quality of goods or services of different enterprises which use the sign under the control
of the registered owner of the collective mark.
a. Trade name
b. Trademark
c. Mark
d. Collective Mark

32. Under SEC 123, these are the reasons a mark cannot be registered EXCEPT?
a. Consists of immoral, deceptive or scandalous matter, or matter.
b. Is identical with a registered mark belonging to a different proprietor or a mark with
an earlier filing or priority date.
c. Is likely to mislead the public, particularly as to the nature, quality, characteristics
or geographical origin of the goods or services.
d. None of the above.

33. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the application of a trademark
registration according to Section 124.1?
a. A request for registration
b. The appointment of an agent or representative, if the applicant is not domiciled in
the Philippines
c. Declaration of actual use of the mark within three years from the filing date
d. Where the applicant claims color as a distinctive feature of the mark, a statement to
that effect

34. Which of the following statements regarding the opposition of trademark is FALSE
according to SEC 134?
a. Any person who believes that he would be damaged by the registration of a mark
may, upon payment of the required fee and within thirty (30) days
b. Opposition shall be in writing and verified by the oppositor or by any person on his
behalf who knows the facts
c. Copies of certificates of registration of marks registered in other countries or other
supporting documents shall be filed along with its english translation if not in english.
d. The director of Legal Affairs may not extend the time for filing an opposition.

35. A certificate of registration shall remain in for how many years?

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years

36. Which of the following statement regarding the Assignment and Transfer of Application
and REgistration if FALSE under SEC 149?
 a. An application for registration of a mark, or its registration, may be assigned or
transferred with or without the transfer of the business using the mark
b. Such assignment or transfer shall, however, be null and void if it is liable to
mislead the public, particularly as regards the nature, source, manufacturing
process, characteristics, or suitability for their purpose, of the goods or services
to which the mark is applied.
c. Assignments and transfers shall have no effect against third parties until they are
recorded at the Office.
d. None of the above.

37. Which of the following statements regarding the limitations to actions for infringement is
FALSE according to SEC 159?
a. a registered mark shall have an effect against any person who, in good faith,
before the filing date or the priority date, was using the mark for the purposes of
his business or enterprise
b. Where an infringer who is engaged solely in the business of printing the mark or
other infringing materials for others is an innocent infringer, the owner of the right
infringed shall be entitled as against such infringer only to an injunction against
future printing.
c. Where the infringement complained of is contained in or is part of paid
advertisement the remedies of the owner of the right infringed as against the
publisher or distributor of such newspaper, magazine, or other similar periodical
or electronic communication shall be limited to an injunction against the
presentation of such advertising matter in future issues
d. There shall be no infringement of trademarks or tradenames of imported or sold
drugs and medicines allowed under Section 72.1 of this Act, as well as imported
or sold off-patent drugs and medicines

38. Which of the following actions constitutes trademark infringement according to Section
155 of R.A. No. 166a?
a. Using a reproduction, counterfeit, copy, or colorable imitation of a registered mark
without consent in connection with the sale, offering for sale, distribution, or
advertising of goods or services, likely to cause confusion, mistake, or deception.
b. Reproducing, counterfeiting, copying, or colorably imitating a registered mark and
applying it to labels, signs, prints, packages, wrappers, receptacles, or
advertisements intended for use in commerce, causing confusion, mistake, or
deception.
c. Using a trademark that is similar to a registered mark, but with consent from the
owner, for advertising purposes without causing confusion, mistake, or deception.
d. Reproducing a registered mark for personal use without intent to sell or advertise
goods or services, regardless of the likelihood of confusion, mistake, or deception.

39. Which of the following statements regarding actions, damages, and injunction for
trademark infringement is NOT true according to Section 156 of R.A. No. 166a?
a. The owner of a registered mark may recover damages based on either the
 reasonable profit lost due to infringement, the profit gained by the infringer, or a
reasonable percentage of the infringer's gross sales or the value of services in
connection with the infringement.
b. The court may impound sales invoices and other documents evidencing sales
during the pendency of the action upon the complainant's application.
c. In cases where there is shown actual intent to mislead the public or defraud the
complainant, the damages may be doubled at the discretion of the court.
d. The complainant may not be granted injunction upon proper showing of trademark
infringement.

40. Which of the following actions would NOT be considered as unfair competition according
to Section 168 of R.A. No. 166a?
a. Giving goods the general appearance of goods of another manufacturer, likely to
influence purchasers to believe they are from a different source.
b. Employing means calculated to induce the false belief that one is offering the
services of another who has already established such services in the public's
mind.
c. Making false statements in the course of trade that discredit the goods, business,
or services of another.
d. Using a registered trademark without consent in connection with the sale, offering
for sale, distribution, or advertising of goods or services, likely to cause
confusion, mistake, or deception.

RA386: AN ACT TO ORDAIN AND INSTITUTE

THE CIVIL CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES
1. Under Book I: Title 1, It is referred to as the fitness to be the subject of legal relations. It
is inherent in every natural person and is lost only through death.
a. Capacity to Act
b. Civil Personality
c. Juridical Capacity
d. Juridical Person
2. What is considered the habitual residence of natural persons for the exercise of civil
rights and the fulfillment of civil obligations?
a. Domicile
b. Address
c. Home
d. Lodging
3. The following is considered as void marriages except:
a. Those involving killing of a spouse
b. Incestuous marriages
c. Those without proper authorization
d. Marriages contracted under age 13 for males and females
4. Public officials must respect freedom of religion and refrain from questioning the religious
beliefs of applicants or their churches when issuing authorizations.
 a. True
b. False
5. The petition for legal separation must be filed within _________ of becoming aware of
the cause and within five years of the cause occurring. The trial cannot occur until six
months after filing the petition.
a. Three months
b. One year
c. Nine months
d. 2 years
6. By default, the wife administers conjugal property, unless otherwise stipulated in the
marriage settlement or specified by law
a. True
b. False
7. Under Book I: Title VI, Future spouses may donate up to _______ of their present
property to each other in their marriage settlements.\
a. One-half
b. One-third
c. One-fourth
d. One-fifth
8. It is referred to as the dwelling house where a person and his family reside, and the land
on which it is situated.
a. Family Home
b. Family House
c. Family Dwelling
d. Family Abode
9. If adultery is committed around conception and it’s highly improbable the child is the
husband’s due to ethnic reasons, the child is presumed legitimate.
a. True
b. False
10. According to Book I: Title XIV, Absence can be declared if _________ pass without news
of the absentee, or five years if someone is managing their property.
a. Four years
b. Three years
c. Two years
d. One years

11. The Civil code of the Philippines is also known as?

a. Republic act 386.
b. Republic act 368
c. Republic act 863
d. Republic act 638

12. Which standard of evidence is sufficient to prove the act complained of in a separate civil
action brought to demand civil liability arising from a criminal offense when no criminal
proceedings are instituted during the pendency of the civil case?
a. Beyond a reasonable doubt
b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Absolute certainty
13. What legal presumption arises when someone is in actual possession of property under a
claim of ownership, according to Article 433 of the Civil Code of the Philippines?

a. Conclusive presumption of ownership

b. Rebuttable presumption of ownership
c. Disputable presumption of ownership
d. Absolute presumption of ownership

14. What does Article 437 of the Civil Code of the Philippines state regarding land ownership?

a. The owner of a parcel of land is only the owner of its surface.

b. The owner of a parcel of land is the owner of its surface and everything above it.
c. The owner of a parcel of land is the owner of its surface and everything under it.
d. The owner of a parcel of land is not allowed to construct any works or make plantations
and excavations on it.

15. Which of the following statements is true regarding a duly registered trademark or
trade-name?

a. It is owned by the government bureau or office where it is registered.

b. It is owned by the person, corporation, or firm registering the same.
c. It is owned jointly by all parties using the trademark or tradename.
d. It is owned by the first person who uses it in commerce.

16. How is the time of possession computed in order to acquire easements by prescription as
stated in Article 621?

a. In positive easements, from the day the easement was granted by the owner of the
servient estate.
b. In positive easements, from the day the owner of the servient estate began to exercise it.
c. In negative easements, from the day the easement was granted by the owner of the
servient estate.
d. In negative easements, from the day the owner of the dominant estate forbade the act to
the owner of the servient estate by an acknowledged instrument.

17. What obligation does the owner of a piece of land have regarding defensive works to check
waters or the reconstruction of such works due to a change in the course of the waters?

a. The owner must make the repairs or construction himself.

b. The owner must permit others to make the repairs or construction at their expense.
c. The owner is not obligated to take any action.
d. The owner must sell the land to avoid the obligation

18. What conditions must be met for the owner of the servient estate to request a change in the
location or manner of an easement, according to Article 629 of the Civil Code?
 a. The owner of the servient estate must demonstrate inconvenience or obstruction caused
by the easement.
b. The owner of the dominant estate must initiate the request for change.
c. The owner of the servient estate must offer an equally convenient alternative at their
expense.
d. Both a and c

19. According to art. 663 when the owner of a building supported by a party wall desires to
demolish the building, what option does he have regarding his part-ownership of the wall, and
what cost is he responsible for in this situation?

a. He may demolish the building without any responsibility for the party wall.
b. He may demolish the building and retain his part-ownership of the party wall.
c. He may demolish the building and renounce his part-ownership of the party wall, bearing
the cost of all repairs and work necessary to prevent any damage caused to the party
wall by the demolition.
d. He may only demolish the building with the consent of the other party wall owner.

20. Under Article 677, what conditions must be complied with before constructions can be built
or plantings made near fortified places or fortresses?

a. Compliance with local zoning regulations

b. Approval from the local government
c. Compliance with special laws, ordinances, and regulations relating to fortified places or
fortresses
d. Payment of a special tax or fee

21. ___________ and other real rights over property are acquired and transmitted by law, by
donation, by estate and intestate succession, and in consequence of certain contracts, by
tradition. They may also be acquired by means of prescription.
a. Succession
b. Ownership
c. Donation
d. Will

22. It is a mode of acquisition by virtue in which the property, rights, and obligations to the extent
of the value of the inheritance of a person are transmitted through his death to another or others
either by his will or by operation of law.
a. Succession
b. Will
c. Occupation
d. Donation

23. It is an act whereby a person is permitted, with the formalities prescribed by law, to control
to a certain degree the disposition of this estate, to take effect after his death.
a. Succession
b. Will
c. Occupation
d. Donation
24. It is an act of liberality whereby a person disposes gratuitously of a thing or right in favor of
another, who accepts it.
a. Succession
b. Will
c. Occupation
d. Donation

25. A type of succession that which results from the designation of an heir, made in a will
executed in the form prescribed by law
a. Legitime
b. Testamentary Succession
c. Legal/ Intestate Succession
d. Testator

26. It is a part of the testator's property which he cannot dispose of because the law has
reserved it for certain heirs who are, therefore, called compulsory heirs.
a. Legitime
b. Testamentary Succession
c. Legal/ Intestate Succession
d. Testator

27. It is a type of succession that is determined by law in the absence of a valid will
a. Legitime
b. Testamentary Succession
c. Legal/ Intestate Succession
d. Testator

28. "Decedent" is the general term applied to the person whose property is transmitted through
succession, whether or not he left a will. If he left a will, he is also called the ________.
a. Legitime
b. Testamentary Succession
c. Legal/ Intestate Succession
d. Testator

29. What is the type of relationship that is constituted by the series of degrees among
ascendants and descendants?
a. Generation
b. Heir
c. Direct
d. Collateral

30. What is the type of relationship that is constituted by the series of degrees among persons
who are not ascendants and descendants, but who come from a common ancestor?
a. Generation
b. Heir
c. Direct
d. Collateral

31. A type of contract created by the court when no such official contract exists between the
parties and there is a dispute between them.
 a. Quasi-Delicts
b. Quasi-Contracts
c. Antichresis
d. Negotium Gestio

32. A payment in money or in services

a. Obligation
b. Usurious Transactions
c. Prestation
d. Consignation

33. In legal terms, means a contractual provision that stipulates a specific penalty or
consequence in case of a breach of contract.

a. Penal Clause
b. Liquidated damages
c. Payment by Cession
d. Condonation

34. Involves an exchange of promises or performances between parties typically involving an

exchange of goods, services, or payments.

a. Onerous Contracts
b. Remuneratory Contracts
c. Contracts of Pure Beneficence
d. Rescissible Contracts

35. These obligations are not founded on positive law but on principles of fairness and natural
justice. While they do not grant a right to enforce their performance through legal action, if the
obligor voluntarily fulfills them, the recipient is authorized to retain what has been delivered or
rendered.

a. Civil Obligations
b. Unenforceable Contracts
c. Void and Inexistent Contracts
d. Natural Obligations

36. It is a legal principle that prevents a person from asserting a claim or right that contradicts
what they have previously stated or agreed upon, especially if others have relied on their
previous words or actions.

a. Trusts
b. Estoppel
c. Beneficiary
d. Lease

37. __________is a juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

 a. Contract
b. Prestation
c. Obligation
d. Credit

38. It is the alternative dispute resolution mechanism in which parties agree to submit their legal
disputes to an arbitrator or panel of arbitrators instead of going to court.

a. Arbitration
b. Guaranty
c. Compromise
d. Insurance

39. By the contract of loan, one of the parties delivers to another, either something not
consumable so that the latter may use the same for a certain time and return it, in which case
the contract is called a _________________?

a. Loan
b. Lease
c. Commodatum
d. Deposit

40. It is a type of security interest where a debtor (the pledgor) offers an asset or property as
collateral to secure a debt or obligation owed to a creditor (the pledgee).

a. Pledge
b. Mortgage
c. Chattel Mortgage
d. Antichresis
 ARP 301-2
Prof. Prac. 1: Laws Affecting the Practice of Architecture

Republic Act 9266 or “The Architecture Act of 2004”

(Answer Sheet)

GROUP 1
BALARBAR, Esther Joy
2021-10056.
BANATICLA, Nerissa Jenn C.
2021-10003
BRAÑA, Hans Samuel
Student no.
PALERACIO, Jamilla Kim
2021-00067
ARTICLE I - General Provisions
1. C) To recognize the importance of architects in nation building.
2. B) General Practice of Architecture
3. B) Architect-of-record
4. B) Professional Regulation Commission
5. B) Preparation of preliminary, technical, economic, and financial feasibility studies of
plans, models, and project promotional services.

ARTICLE II - Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture

6. C) To regulate the practice of architecture and ensure the competence of practitioners.

7. C) Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
8. A) 3 registered architects appointed by the President of the Philippines
9. B) 3 years, with a maximum of three consecutive terms
10. B) Conducting licensure examinations for aspiring architects
11. D) By implementing continuing professional development (CPD) programs for architects
12. B) The PRBoA can issue temporary licenses to foreign architects for short-term projects.
13. A) By the President of the Philippines
14. C) Accrediting architectural firms
15. B) To establish the regulatory framework for the architectural profession

ARTICLE III - Examination, Registration and Licensure

16. C) He/she is a holder of a degree of Bachelor of Science in Architecture conferred by a

school, college, academy or institute duly recognized and/or accredited by the Commission
on Higher Education (CHED) and in addition has a specific record of at least 1 year or
equivalent of diversified architectural experience duly certified by a registered/licensed
architect
17. D) Visual Techniques
18. B) 70%, 50%
19. A) 30
20. D) Oath
21. A) Roster of Architects
22. C) registrant's name, registration number
23. D) Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card
24. A) not be removed from the roster of architects on conviction for a political offense or for
an offense which should not, in the opinion of the Board, either from the nature of the
offense or from the circumstances of the case, disqualify a person from practicing under this
Act.
25. B) has not paid money except the regular fees provided for to secure a Certificate of
Registration

ARTICLE IV - Practice of Architecture

26. C) Continuing Professional Development
27. D) Misdemeanor
28. D) All of the above
29. B) Special or Temporary Permit
30. D) Both A & B
31. A) 75%
32. B) Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
33. A) Intellectual Property
34. D) Both A & C
35. A) Architect-of-record

ARTICLE V - Final Provisions

36. B) To foster professional growth and development
37. C) It provides benefits and privileges upon payment of fees and dues.
38. D) After 15 days
39. B) To render assistance to law enforcement agencies
40. B) Only the directly involved part is affected.
 ARP 301-2
Prof. Prac. 1: Laws Affecting the Practice of Architecture

Republic Act 8981 or “The PRC Modernization Act of 2000”

(Answer Sheet)

GROUP 2
BAUTISTA, Miguel Angelo F.
2021-10021
CATAYNA, Shaina Karryl B.
2020-01257
GATUS, Kurt Angelo G.
2021-00022
RECTO, Michaela Lyka M.
2021-00097
 ANSWER SHEET
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8981- PRC Modernization Act of 2000
PRC BOA Resolutions

1. According to the PRC Modernization Act of 2000 Section 2, what does the State
recognize about professionals?
a) Their potential for international recognition
b) Their role in nation-building
c) Their need for continuous training
d) Their ability to regulate themselves

2. How many full-time Commissioners are there in the Professional Regulation

Commission?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

3. What is one of the qualifications required for Commissioners as per PRC

Modernization Act of 2000 Section 4?
a) At least 30 years of age
b) A valid passport
c) Experience in professional sports
d) At least 5 years of executive or management experience

4. Who is currently serving as the Chairperson of the Professional Regulation

Commission?
a) Hon. Charito A. Zamora
b) Hon. Jose Y. Cueto, Jr.
c) Hon. Erwin M. Enad
d) Hon. Juan dela Cruz

5. How many regional offices does the Professional Regulation Commission have in the
Philippines?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 16
d) 20

6. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Commission according to Section

5 of the Modernization Act?
a) Establishing high standards for professional practice
b) Safeguarding the integrity of licensure examinations
c) Providing retirement benefits to professionals
d) Acting as the body to exercise general administrative functions

7. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No. 01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding
the implementation of the requirement for diversified experience?
a) Lack of mentor information
b) Absence of training period details
c) Insufficient hours rendered documentation
d) All of the above
8. Which organization formulated the Logbook of Diversified Architectural Experience
endorsed by PRC BOA Resolution No. 04 (S. 2004)?
a) Professional Regulatory Commission (PRC)
b) Board of Architecture (BOA)
c) United Architects of the Philippines (UAP)
d) Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects (IAPOA)

9. What is the primary requirement set forth by PRC BOA Resolution No. 03 (S. 2004)
for registered and licensed architects?
a) Submission of UAP membership certificates
b) Compliance with Continuing Professional Education (CPE) programs
c) Affixing a seal on architectural documents
d) Payment of professional tax receipt (PTR)

10. What is mandated by PRC BOA Resolution No. 05 (S. 2005) concerning the seal to
be affixed by licensed architects?
a) It must include the architect's name, registration number, and title.
b) It should be obtained exclusively from the PRC.
c) The seal's design must be approved by the UAP.
d) It is only required for certain types of architectural documents.

11. What does Section 7 of Republic Act No. 8981 primarily address?
a) Establishment of professional regulatory boards
b) Creation of a centralized database for licensed professionals
c) Implementation of continuing professional development programs
d) Regulation of the practice of professions in the Philippines

12. According to Section 7 of Republic Act No. 8981, who can administer and enforce the
regulatory policies and standards outlined in the Act?
a) Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
b) Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)
c) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
d) Department of Trade and Industry (DTI)

13. Which of the following statements best describes the Professional Regulatory Board
(PRB) role as outlined in Section 7?
a) PRBs are responsible for drafting legislation related to professional regulation.
b) PRBs are advisory bodies tasked with providing recommendations to the PRC.
c) PRBs are autonomous bodies under the supervision of the PRC, responsible for
regulating specific professions.
d) PRBs serve as licensing authorities for foreign professionals seeking to practice in
the Philippines.

14. How does R.A. No. 8981 Section 7 empower the Professional Regulatory Boards
(PRBs) to fulfill their regulatory functions?
a) By granting them the authority to issue professional licenses and certificates
b) By allowing them to establish their standards of professional practice
c) By providing them with financial resources to conduct investigations and
enforcement actions
d) By giving them the autonomy to develop their organizational structure and
procedures

15. According to R.A. No. 8981 Section 7, what is the primary objective of the
Professional Regulatory Boards (PRBs)?
a) To protect the interests of professional organizations
 b) To promote fair competition among professionals
c) To ensure the competence and integrity of professionals in their respective fields
d) To advocate for the rights of licensed professionals in legislative matters

16. When was PRC BOA Resolution No. 02 (S. 2006) enacted?
a) 2002
b) 2006
c) 2010
d) 2014

17. What does PRC BOA stand for?

a) Professional Regulatory Commission Board of Authorities
b) Philippine Regulatory Council Board of Accreditation
c) Professional Regulatory Board of Accountancy
d) Philippine Regulatory Commission Board of Assessors

18. Which professionals does PRC BOA Resolution No. 02 (S. 2006) apply to?
a) Doctors only
b) Lawyers only
c) All registered and licensed professionals
d) Only those working in government agencies

19. What is the primary purpose of PRC BOA Resolution No. 02 (S. 2006)?
a) To provide guidelines for professional exams
b) To establish ethical standards for professionals
c) To mandate Continuing Professional Development (CPD) for professionals
d) To regulate professional fees

20. How often do professionals need to comply with CPD requirements according to
PRC BOA Resolution No. 02 (S. 2006)?
a) Every year
b) Every three years
c) Every five years
d) It depends on the profession

21. What penalty may be imposed on a person who manipulates licensure examination
results?

a) Imprisonment of 3 years
b) Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 years
c) Fine of P10,000.00
d) Both a and c

22. If the offender is an officer or employee of the Commission, what penalty may they
face?

a) Removal from office only

b) Imprisonment of 6 years
c) Perpetual absolute disqualification from public office
d) Both a and b

23. What is the penalty for accomplices involved in the manipulation of professional
examinations?
 a) Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one day to 4 years
b) Fine of P100,000.00
c) Imprisonment ranging from 4 years and one day to 6 years
d) Both b and c

24. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the manipulation of professional
examinations?

a) Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one day to 4 years

b) Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
c) Removal from office
d) Both a and b

25. What is the primary objective of PRC Board of Architecture Resolution No. 04-07?

a) To regulate the use of architectural titles

b) To promote architectural services in the Philippines
c) To establish new architectural standards
d) To enforce taxation on architectural practices

26. Who is responsible for verifying the registration status of architects before featuring
them in publications or broadcasts?

a) The architects themselves

b) The readers or viewers
c) Authors and media personalities
d) The government regulatory board

27. What happens to the incumbent Commissioner and two incumbent Associate
Commissioners according to the transitory provisions?

a) They are removed from office.

b) They continue to serve under their current terms without new appointments.
c) They are appointed to new positions.
d) They are transferred to other government agencies.

28. What happens to the remainder of the Modernization Act if any provision is declared
invalid or unconstitutional?

a) The entire Modernization Act is invalidated.

b) The remainder of the Modernization Act is not affected by the declaration.
c) The Modernization Act is repealed.
d) New provisions are added to the Modernization Act.

29. Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the Modernization Act?
a) Republic Act No. 546 only
b) Presidential Decree No. 223 only
c) Republic Act No. 7836 only
d) Republic Act No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, and
others.
30. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain valid even if certain parts are
deemed unconstitutional or invalid?
a) Effectivity Clause
b) Separability Clause
c) Repealing Clause
d) Compliance Clause

31. What is one of the main responsibilities of the Professional Regulatory Boards?
a) Conducting annual inspections of professional establishments
b) Monitoring conditions affecting the practice of professions
c) Conducting criminal investigations
d) Issuing passports to professionals

32. How long does it take for the decision of the Professional Regulatory Board to
become final and executory if not appealed to the Commission?
a) 30 days
b) 10 days
c) 15 days
d) 20 days

33. Who presides over the hearings of administrative cases filed except when the issue
strictly concerns the practice of the profession?
a) Legal Officers of the Commission
b) Members of the Board concerned
c) Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
d) Law enforcement agencies

34. What is the compensation of the Chairperson of the Board in comparison to the
members of the Board?
a) Equal to members of the Board
b) Two salary grades lower than members of the Board
c) Two steps higher than members of the Board
d) Half of the members' compensation

35. Which organization issues temporary/special permits to foreign architects practicing

in the Philippines?
a) Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA)
b) Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects (IAPOA)
c) Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture
d) Government Procurement Policy Board (GPPB)
36. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies render concerning the regulatory
law of a profession?
a) Administrative support
b) Financial assistance
c) Legal assistance
d) Enforcement assistance

37. What is the fee for applying for a temporary/special permit?

a) Fifty US dollars
b) One hundred US dollars
c) Two hundred US dollars
d) Five hundred US dollars

38. What is the purpose of the authority granted to the Commission to use its income?
a) To fund personal expenses of board members
b) To implement a program for full computerization of Commission operations
c) To establish a new regulatory board
d) To conduct international conferences

39. How much is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization
program annually?
a) P50,000,000.00
b) P40,000,000.00
c) P45,000,000.00
d) P30,000,000.00

40. For how long is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization
program?
a) 3 years
b) 10 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years
RA 10912 “Continuing Professional
Development Act of 2016"
(ANSWER SHEET)

ARP 301
Prof. Prac. 1: Laws Affecting the Practice of Architecture

GROUP 3

ARGOMIDO, Edgar Jr. Obando

2021-00525
JASA, Jade Mercel Mesajon
2021-10066
LARRAGA, Janna Leomer, Abuda
2021-00088
PILAR, Lakeisha-An Kye Siaron
2021-10071
1) A CPD Council consists of:

a) CPD provider or any of its CPD program

b) An owner, officer and a consultant

c) A chairperson and two (2) members

d) (2) CPD providers or any of its CPD program

2) Refers to learning activities such as online training, local/international seminars/non

degree courses, institution/company-sponsored training programs, and the like,
which did not undergo CPD accreditation but maybe applied for and awarded CPD
units by the respective CPD Council.

a) Formal learning;

b) Non Formal learning;

c) Informal learning;

d) Self-directed learning;

3) Refers to learning that has been acquired in addition or alternatively to formal

learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to educational
and training arrangements

a) Formal learning;

b) Non Formal learning;

c) Informal learning;

d) Self-directed learning;

4) The members of the Commission as well as the chairperson, vice chairperson and
members of the PRBS:

a) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner

or officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD programs during
their incumbency. This prohibition extends to members of their families and
relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity. Further, this
disqualification extends until three years from their separation from the

b) are qualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner or

officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD programs during their
incumbency.

c) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner

or officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD programs during
their incumbency. This prohibition extends to members of their families and
relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity. Further, this
disqualification extends until one year from their separation from the service.

d) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner

or officer of a Firm Partnership / Corporation offering CPD programs during
their incumbency. This prohibition does not extends to members of their
families and relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity.
 Further, this disqualification extends until one year from their separation from
the service.

5) Refers to the formal or official approval granted to a person, a program or an

organisation, upon meeting essential requirements of achievement standards,
including qualifications or unit(s) of a qualification, usually for a particular period of
time, as defined by an accrediting agency.

a) Accreditation

b) Continuing Professional Development or CPD

c) Competence

d) Certificate of Credit Units (“CCU”)

6) According to Section 3. List of additional requirements for accreditation for CPD

Program. Computer Aided Design and Drafting Course (e.g. AutoCad, Revit, BIM,
etc.) has a crediting unit of:

a) Max 2 CU upon completion of each program

b) Max 10 CU per year or a fraction thereof (to be evaluated by CPDC)

c) Min 3 CU upon completion of each program

d) Max 15 CU per year or a fraction thereof

7) The accreditation of a CPD Provider is valid for how many years, subject to renewal?

a) 3 years

b) 2 years

c) 1 year

d) 10 months

8) According to Section 7. CPD Council. The chairperson of the CPD Council shall be
the member of the PRB so chosen by the PRB concerned to sit in the CPD Council
and the following functions:

a) The second member shall be the president or officer of the AIPO/APO duly
authorized by its Board of Govenors/Trustees. In the absence of the
AIPO/APO, the PRB concerned shall submit within ten working days from
notification of such absence, a list of three recommendees from the national
professional organizations. The PRC shall designate the first member within
thirty days from receipt of the list.

b) The first member shall be the president or officer of the national organization
of deans or department chairpersons of schools, colleges or universities
offering the course requiring the licensure examination. In the absence of
such organization, the PRB concerned shall submit, within ten working days
from notification of such absence, a list of three recommendees from the
academe. The PRC shall designate the second member within twenty
working days from receipt of the list.

c) The CPD Council member sitting as representative of the APO/AIPO or the

academe can participate in the deliberation where the application of the
 APO/AIPO or the academe as CPD provider or any of its CPD program is
under evaluation.

d) The CPD Council shall hold regular meetings once a month on dates to be
fixed by them. Special meetings may be called by the CPD Council
Chairperson or upon written request of a member of a CPD Council at least
three days prior to the said meeting

9) This Section states that there shall be formulated and implemented CPD Programs in
each of the regulated professions in order to enhance and upgrade the competencies
and qualifications of professionals for the practice of their professions pursuant to the
PQF, the AQRF and the ASEAN MRAs

a) Section 5: Nature of CPD Programs

b) Section 2: Declaration of Policy

c) Section 4: Strengthening the CPD Program

d) Sec. 8. Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of the CPD Council

10) Accreditation and Re-accreditation of CPD Provider states that:

a) The applicant shall first accomplish an Application Form for accreditation as

local CPD Provider or as foreign CPD Provider.

b) The accreditation of any CPD provider may be revoked or suspended by the

CPD Council after due notice and hearing and for good cause.

c) The accreditation of a CPD Provider is valid for two (2) years, subject to
renewal.

d) CPD Providers with valid Certificate of Credit Units and accredited prior to the
effectivity of this IRR shall be allowed to continue as CPD Provider as long as
they comply with the requirements as herein provided. A new accreditation
number shall be issued to them

11) Refers to a regional arrangement entered into by the ASEAN Member States,
predicated on the mutual recognition of qualifications, requirements met, licence and
certificates granted, experience gained by professionals, in order to enhance mobility
of professional services within the region.

a) AIPO

b) CPD

c) ASEANMRA

d) PRC

12) Is the following statement true or false? Self-directed learning activities, such as
online training, local/international seminars/non degree courses,
institution/company-sponsored training programs, and the like do not undergo CPD
accreditation but may be applied for and awarded CPD units by the respective CPD
Council.

a) True
b) False
13) What is the number of credit units per hour typically received by a RESOURCE
SPEAKER?

a) 1

b) 4

c) 2

d) 6

14) A national system for developing, recognizing, and awarding qualifications based on
standards acquired through different methods.

a) Philippine Qualifications Framework (PQF)

b) Continuing Professional Development (CPD)

c) ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement (ASEANMRA)

d) ASEAN Qualifications Reference Framework (AQRF)

15) Refers to a status gained after a person has been assessed to have achieved
learning outcomes or competencies in accordance with the standard specified for a
qualification title and is proven by a document issued by a recognized agency or
body.

a) Professional

b) Qualification

c) Quality

d) Prior Learning

16) Refers to the value of an amount of learning that can be transferred to a qualification
achieved from formal, informal or nonformal learning setting, where in credits can be
accumulated to predetermined levels for the award of a qualification.

a) CPD Program

b) CPD Council

c) CPD Credit Units

d) Informal Learning

17) Applicants for Professional Identification Card (PIC) renewal must apply at least ____
days before expiration date.

a) 15 days

b) 20 days

c) 10 days

d) 30 days

18) In an examination of professional development, what is the typical number of credit

units per hour allocated to a PANELIST/REACTOR?
 a) 2

b) 5

c) 4

d) 3

19) Refers to the inculcation of advanced knowledge, skills and ethical values in a
post-licensure specialization or in an inter- or multidisciplinary field of study, for
assimilation into professional practice, self-directed research and/or lifelong learning.

a) Continuing Professional Development Council

b) Continuing Professional Development Program

c) Continuing Professional Development

d) Continuing Professional Development Provider

20) Refers to a natural or juridical person accredited by the CPD Council to conduct CPD
Programs.

a) CPD Provider

b) CPD Council

c) CPD Program

d) CPD Credit Units

21) The proposed budget for each CPD Council shall be reviewed and approved by the
PRC, this includes the following, except:

a) Reasonable expenses for travel.

b) Honorarium/allowances.

c) Per diems when attending official CPD Council meetings.

d) Food expenses every meeting.

22) The implementing rules and regulation (IRR) shall be published by the PRC and the
PRBs, in consultation with

a) PRCBOA

b) AIPO/APO

c) CPD Council

d) Board Members

23) Government officials and employees who participate in any fraudulent activity related
to the CPD may also face administrative sanctions under the following, except:
 a) Anti-graft laws

b) Administrative Code

c) Code of Conduct of Public Officials and Employees.

d) New Civil Code

24) This Section is about the Act repealing or modifying all laws, decrees, executive
orders, and other administrative issuances, or portions of them, that conflict with its
requirements.

a) Effectivity

b) Separability

c) Repealing

d) Fraud Relating to CPD

25) RA 10912 shall come into effect fifteen (15) days after it is fully published in the
Official Gazette or in ___ newspapers of wide circulation in the Philippines.

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

26) Under the CPD Provider Completion Report (Section 5), the submission of the
Completion Report shall be attached in what Annex?

a) Annex A

b) Annex B

c) Annex C

d) Annex K

27) What is the highest number of creditable units for Self-directed and/or Lifelong
Learning in one (1) compliance period?
 a) 5 CUs

b) 10 CUs

c) 15 CUs

d) 20 CUs

28) Sustainable Structures, Disaster Resilience, Green Architecture, and Renewable

Energy are CPD programs that falls under what category?

a) Design

b) Practice

c) Environment and Sustainability

d) Others

29) How many years does an architect have in order to renew his/her licence and
complete the required CPD?

a) 3 years

b) 5 years

c) 7 years

d) 10 years

30) For the year 2019 onwards, what is the minimum required CPD Credit Units for
registered architects that are below 60 years old, in a whole compliance timeframe?

a) 15

b) 30

c) 45

d) 60

31) Professionals working overseas can go to trainings and seminars delivered by

unaffiliated CPD Providers, but have to submit an application for credit units under
what category?
a) Self-Directed and/or Lifelong Learning category
b) Professional Track Category
c) Formal Category
d) International Category
32) What is the current minimum required CPD Credit Units for registered architects that
are above 70 years old, in a whole compliance timeframe?

a) 15

b) 20

c) 25

d) 30

33) Who is responsible for the mandation of Operational Guidelines in the

Implementation of RA 10912, otherwise known as “Continuing Professional
Development Act of 2016 '' for Architects?
a) PRB
b) PRC
c) PRBOA
d) CPD Council

34) When participating in an Architectural and Design Competition, National or

International, which of these supporting documents is not included:

a) Certificate from sponsoring organisation

b) Copy of Invitation letter
c) Photo if Awardee with award, plaque or trophy
d) Competition must be open to all Architects

35) The personnel for __________ shall be subject to the Civil Service Laws, Rules
and Regulation and others. He/She is hereby created at the PRC Central and
Regional Offices to provide technical, administrative and operational support to
the CPD Councils and the PRBs in the implementation of the CPD Programs.

a) CPDC

b) PRC

c) CPD Secretariat

d) PRB

36) Which is NOT an included program/award achievement in Section 3.6?

a) International Awardee

b) Professional Organization Awardee

c) National Architect Awardee

d) Lifetime Achievement Awardee

37) Which date is NOT included for the Renewal of PIC in the transitory period?

a) July – December 2016

 b) January – June 2017

c) January – December 2018

d) January 2019 – onwards

38) The personnel for CPD Secretariat shall be subject to the Civil Service Laws,
Rules and Regulation, with the following functions EXCEPT:

a) To receive and conduct initial screening of applications for accreditation of

CPD providers, programs and self-directed and/or lifelong learning.

b) To accompany the CPD Council by assisting them for relevant statistical

data and other related matters.

c) To perform such other activities relevant and necessary in the

implementation of the CPD programs.

d) To record and prepare notice, agenda and minutes of the meetings of all
the CPD Councils and furnish copies thereof to the PRBs.

39) TRUE OR FALSE: A Lifetime Achievement Award is also included as a

program/activity with provided credit units?

a) True

b) False

40) TRUE OR FALSE: Registered and licensed professionals shall complete the required
credit units every three (3) years of compliance period.

a) True

b) False
 ARP 301-2
Prof. Prac. 1: Laws Affecting the Practice of Architecture

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8293

INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES
(Answer Key)

GROUP 4

MERCADO, Ellie D.
2021-00027

PAQUIZ, Aislyn P.
2021-10037

PAMINTUAN, Aris D.L.

2021-10036

SOTTO, John Lloyd M.

2021-10044
 ANSWER KEY

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8293

INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES

1. The term "intellectual property rights" consists of the following, except;

a. Patents
b. Graphic Design
c. Layout-Designs (Topographies) of Integrated Circuits
d. Protection of Undisclosed Information

2. Which of the following is not the functions of Intellectual Property Office

a. Examine applications for grant of letters patent for inventions and register utility models
and industrial designs
b. Examine applications for the registration of marks, geographic indication, integrated
circuits
c. Promote the use of computers and other devices as tools for technology
development in the office. 3
d. Publish regularly in its own publication the patents, marks, utility models and industrial
designs, issued and approved, and the technology transfer arrangements registered

3. The Office shall be headed by a Director General who shall be assisted by two how many Deputies
Director General.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

4. The Office shall be divided into how many Bureau(s)?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

5. Which Bureau hear and decide opposition to the application for registration of marks; cancellation
of trademarks; subject to the provisions of Section 64, cancellation of patents, utility models, and
industrial designs; and petitions for compulsory licensing of patents;
a. The Bureau of Patents;
b. The Bureau of Trademarks;
c. The Bureau of Legal Affairs;
d. The Documentation, Information and Technology Transfer Bureau;

6. What section demands that the Office shall have a seal, the form and design of which shall be
approved by the Director General.
a. Section 13
 b. Section 14
c. Section 15
d. Section 16

7. Under Section 7.3. “Term of Office”, The Director General and the Deputies Director General shall
be appointed by the President for a term of five (5) years and shall be eligible for reappointment only
once: Provided, That the first Director General shall have a first term of how many years?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. Eight

8. Which of the following acts constitutes infringement of copyright according to Section 184?
a. Reproduction for charitable purposes
b. Reproduction for educational purposes
c. Public performance for profit
d. Public display for educational purposes

9. What is the duration of moral rights according to Section 198?

a. 25 years after the author's death
b. 50 years after the author's death
c. 75 years after the author's death
d. Indefinite

10. In which situation is the importation of a copy of a work permitted without the authorization of the
copyright owner?
a. For personal use if copies are unavailable in the Philippines
b. For educational institutions regardless of availability
c. For commercial resale purposes
d. For distribution to libraries only

11. What does the term "Bureau" refer to in the context of patent matters?
a. The Director of Patents
b. The Patent examiner
c. The Bureau of Patents
d. The Director General
12. Which section defines the conditions for an invention to be considered new?
a. Section 23
b. Section 24
c. Section 25
d. Section 26

13. Who owns the right to a patent if an invention is jointly made by two or more persons?
a. Only the first person who filed the application
b. Each person individually
 c. The person with the most significant contribution
d. All of the above

14. What is the deadline for submitting a written request for substantive examination?
a. Twelve months from the filing date
b. Six months from the filing date
c. Twelve months from the publication date
d. Six months from the publication date

15. What is the term of a patent according to Section 54?

a. Ten years
b. Fifteen years
c. Twenty years
d. Twenty-five years

16. What is the renewal period for certificates of registration?

a. Five years
b. Ten years
c. Fifteen years
d. Twenty years

17. Which language can be used for the renewal request?

a. French
b. Spanish
c. Filipino or English
d. German

18. What action can the court take in case of infringement?

a. Issue a warning
b. Impose a fine
c. Grant an injunction
d. None of the above

19. What is the knowledge requirement for the owner to recover profits or damages in case of
infringement?
a. The owner must have basic knowledge of trademark laws
b. The owner must be aware of the infringement
c. The owner must have a legal background
d. The owner's knowledge is not relevant

20. Which section deals with the penalties for acts such as infringement, unfair competition, and false
designations?
a. Section 165
b. Section 168
c. Section 170
 d. Section 157

21. According to Section 61.1 of RA 8293, who can file a petition to cancel a patent in the
Philippines?
a. The Director of Legal Affairs of the IPO
b. Anyone with an interest in the patent
c. Only the true inventor
d. Anyone

22. What is NOT a ground for canceling a patent according to Section 61.1 of RA 8293?
a. The invention is already known to the public
b. The patent description is unclear
c. The invention is useful
d. The invention violates public order or morality

23. If a cancellation petition is filed based on Section 61.1, what happens next according to Section
63?
a. The IPO will investigate the petition and make a decision.
b. The patentee is notified and a hearing date is set.
c. The petition is published in a scientific journal.
d. The true inventor can file a new application for the invention.

24. Under what circumstance can someone request a committee of experts to be involved in a
cancellation case according to Section 64?
a. If the petitioner is a large corporation.
b. If the cancellation involves complex technical issues.
c. If the patentee is a foreigner.
d. Always, as standard procedure.

25. If the committee decides to uphold the patent with amendments according to Section 65.2, what
will happen next?
a. The cancellation petition is dismissed.
b. The patent is published with the amendments.
c. The patentee must pay a new filing fee.
d. The invention becomes part of the public domain.

26. According to Section 212 of RA 8293, under which circumstance does copyright protection not
apply?
a. Short excerpts used for reporting current events
b. Use for teaching or research
c. Commercial use of a copyrighted work
d. Reproduction of a copyrighted work for personal use

27. What is the limitation on using a copyrighted work for teaching or research according to Chapter
XV?
 a. It must be done in a classroom setting.
b. There must be permission from the copyright owner.
c. The use cannot be for profit.
d. Only short excerpts can be used.

28. Based on Section 212, can a library loan a copyrighted book to its patrons?
a. No, because lending is a form of distribution.
b. Yes, lending is considered fair use under the law.
c. Yes, but only if the library charges a fee.
d. It depends on the specific terms of the copyright.

29. Which of the following is NOT a limitation on exclusive rights according to Chapter XV?
a. Personal use of a copyrighted work
b. Public performance of a copyrighted song
c. Fair use under specific conditions
d. Short excerpts for reporting current events

30. How does fair use limit the exclusive rights of copyright owners under Section 212?
a. It allows unauthorized creation of derivative works.
b. It permits using copyrighted material for commercial purposes.
c. It provides exceptions for specific uses without permission.
d. It waives all copyright protection for educational materials.

31. Which chapter of the Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines deals with compulsory
licensing?
a. Chapter X
b. Chapter XI
c. Chapter XII
d. Chapter XIII

32. What is the official title of Chapter XI of the Intellectual Property Code?
a. Compulsory Licensing
b. Assignment and Transmission of Rights
c. Registration of Utility Models
d. Industrial Design

33. According to Chapter XII, what is the main difference between a patent and a utility model?
a. Utility models have a broader scope of protection.
b. Utility models require a higher standard of novelty.
c. Patents require an inventive step, while utility models do not.
d. Utility models can be renewed, while patents cannot.

34. As stated in Chapter XIII, what can be used as optional evidence when applying for industrial
design registration?
a. A detailed technical description
 b. Market research data
c. A physical sample of the product
d. Letters of recommendation from industry experts

35. Based on the section on trademarks, service marks, and trade names, what is the consequence
of not filing a declaration of actual use within three years of a trademark application?
a. The mark will be automatically assigned to a competitor.
b. The applicant will need to pay a higher registration fee.
c. The application will be converted into a utility model application.
d. The registration will be cancelled.

36. In the section on trademarks, service marks, and trade names, what language is allowed for filing
an application?
a. Filipino only
b. English only
c. Filipino or English
d. Any major language with an official translation

37. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the section on trademarks, service marks,
and trade names?
a. The Bureau of Trademarks will examine applications for compliance.
b. Anyone can file an opposition to a trademark registration.
c. A trademark registration can be renewed indefinitely.
d. A trademark registration can be cancelled for fraudulent registration.

38. Under the Intellectual Property Code, what is the primary purpose of compulsory licensing?
a. To generate revenue for the government
b. To encourage foreign investment in the Philippines
c. To balance the rights of inventors with public interest
d. To penalize patent owners who do not use their inventions

39. What does the Intellectual Property Code recognize concerning the use of intellectual property?
a. It has no social function.
b. It should be used for personal gain only.
c. It can promote national development and progress.
d. It should be strictly limited to scientific research.

40. How does the Intellectual Property Code aim to achieve the diffusion of knowledge and
information?
a. By providing free access to all patented inventions.
b. By encouraging collaboration between inventors and businesses.
c. By offering financial rewards for sharing knowledge.
d. By limiting the duration of intellectual property rights.
TOPIC: Republic Act 386 Civil Code of The Philippines
Reporter: Group 5 - BS Architecture 3-2
1. According to the provided explanation, what does Republic Act No. 386, known as the
"Civil Code of the Philippines," regulate?
A) Criminal matters
B) Civil relations, rights, and obligations
C) Political activities
​ D) Economic policies
​
2. In the context of professional practice, what is emphasized by Article 19 of the Civil
Code?
A) The importance of confidentiality
B) The need for continuous professional development
C) The obligation to act with justice and honesty
​ D) The necessity of seeking legal advice
​
3. What does Article 20 of the Civil Code state regarding individuals who cause harm to
others?
A)They must indemnify the affected party if the harm was caused
negligently or willfully.
B) They are not held accountable if the harm was unintentional.
C) They are automatically exempt from any liability.
​ D) They can only be held liable if the harm resulted from intentional actions.
​
4. According to Article 21 of the Civil Code, what should professionals consider when
conducting their work?
A) Personal interests
B) Legal regulations only
C) Morals, good customs, and public policy
​ D) Professional reputation only
​
5. What is the significance of ethical obligations in professional practice, as outlined by the
Civil Code?
A) They are not relevant to professional conduct.
B) They only apply to certain professions.
C) They limit professional autonomy.
​ D) They ensure accountability and trustworthiness

6. Under the Civil Code, what standard of care is expected from professionals?
A) Exceptional skill and care
B) Average skill and care
C) Minimal effort
​ D) No standard is specified
7. How does the Civil Code address contractual obligations in professional relationships?
A) By providing exemptions for professionals
B) By emphasizing flexibility in contracts
C) By requiring professionals to fulfill their contractual duties
​ D) By prohibiting contracts in professional settings
​
8. What role do professionals often play in dispute resolution, according to the Civil Code?
 A) They are prohibited from involvement in disputes.
B) They facilitate negotiations between parties.
C) They have no influence on the resolution process.
​ D) They act as judges in legal proceedings.
​
9. What penalty may professionals face for acting unethically, as per the Civil Code?
A) No penalty is specified
B) Monetary fines only
C) Exemplary damages
​ D) Suspension of professional license
​
10. What is the purpose of Article 386 of the Civil Code, as explained in the introduction?
A) To establish criminal penalties
B) To regulate political activities
C) To provide a legal framework for civil matters
​ D) To govern economic policies

11. Article 19 marks the beginning of a chapter in the Civil Code entitled?
A) Human Relation
B) Human Relations
C) Humans Relation
​ D) Humans Relations

12. Architects have a role to play in addressing social and environmental issues through
their work.
A) Honesty and Good Faith
B) Equitable Design
C) Social Responsibility
​ D) Professionalism and Ethics

13. Architects must accurately present their qualifications and capabilities, providing truthful
and transparent information to clients and stakeholders.
A) Honesty and Good Faith
B) Equitable Design
C) Social Responsibility
​ D) Professionalism and Ethics
​
14. Architects must act ethically in their interactions with clients, colleagues, and the public,
and they should prioritize the interests of their clients.
A) Honesty and Good Faith
B) Equitable Design
C) Social Responsibility
​ D) Professionalism and Ethics

15. Architects have a responsibility to design spaces that are just and fair for all users. This
includes considering accessibility for people with disabilities
A) Honesty and Good Faith
B) Equitable Design
C) Social Responsibility
​ D) Professionalism and Ethics
 ​
16. What Article states this: "The creditor has a right to the fruits of the thing from the time
the obligation to deliver it arises. However, he shall acquire no real right over it until the
same has been delivered to him."?
A) Article 1167
B) Article 1160
C) Article 1164
​ D) Article 1172

17. What is the legal situation that arises when someone does something for the benefit of
another person without a formal agreement in place?
A) Casual Contract
B) Adhesion Contract
C) Quasi-contract
​ D) Unilateral Contract

18. TRUE OR FALSE: "Those who in the performance of their obligations are guilty of fraud,
negligence, or delay, and those who in any manner contravene the tenor thereof, are not
liable for damages."
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) SOMETIMES TRUE
​ D) SOMETIMES FALSE
​
19. It imposes a legal obligation on individuals to compensate others for any harm or
damage they cause through their actions.
A) Article 1168
B) Article 19
C) Article 1174
​ D) Article 20
​
20. What Article does this belong: Every obligation whose performance does not depend
upon a future or uncertain event, or upon a past event unknown to the parties, is
demandable at once?
A) Article 21
B) Article 1173
C) Article 1174
​ D) None of the Above

21. According to Article 1159, what force do obligations arising from contracts have?
A) Moral force
B) Legal force
C) Voluntary force
D) Ethical force

22. How is an obligation defined in contrast to a contract?

A) By meeting of the minds
B) By judicial necessity
C) By moral obligations
D) By contractual duties
23. What conditions make an obligation binding according to the article?
A) Violation of law only
B) Violation of morality only
C) Violation of law, morality, or public policy
D) Violation of tradition only

24. What actions make someone liable for damages according to Article 1170?
A) Fraud, negligence, or delay
B) Honesty, diligence, and timeliness
C) Good faith and compliance
D) Contractual disputes only

25. How is fraud defined in Article 1170?

A) Honest representation
B) Deceptive representation
C) Concealing information
D) Misleading allegations

26. What behavior constitutes negligence according to the article?

A) Behaving prudently
B) Exercising due diligence
C) Safeguarding others from harm
D) Falling below legal standards for safeguarding others

27. In Article 1173, what does the fault or negligence of the obligor consist of?
A) Acting in good faith
B) Exceeding the duty's requirements
C) Omitting required diligence
D) Following contractual obligations

28. When does the standard of care become that of a "good father of a family" according to
Article 1173?
A) When specified by law
B) When not specified by law or contract
C) When specified by the contract
D) When specified by the parties involved

29. What determines the level of diligence required in performing an obligation according to
Article 1173?
A) The nature of the duty
B) The time and place
C) The people involved
D) All of the above

30. According to the article, what standard should the level of care correspond to?
A) That of a reasonable person
B) That of a prudent individual
C) That of a professional
D) That of a contractual agreement
31. In what cases can a person be held responsible for events that could not be foreseen?
A) Only when expressly specified by the law
B) Only when declared by stipulation
C) Both when expressly specified by the law and when declared by stipulation
D) None of the above

32. What is the condition under which a person is obliged to pay for damage done?
A) When the damage could have been foreseen
B) When the damage was inevitable
C) When there is fault or negligence involved
D) When the nature of the obligation necessitates payment

33. According to Article 1174, who is exempted from responsibility for unforeseen events?
A) Anyone acting under a contractual obligation
B) Anyone acting under a legal obligation
C) No person is exempted
D) Persons who have declared their assumption of risk

34. What does Article 2176 demand regarding responsibility for acts or omissions?
A) It demands payment for damages caused by unforeseen events
B) It demands payment only for one's own acts or omissions
C) It demands payment for acts or omissions of persons for whom one is
responsible
D) It absolves individuals from responsibility for any acts or omissions

35. Who is responsible for events that were foreseen but inevitable?
A) Only the person directly involved
B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
C) Both the person directly involved and the person responsible for the obligation
D) None of the above

36. What does Article 1174 specify about the responsibility for unforeseeable events?
A) It imposes strict liability
B) It absolves individuals from any responsibility
C) It requires assumption of risk
D) It requires payment for damage done

37. Who is demandable for the obligation imposed by Article 2176 according to Article 1174?
A) Only the person directly involved
B) Only the person responsible for the obligation
C) Both the person directly involved and the person responsible for the obligation
D) None of the above

38. What is the significance of "nature of the obligation requires the assumption of risk"?
A) It extends liability to unforeseeable events
B) It limits liability to foreseeable events
C) It clarifies the type of obligation being discussed
D) It absolves parties from responsibility
39. What is necessary for a person to be responsible for damage caused by fault or
negligence?
A) The damage must be inevitable
B) The damage must be unforeseeable
C) There must be fault or negligence involved
D) None of the above

40. How does Article 1174 define the responsibility for damage caused by acts or
omissions?
A) It imposes strict liability regardless of fault
B) It requires proof of intent to cause harm
C) It obliges payment for the damage done
D) It absolves individuals from any liability
(SECTION I-II)

It was a significant step of the State in protecting and assuring the public of its policy in
developing and nurturing competent, virtuous, productive, and well-rounded architects.
Well-known as “Architecture Act of 2004”
a. Republic Act No. 545
b. Republic Act No. 9266
c. Republic Act No. 1723
d. Republic Act No. 386

It pertains to being direct and professionally accountable for the overall design of the
project. a. Architect
b. Architecture-in-charge of construction
c. Consulting Architect
d. Architect-of-record

A duly notarized written contract or equivalent public instrument stipulating the scope of services
and guaranteeing compensation of such services to be rendered by a registered architect.

a. Service Agreement
b. Authorship
c. Scope of the Practice of Architecture
d. Continuing Professional Development

It is where the board shall be under the administrative supervision of the Commission. Wherein
all the records of the Board, including applications for examination, and administrative and other
investigative cases conducted by the Board shall be under the custody of the Commission.

a. SECTION 7. Powers and Functions of the Board

b. SECTION 8. Administrative Supervision of the Board, Custodian of its
Records, Secretariat and Support Services.
c. SECTION 9. Grounds for Suspension or Removal of Members of the Board
d. SECTION 10. Compensation and Allowances of the Board.

Defined as the act of conceiving, choosing and developing the type, disposition, arrangement
and proportioning of the structural elements of an architectural work giving due consideration to
safety, cost-effectiveness, functionality and aesthetics.

a. Authorship
b. Continuing Professional Development
c. Structural Conceptualization
d. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization
It means the existing official national organization of all architects of the Philippines in which
all registered Filipino architects shall be members without prejudice to membership in other
voluntary professional associations;
 a. Authorship
b. Continuing Professional Development
c. Structural Conceptualization
d. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization

Among the options provided below, which DOES NOT belong to Section 5: Qualifications of
Members of the Professional Regulatory Board?

a. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines

b. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture and/or accredited
by the Commission on Higher Education (CHED)
c. Be an architect with a valid Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card
d. Should be a member of the faculty of any good school, college, university
or review institution where a regular course or review course in
architecture

It oversees securities exchanges, securities brokers and dealers, investment advisors, and
mutual funds in an effort to promote fair dealing, and to prevent fraud referred to S______ of
E_______ C_______ (SEC)

a. Securities of Exchange Committee

b. Securities of Employment Committee
c. Securities of Exchange Commission
d. Securities of Exchange Commerce

(SECTION IV)

It is where any unregistered person is not allowed to collect fees for architectural
purposes. a. Section 30. Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture.
b. Section 39. Liability Insurance of a Person or Entity Allowed to Practice under a
Temporary/Special Permit.
c. Section 36. Collection of Professional Fees
d. Section 37. Limitation to the Registration of a Firm, Company, Partnership,
Corporation or Association.

It is where the field of architecture involves providing professional services, and admission to
it is based on an individual's personal qualifications.
a. Section 37. Limitation to the Registration of a Firm, Company, Partnership,
Corporation or Association.
b. Section 39. Liability Insurance of a Person or Entity Allowed to Practice under a
Temporary/Special Permit.
c. Section 34. Non-Registered Person Shall Not Claim Equivalent Service.
d. Section 30. Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture.
It is where the Architect-of record shall be fully responsible for all architectural plans,
specifications, and other documents issued under his/her seal or authorized signature.
a. Section 30. Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture.
b. Section 39. Liability Insurance of a Person or Entity Allowed to Practice under a
Temporary/Special Permit.
c. Section 32. Signing of Architectural Plans, Specifications and Other Contract
Documents.
d. Section 36. Collection of Professional Fees

How much is the penalty for committing a misdemeanor offense?

a. P200,000.00
b. P650,000.00
c. P300,000.00
d. P100,000.00

How long is the imprisonment for committing a misdemeanor offense?

a. 4 years
b. 9 years
c. 6 years
d. 8 years

Registered and licensed architects shall compose at least how many percent of the
owners, shareholders, members incorporators, directors, executive officers, as the case
may be? a. 50%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 80%

Within (3) years from the effectivity of this Act, all existing and proposed positions in the local
and national government, requiring the services of an architect shall be filled only by registered
and licensed architects.
a. Section 35. Positions in Government Requiring the Services of Registered and
Licensed Architects
b. Section 37. Limitation to the Registration of a Firm, Company, Partnership, Corporation
or Association.
c. Section 39. Liability Insurance of a Person or Entity Allowed to Practice under a
Temporary/Special Permit.
d. Section 30. Prohibition in the Practice of Architecture.

Fill in the blank, Drawings and specifications and other contract documents duly signed,
_____, or sealed, as instruments of service, are the intellectual property and documents of the
architect. Any person is not allowed to duplicate or make copies of said documents for other
projects without the consent of architect or author of said documents.
a. Passed
b. Stamped
 c. Removed
d. Punched

(SECTION V)

What SECTION stated that the Architecture profession shall be integrated into one (1) national
organization which shall be accredited by the Board, subject to the approval by the Commission,
as the integrated and accredited professional organization of architects?

a. SECTION 41. Implementing Rules and Regulations

b. SECTION 40. Integration of the Architecture Profession
c. SECTION 43. Act Not Affecting Other Professionals
d. SECTION 42. Appropriations

In SECTION 41. Implementing Rules and Regulations. Within how many days after the
effectivity of this Act, the Board, subject to the approval of the Commission and in coordination
with the integrated and accredited professional organization, shall adopt and promulgate such
rules and regulations, Code of Ethical Conduct and Standards of Professional Practice, to carry
out the provisions of this Act?

a. sixty (60) days

b. fifty (50) days
c. forty (40) days
d. thirty (30) days

The ______________ of the Professional Regulation Commission shall immediately include in

the Commission programs the implementation of this Act, the funding of which shall be included
in the annual General Appropriations Act.

a. Secretary
b. Receptionist
c. Administrative Manager
d. Chairperson
In article V, which section stated that the Architecture Act shall not be construed to affect
or prevent the practice of any other legally recognized profession.

a. SECTION 43
b. SECTION 44
c. SECTION 45
d. SECTION 46
In this SECTION stated that It shall be the primary duty of the Commission and the Board to
effectively enforce the provision of this Act.

a. SECTION 47. Effectivity

b. SECTION 44. Enforcement of the Act
c. SECTION 40. Integration of the Architecture Profession
d. SECTION 42. Appropriations

If any clause, provision, paragraph or part hereof shall be declared unconstitutional or invalid,
such judgment shall not affect, invalidate or impair any other part hereof, but such judgment
shall be merely ___________ to the clause, provision, paragraph or part directly involved in the
controversy in which such judgment has been rendered.

a. separated
b. liberated
c. free
d. confined

In SECTION 46. Repealing Clause. What Republic Act No is amended by Republic Act No.
1581 to repealed and all other laws, orders, rules and regulations or resolutions or part/s thereof
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act are hereby repealed or modified accordingly.

a. Republic Act No. 9266

b. Republic Act No. 9285
c. Republic Act No. 545
d. Republic Act No. 2366

This Act shall take effect after fifteen 15 (5) days following its publication in the Official Gazette
or in two (2) newspapers of general circulation.
a. SECTION 42. Appropriations
b. SECTION 45. Separability Clause
c. SECTION 47. Effectivity
d. SECTION 45. Separability Clause

Article III of the Architecture Law is about?

a. Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture

b. Practice of Architecture
c. Examination, Registration, and Licensure /
d. Final Provisions
In Article III Section 15 of the Architecture law, what is the rating to successfully pass the
examination?

a. Rating 70% general average with no grade lower than 50% /

b. Rating 60% general average with no grade lower than 40%
c. Rating 60% general average with no grade lower than 50%
d. Rating 70% general average with no grade lower than 40%

How many days does the examination last?

a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days /
d. 4 days

This section of the law states that successful examinees must take an oath.

a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16
d. Section 17 /

As per Article III Section 14 of the Architecture Law, these subjects are included in the
examination to be a license architect, except.

a. History of Architecture
b. Professional Practice /
c. Architectural Interiors
d. Site Planning

This section of the law states the qualification of an applicant for the licensure examination.
a. Section 13 /
b. Section 15
c. Section 17
d. Section 19

Drawings and specifications are intellectual properties of which of the following?

a. Client
b. City Hall
c. Contractor
d. Architect /

This commission attached to the Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE), provides
the identification card that indicates the person is entitled to the practice of Architecture.

a. Civil Service Commission

b. Professional Regulation Commission /
c. Commission on Elections
d. Commission on Higher Education

1. What section of the Architecture law is the Suspension and Revocation of Certificates
of Registration, Professional Identification Card or the Special/Temporary Permit about?

a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24

Answer: d

2. According to the Section 21. which of the following are included to the required indicated card
whenever he/she signs a document, uses or issues in connection with the practice of his/her
profession.

1. National Identification Card

2. Voter's Identification Card
3. Professional Tax Receipt
4. Certificate of Registration

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

3. According to the Section 22. Refusal to Issue Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card, The Board shall not __________ and issue a Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card to any person who has falsely sworn or misrepresented
himself/herself in his/her application for examination.

a. accept
b. register
c. be given
d. indicate

4. Which of the following is not included on the clauses under the Section 23. Suspension and
Revocation of Certificates of Registration, Professional Identification Card or the
Special/Temporary Permit.

a. has paid money except the regular fees provided for to secure a Certificate of Registration.

b. the person shall be sentenced to a fine of not less than Two hundred thousand pesos
(P200,000.00)

c. has aided or abetted in the practice of architecture any person not duly authorized to practice
architecture in the Philippines.

d. has violated any provision of this Act, its implementing rules and regulations, the Code of
Ethical Conduct and Standards of Professional Practice.

Answer: b

5. According to Section 24. Re-issuance or Replacement of Revoked or Lost Certificates of

Registration Professional Identification Card or Special and Temporary Permit. The Board
may, after the expiration of _____ years from the date of revocation of a Certificate of
Registration, Professional Identification Card or special/temporary permit.

a. 3
b. 1
c. 4
d. 2
6. Which of the following is included in the reason wherein a new Certificate of Registration or
Professional Identification Card, temporary/special can be issued?

a. destroyed
b. mutilated
c. lost
d. all of the above

7. How much will a violator fine if he/she violated the Section29. Prohibition in the Practice of
Architecture and Penal Clause.

a. P100,000.00 but not more than P5,000,000,00

b. P200,000.00 but not more than P3,000,000.00

c. P50,000.00 but not more than P5,000,000.00

d. P150,000.00 but not more than P3,000,000.00

Answer a

8. How about the longevity of imprisonment if they violated the above mentioned Section?

a. less than 3 months or not exceeding 3 years, or both

b. less than 4 months or not exceeding 4 years, or both

c. less than 5 months or not exceeding 5 years, or both

d. less than 6 months or not exceeding 6 years, or both

answer: d
 ANSWER KEY

1. This is an act modernizing the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC), repealing

the P.D. No. 223 which created the PRC in the first place. This act is also titled as the
"PRC Modernization Act of 2000"

A. Republic Act No. 386

B. Republic Act No. 10912
C. Republic Act No. 9514
D. Republic Act No. 8981

2. In 1974, PRC became operational with the assumption of the first Commissioner,
known as?

A. Architect Eric C. Nubla

B. Architect Elias L. Ruiz
C. Architect Rufino D. Antonio
D. Architect Federico S. Ilustre

3. In Section 3, it states that thereby created a ____-man commission known as the

Professional Regulation Commission, also referred to as the Commission which shall
be attached to the office of the President.

A. one
B. two
C. three (3)
D. four

4. The Commission is appointed by the President with a Chairperson and

Commissioners for a term of how many years without reappointment?

A. 12
B. 5
C. seven (7)
D. 10

5. All of the choices below are requirements that need to be met for both the
Chairperson and the Commissioner in order to be appointed except for?

A. At least forty (40) years of age

B. At least five (5) years of experience in executive or management
C. Holding a valid certificate of registration/professional license and a valid
professional identification card
D. Holding a good moral certificate

6. A specific requirement for one of the Commissioners is that they must be either a
past Chairperson or a member of a?

A. PRC (Professional Regulation Commission)

B. PRB (Professional Regulatory Board)
C. CPE (Continuing Professional Education)
D. PFPA (Philippine Federation of Professional Organizations)
7. In Section 6, the Chairperson shall receive compensation and allowances equivalent
to that of a/an ________ while the Commissioners shall receive compensation and
allowances equivalent to that of a/an ________.

A. Department Secretary; Undersecretary

B. Undersecretary; Department Secretary
C. Office Manager; Assistant
D. Assistant; Office Manager

8. In Section 7, the Commission shall administer the licensure examinations of the

various regulatory boards and conduct more than how many licensure examinations
in a year?

A. one (1)
B. five
C. nine
D. three

9. In Section 7, when there are two (2) or more examinations given in a year, at least
one (1) examinations shall be held on what days of the week?

A. Sunday to Tuesday
B. Thursday to Saturday
C. Monday to Wednesday
D. Monday to Friday

10. In Section 7, the Commission is also authorized to require the completion of a ____
where the examinee has failed to pass three (3) times.

A. thesis
B. community service
C. refresher course
D. penalty fee

11. What is the responsibility of the Professional Regulatory Board concerning

successful examinees?

A. To destroy examination papers

B. To issue certificates of registration
C. To appoint Civil Service officials
D. To organize the Commission's structure

12. What does the Commission have custody of according to the Act?

A. Examination papers and minutes of deliberation

B. Professional identification cards
C. Appointment records
D. Employee compensation records
13. Who approves the fees charged for various services by the Commission?

A. The Office of the President

B. The Department of Budget and Management
C. The Civil Service Commission
D. The Professional Regulatory Board

14. How are officials and employees appointed within the Commission?
A. By direct appointment from the President
B. Through a merit-based selection process
C. By recommendation of the Department of Labor and Employment
D. By appointment of the Professional Regulatory Board

15. Who does the Commission recommend licensed professionals for appointment to?

A. The President of the Philippines

B. The Civil Service Commission
C. The Department of Labor and Employment
D. The Professional Regulatory Board

16. Under what conditions can a foreigner be authorized to practice a profession in the
Philippines?

A. If their home country has a similar regulatory system

B. If they are sponsored by a Philippine citizen
C. If they pass a special examination
D. If they have a relative who is a Filipino citizen

17. What authority does the Commission have regarding administering oaths?

A. They can appoint any officer to administer oaths

B. They can administer oaths themselves
C. They can administer oaths only to Filipino citizens
D. They cannot administer oaths

18. How does the Commission supervise foreign nationals practicing their professions in
the Philippines?

A. By requiring them to report to the Commission monthly

B. By monitoring their compliance with terms and conditions
C. By providing them with additional training
D. By revoking their permits if they violate any law

19. What action can the Commission take against a government agency or private entity
that hires a foreign professional without a permit?

A. Provide them with a warning

B. File a criminal complaint
C. Issue a fine
D. Revoke their business license
20. What is the requirement for former Filipino citizens practicing their profession in the
Philippines?

A. They must pass a special examination

B. They must pay a higher registration fee
C. They must have a valid visa
D. They must obtain a special permit and updated professional
identification card

21. What is the responsibility of the Professional Regulatory Boards regarding the
practice of professions?

A. Conduct investigations
B. Adopt and institute rating systems
C. Monitor conditions in industrial plants
D. Issue annual reports

22. Which section of the RA 8981 mandates the creation of regional offices by the
Commission?

A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10

23. What power do the Professional Regulatory Boards have in handling minor violations
of regulatory laws?

A. Delegating investigations
B. Conducting ocular inspections
C. Issuing summary judgments
D. Recommending registration without examination

24. In cases of administrative matters involving Commission officials, what can the
Commission issue?

A. Summons
B. Revocation of licenses
C. Subpoena duces tecum
D. Recommendations to the President

25. What is the deadline for the full computerization of licensure examinations according
to RA 8981?

A. 2000
B. 2003
C. 2010
D. No specific deadline
26. Who has the authority to hold in contempt an erring party or person, upon application
with a court?

A. Professional Regulatory Boards

B. Commission
C. Department of Justice
D. Local government units

27. Which section grants the Commission the power to investigate unregistered
practitioners and forward cases to prosecutors?

A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10

28. What is the main purpose of the Professional Regulatory Boards conducting ocular
inspections?

A. To issue summonses
B. To monitor passing ratios
C. To enhance professional standards
D. To investigate administrative matters

29. What is the Professional Regulatory Boards' role in the hearing and investigation of
cases arising from violations of their respective laws?

A. Delegate to the Commission

B. Conduct summary proceedings
C. Preside over hearings
D. Coordinate with CHED

30. In summary proceedings for minor violations, whose decision becomes final and
executory after 15 days unless appealed to the Commission?

A. Professional Regulatory Boards

B. Legal Officers of the Commission
C. City or provincial prosecutor
D. President of the Philippines

31. According to Section 10, the members of the Professional Regulatory Boards shall
receive compensation equivalent to, at least, _____________ the salary grade of the
Commissioners: Provided, That the Chairperson of the Regulatory Board shall
receive a monthly compensation of ________ the members of the Board.

A. two salary grades lower than; two steps higher than

B. four salary grades higher than; four steps lower than
C. three salary grades lower than; three steps higher than
D. one salary grade higher than; one step lower than
32. According to Section 11, all subjects for licensure examinations shall be taught by
persons who are holders of:

A. valid certificates of registration

B. valid professional licenses of the profession
C. compliance with the other requirements of the CHED
D. all of the above

33. With regards to the appropriations of the Professional Regulation Commission, the
amount necessary to carry out the initial implementation of this Act shall be charged
against the ________’s appropriations.

A. previous year
B. current year
C. upcoming year
D. none of the above

34. The Commission is hereby authorized to use its income not exceeding the amount of
_________ a year for a period of five (5) years after the effectiveness of this Act to
implement the program for full computerization of the operations of the Commission.

A. Thirty-seven million pesos (P37,000,000.00)

B. Twenty-eight million pesos (P28,000,000.00)
C. Forty-five million pesos (P45,000,000.00)
D. Eleven million pesos (P11,000,000.00)

35. What kind of penalty/ies is/are there for manipulation and other corrupt practices in
the conduct of professional examinations?

A. imprisonment of not less than six (6) years and one (1) day to not more than
twelve (12) years
B. a fine of not less than Fifty thousand pesos (P50,000.00) to not more than
One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000.00)
C. both
D. none of the above

36. Within how many days after the approval of this Act, the Professional Regulation
Commission, together with representatives of the various Professional Regulatory
Boards and accredited professional organizations, the DBM, and the CHED shall
prepare and promulgate the necessary rules and regulations needed to implement
the provisions of this Act?

A. ninety (90)
B. one hundred forty three (143)
C. five hundred one (501)
D. ten (10)
37. According to Section 18, the incumbent Commissioner and two (2) incumbent
Associate Commissioners shall serve as ______ and _________ respectively under
the terms for which they have been appointed without need of new appointments.

A. Commissioner; Chairpersons
B. Chairperson; Commissioners
C. Director; Chairpersons
D. Commissioner; Directors

38. This Act shall take effect after ______ days following its publication in the Official
Gazette or in two (2) newspapers of general circulation, whichever is earlier.

A. three (3)
B. twenty (20)
C. fifteen (15)
D. ten (10)

39. How many members do the Board of Examiners for Architects have?

A. one (1)
B. two (2)
C. ten (10)
D. three (3)

40. By virtue of Public Act No. 4007 enacted on December 5, 1932, the Board was
attached to the ____________________.

A. Department of Health
B. Department of Agriculture
C. Department of Public Works and Communications
D. Department of Foreign Affairs
 ARP 301- 3

Republic Act No. 10912

CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL
DEVELOPMENT (CPD)
ACT OF 2016
(Answer Sheet)

GROUP 3
Baui, Jhon Lyod P.
De Guzman, Franzine Nichole G.
Jaramillo, John Aaron F.
Rubio, Alliah Kim A.
 QUESTIONNAIRE

1. This is an act mandating and strengthening the continuing professional development

program for all regulated professions, creating the continuing professional
development council, appropriating funds therefore, and for other related purposes.

A. Republic Act No. 11902

B. Republic Act No. 10912
C. Republic Act No. 1032
D. Republic Act No. 1203

2. AIPO stands for _______.

A. Accredited International Professional Organization

B. Accredited Internal Professional Organization
C. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
D. Academic Integrated Professional Organization

3. It refers to a set of learning activities accredited by the CPD Council, such as

seminars, workshops, technical lectures or subject matter meetings, non degree
training lectures and scientific meetings, modules, tours and visits, which equip
professionals with advanced knowledge, skills and values in specialized or in an
inter-or multidisciplinary field of study, self-directed research and/or lifelong learning

A. CPD Program
B. Formal Learning
C. Online Learning Activities
D. Informal Learning

4. The quality assured national system for the development, recognition, and award of
qualifications at defined levels, based on standards of knowledge, skills, and values,
acquired in different ways and methods by learners and workers.

A. Pathways and Equivalencies

B. Quality Assurance
C. Qualification
D. Philippine Qualification Framework

5. What is the document that was issued by the PRC signifying that the person named
therein has complied with all the legal and procedural requirements for such
issuance, including, in appropriate cases, passing the licensure examination or
registration without examination.

A. Certificate of Registration
B. Certificate of Enrollment
C. Certificate of Licensure
D. Certificate of Employment
6. In SECTION 2. Declaration of Policy. “It is hereby declared the policy of the State to
______ and ______ the practice of professions in the country. Towards this end, the
State shall institute measures that will continuously improve the competence of the
professionals in accordance with the international standards of practice, thereby
ensuring their contribution in uplifting the general welfare, economic growth, and
development of the nation.”

A. support and educate

B. love and give
C. promote and upgrade
D. believe and share

7. It refers to the common reference framework that will function as a translation device
to a enable comparisons of qualifications across ASEAN Member States

A. ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement (ASEAN MRA)

B. ASEAN Qualifications Reference Framework (AQRF)
C. Philippine Qualifications Framework (PQF)
D. Professional Regulatory Board

8. It is an academic position awarded to a member of a faculty at the tertiary level who

has distinguished himself/herself in the field of expertise.

A. Chairman
B. Secretary
C. President
D. Professional Chair

9. A non-degree post-graduate training program such as externship, residency and

fellowship in specialty and subspecialty program/s or diplomates conferred by an
organization or society recognized by the pertinent government authority.

A. Self-Directed Learning
B. Prior Learning
C. Specialty Training
D. Post-graduate academic studies

10. A person‘s skills, knowledge and competencies that have been acquired through
work experience, training, independent study, volunteer activities and hobbies, that
may be applied for academic credit, as a requirement of a training program or for
occupational certification

A. Self-Directed Learning
B. Prior Learning
C. Specialty Training
D. Post-graduate academic studies
11. This section consists of activities that range from structured to non-structured
activities, which have learning processes and outcomes.

A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6

12. What does PRBS stand for?

A. PROGRESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARDS

B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATORY BOARDS
C. PROFESSIONAL REQUIRED BOARDS
D. PROGRESSIONAL REQUIRED BOARDS

13. Under Section 7.CPD Council - There is hereby created a CPD council in each of the
regulated professions, which shall be under the supervision of the concerned PRB.
Every CPD Council shall be composed of a chairperson and how many other
members.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

14. In the Procedure For Accreditation Of CPD Program , the applicant shall accomplish
an _____________for accreditation of a CPD program.

A. Regulated Profession
B. Resume Form
C. Qualification Form
D. Application Form

15. A CPD ­________ shall be credited with twice the number of CUs approved for a CPD
program for which he/she acted.

A. Monitor
B. Member
C. Employee
D. Professional

16. The CPD Council shall furnish a copy of the monitoring report to the CPD provider
within how many working days from the receipt thereof.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
17. The members of the Commission as well as the chairperson, vice chairperson and
members of the PRBs are disqualified as an individual CPD provider, or as an
incorporator, partner or officer of a Firm/ Partnership/ Corporation offering CPD
programs during their incumbency. This disqualification extends until one (1) year
from their ________ from the service.

A. Separation
B. Appointment
C. Disconnection
D. Application

18. The accreditation of a CPD provider is valid for how many years, subject to renewal?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

19. One qualification for accreditation of CPD Providers is that a

Firm/Partnership/Corporation must be a duly ______ partnership, corporation,
institution or organization.

A. Retired
B. Record
C. Registered
D. Radical

20. A CPD ­_______ shall be created at the PRC Central and Regional Offices to provide
technical, administrative and operational support to the CPD Councils and the PRBs
in the implementation of the CPD programs.

A. Secretariat
B. Member
C. Council
D. Monitor

21. What does CPD stand for in the context of the renewal of professional licenses and
accreditation system?

A. Continuous Personal Development

B. Certified Professional Development
C. Continuing Professional Development
D. Comprehensive Professional Development
22. What is the period within which registered and licensed professionals must complete
the required credit units for Continuing Professional Development (CPD)?

A. Every two (2) years

B. Every three (3) years
C. Every five (5) years
D. Annually

23. Which option is available for professionals working overseas to fulfill their Continuing
Professional Development (CPD) requirements?

A. They must attend seminars/trainings conducted only by accredited CPD

Providers.
B. They are exempted from CPD requirements.
C. They may take programs/seminars through foreign chapters or affiliates
of accredited CPD Providers.
D. They are required to obtain CPD credits solely from domestic providers.

24. In Section 12: Career Progression and Specialization. What is the responsibility of
the PRC and the PRBs regarding Career Progression and Specialization according
to Section 12?

A. Formulate and implement a Career Progression and Specialization Program

for selected professions only.
B. Seek approval from the AIPO/APO for the Career Progression and
Specialization Program.
C. Collaborate with the Civil Service Commission (CSC) to create a Career
Progression and Specialization Program.
D. Formulate and implement a Career Progression and Specialization
Program for every profession in consultation with relevant stakeholders.

25. What is the requirement for concerned government agencies and private firms and
organizations regarding Continuing Professional Development (CPD), as stated in
Section 13?

A. CPD is optional and not required to be included in their human resource

development plan and program.
B. CPD is mandatory, but only for professionals employed in certain positions.
C. CPD should be included as part of their human resource development
plan and program.
D. CPD is only required for professionals seeking promotion within their
organization.
26. What is the funding mechanism outlined in Section 14 for the implementation of the
provisions of R.A. 10912?

A. Funding will be provided directly by the government agencies employing

professionals.
B. Professionals will be required to pay an additional fee for CPD activities.
C. The funding for CPD programs will be included in the annual General
Appropriations Act.
D. CPD Councils will be responsible for generating funds through sponsorships
and partnerships.

27. What penalties are outlined in Section 16 for individuals found guilty of fraudulent
acts relating to CPD under R.A. 10912?

A. Only suspension or revocation of their professional license.

B. Suspension or revocation of their professional license, in addition to
penalties under other applicable laws.
C. Administrative penalties under the anti-graft laws, with no impact on their
professional license.
D. Criminal penalties under the Revised Penal Code, with no impact on their
professional license.

28. Which clause ensures that if any part of the Implementing Rules and Regulations
(IRR) is deemed invalid, the other provisions remain in full force and effect?

A. Continuity Clause
B. Consistency Clause
C. Unity Clause
D. Separability Clause

29. Which section of the Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) states that all laws,
decrees, executive orders, and other administrative issuances inconsistent with R.A.
10912 and the IRR are repealed or modified accordingly?

A. Section 16: Fraud Relating to CPD

B. Section 14: Funding
C. Section 18: Repealing Clause
D. Section 17: Separability Clause

30. Which section of the Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) specifies the
effective date of the IRR?

A. Section 19: Effectivity

B. Section 18: Repealing Clause
C. Section 17: Separability Clause
D. Section 16: Fraud Relating to CPD
31. Refers to the card bearing the registration number, dates of issuance and expiry,
duly signed by the Chairperson of the Commission issued to a registered professional
upon payment of fees.

A. Professional Regulatory Card

B. Professional Identification Card
C. Identification Card
D. Certificate of Registration Card

32. On the Administrative level; Which aspect of infrastructure is focused on through

the procurement of facilities/equipment and allocation of working space?

A. Upgrading of Physical Infrastructure

B. Enhancement of IT infrastructure
C. Improvement of human infrastructure
D. Communication drive

33. During this transition period, the following shall be observed that CPD councils shall
reduce the required CPD credit units to a minimum, which shall not be more than how
many?

A. Twelve (12)
B. Ten (10)
C. Fifteen (15)
D. Fourteen (14)

34. The PIC is renewable every _____ years upon compliance with the requirements
set by law?

A. 4 (Four) years
B. 3 (Three) years
C. 2 (Two) years
D. 5 (Five) years

35. In Section 8.2.4 Accreditation of CPD Programs; When applying for accreditation of
a program to the CPD Council, what information should the CPD provider indicate for
monitoring purposes?

A. The number of participants in the program

B. The location of the program
C. The duration of the program
D. The number of times the program will be offered
36. What is a Mandatory requirement in the renewal of the Professional Identification
Cards (PICs) of registered and licensed professionals under the regulation of the
Commission?

A. Continuing Professional Development (CPD)

B. Professional Examination
C. Work Experience
D. Training Seminars

37. In Section 5. Rule 14. Presumptive Approval; What happens to CPD programs that
are duly submitted for accreditation if no feedback is received from the CPD Council
after 10 (Ten) working days?

A. They are automatically rejected

B. They are deemed approved
C. They are put on hold indefinitely
D. They are returned to the CPD providers for revision

38. In which type of agreement is Continuing Professional Development (CPD) a

recognition and eligibility requirement for professionals intending to practice in certain
countries?

A. Bilateral agreements
B. Unilateral agreements
C. Multilateral agreements
D. Non-agreements

39. In Section 3. Section 10.3. When will the Transition period allowing the gradual and
efficient implementation of the objectives of the CPD Act of 2016 expire?

A. After one year

B. After all antecedents had been met
C. After five years
D. After approval by the Commission

40. In Annex “A” on the Administrative level; What is the purpose of establishing the
CPD Accreditation System as part of the enhancement of IT infrastructure?

A. To provide free CPD courses for professionals

B. To facilitate online CPD transactions like filing of applications for
accreditation
C. To create a social media platform for professionals to connect
D. To organize physical CPD events only
 QUESTIONNAIRE

1. What types of cases does the Bureau of Legal Affairs hear and decide on?

A) Only trademark registration

B) Only patent cancellations
C) Opposition to trademark registration, cancellation of trademarks, and more
D) Only utility model applications
Answer: C) Opposition to trademark registration, cancellation of trademarks, and
more

2. What is the jurisdictional limit for complaints involving intellectual property rights
under the Bureau of Legal Affairs?

A) Php 100,000
B) Php 200,000
C) Php 300,000
D) Php 400,000
Answer: B) Php 200,000

3. What are the administrative penalties that the Director for Legal Affairs may
impose after a formal investigation?

A) Only fines
B) Only warnings
C) Cease and desist orders, voluntary assurances, and more
D) Only imprisonment
Answer: C) Cease and desist orders, voluntary assurances, and more

4. How can a respondent comply with an assurance of compliance or

discontinuance imposed by the Director of Legal Affairs?

A) By ignoring the order

B) By submitting periodic compliance reports
C) By not taking any action
D) By refusing to file a bond
Answer: B) By submitting periodic compliance reports

5. What are the possible actions the Director of Legal Affairs can take regarding
seized products?
 A) Destroy them immediately
B) Sell, donate, export, or recycle them
C) Keep them in storage indefinitely
D) Return them to the respondent
Answer: B) Sell, donate, export, or recycle them

6. What are the range of administrative fines that can be imposed by the Director of
Legal Affairs?

A) Php 1,000 - Php 10,000

B) Php 5,000 - Php 150,000
C) Php 200,000 - Php 500,000
D) Php 50,000 - Php 100,000
Answer: B) Php 5,000 - Php 150,000

7. What authority does the Director General have in establishing procedures for the
implementation of Section 10?

A) No authority
B) Limited authority
C) Full authority
D) Shared authority
Answer: C) Full authority

8. What are the key activities of the Documentation, Information and Technology
Transfer Bureau?

A) Only conducting seminars

B) Only establishing networks
C) Support search and examination activities, educate the public, and more
D) Only performing state-of-the-art searches
Answer: C) Support search and examination activities, educate the public, and
more

9. How does the Management Information Services and EDP Bureau support the
Office?

A) By conducting seminars
B) By providing management information support
C) By establishing networks
D) By registering technology transfer arrangements
Answer: B) By providing management information support
10. What are some of the penalties that can be imposed by the Director of Legal
Affairs for violations?
A) Only fines
B) Only warnings
C) Cancellation of permits, assessment of damages, and more
D) Only imprisonment
Answer: C) Cancellation of permits, assessment of damages, and more

11. After ______ years from the coming into force of this Act, the Director General
shall, subject to the approval of the Secretary of Trade and Industry.
A. Four (4)
B. Five (5)
C. Six (6)
D. Seven (7)
Answer: B) Five (5)

12. Who shall formulate and manage a financial program to ensure availability and
proper utilization of funds?
A) The Patent and Trademark Administration Services
B) The Administrative Service
C) The Human Resource Development Service
D) The Financial Service
Answer: D) The Financial Service

13. Who shall design and implement human resource development plans and
programs for the personnel of the Office?
A) The Patent and Trademark Administration Services
B) The Administrative Service
C) The Human Resource Development Service
D) The Financial Service
Answer: C) The Human Resource Development Service

14. What is the form and design of which shall be approved by the Director General?

A) Watermark
B) Logo of the Office
C) Seal of Office
D) The IPO Gazette
Answer: C) Seal of Office

15. What functions shall the Patent and Trademark Administration Services perform
among others?
A. Maintain registers of assignments, merging, licenses, and bibliographic on
patents and trademarks
B. Collect maintenance fees, issue certified copies of documents in its custody and
perform similar other activities
C. Hold in custody all the applications filed with the office, and all patent grants,
certificate of registrations issued by the office, and the like
D. All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

16. All matters required to be published under this Act shall be published in the
Office's own publication to be known as the ______.
A. Watermark
B. Logo of the Office
C. Seal of Office
D. The IPO Gazette
Answer: D) The IPO Gazette

17. The Director General shall exercise the following powers and functions EXCEPT:
A. Manage and direct all functions and activities of the Office, including the
promulgation of rules and regulations to implement the objectives, policies, plans,
programs and projects of the Office.
B. Coordination with other agencies of government in relation to the enforcement of
intellectual property rights.
C. Establish policies and standards for the effective, efficient, and economical
operations of the department in accordance with government programs.
D. Prioritizing the establishment of fees for the filing and processing of an
application for a patent, utility model or industrial design or mark or a collective mark,
geographic indication and other marks of ownership.
Answer: D) Coordination with other agencies of government in relation to the
enforcement of intellectual property rights.

18. One of the following QUALIFICATION is that the Director General and the
Deputies Director General must be natural born citizens of the Philippines, and at least
of the age of?
A. 45 years of age
B. 35 years of age
C. 55 years of age
D. 25 years of age
Answer: B) 35 years of age

19. Under the Republic Act 8293 The Intellectual Property Code, what Section
contains The Bureau of Patents?
A. Section 9
B. Section 7
C. Section 5
D. Section 8
Answer: D) Section 8

20. The first Director General shall have a first term of ________ years. Appointment
to any vacancy shall be only for the unexpired term of the predecessor.
A. Eleven (11) years
B. Eighteen (18) years
C. Seven (7) years
D. Two (2) years
Answer: C) Seven (7) years

21. Deputy Director General shall be members of the Philippine Bar who have
engaged in the practice of law for at least _________.
A. 50 years
B. 40 years
C. 30 years
D. 10 years
Answer: D) 10 years

22. Under the Republic Act. 8293, Section 9 contains the Bureau of Trademarks
while Section 9.A contains?
A. The bureau of International Trademark and Industry
B. The Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights
C. The Bureau of Patents
D. The Bureau of Labor and Statistics
Answer: B) The Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights

23. The Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights. - The Bureau of Copyright
and Other Related Rights shall have the following functions EXCEPT:
A. Exercise original jurisdiction to resolve disputes relating to the terms of a license
involving the author’s right to public performance or other communication of his work.
B. Accept, review, and decide on applications for the accreditation of collective
management organizations or similar entities.
C. Conduct studies and research in the field of copyright and related rights.
D. Defend the country to save all people from aliens.
Answer: D) Defend the country to save all people from aliens.

24. Who appoints Director General and Deputy Director General?

A. City Mayor
B. Senator
C. President
D. Barangay Chairman
Answer: C) President

25. The Bureau of Trademarks conduct studies and research in the field of
trademarks in order to assist the Director General in formulating policies on the?
A. Administration and examination of trademarks.
B. Administration of fees and Trademarks
C. Administration of tax and revenue
D. Administration of Legal examinations of transaction
Answer: A) Administration and examination of trademarks

26. Related Rights shall be appealable to the Court of Appeals in accordance with
the Rules of Court; and those in respect of the decisions of the Director of
Documentation, Information and Technology Transfer Bureau shall be appealable to
the?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice
B. President of the Philippines
C. Secretary of Trade and Industry
D. International Trademark officer
Answer: C) Secretary of Trade and Industry

27. The Office shall be headed by a Director General who shall be assisted
by Deputies Director General?
A.) 5
B.) 3
C.) 2
D.) 7
Answer: C) 2
28. The Director General, Deputies Director General, Directors and Assistant
Directors shall be appointed by the…?
A.) President, and the other officers and employees of the Office by the
Secretary of Trade and Industry
B.) Director of Patents
C.) Vice President, and the other officers of the Bureau
D.) The President alone
Answer: A.) President, and the other officers and employees of the Office by the
Secretary of Trade and Industry

29. The Office shall be divided into Bureaus, each of which shall be headed by a
Director and assisted by an Assistant Director.
A.) 6
B.) 7
C.) 8
D.) 9
Answer: B.) 7

30. What does the “Office” refer under this Act?

A.) Intellectual Understanding
B.) Intellectual Property Rights
C.) Intellectual Property Bureau
D.) Intellectual Property Office
Answer: D.) Intellectual Property office

31. Refers to contracts or agreements involving the transfer of systematic

knowledge for the manufacture of a product, the application of a process, or rendering
of a service including management contracts; and the transfer, assignment or licensing
of all forms of intellectual property rights, including licensing of computer software
except computer software developed for mass market.
A.) Intellectual Transfer Arrangements
B.) Transfer of Documents Agency
C.) Technology Transfer Arrangements
D.) Contract and Sales Management
Answer: C.) Technology Transfer Arrangements

32. The gazette published by the Office under this Act

A.) TRIPS
B.) IPO Gazette
 C.) IPA Gazette
D.) IPC Gazette
Answer: B.) IPO Gazette

33. In what section of the RA 8293 as it stated “The State recognizes that an
effective intellectual and industrial property system is vital to the development of
domestic and creative activity, facilitates transfer of technology, attracts foreign
investments, and ensures market access for our products. It shall protect and secure
the exclusive rights of scientists, inventors, artists and other gifted citizens to their
intellectual property and creations, particularly when beneficial to the people, for such
periods as provided in this Act.”
A.) Section 2
B.) Section 7
C.) Section 9
D.) Section 3
Answer: A.) Section 2

34. In what section of the RA 8293 as it stated “Any person who is a national or who
is domiciled or has a real and effective industrial establishment in a country which is a
party to any convention, treaty or agreement relating to intellectual property rights or the
repression of unfair competition, to which the Philippines is also a party, or extends
reciprocal rights to nationals of the Philippines by law, shall be entitled to benefits to the
extent necessary to give effect to any provision of such convention, treaty or reciprocal
law”
A.) Section 1
B.) Section 5
C.) Section 3
D.) Section 10
Answer: C.) Section 3

35. What is Section 1 of the RA 8293?

A.) Electrical Code of the Philippines
B.) National Building Code of the Philippines
C.) Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines
D.) Bureau of Intellectual Code of the Philippines
Answer: C.) Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines

36. Intellectual Property Rights consist of…?

A.) Copyright and Related Rights, Trademarks and Service Marks, Geographic
Indications, Industrial Designs
B.) Copyright Rights, Trademarks and Geographic Designs, Industrial Designs
C.) Trademarks and Service Marks, Mountain Range, Circuit Designs
D.) Copyright and Related Patents, Services, Geography, Industrial Work
Answer: A.) Copyright and Related Rights, Trademarks and Service Marks,
Geographic Indications, Industrial Designs

37. This sector conducts studies and research in the field of patents to assist the
Director General in formulating policies on the administration and examination of
patents.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Bureau of Internal Revenue
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Bureau of Patents
Answer: D) Bureau of Patents

38. In what practice should a Deputy Director General have before its appointing
timeline?
A. Practice of Architecture
B. Practice of Medicine
C. Practice of Law
D. Practice of Taxation and Auditing
Answer: C) Practice of Law

39. This sector accepts, review, and decide on applications for accreditation of
collective management organizations or similar entities
A. Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights
B. Bureau of Trade and Industry
C. Bureau of Treasury
D. Bureau of Finance and Statistics
Answer: A) Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights

40. The sector who's responsible for deciding opposition to the application for
registration of marks; cancellation of trademarks; subject to the provisions of Section 64,
cancellation of patents, utility models, and industrial designs; and petitions for
compulsory licensing of patents.
A. Bureau of Trade and Industry
B. Bureau of Patents
C. Department of Justice
D. Bureau of Legal Affairs
Answer: D) Bureau of Legal Affairs
Answer Keys

1. According to Article 1173, what constitutes the fault or negligence of the obligor?
a) Failure to disclose facts
b) Taking improper advantage of power
c) Omission of diligence required by the nature of the obligation
d) Usurious transactions

2. What standard of care is required of a person obligated to give something, as per Article
1163?
a) Proper diligence of a good father of a family
b) Ordinary care
c) Care of a reasonable person
d) Expert care

3. Under what circumstances are individuals liable for damages, as stated in Article 1170?
a) Fraud, negligence, or undue influence
b) Delay, negligence, or fraud
c) Exaggerations in trade
d) Fraud, negligence, or delay

4. The fundamental prerequisites for a contract's existence, as outlined in Article 1318, are?
a) Offer, acceptance, and consideration
b) Consent, object certainty, and cause of the obligation
c) Mutual agreement, performance, and enforcement
d) Registration with the court

5. As stated in Article 1315, at what point in the process do contracts reach a state of perfection
and become legally binding?
a) By mere consent
b) By payment of consideration
c) By signing a written agreement
d) By performance of all obligations

6. According to the provisions delineated in Article 1338, what specific actions or behaviors are
deemed to qualify as constituting fraudulence within the context of the legal framework?
a) Taking improper advantage of power
b) Failure to disclose facts
c) Usual exaggerations in trade
 d) Insidious words or machinations inducing a contract

7. According to Article 1350, in which type of contract is the cause understood to be the
prestation or promise of a thing or service by the other party?
a) Onerous contracts
b) Remuneratory contracts
c) Pure beneficence contracts
d) Voidable contracts

8. What does Article 1364 state as a reason for the courts to order the reformation of an
instrument?
a) Mutual mistake of the parties
b) Fraudulent action by one party
c) Lack of skill or negligence in drafting the instrument
d) Failure of the instrument to disclose the real agreement

9. According to Article 1371, what is principally considered to judge the intention of the
contracting parties?
a) Written terms of the contract
b) Oral agreements made during negotiation
c) Contemporaneous and subsequent acts
d) Testimony of witnesses

10. Which principle is mentioned in Article 1375 regarding the interpretation of words in a
contract?
a) Literal interpretation
b) Interpretation most in keeping with the nature and object of the contract
c) Interpretation in favor of the party who caused obscurity
d) Interpretation favoring the party with greater legal expertise

11. According to Article 1380, under what circumstances may contracts validly agreed upon be
rescinded?
a) When there has been a mutual mistake of the parties
b) When there has been undue influence by one party
c) When there has been a failure to express the true intention of the parties
d) When there has been fraud, mistake, or undue influence

12. What type of contracts are listed in Article 1390 as voidable or annullable, even without
harm to the contracting parties?
a) Onerous contracts
 b) Gratuitous contracts
c) Rescissible contracts
d) Inadequate contracts

13. According to Article 1723, within what period must the action for damages due to defects in
construction be brought following the collapse of a building?
a) Five years
b) Ten years
c) Fifteen years
d) Twenty years

14. What does Liquidated Damages mean?

a) Liquidated damages refer to the predetermined sum of money agreed upon by

parties in a contract as compensation for a specific breach of contract.
b) Liquidated damages are funds set aside by a company for potential losses in case of a
sudden market downturn.
c) Liquidated damages are damages caused by a spillage of liquid substances during
transportation or handling, resulting in financial loss.
d) Liquidated damages are penalties imposed by a court for criminal actions involving the
illegal sale of alcoholic beverages.

15. According to Art. 204, By guaranty a person, called the_______, binds himself to the
creditor to fulfill the obligation of the principal debtor in case the latter should fail to do so.

a) guarantee
b) guarantist
c) guarantor
d) guarantinator

16. These shall be liable for damages for the death of, or injuries suffered by, any person by
reason of the defective condition of roads, streets, bridges, public buildings, and other public
works under their control or supervision, EXCEPT?

a) Provinces
b) Districts
c) Cities
d) Municipalities

17. In this Article it states that “The same persons who may enter into a compromise may
submit their controversies to one or more arbitrators for decision”. What article is it?

a) Art. 2042
 b) Art. 2937
c) Art. 2043
d) Art. 2938

18. These two articles governed Article 2171, where the rights and obligations of the finder of
lost personal property.

a) Articles 619 and 620

b) Articles 613 and 614
c) Articles 719 and 720
d) Articles 713 and 714

19. In legal terms, what do exemplary or corrective damages serve as, according to Article
2229?

a) Exemplary or corrective damages are imposed solely for the benefit of the affected
parties.
b) Exemplary or corrective damages are punitive measures meant to bankrupt the
defendant.
c) Exemplary or corrective damages are imposed as a form of public deterrence or
education, in addition to other types of damages like moral, temperate, liquidated,
or compensatory damages.
d) Exemplary or corrective damages are only applicable in cases involving physical injury
or property damage.

20. According to Art. 2046, how are the appointment of arbitrators and the procedure for
arbitration governed?

a) They are governed by the provisions of rules of court promulgated by the

Supreme Court.
b) They are determined solely by the parties involved in the arbitration.
c) They are subject to the discretion of the President of the country.
d) They are outlined in the Constitution of the Philippines.

21. According to Art. 2192, if damages result from a defect in construction mentioned in Article
1723, who can the third person suffering damages proceed against?

a) The owner of the property

b) The local government authority
c) Any third party involved in the construction process
d) The engineer, architect, or contractor involved in the construction

22. What defines an aleatory contract according to Art. 2010?

 a) An aleatory contract is one where both parties agree to perform their obligations
simultaneously, without regard to any uncertain events.
b) An aleatory contract involves one party committing to give or do something in
exchange for something the other party will give or do, dependent on an uncertain
event or one occurring at an indeterminate time. \
c) An aleatory contract is characterized by the exchange of goods or services that are
guaranteed to be of equal value, regardless of any uncertain events.
d) An aleatory contract pertains exclusively to agreements involving the sale or transfer of
real estate properties that are subject to unpredictable market fluctuations.

23. According to Article 2229, what are exemplary or corrective damages intended for?

a) To compensate for specific financial losses incurred by a party.

b) To provide an example of proper conduct in a contractual agreement.
c) To serve as a deterrent and promote the public good through punishment or
correction.
d) To cover damages resulting from accidents or unforeseen circumstances.

24. According to Article 2199, what is the term used to describe compensation for pecuniary
loss that one has duly proved?

a) Punitive damages
b) Nominal damages
c) Liquidated damages
d) Actual or compensatory damages

25. Which statement accurately describes the legal principle outlined in Art. 2177 of the Civil
Code of the Philippines?

a) Art. 2177 establishes that responsibility for fault or negligence is synonymous with civil
liability arising from negligence under the Penal Code.
b) Art. 2177 emphasizes that civil liability arising from negligence under the Penal Code
overrides any fault or negligence under civil law.
c) Art. 2177 highlights the distinction between responsibility for fault or negligence
and civil liability under the Penal Code, while preventing double recovery of
damages for the same act or omission.
d) Art. 2177 stipulates that plaintiffs are entitled to recover damages twice for the same act
or omission of the defendant, provided they demonstrate fault or negligence under both
civil and criminal law.

26. Which of the following best describes the legal concept outlined in Article 2142?

a) Quasi-contracts are formed through mutual agreement between two parties.

b) Quasi-contracts are established through unlawful and involuntary actions.
 c) Quasi-contracts arise from unilateral acts to prevent unjust enrichment or benefit
at the expense of another.
d) Quasi-contracts primarily aim to enforce strict liability in contractual agreements.

27. According to Art. 2176, what is the term used to describe fault or negligence that causes
damage to another party when there is no pre-existing contractual relation between them?

a) Contractual liability
b) Exemplary damages
c) Quasi-delict
d) Liquidated damages

28. Article 11 of the Civil Code of the Philippines provides that “Customs which are contrary to
law, ______ order or ______ policy shall not be countenanced.”

a) private order or public policy

b) private order or private policy
c) public order or public policy
d) public order or private policy

29. Article __ of the Civil Code of the Philippines provides that “Judicial decisions applying or
interpreting the laws, or the Constitution shall form a part of the legal system of the Philippines.”

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

30. What is the legal responsibility of an individual who intentionally or negligently causes harm
to another person?

a) They shall be exempt from any liability.

b) They shall be entitled to compensation from the injured party.
c) They shall be subject to criminal charges only.
d) They shall indemnify the injured party for the damage.

31. According to Article 22 of the Civil Code of the Philippines, if a person intentionally causes
loss or injury to another in a manner contrary to morals, good customs, or public policy, they are
exempt from compensating the injured party.

a) True
b) False

32. According to the Civil Code of the Philippines, what obligation does an individual have if they
intentionally or negligently cause harm to another person, contrary to law?
 a) They are absolved of any responsibility.
b) They must seek forgiveness from the injured party.
c) They must indemnify the injured party for the damage.
d) They have the option to negotiate a settlement with the injured party.

33.In what scenario would a defendant be held liable for indemnity, even if the damage to
another's property was not caused by their fault or negligence?

a) If the defendant proves their innocence beyond doubt.

b) If the plaintiff fails to prove the extent of the damage.
c) If the defendant derived benefits from the act or event causing the damage.
d) If the damage occurred due to an unforeseeable natural disaster.

34. Which of the following statements best reflects the legal obligation regarding the behavior
towards neighbors and other persons?

a) Individuals are free to disregard the dignity and privacy of others without consequences.
b) Individuals must respect the dignity, personality, privacy, and peace of mind of
their neighbors and others, without exceptions.
c) Individuals are only required to respect the privacy of their neighbors but not their dignity
or personality.
d) Individuals may disregard the privacy of others unless it results in a criminal offense.

35.How is civil personality extinguished?

a) By marriage
b) By migration to another country
c) By death
d) By reaching retirement age

36.What are the two categories in which property can be classified?

a) Universal and particular

b) Public dominion and private ownership
c) Tangible and intangible
d) Real and personal

37.Which of the following are considered property of public dominion?

a) Personal belongings and household items

b) Buildings and structures owned by individuals
c) Items reserved for personal use
d) Roads, canals, ports, and other infrastructure constructed by the State, as well as
properties intended for public service or national development.
38.What presumption does actual possession under claim of ownership raise, and how must the
true owner proceed to recover the property?

a) It raises a conclusive presumption of ownership, and the true owner must resort to
judicial process for recovery.
b) It raises a disputable presumption of ownership, and the true owner must resort to
judicial process for recovery.
c) It raises a rebuttable presumption of ownership, and the true owner must take
possession forcibly.
d) It raises no presumption of ownership, and the true owner must negotiate directly with
the possessor for recovery.

39. Under what circumstances can a person be deprived of their property, and what action
should the courts take if the requirement is not first complied with?

a) Property can only be taken by competent authority for public use and upon
payment of just compensation; if this requirement is not met, the courts shall
protect and possibly restore the owner to possession.
b) Property can be seized without compensation if deemed necessary by the authorities;
the courts will not intervene.
c) Property can be taken for public use with or without compensation as decided by the
government; the courts have no jurisdiction in such matters.
d) Property can be taken by any individual with sufficient power and influence; the courts
will not interfere in such matters.

40. who owns the structures built, plants planted, or crops sown on someone else's land

a) The person who built or planted them

b) The owner of the land
c) The government
d) The person who made the improvements or repairs
1. How many full-time Commissioners are there in the Professional Regulation Commission?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the manipulation of professional examinations?
a) Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one day to 4 years
b) Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
c) Removal from office
d) Both a and b

3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional Practice
become effective?
a. Immediately upon publication
b. After 60 days
c. After 13 days
d. After 15 days

4. How many regional offices does the Professional Regulation Commission have in the
Philippines?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 16
d) 20

5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration status of architects before featuring
them in publications or broadcasts?
a) The architects themselves
b) The readers or viewers
c) Authors and media personalities
d) The government regulatory board

6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the Modernization Act?

a) Republic Act No. 546 only
b) Presidential Decree No. 223 only
c) Republic Act No. 7836 only
d) Republic Act No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, and
others.

7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain valid even if certain parts are
deemed unconstitutional or invalid?
a) Effectivity Clause
b) Separability Clause
c) Repealing Clause
d) Compliance Clause

8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies render concerning the regulatory law of a profession?
a) Administrative support
b) Financial assistance
c) Legal assistance
d) Enforcement assistance

9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization program?
a) 3 years
b) 10 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years

10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure examinations for architects?
a.To ensure that architects adhere to global standards of practice.
b. To foster professional growth and development.
c. To recognize the importance of architects in nation building.
d. To nurture competent and virtuous architects.

11. How much is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization program annually?
a) P50,000,000.00
b) P40,000,000.00
c) P45,000,000.00
d) P30,000,000.00

12. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain valid even if certain parts are deemed unconstitutional or
invalid?
a) Effectivity Clause
b) Separability Clause
c) Repealing Clause
d) Compliance Clause

13. They are the architect directly responsible for the total design of a project and liable for plans and
specifications.
a.Architecture-in-charge of construction
b.Architect-of-record
c. Consulting Architect
d. Site Architect

14. The following are the subjects for the examination. Which of the following is not?
A) History and Theory of Architecture; Principles of Planning and Architectural Practice
B) Urban Design and Architectural Interiors
C) Architectural Design and Site Planning
D) Visual Techniques

15. What happens to the remainder of the Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid or
unconstitutional?
a) The entire Modernization Act is invalidated.
b) The remainder of the Modernization Act is not affected by the declaration.
c) The Modernization Act is repealed.
d) New provisions are added to the Modernization Act.
16. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the manipulation of professional examinations?
a) Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one day to 4 years
b) Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
c) Removal from office
d) Both a and b

17. To be qualified as having passed the licensure examination for architects, a candidate must obtain a
weighted general average of ____%, with no grade lower than ____% in any given subject.
A) 60%, 75%
B) 70%, 50%
C) 75%, 60%
D) none of the above

18. The Board shall submit to the Commission the ratings obtained by each candidate within ____ calendar
days after the examination, unless extended for just cause.
A) 30
B) 15
C) 31
D) 28

19. What penalty may be imposed on a person who manipulates licensure examination results?
a) Imprisonment of 3 years
b) Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 years
c) Fine of P10,000.00
d) Both a and c

20. This encompasses planning, design, supervision, and administration related to building construction.
Architects coordinate processes, engage in consultations, and prepare detailed specifications. This practice
applies globally, regardless of residency, and architects may lead projects individually or within organizations.
a) General Agreement in Architecture
b) General Practice of Architecture
c) General Provision of Architecture
d) General Agreement of Architects

21. The following act/s is/are prohibited in the practice of architecture.

a. Offering architectural services without being registered/licensed, or does not hold a temporary/special permit
b. Using a forged/fake Certificate of Registration or PRC ID
c. Impersonating a registered and licensed Architect using his/her name or a different name
d. All of the above

22. What should a foreign national (allowed to engage in the practice of architecture in the Philippines) get in
order to avoid and protect themself against accusations of negligence?
a. Professional Liability Insurance
b. Malpractice Insurance
c. Philhealth ID
d. Both A & B
23.All successful candidates in the examination shall be required to take an_____ of profession before any
member of the Board, any government official authorized by the Commission or any person authorized by law
to administer this, prior to entering upon the practice of the profession.
A) Issuance of Certificates of Registration
B) Professional Identification Card
C) Seal
D) Oath

24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
a. To provide legal advice.
b. To render assistance to law enforcement agencies.
c. To prosecute violators.
d. To declare unconstitutional clauses.

25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No. 01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding
the implementation of the requirement for diversified experience?
a) Lack of mentor information
b) Absence of training period details
c) Insufficient hours rendered documentation
d) All of the above

True or False
26. The licensure exam does not need to be related to the syllabus of CHED. False
27. There are 46 professions that have a PRBo. False
28. You can file a case to the PRC regarding licenses. True
29. PRC has the right to keep a database on those who took and will take license exams. True
30. PRBo can inquire for help from other institutions regarding filled cases related to the license. True
31. The law is called the PCR Modernization Act Dec 50 2000.False
32. If one part of the law is not related to the case the case is still valid. False
33. The PRBo alone can suspend licenses. False
Multiple Choices

1. Refers to learning activities such as online training, local/international seminars/non degree courses,
institution/company-sponsored training programs, and the like, which did not undergo CPD accreditation but
maybe applied for and awarded CPD units by the respective CPD Council.
a) Formal learning;
b) Non Formal learning;
c) Informal learning;
d) Self-directed learning;

2. The members of the Commission as well as the chairperson, vice chairperson and members of the PRBS:
a) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a Firm Partnership /
Corporation offering CPD programs during their incumbency. This prohibition extends to members of their
families and relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity. Further, this disqualification extends
until three years from their separation from the
b) are qualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a Firm Partnership /
Corporation offering CPD programs during their incumbency.
c) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a Firm
Partnership / Corporation offering CPD programs during their incumbency. This prohibition extends to
members of their families and relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity. Further,
this disqualification extends until one year from their separation from the service.
d) are disqualified as an Individual CPD provider, or as an incorporator, partner or officer of a Firm Partnership /
Corporation offering CPD programs during their incumbency. This prohibition does not extends to members of
their families and relatives within the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity.

3. The term "intellectual property rights" consists of the following, except;

a. Patents
b. Graphic Design
c. Layout-Designs (Topographies) of Integrated Circuits
d. Protection of Undisclosed Information

4. Which Bureau hear and decide opposition to the application for registration of marks; cancellation of
trademarks; subject to the provisions of Section 64, cancellation of patents, utility models, and industrial
designs; and petitions for compulsory licensing of patents;
a. The Bureau of Patents;
b. The Bureau of Trademarks;
c. The Bureau of Legal Affairs;
d. The Documentation, Information and Technology Transfer Bureau;

5. Refers to the formal or official approval granted to a person, a program or an organization, upon meeting
essential requirements of achievement standards, including qualifications or unit(s) of a qualification, usually
for a particular period of time, as defined by an accrediting agency.
a) Accreditation
b) Continuing Professional Development or CPD
c) Competence
d) Certificate of Credit Units (“CCU”)

6. Under Section 7.3. “Term of Office”, The Director General and the Deputies Director General shall
be appointed by the President for a term of five (5) years and shall be eligible for reappointment only
once: Provided, That the first Director General shall have a first term of how many years?

a. Five
b. Six
c. Seven
d. Eight

7. According to Section 7. CPD Council. The chairperson of the CPD Council shall be the member of the PRB
so chosen by the PRB concerned to sit in the CPD Council and the following functions:
a) The second member shall be the president or officer of the AIPO/APO duly authorized by its Board of
Governors/Trustees. In the absence of the AIPO/APO, the PRB concerned shall submit within ten working
days from notification of such absence, a list of three recommendees from the national professional
organizations. The PRC shall designate the first member within thirty days from receipt of the list.
b) The first member shall be the president or officer of the national organization of deans or department
chairpersons of schools, colleges or universities offering the course requiring the licensure examination. In the
absence of such organization, the PRB concerned shall submit, within ten working days from notification of
such absence, a list of three recommendees from the academe. The PRC shall designate the second member
within twenty working days from receipt of the list.
c) The CPD Council member sitting as representative of the APO/AIPO or the academe can participate in the
deliberation where the application of the APO/AIPO or the academe as CPD provider or any of its CPD
program is under evaluation.
d) The CPD Council shall hold regular meetings once a month on dates to be fixed by them. Special
meetings may be called by the CPD Council Chairperson or upon written request of a member of a CPD
Council at least three days prior to the said meeting

8. In which situation is the importation of a copy of a work permitted without the authorization of the copyright
owner?
a. For personal use if copies are unavailable in the Philippines
b. For educational institutions regardless of availability
c. For commercial resale purposes
d. For distribution to libraries only

9. A national system for developing, recognizing, and awarding qualifications based on standards acquired
through different methods.
a) Philippine Qualifications Framework (PQF)
b) Continuing Professional Development (CPD)
c) ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement (ASEANMRA)
d) ASEAN Qualifications Reference Framework (AQRF)

10. What does the term "Bureau" refer to in the context of patent matters?
a. The Director of Patents
b. The Patent examiner
c. The Bureau of Patents
d. The Director General

11. Refers to a status gained after a person has been assessed to have achieved learning outcomes or
competencies in accordance with the standard specified for a qualification title and is proven by a document
issued by a recognized agency or body.
a) Professional
b) Qualification
c) Quality
d) Prior Learning

12. The implementing rules and regulation (IRR) shall be published by the PRC and the PRBs, in consultation
with
a) PRCBOA
b) AIPO/APO
c) CPD Council
d) Board Members

13. Who owns the right to a patent if an invention is jointly made by two or more persons?
a. Only the first person who filed the application
b. Each person individually
c. The person with the most significant contribution
d. All of the above

14. What is the renewal period for certificates of registration?

a. Five years
b. Ten years
c. Fifteen years
d. Twenty years

15. What action can the court take in case of infringement?

a. Issue a warning
b. Impose a fine
c. Grant an injunction
d. None of the above

16. This Section is about the Act repealing or modifying all laws, decrees, executive orders, and other
administrative issuances, or portions of them, that conflict with its requirements.
a) Effectivity
b) Separability
c) Repealing
d) Fraud Relating to CPD

17. Under the CPD Provider Completion Report (Section 5), the submission of the Completion Report shall be
attached in what Annex?
a) Annex A
b) Annex B
c) Annex C
d) Annex K

18. According to Section 61.1 of RA 8293, who can file a petition to cancel a patent in the Philippines?
a. The Director of Legal Affairs of the IPO
b. Anyone with an interest in the patent
c. Only the true inventor
d. Anyone
19. What is NOT a ground for canceling a patent according to Section 61.1 of RA 8293?
a. The invention is already known to the public
b. The patent description is unclear
c. The invention is useful
d. The invention violates public order or morality

20. Sustainable Structures, Disaster Resilience, Green Architecture, and Renewable Energy are CPD
programs that falls under what category?
a) Design
b) Practice
c) Environment and Sustainability
d) Others

21. Which chapter of the Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines deals with compulsory licensing?

a. Chapter X
b. Chapter XI
c. Chapter XII
d. Chapter XIII

22. Based on the section on trademarks, service marks, and trade names, what is the consequence of not
filing a declaration of actual use within three years of a trademark application?

a. The mark will be automatically assigned to a competitor.

b. The applicant will need to pay a higher registration fee.
c. The application will be converted into a utility model application.
d. The registration will be cancelled.

23. Which date is NOT included for the Renewal of PIC in the transitory period?
a) July – December 2016
b) January – June 2017
c) January – December 2018
d) January 2019 – onwards

TRUE OR FALSE

24. According to RA 8293, patents protect inventions or discoveries, granting the patent holder
exclusive rights to use and sell the invention for a limited period. True

25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) is responsible for
accrediting CPD providers and programs. True

26.infringement is the unauthorized use of intellectual property. True

27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of articles,
granting their creators exclusive rights to reproduce and distribute them. True
28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires professionals to complete a minimum of 120 CPD units within a
two-year cycle, with at least 30 units earned from accredited activities, to renew their licenses, while
the remaining 90 units can be obtained through self-directed learning. False

29.According to RA 8293, intellectual property rights are granted indefinitely, without any limitations
on their duration. False

30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows professionals to renew their licenses without completing any CPD
units if they can demonstrate significant contributions to their field through published works or
patents. False

31. Under RA 8293, the protection of intellectual property rights extends to ideas and concepts
themselves, regardless of their expression in tangible form.false False

32. Failure to comply with CPD requirements may result in the non-renewal or suspension of a
professional license under the CPD Act of 2016. True

33. According to the CPD Act of 2016, professionals can obtain CPD units by attending social events
and networking activities relevant to their field, even if they are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC). False
1. A post-baccalaureate, pre-licensure experience of 2 years required of a graduate of architecture
prior to taking the licensure examination, consisting of a variation of experiences in the different
phases of architectural service.
A. Architectural Experience
B. Architectural Specialization
C. Diversified Architectural Experience
D. Diversified Architectural Specialization

2. What is the penalty for accessories involved in the manipulation of professional examinations?
a) Imprisonment ranging from 2 years and one day to 4 years
b) Fine ranging from P5,000.00 to P19,000.00
c) Removal from office
d) Both a and b

3. When do the rules and regulations, Code of Ethical Conduct, and Standards of Professional Practice
become effective?
a. Immediately upon publication
b. After 60 days
c. After 13 days
d. After 15 days

4. How many regional offices does the Professional Regulation Commission have in the
Philippines?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 16
d) 20

5. Who is responsible for verifying the registration status of architects before featuring
them in publications or broadcasts?
a) The architects themselves
b) The readers or viewers
c) Authors and media personalities
d) The government regulatory board

6.Which laws are repealed by the enactment of the Modernization Act?

a) Republic Act No. 546 only
b) Presidential Decree No. 223 only
c) Republic Act No. 7836 only
d) Republic Act No. 546, Presidential Decree No. 223, Republic Act No. 5181, and
others.

7. Which clause ensures that the guidelines remain valid even if certain parts are
deemed unconstitutional or invalid?
a) Effectivity Clause
b) Separability Clause
c) Repealing Clause
d) Compliance Clause
8. What assistance shall law enforcement agencies render concerning the regulatory law of a profession?
a) Administrative support
b) Financial assistance
c) Legal assistance
d) Enforcement assistance

9. For how long is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization program?
a) 3 years
b) 10 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years

10. What is the primary purpose of the licensure examinations for architects?
a.To ensure that architects adhere to global standards of practice.
b. To foster professional growth and development.
c. To recognize the importance of architects in nation building.
d. To nurture competent and virtuous architects.

11. How much is the Commission authorized to use its income for the computerization program annually?
a) P50,000,000.00
b) P40,000,000.00
c) P45,000,000.00
d) P30,000,000.00

12. SPLBE stands for:

a. Special Professional Licensure Board Examinations
b. Senior Practice Licensure Board Examinations
c. Specific Partnership Licensure Board Examinations
d. Selective Performance Licensure Board Examinations

13. It pertains to the existing official national organization of all architects of the Philippines in which all
registered Filipino architects shall be members without prejudice to membership in other voluntary professional
associations;
A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Securities of Exchange
C. Commission
D. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects

14. Which of the following entities is required to renew their registration every three (3)
years?
a. Individual architects only
b. Architectural partnerships only
c. Architectural firms, companies, partnerships, corporations, or associations
d. Non-registered and non-licensed persons involved in architectural practice
15. What happens to the remainder of the Modernization Act if any provision is declared invalid or
unconstitutional?
a) The entire Modernization Act is invalidated.
b) The remainder of the Modernization Act is not affected by the declaration.
c) The Modernization Act is repealed.
d) New provisions are added to the Modernization Act.

16. What action can the Board take against architectural firms or entities found violating
the rules and regulations?
a. Issue a warning letter.
b. Offer a grace period for compliance.
c. Suspend or revoke the Certificate of Registration
d. Impose a fine without further consequences.

17. What permit is required for foreign architects to be allowed to engage in professional architecture projects
in the Philippines?
a. Special/Temporary Permit
b. Sanitary Permit
c. Safety Permit
d. Sales Tax Permit

18. What is the acronym of CPD in Section 28 Article IV?

A. Continuing Professional Development
B. Certificate in Professional Development
C. Community Planning & Development
D. Campus Planning Design

19. FOP stands for:

a. Final on Practice
b. Finance on Permits
c. Formality of Performance
d. Field of Practice

20. The following are qualifications of being a member of the Professional Regulatory Board except one.
A. Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines.
B. Be a holder of a degree in Bachelor of Science in Architecture conferred by a school,
college or university in the Philippines or abroad that is recognized and/or accredited by
the Commission on Higher Education (CHED).
C. Has never been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude.
D. Be at least 24 years of age.

21.In case of a vacancy in the PRBoA, how are replacements appointed?

A) By the President of the Philippines
B) By the IAPOA through an election
C) By the PRC Chairman
D) By the Secretary of the DPWH
22. In Rule IV of PRBoA Resolution No. 05-07, what action must a non-registered architectural firm or entity
take upon receipt of a written notice of non-registration from the Board?
a. Continue operating without changes.
b. Immediately apply for registration
c. File an appeal with the Board.
d. Cease engagement in the practice of architecture.

23.All successful candidates in the examination shall be required to take an_____ of profession before any
member of the Board, any government official authorized by the Commission or any person authorized by law
to administer this, prior to entering upon the practice of the profession.
A) Issuance of Certificates of Registration
B) Professional Identification Card
C) Seal
D) Oath

24. What is the primary duty of the Commission and the Board concerning the enforcement of this Act?
a. To provide legal advice.
b. To render assistance to law enforcement agencies.
c. To prosecute violators.
d. To declare unconstitutional clauses.

25. What discrepancy did PRC BOA Resolution No. 01 (S. 2000) acknowledge regarding
the implementation of the requirement for diversified experience?
a) Lack of mentor information
b) Absence of training period details
c) Insufficient hours rendered documentation
d) All of the above

True or False
26. The licensure exam does not need to be related to the syllabus of CHED. False
27. There are 46 professions that have a PRBo. False
28. You can file a case to the PRC regarding licenses. True
29. PRC has the right to keep a database on those who took and will take license exams. True
30. PRBo can inquire for help from other institutions regarding filled cases related to the license. True
31. The law is called the PCR Moderni zation Act Dec 50 2000.False
32. If one part of the law is not related to the case the case is still valid. False
33. The PRBo alone can suspend licenses. False
Multiple Choices

1. What types of cases does the Bureau of Legal Affairs hear and decide on?
A) Only trademark registration
B) Only patent cancellations
C) Opposition to trademark registration, cancellation of trademarks, and more
D) Only utility model applications

2. This is an act mandating and strengthening the continuing professional development program for
all regulated professions, creating the continuing professional development council, appropriating
funds therefore, and for other related purposes.
A. Republic Act No. 11902
B. Republic Act No. 10912
C. Republic Act No. 1032
D. Republic Act No. 1203

3. What functions shall the Patent and Trademark Administration Services perform among others?
A. Maintain registers of assignments, merging, licenses, and bibliographic on patents and trademarks
B. Collect maintenance fees, issue certified copies of documents in its custody and perform similar
other activities
C. Hold in custody all the applications filed with the office, and all patent grants, certificate of
registrations issued by the office, and the like
D. All of the above

4. The quality assured national system for the development, recognition, and award of qualifications
at defined levels, based on standards of knowledge, skills, and values, acquired in different ways and
methods by learners and workers.
A. Pathways and Equivalencies
B. Quality Assurance
C. Qualification
D. Philippine Qualification Framework

5. All matters required to be published under this Act shall be published in the Office's own publication
to be known as the ______.
A. Watermark
B. Logo of the Office
C. Seal of Office
D. The IPO Gazette

6. The Director General shall exercise the following powers and functions EXCEPT:
A. Manage and direct all functions and activities of the Office, including the promulgation of rules and
regulations to implement the objectives, policies, plans, programs and projects of the Office.
B. Coordination with other agencies of government in relation to the enforcement of
intellectual property rights.
C. Establish policies and standards for the effective, efficient, and economical operations of the
department in accordance with government programs.
D. Prioritizing the establishment of fees for the filing and processing of an application for a patent,
utility model or industrial design or

7. Refers to the card bearing the registration number, dates of issuance and expiry, duly signed by the
Chairperson of the Commission issued to a registered professional upon payment of fees.
A. Professional Regulatory Card
B. Professional Identification Card
C. Identification Card
D. Certificate of Registration Card

8. One of the following QUALIFICATION is that the Director General and the Deputies Director
General must be natural born citizens of the Philippines, and at least of the age of?
A. 45 years of age
B. 35 years of age
C. 55 years of age
D. 25 years of age

9. Under the Republic Act 8293 The Intellectual Property Code, what Section contains The Bureau of
Patents?
A. Section 9
B. Section 7
C. Section 5
D. Section 8

10. On the Administrative level; Which aspect of infrastructure is focused on through the procurement
of facilities/equipment and allocation of working space?
A. Upgrading of Physical Infrastructure
B. Enhancement of IT infrastructure
C. Improvement of human infrastructure
D. Communication drive

11. The first Director General shall have a first term of ________ years. Appointment to any vacancy
shall be only for the unexpired term of the predecessor.
A. Eleven (11) years
B. Eighteen (18) years
C. Seven (7) years
D. Two (2) years
12. The Bureau of Trademarks conduct studies and research in the field of trademarks in order to
assist the Director General in formulating policies on the?
A. Administration and examination of trademarks.
B. Administration of fees and Trademarks
C. Administration of tax and revenue
D. Administration of Legal examinations of transaction

13. In Section 8.2.4 Accreditation of CPD Programs; When applying for accreditation of a program to
the CPD Council, what information should the CPD provider indicate for monitoring purposes?
A. The number of participants in the program
B. The location of the program
C. The duration of the program
D. The number of times the program will be offered

14. Related Rights shall be appealable to the Court of Appeals in accordance with the Rules of Court;
and those in respect of the decisions of the Director of Documentation, Information and Technology
Transfer Bureau shall be appealable to the?
A. Secretary of Department of Justice
B. President of the Philippines
C. Secretary of Trade and Industry
D. International Trademark officer

15. What does the “Office” refer to under this Act?

A.) Intellectual Understanding
B.) Intellectual Property Rights
C.) Intellectual Property Bureau
D.) Intellectual Property Office

16. Refers to contracts or agreements involving the transfer of systematic knowledge for the
manufacture of a product, the application of a process, or rendering of a service including
management contracts; and the transfer, assignment or licensing of all forms of intellectual property
rights, including licensing of computer software except computer software developed for mass
market.
A.) Intellectual Transfer Arrangements
B.) Transfer of Documents Agency
C.) Technology Transfer Arrangements
D.) Contract and Sales Management

17. What is a Mandatory requirement in the renewal of the Professional Identification Cards (PICs) of
registered and licensed professionals under the regulation of the Commission?
A. Continuing Professional Development (CPD)
B. Professional Examination
C. Work Experience
D. Training Seminars

18. In Section 5. Rule 14. Presumptive Approval; What happens to CPD programs that are duly
submitted for accreditation if no feedback is received from the CPD Council after 10 (Ten) working
days?
A. They are automatically rejected
B. They are deemed approved
C. They are put on hold indefinitely
D. They are returned to the CPD providers for revision

19. In which type of agreement is Continuing Professional Development (CPD) a recognition and
eligibility requirement for professionals intending to practice in certain countries?
A. Bilateral agreements
B. Unilateral agreements
C. Multilateral agreements
D. Non-agreements

20. This sector conducts studies and research in the field of patents to assist the Director General in
formulating policies on the administration and examination of patents.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Bureau of Internal Revenue
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Bureau of Patents
21. In Annex “A” on the Administrative level; What is the purpose of establishing the CPD
Accreditation System as part of the enhancement of IT infrastructure?
A. To provide free CPD courses for professionals
B. To facilitate online CPD transactions like filing of applications for accreditation
C. To create a social media platform for professionals to connect
D. To organize physical CPD events only

22. This sector accepts, review, and decide on applications for accreditation of collective
management organizations or similar entities
A. Bureau of Copyright and Other Related Rights
B. Bureau of Trade and Industry
C. Bureau of Treasury
D. Bureau of Finance and Statistics

23. Intellectual Property Rights consist of...?

A.) Copyright and Related Rights, Trademarks and Service Marks, Geographic Indications,
Industrial Designs
B.) Copyright Rights, Trademarks and Geographic Designs, Industrial Designs
C.) Trademarks and Service Marks, Mountain Range, Circuit Designs
D.) Copyright and Related Patents, Services, Geography, Industrial Work

TRUE OR FALSE

24. According to RA 8293, patents protect inventions or discoveries, granting the patent holder
exclusive rights to use and sell the invention for a limited period. True

25. Under the CPD Act of 2016, the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) is responsible for
accrediting CPD providers and programs. True

26.infringement is the unauthorized use of intellectual property. True

27.Industrial designs, under RA 8293, refer to the aesthetic or ornamental aspects of articles,
granting their creators exclusive rights to reproduce and distribute them. True

28. The CPD Act of 2016 requires professionals to complete a minimum of 120 CPD units within a
two-year cycle, with at least 30 units earned from accredited activities, to renew their licenses, while
the remaining 90 units can be obtained through self-directed learning. False
29.According to RA 8293, intellectual property rights are granted indefinitely, without any limitations
on their duration. False

30.The CPD Act of 2016 allows professionals to renew their licenses without completing any CPD
units if they can demonstrate significant contributions to their field through published works or
patents. False

31. Under RA 8293, the protection of intellectual property rights extends to ideas and concepts
themselves, regardless of their expression in tangible form.false False

32. Failure to comply with CPD requirements may result in the non-renewal or suspension of a
professional license under the CPD Act of 2016. True

33. According to the CPD Act of 2016, professionals can obtain CPD units by attending social events
and networking activities relevant to their field, even if they are not officially accredited by the
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC). False