EVALUATION EXAM 4

55 items – 210 minutes

1. In 2035, total debt (credit cards, auto loans, home mortgages, etc.) will amount to more than 100% of total
disposable income for the average Philippine household. If your total disposable income is Php 500,000, how
much interest can you expect to pay when the average interest rate on your debt is 12% per year?
A. Php 500,000 B. Php 60,000 C. Php 12,000 D. Php 50,000

2. Given the following cash flows for investment, if the investor wants a single cash flow on Year 2, how much
should he invest in Year 2 (i=6%)?
Year 1: 2,000 Year 2: 3,000 Year 3: 4,000 Year 4: 3,000 Year 5: 2,000
A. Php 14,879.62 B. Php 13,550.01 C. Php 14,603.01 D. Php 13,242.81

3. A gaming computer has a cost basis of Php 60,000 and a four-year depreciable life. The estimated salvage value
of the computer is Php 15,000 at the end of four years. Determine the book value of the gaming computer at
the start of Year 4.
A. Php 26,250 B. Php 11,250 C. Php 33,750 D. Php 15,000

4. What is the discounted payback period of an investment of Php 300,000 that earns Php 50,000 annually (i=4%)?
A. 6 years B. 7 years C. 8 years D. 4 years

5. Given the following costs per cup of coffee that you sell. Determine the breakeven point.
Direct material cost per cup = Php 10 Variable overhead @ 40% on direct labor
Direct labor cost per cup = Php 5 Selling price per unit = Php 25
Fixed overhead = Php 50,000
A. 1725 cups B. 1615 cups C. 5620 cups D. 6250 cups

6. The average score of a student in an exam is 44.8% with a standard deviation of 5.8%. If you randomly select a
student, what are the odds that a student will have a score greater than 60%?
A. 0.0044% B. 4.40% C. 0.44% D. 0.044%

7. The histogram on the right shows the range of Viral

Infection XYZ cases worldwide as of July 2023 and the
frequency of countries for each range i.e. there are 7
countries that has more than 10 million Viral Infection
XYZ cases. What is the relative frequency of countries
with cases of more than 1 million but less than 10
million?
A. 19% C. 3%
B. 16% D. 17%

8. You wish to examine the number of units of

Warehouse No. Products stored (unit) Area (m2)
products that can be stored in your warehouses
1 1726 3681
based on the area of the warehouses. Given the
2 1542 3395
data, what is the minimum warehouse area
3 2816 6653
needed before you can store the product in the 4 5555 9543
warehouse? 5 1292 3318
A. 1636.4 m2 C. 1.487m2 6 2208 5563
2
B. 2026 m D. 0.9420 m2 7 1313 3760
9. Type of sampling wherein the subjects are grouped based on common attributes, the number of sample from
each group is computed, and then sample is randomly selected from each group.
A. Systematic Sampling C. Stratified Sampling
B. Cluster Sampling D. Simple Sampling

10. For non-normal data distributions that do not behave like a bell curve, the _________________ applies.
A. Law of Large Numbers C. Bayes’ Theorem
B. Central Limit Theorem D. Chebyshev’s Theorem

11. Given the following data: 63.5, 67.9, 66.5, 68.2, 67.3
Determine the variance.
A. 1.89 B. 3.58 C. 1.69 D. 2.87

12. Which of the following is NOT an effect of disposing waste heat into water bodies?
A. Increased rate of oxygen depletion C. Enhanced coral bleaching
B. Increased solubility of carbon dioxide D. Decreased solubility of oxygen

13. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand (mg/L) of 210 mg/L of glutamic acid (C 5H9O4N).
A. 296.88 B. 205.53 C. 57.09 D. 1148.44

14. A sample of municipal sewage is diluted to 2.5% by volume prior to running a BOD5 analysis. After 5 days, the
oxygen consumption is determined to be 3.00 mg/L. What is the BOD5 (mg/L) of the sewage?
A. 300 B. 100 C. 250 D. 120

For numbers 15-16:

15. The Loyola tannery with a wastewater flow of 0.011 m3/s and a BOD5 of 590 mg/L discharges into the Davao
River. The river has a 10-year, 7-day low flow of 1.7 m3/s. Upstream of the tannery, the BOD5 of the river is
0.6 mg/L. The BOD rate constants (k) are 0.115/day for the Loyola tannery and 3.7/day for the river. Calculate
the initial ultimate BOD after mixing.
A. 9.27 mg/L B. 15.86 mg/L C. 4.39 mg/L D. 27.14 mg/L

16. A short distance downstream from the Loyola tannery, a paper factory and a municipal wastewater treatment
plant also discharge into the Davao River. The flow rate and ultimate BOD of the paper factory is 0.13 m3/s and
255 mg/L respectively, while for the municipal WWTP, the flow rate is 0.02 m3/s and the ultimate BOD is 75
mg/L. Determine the initial ultimate BOD after mixing of the Davao river and the three wastewater discharges.
A. 9.27 mg/L B. 15.86 mg/L C. 4.39 mg/L D. 27.14 mg/L

17. The effect where combination of pollutants that alone cause no damage produce acute effects when combined
A. Interdependency C. Synergism
B. Joint pollution D. Pollution retention

18. Given the following temperature and elevation data, determine the stability of
Elevation (m) 2.00 324.00
the atmosphere.
Temperature (°C) 14.35 11.13
A. neutral C. unstable
B. stable D. isothermal

19. Cement dust is characterized by very fine particulates. The exhaust gas temperatures from a cement kiln are
very hot. Which of the following air pollution control devices would appear to be appropriate?
A. Venturi Scrubber C. ESP
B. Baghouse D. All of the above.
20. Calculate the volumetric flow rate of leachate through a compacted clay liner if the area of the landfill is 21 ha and
the liner thickness is 1.3 m. The hydraulic conductivity is 2.5 x 10 -10 m/s. Assume that the head of water is 0.8 m.
A. 2.8 m3/yr B. 8.2 m3/day C. 2.8 m3/day D. 8.2 m3/yr

21. The Quantum Stone Works employs thirteen people. Assuming that the density of uncompacted waste is 530
kg/m3, determine the annual volume of solid waste produced by the stone works assuming a waste generation
rate of 1.1 kg/cap-day.
A. 8.14 m3/yr B. 9.85 m3/yr C. 10.15 m3/yr D. 16.37 m3/yr

22. The Mars landfill located in Solaris serves a population of 562,400 people generating MSW at a rate of 1.89
kg/cap·day. The volume of the landfill is 11,240,000 m 3. At the present time, 63% of the landfill is used. The ratio
of cover to compacted fill is 1.9. Determine projected life remaining for the landfill. Assume the density of the
compacted waste to be 490 kg/m3.
A. 2.76 years B. 4.05 years C. 3.18 years D. 1.79 years

23. Which of the following is/are true about zero-force members in a truss?
I. If two non-collinear members meet in an unloaded joint, both are zero-force members.
II. If three members meet in an unloaded joint of which two are collinear, then the third member is a zero-force
member.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. none

For numbers 24-25: A truss system is composed of six 3-m members (AB, BC, CD, BF, CE, and EF) and three members
(AF, CF, and DE). Joints A, B, C, and D are collinear, BF and CE are perpendicular to BC while EF is parallel to BC. It is
pin supported a point A and roller supported at point D. Downward loads at joints B and C are 9 and 12 kN,
respectively while 6 kN to the right is exerted to joint F.
24. What is the force at member EF?
A. 13 kN, T B. 13 kN, C C. 20 kN, T D. 20 kN, C

25. What is the force at member CE?

A. 13 kN, T B. 13 kN, C C. 20 kN, T D. 20 kN, C

26. A semi-circle sits on top of an inverted right triangle, one of its legs is 9 and the other one is the diameter of
the semi-circle which is 6. Where is the centroid located?
A. 2.34 from one of the legs, 1.53 below the diameter of the semi-circle
B. 1.53 from one of the legs, 2.34 below the diameter of the semi-circle
C. 3.66 from one of the legs, 1.53 above the diameter of the semi-circle
D. 1.53 from one of the legs, 3.66 above the diameter of the semi-circle

27. A 12-inch square steel bearing plate lies between an 8-inch diameter wooden post and a concrete footing.
Determine the maximum value of the load P applied on the wooden post if the stress in wood is limited to
1800 psi and that in concrete to 650 psi.
A. 203.6 kips B. 93.6 kips C. 90.5 kips D. 41.6 kips

For numbers 28-29: Suppose a 6 m solid steel shaft is designed to not twist through more than 3 degrees when
subjected to 12 kN·m torque. Consider the modulus of rigidity of steel equal to 83 GPa.
28. What is the minimum diameter?
A. 41.43 mm B. 113.98 mm C. 49.27 mm D. 135.54 mm

29. What maximum shearing stress is developed?

A. 511.13 MPa B. 41.28 MPa C. 24.54 MPa D. 859.61 MPa
30. A steel propeller shaft is to transmit 4.5 MW at 3 Hz without exceeding a shearing stress of 50 MPa or twisting
through more than 1 degree in a length of 26 times its diameter. Compute its diameter if G = 83 GPa.
A. 352.08 mm B. 289.71 mm C. 534.60 mm D. 649.69 mm

31. A shaft has shear modulus of 80 GPa. Determine the torsional stiffness if polar moment of inertia is 80 mm⁴ and
length is 1 m.
A. 6.4 N-mm B. 64 N-m C. 640 N-mm D. 6400 N-m

32. Alkanes are also known as

A. paraffins B. olefins C. acetylenes D. arenes

33. Constitutional isomers are

A. isomers with a difference in 3D arrangement.
B. isomers having atoms bonded to different atoms.
C. compounds having exactly the same physical properties.
D. compounds that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other.

34. This aromatic hydrocarbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of organic materials. It is found in cigarette
smoke, automobile exhaust, and the fumes from charcoal grills.
A. toluene B. polystyrene C. naphthalene D. benzopyrene

35. Which alkyl halide out of the following may follow both SN1 and SN2 mechanism?
A. CH3-X B. (CH3)2CH-X C. (CH3)3C-X D. (CH3)3C-CH2-X

36. Which of the following isomeric alcohols is the most soluble in water?
A. n-butyl alcohol B. isobutyl alcohol C. sec-butyl alcohol D. tert-butyl alcohol

37. The compound 3-phenylprop-2-enal is also known as _________.

A. crotonaldehyde B. cinnamaldehyde C. salicylaldehyde D. vanillin

38. These compounds are used in the manufacture of perfumes and as flavoring agents in the confectionery and
soft drink industries. Many fruits owe their characteristic smell and flavor to the presence of small quantities of
these compounds.
A. alkanes B. ethers C. esters D. amines

39. Hydrolysis of lactose yields

A. galactose and fructose C. glucose and fructose
B. galactose and glucose D. fructose and galactose

40. Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of
A. β-sheets B. α-helices C. β-turns D. None of these

41. Triacylglycerols are

A. soluble in water C. soluble in water at elevated temperature
B. insoluble in water D. partially soluble in water

42. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with

A. 2 double bonds B. 3 double bonds C. One double bond D. None of these

43. Beta pleated sheets are examples of protein's

A. primary structure C. tertiary structure
B. secondary structure D. quaternary structure
44. An example of a transamination process is
A. glutamate = hexanoic acid + NH3
B. aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + oxaloacetate
C. aspartate + α ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
D. glutamate = α-ketoglutarate + NH3

45. In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to

A. fumarate B. tyrosine C. lysine D. phenylpuruvate

46. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

A. ribose B. galactose C. mannose D. maltose

47. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?

A. Uracil B. Deoxyribose C. Phosphate D. Adenine

48. Esterification reaction

A. produces soap. C. is a reaction between an alcohol and an organic acid.
B. is reversible. D. all (a), (b) and (c).

49. Which of the following is an organometallic compound?

A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Tetraethyl lead C. Zeolite D. Cumene

50. Raw materials used for producing _____ cement does not contain iron oxide.
A. waterproof B. slag C. white D. pozzolan

51. Neon gas is

A. flammable in nature. C. filled in lamps having tungsten filament.
B. used in color discharge tube. D. all (a), (b) and (c).

52. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Growth-associated products are directly involved in cellular metabolism.
B. The heating stage to cooling stage for sterilization takes 15 minutes.
C. The dilution rate can be used to regulate microbial growth rate.
D. The ratio Nt/N0 is also called the survival factor.

53. Calculate the specific growth rate (hr -1) of a certain microorganism (μmax = 0.6 hr-1, Ks = 50 mg/L) at a substrate
concentration of 400 mg/L.
A. 0.49 B. 0.55 C. 0.47 D. 0.53

54. An amount of 1 g of bacteria was found to grow at a rate of 20 g/day when the substrate concentration is high.
Another experiment found that the same mass of bacteria can utilize the substrate at a rate of 10 g/day when the
substrate concentration is 15 mg/L. What is the growth rate in g/day by 2 g of bacteria if the substrate concentration
is set at 50 mg/L?
A. 30.8 B. 15.4 C. 18.5 D. 9.23

55. An initial substrate concentration of 900 mg/L is reduced to 350 mg/L. During this process, 450 mg/L of the
product was formed. What is the yield coefficient for the product formation?
A. 1.22 B. 0.78 C. 0.82 D. 1.29

***END OF EXAM***
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