Software Project Management (SPM)

1 of 4 sets

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?

A. keeping overall costs within budget
B. delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
C. maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
D. avoiding customer complaints
Answer:D

Explanation:- projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always

subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.

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2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
A. true
. c
B. false
te
Answer:B a
q M
Explanation:- risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or

c
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
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3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A. specification delays
B. product competition
C. testing
D. staff turnover
Answer:C

Explanation:- testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A. project management
B. manager life cycle
C. project management life cycle
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:C
Explanation:- a proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage
projects successfully.

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

A. very low
B. low
C. moderate
D. high
Answer:D

Explanation:- the probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%),
moderate (25–50%), high (50–

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
A. travel and training costs
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A. team
B. project
C. customers
D. project manager
Answer:B

Explanation:- the quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these
are to be assessed.

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of

a software system?
A. internship management
B. change management
C. version management

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 D. system management
Answer:A

Explanation:- configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process
proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage
different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.

9. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be

measured and the external quality attribute.
A. true
B. false
Answer:B

Explanation:- the value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the
attribute than can be measured.

10. Which of these truly defines Software design?

A. software design is an activity subjected to constraints
B. software design specifies nature and composition of software product
C. software design satisfies client needs and desires
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- software design explains all of the statements as its definition.

11. Which of these describes stepwise refinement?

A. nicklaus wirth described the first software engineering method as stepwise refinement
B. stepwise refinement follows its existence from 1971
C. it is a top down approach
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- it is top down approach and not bottom up.

12. What is incorrect about structural design?

A. structural design introduced notations and heuristics
B. structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition
C. the advantage is data flow representation
D. it follows structure chart

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Answer:C

Explanation:- the biggest drawback or problem is a data flow diagram of structure design.

13. What is the solution for Structural design?

A. the specification model following data flow diagram
B. procedures represented as bubbles
C. specification model is structure chart showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow of data in
and out of procedures
D. emphasizing procedural decomposition
Answer:C

Explanation:- it is solution to central problem. rest others are problems.

14. Which of the following is an incorrect method for structural design?

A. transition of problem models to solution models
B. handling of larger and more complex products
C. designing object oriented systems
D. more procedural approach
Answer:B

Explanation:- it does not account for larger and complex products.

15. What is followed by the design task?

A. choosing specific classes, operations
B. checking model’s completeness
C. following design task heuristics
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- all of these tasks are followed by a design task.

16. Which of this analysis are not acceptable?

A. object oriented design is a far better approach compared to structural design
B. object oriented design always dominates structural design
C. object oriented design are given more preference than structural design
D. object oriented uses more specific notations
Answer:B

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Explanation:- though object oriented design is considered a far better approach but it never
dominates structural approach.

17. Which of these does not represent object oriented design?

A. it follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition
B. programs are thought of collection of objects
C. central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their
relationships to one another
D. object-oriented methods incorporates structural methods
Answer:A

Explanation:- it does not follow regular procedural decomposition.

18. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional

responsibility
A. confidentiality
B. intellectual property rights
C. both confidentiality & intellectual property rights
D. managing client relationships
Answer:C

Explanation:- engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients
irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.

19. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other
people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
A. unauthorized access to computer material
B. unauthorized modification of computer material
C. dissemination of viruses or other malware
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- none.

20. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight
principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
A. the product should be easy to use
B. software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest
professional standards possible

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 C. software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
D. it means that the product designed /created should be easily available
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

21. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:

A. your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
B. refusing to undertake a project
C. agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

22. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall

A. act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
B. act consistently with the public interest.”
C. ensure that their products only meet the srs.”
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and
employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related
modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.thus options a & c are ruled out.

23. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should

A. not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
B. not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
C. be dependent on their colleagues.”
D. maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Answer:C

Explanation:- none.

24. Efficiency in a software product does not include

A. responsiveness
B. licensing
C. memory utilization

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 D. processing time
Answer:B

Explanation:- licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.

25. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

A. software companies
B. software developers
C. both software companies and developers
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:C

Explanation:- software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working
atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software
development process.bugs from developers side is no new thing. thus option c answers the
question.

26. Company has latest computers and state- of the- art software tools, so we
shouldn’t worry about the quality of the product.
A. true
B. false
Answer:B

Explanation:- the infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the
product.

27. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software
Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
A. public
B. profession
C. product
D. environment
Answer:D

Explanation:- rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause
nor its of importace related to question.

28. Which of these does not account for software failure ?

A. increasing demand
B. low expectation

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 C. increasing supply
D. less reliable and expensive
Answer:C

Explanation:- increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.

29. What are attributes of good software ?

A. software maintainability
B. software functionality
C. software development
D. software maintainability & functionality
Answer:D

Explanation:- good software should deliver the required functinality, maintainability.

30. Which of these is true ?

A. generic products and customized products are types of software products
B. generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
C. customized products are commissioned by particular customer
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- all of them are true.

31. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
A. heterogeneity
B. flexibility
C. business and social change
D. security
Answer:B

Explanation:- option b & c are a part of software engineering as a subject,hence option a covers
them both.

32. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
A. software processes
B. software security
C. software reuse
D. software validation

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Answer:D

Explanation:- software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for
engineering.

33. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

A. productivity
B. portability
C. timeliness
D. visibility
Answer:B

Explanation:- portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different
hardware platforms or software environments.

34. & are two kinds of software products.

A. cad, cam
B. firmware, embedded
C. generic, customised
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:C

Explanation:- rest all are sub categories/applications of option c.

35. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.

A. true
B. false
Answer:A

Explanation:- for systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development
costs.

36. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software

product?
A. keypad control of a security system
B. pattern recognition game playing
C. digital function of dashboard display in a car
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:B

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Explanation:- pattern recognition uses artificial intelligence (ai) software.

37. Purpose of process is to deliver software

A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D. both in time & with acceptable quality
Answer:D

Explanation:- cost of a software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.

38. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a

feedback report?
A. communication
B. planning
C. modeling & construction
D. deployment
Answer:D

Explanation:- in deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and
provides feedback based on the evaluation.

39. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another
project.
A. true
B. false
Answer:B

Explanation:- the overall flow of activities, actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to the software
team and the inter dependencies among two process can never be the same.

40. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the
five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress,
quality, change, and risk.
A. reusability management
B. risk management
C. measurement
D. user reviews
Answer:D

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Explanation:- none.

41. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of
the following is not one that falls into such category?
A. translation
B. correction
C. adaptation
D. prevention
Answer:A

Explanation:- translation is done in the development phase.

42. SCM stands for

A. software control management
B. software configuration management
C. software concept management
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- in software engineering, software configuration management (scm) is the task of

tracking and controlling changes in the software, part of the larger cross- discipline field of
configuration management.

43. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an

A. hard drive
B. access-controlled library
C. servers
D. access control
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

44. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM)
Process?
A. cm planning
B. executing the cm process
C. cm audits
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:D

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Explanation:- all are main phases of cm.

45. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
A. true
B. false
C. topic 1.6 management control
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

46. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
A. version control
B. access control
C. cm process
D. version control and access control
Answer:A

Explanation:- it allows software engineers to continue development along a branch even when a line
of development is frozen.

47. Which of the following is not a change management process?

A. log the changes
B. estimate impact on effort and schedule
C. review impact with stakeholders
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- all are required for a change.

48. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client

A. true
B. false
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

49. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally
reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
A. baseline
B. cumulative changes

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 C. cm
D. change control
Answer:A

Explanation:- in configuration management, a “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the attributes

of a product, at a point in time, which serves as a basis for defining change.

50. How are baselines verified?

A. by reviews
B. by inspections
C. by testing of code
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:C

Explanation:- testing verifies the agreed-to description.

51. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?

A. scm procedures
B. source code
C. software design descriptions
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- all are covered in cm.

52. SCM controls only the products of the development process.

A. true
B. false
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

53. CCB stands for

A. change control board
B. change control baseline
C. cumulative changes in baseline
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

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54. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?
A. reasons for making the changes
B. a description of the proposed changes
C. list of other items affected by the changes
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- a baseline is an agreed-to description of the product, changes require multiple

reasons..

55. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and
efficacy of estimates?
A. project size
B. planning process
C. project complexity
D. degree of structural uncertainty
Answer:A

Explanation:- as size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software
grows rapidly.

56. What describes the data and control to be processed?

A. planning process
B. software scope
C. external hardware
D. project complexity
Answer:B

Explanation:- functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases
refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.

57. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented

approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a
project called
A. jad
B. class
C. fast
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:C

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Explanation:- facilitated application specification techniques

58. CLSS stands for

A. conveyor line sorting system
B. conveyor line sorting software
C. conveyor line sorting speed
D. conveyor line sorting specification
Answer:A

Explanation:- the conveyor line sorting system (clss) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line.
each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at
the end of the line.

59. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important
software functions which is known as
A. association
B. decomposition
C. planning process
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- none

60. The environment that supports the software project is called

A. clss
B. see
C. fast
D. cbse
Answer:B

Explanation:- software engineering environment (see), incorporates hardware and software.

61. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a

potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?
A. automated estimation tools
B. empirical estimation models
C. decomposition techniques
D. both automated estimation tools and empirical estimation models
Answer:B

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Explanation:- an estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to
predict effort as a function of loc or fp.

62. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

A. predicting staffing levels
B. predicting software cost
C. predicting software schedules
D. predicting clients demands
Answer:D

Explanation:- demands can vary from client to client.

63. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of
good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
A. true
B. false
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

64. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

A. winwin spiral model
B. incremental model
C. concurrent development model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:D

Explanation:- none.

65. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two

models?
A. build & fix model & waterfall model
B. linear model & rad model
C. linear model & prototyping model
D. waterfall model & rad model
Answer:C

Explanation:- each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.

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66. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
A. customer can respond to each increment
B. easier to test and debug
C. it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
D. easier to test and debug & it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Answer:D

Explanation:- incremental model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of
software development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is
popular particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.however, option
“a” can be seen in other models as well like rad model,hence option “d” answers the question.

67. The spiral model was originally proposed by

A. ibm
B. barry boehm
C. pressman
D. royce
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

68. The spiral model has two dimensions namely and

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular
D. diagonal, perpendicular
Answer:C

Explanation:- the radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. each loop of the spiral from x-
axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.

69. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

A. it defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
B. it defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
C. it defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
D. it defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

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Answer:B

Explanation:- except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in spiral model as well.

70. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

A. doesn’t work well for smaller projects
B. high amount of risk analysis
C. strong approval and documentation control
D. additional functionality can be added at a later date
Answer:A

Explanation:- all other options are the advantages of spiral model.

71. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.

A. true
B. false
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

72. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

A. progress can be measured for incremental model
B. changing requirements can be accommodated in incremental model
C. users can see the system early in incremental model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

73. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
A. winwin spiral model
B. spiral model
C. concurrent model
D. incremental model
Answer:C

Explanation:- when applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model defines
activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.thus concurrency is
achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using
the state-oriented approach.

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74. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
A. client
B. investor
C. production team
D. project manager
Answer:D

Explanation:- risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or
the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.

75. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform
as expected?
A. product risk
B. project risk
C. business risk
D. programming risk
Answer:A

Explanation:- risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.

76. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
A. staff turnover
B. technology change
C. management change
D. product competition
Answer:C

Explanation:- none.

77. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying
technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
A. technology change
B. product competition
C. requirements change
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:A

Explanation:- technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software

engineering.

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78. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?
A. risk monitoring
B. risk planning
C. risk analysis
D. risk identification
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

79. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment
where the software is being developed?
A. people risks
B. technology risks
C. estimation risks
D. organizational risks
Answer:D

Explanation:- these risks are at management level.

80. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware
technologies that are used to develop the system?
A. managerial risks
B. technology risks
C. estimation risks
D. organizational risks
Answer:B

Explanation:- the risks associated with technology might affect the product development.

81. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive
traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
A. underestimated development time
B. organizational restructuring
C. requirements changes
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:C

Explanation:- tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.

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82. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be
reduced?
A. avoidance strategies
B. minimization strategies
C. contingency plans
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

83. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project
management tasks.
A. true
B. false
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

84. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

A. process introduction
B. process analysis
C. de-processification
D. process distribution
Answer:B

Explanation:- the current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are
identified.

85. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort
estimate?
A. base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
B. use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
C. use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
D. the ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Answer:D

Explanation:- none.

86. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of LOC
(Line of Code).

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 A. 100-200
B. 200-400
C. 400-1000
D. above 1000
Answer:A

Explanation:- build & fix model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200
lines.

87. RAD stands for

A. relative application development
B. rapid application development
C. rapid application document
D. none of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- none.

88. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

A. horizontal prototype
B. vertical prototype
C. diagonal prototype
D. domain prototype
Answer:C

Explanation:- their is no such thing as diagonal prototype whereas other options have their
respective definitions.

89. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

A. quick design
B. coding
C. prototype refinement
D. engineer product
Answer:B

Explanation:- a prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.

90. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
A. no room for structured design

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 B. code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
C. maintenance is practically not possible
D. it scales up well to large projects
Answer:D

Explanation:- build & fix model is suitable for 100-200 loc

91. RAD Model has

A. 2 phases
B. 3 phase
C. 5 phases
D. 6 phases
Answer:C

Explanation:- rad model consists of five phases namely:business modeling,data modeling,process

modeling,application generation and testing & turnover.

92. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

A. highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
B. increases reusability of components
C. encourages customer/client feedback
D. increases reusability of components, highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required
Answer:D

Explanation:- the client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-
develop functionality.also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

93. SDLC stands for

A. software development life cycle
B. system development life cycle
C. software design life cycle
D. system design life cycle
Answer:A

Explanation:- none.

94. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
A. waterfall model

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 B. prototyping model
C. rad model
D. both prototyping model & rad model
Answer:C

Explanation:- none.

95. Agile Software Development is based on

A. incremental development
B. iterative development
C. linear development
D. both incremental and iterative development
Answer:D

Explanation:- the software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements
to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and
continuous delivery of valuable software. they are iterative because they work on one iteration
followed by improvements in next iteration

96. Which on of the following is not an agile method?

A. xp
B. 4gt
C. aup
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:B

Explanation:- the 4gt approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback,which is
the fundamental aspect of an agile method.

97. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
A. true
B. false
Answer:B

Explanation:- the aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and

98. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?

A. outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
B. specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved

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 C. iteration occurs within activities
D. all of the mentioned
Answer:C

Explanation:- a plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate

development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.

99. How many phases are there in Scrum ?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
Answer:B

Explanation:- there are three phases in scrum.the initial phase is an outline planning phase followed
by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.

100. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any
change?
A. build & fix model
B. prototyping model
C. rad model
D. waterfall model
Answer:D

Explanation:- real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the waterfall model proposes.

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