Book

Corrosion Prevention by Protective Coatings (Munger) (1)

Topic
Surface Preparation
From page 199 to 236
1. What is the primary objective of surface preparation in coating applications?
a. To create a smooth surface
b. To ensure maximum bond strength between coating and substrate
c. To remove all surface contaminants
d. To enhance the appearance of the coating

2. In the automotive industry, what contributes significantly to the durability of exterior

coatings?
a. The thickness of the coating
b. The type of metal used in the body
c. Meticulous surface preparation
d. The application technique of the coating

3. Which type of failure is preferable if any failure occurs in coatings?

a. Adhesive failure
b. Cohesive failure
c. Mechanical failure
d. Chemical failure

4. What is the ideal outcome of surface preparation in terms of coating failure?

a. Adhesive failure
b. Cohesive failure
c. Mechanical failure
d. Chemical failure

5. What type of bond is formed in chemical adhesion between coating and substrate?
a. Ionic bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Covalent bond
d. Van der Waals bond

6. What is polar adhesion based on?

a. Magnetic attraction
b. Electrostatic attraction
c. Gravitational attraction
d. Nuclear attraction
7. What type of adhesion involves physical physiochemical attractions between resin
molecules and the substrate surface molecular structure?
a. Chemical adhesion
b. Polar adhesion
c. Mechanical adhesion
d. Covalent adhesion

8. At what distance does secondary valency attractions become effective?

a. 10 A
b. 5 A
c. 15 A
d. 20 A

9. Which factor significantly influences the strength of secondary valency attractions?

a. Surface roughness
b. Surface temperature
c. Intermolecular distance
d. Surface pressure

10. What nullifies adhesion according to the text?

a. Monomolecular films of oil
b. Grains of dirt
c. Surface roughness
d. Both a and b

11. What is the primary reason why chemical bonding is essential in surface treatments
like conversion coatings?
a. To increase surface roughness
b. To enhance mechanical adhesion
c. To produce an all-inorganic surface
d. To create a combination of inorganic and organic surfaces

12. Which type of adhesion is primarily associated with surface roughness or anchor
pattern?
a. Mechanical adhesion
b. Chemical adhesion
c. Molecular adhesion
d. Electrical adhesion
13. What is the primary objective of surface preparation according to the text?
a. To increase surface area
b. To remove extraneous materials
c. To develop maximum coating adhesion
d. To eliminate chemical reaction products

14. Which of the following statements about primer application is true according to the
text?
a. Primers adhere well to contaminants.
b. Primers are formulated to adhere primarily to contaminants.
c. Contamination enhances primer adhesion.
d. Proper surface cleaning is crucial before priming.

15. What effect does increasing surface roughness have on adhesion according to the
text?
a. It reduces mechanical adhesion.
b. It decreases the number of bonding sites.
c. It improves both mechanical and chemical adhesion.
d. It has no effect on adhesion.

16. Why is surface preparation considered crucial in coating applications?

a. It enhances the visual appeal of the coating.
b. It increases the cost-effectiveness of the coating process.
c. It ensures proper bonding and adhesion of the coating.
d. It reduces the time required for coating application.

17. What is the significance of abrasive blasting in surface preparation?

a. It reduces the need for primer application.
b. It increases surface contamination.
c. It enhances surface roughness and increases bonding sites.
d. It eliminates the need for surface cleaning.

18. What happens to coating adhesion as the amount of surface contamination

increases?
a. It remains unchanged.
b. It increases proportionally.
c. It decreases proportionally.
d. It becomes unpredictable.
19. What is the main reason for neglecting surface preparation in coating jobs, according
to the text?
a. Lack of awareness about its importance
b. Psychological barriers and resentment towards the process
c. Limited availability of surface preparation equipment
d. Complexity and time-consuming nature of surface preparation tasks

20. When did surface abrasive blasting gain significant interest as a surface preparation
technique?
a. During World War I
b. During World War II
c. During the Cold War era
d. During the Industrial Revolution

21. What was the traditional method of surface preparation before advancements in
protective coatings?
a. Pickling
b. Abrasive blasting
c. Chipping and scraping with hand tools
d. Applying oil-based coatings

22. Which type of surface preparation dramatically lengthens the life of coatings applied
over rusted or weathered steel according to Hudson's tests?
a. Pickling
b. Wire brushing
c. Sandblasting
d. Applying oil-based coatings

23. What was the average coating life over a weathered surface according to Hudson's
tests?
a. 2.1 years
b. 13.1 years
c. 7.0 years
d. 15.0 years

24. What conclusion did Hudson draw regarding the impact of surface preparation on
coating lifespan?
a. Properly prepared surfaces decrease coating lifespan.
b. Weathered surfaces are superior for coating adherence.
 c. Thoroughly cleaned surfaces increase coating lifespan.
d. Surface preparation has no significant impact on coating durability.

25. Which type of contamination is typically found on hot-rolled steel surfaces?

a. Rust
b. Paint residues
c. Mill scale
d. Dirt and dust

26. What is the primary reason for the formation of mill scale on hot-rolled steel?
a. Melting of the steel
b. Combining of oxygen with the hot metal
c. Cooling of the steel
d. Shaping of the steel

27. Which oxide primarily constitutes the outer layer of mill scale?
a. FeO
b. Fe3O4
c. Fe2O3
d. FeO2

28. What factor contributes to the cracking of mill scale?

a. High thermal expansion
b. Low brittleness
c. Flexing of the steel during handling
d. Decreased access to oxygen and moisture

29. In what manner does corrosion occur under mill scale?

a. The mill scale acts as a protective layer against corrosion.
b. Corrosion products form a tight bond with the steel surface.
c. Rapid corrosion occurs due to the scale's cathodic nature.
d. Corrosion works underneath the mill scale, creating blisters.

30. How does oil contamination affect surface preparation for coating?
a. It increases the surface energy of the metal.
b. It reduces the adhesion of coatings to the substrate.
c. It enhances the wetting ability of coatings.
d. It has no impact on coating adhesion.
31. What are two of the most common contaminants found in marine and industrial
environments?
a. Oxygen and nitrogen
b. Chlorides and sulfates
c. Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d. Phosphates and nitrates

32. Which organization has given more attention to various types of surface preparation?
a. NACE
b. SSPC
c. ISO
d. British standards

33. What is the highest degree of surface preparation recognized in industry for the
protection and maintenance of large steel structures?
a. Near-White Abrasive Blast
b. Commercial Abrasive Blast
c. White Metal Abrasive Blast
d. Pickled, phosphate treated

34. Which of the following surface preparation methods is considered to be the most
effective in terms of adhesion, according to the rankings provided?
a. Near-White Sand Blast
b. Commercial Blast
c. White Sand Blast
d. Brush Blast

35. What does NACE No. 3, SSPC-SP 6, and ISO Sa 2 surface preparation method allow on
the surface?
a. No staining allowed
b. Staining limited to 5% of each unit area of surface
c. No limitations on staining
d. Only minor discolorations allowed

36. Which of the following is true about chlorides and sulfides?

a. They are only soluble in water.
b. Dry abrasive blasting effectively removes them.
c. Water or steam is effective at removing them.
d. They are not common contaminants in marine and industrial environments.
37. Which organization has conducted tests on surface preparation methods and their
effectiveness?
a. SSPC
b. NACE
c. ISO
d. British standards

38. What is the purpose of the white metal abrasive blast?

a. To remove all surface contaminants
b. To provide a surface with maximum mechanical adhesion
c. To achieve a production-line surface preparation
d. To create a smooth surface without any roughness

39. Which surface preparation method is considered practical due to the difficulty of
removing the oxide binder from under mill scale?
a. White Metal Abrasive Blast
b. Near-White Abrasive Blast
c. Commercial Abrasive Blast
d. Brush Blast

40. What is the importance of considering the initial condition of the surface to be
cleaned?
a. It determines the type of coating to be applied.
b. It affects the time, work, and effort required for surface preparation.
c. It dictates the maximum level of salt contamination allowed.
d. It determines the adhesion rating of the coating.

41. What is the primary difference between steel shot and steel grit in surface
preparation?
a. Steel grit leaves a smoother surface compared to steel shot.
b. Steel shot creates a higher profile on the steel surface compared to steel grit.
c. Steel grit is more effective at removing contamination than steel shot.
d. Steel shot is formed by crushing steel grit particles.

42. Which surface preparation method is most suitable for critical coating applications
due to its superior adhesion?
a. Industrial Abrasive Blast
b. Acid Pickling
c. Brush Blasting
 d. Centrifugal Blast Shot

43. What is the main drawback of the pickling method of surface preparation?
a. It leaves a rough surface texture.
b. It is ineffective at removing oil and grease contaminants.
c. It requires extensive rinsing with water.
d. It can become unreliable due to contamination of pickling solutions.

44. Which surface preparation method ranks #4 in terms of adhesion-related ratings?

a. Industrial Abrasive Blast
b. Brush Blasting
c. Centrifugal Blast Shot
d. Acid Pickling

45. Which surface preparation method is described as removing all visible oil, grease,
dirt, and loose coating, while allowing tightly adherent mill scale and rust to remain?
a. Industrial Abrasive Blast
b. Acid Pickling
c. Brush Blasting
d. Centrifugal Blast Shot

46. Which of the following methods is described as the least costly and most suitable for
preparing field surfaces?
a. Flame Cleaning
b. Power Tool Cleaning
c. Brush Blasting
d. Solvent Cleaning

47. What is the advantage of brush blasting over other methods for preparing surfaces?
a. It removes all types of contamination completely.
b. It is the fastest method available.
c. It is the least costly method and removes surface contamination and loose
paint effectively.
d. It is suitable for highly corrosive areas.

48. Which method is recommended for preparing surfaces before applying materials
such as polyurethanes and epoxies?
a. Hand Tool Cleaning
 b. Power Tool Cleaning
c. Brush Blasting
d. Solvent Cleaning

49. SSPC-SP 3 Power Tool Cleaning removes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Loose mill scale
b. Loose rust
c. Loose paint
d. All mill scale, rust, and paint regardless of adhesion

50. What is the primary disadvantage of power wire brush cleaning?

a. It is ineffective in removing surface contamination.
b. It spreads contamination and polishes the surface of scale and rust.
c. It is time-consuming and expensive.
d. It cannot remove heavy rust scale from the surface.

51. Which method is used when power-operated equipment is not available or when the
job is inaccessible to power tools?
a. Solvent Cleaning
b. Power Tool Cleaning
c. Hand Tool Cleaning
d. Brush Blasting

52. What is the main purpose of solvent cleaning according to SSPC?

a. To remove rust and mill scale
b. To remove all visible oil, grease, soil, and soluble contaminants
c. To prepare the surface for coating without removing any contaminants
d. To increase the adhesion of coatings to the surface

53. According to SSPC, what are the advantages of solvent cleaning?

a. Solvents remove oils and greases rapidly and are easy to apply.
b. Solvents remove all contaminants effectively without any limitations.
c. Solvents require minimal floor space and do not contaminate applicators.
d. Solvent cleaning is the fastest method compared to other surface preparation
techniques.

54. What is one serious disadvantage of solvent cleaning mentioned in the text?
a. It is time-consuming and labor-intensive.
 b. It does not effectively remove oil and grease.
c. Solvents and applicators become contaminated with oil, redistributing it
instead of removing it completely.
d. Solvents are expensive and not readily available.

55. Which method is specifically mentioned as suitable for repairing damaged or

undercut coatings?
a. Power Tool Cleaning
b. Brush Blasting
c. Solvent Cleaning
d. Hand Tool Cleaning

56. Which method of solvent cleaning is effective for removing oil, grease, wax, and
other soluble materials by suspending the object in a vapor of trichlorethylene or
other chlorinated solvent?
a. Vapor degreasing
b. Cold Phosphate
c. Vinyl Butyral Wash Primer
d. Dust Blasting

57. What is the primary advantage of using water-based, biodegradable cleaners over
hydrocarbon-based solvent cleaners?
a. They are cheaper
b. They are more effective for removing oil and grease
c. They do not pose any fire hazards
d. They do not cause any toxicity in fumes

58. What is the primary purpose of SSPC Pretreatment 3 (SSPC-PT3-64)?

a. Removing rust and mill scale from steel surfaces
b. Inhibiting corrosion and improving adhesion of coatings on clean steel or
galvanized metal
c. Preventing immediate rusting of cleaned steel surfaces
d. Eliminating the need for surface preparation before coating application

59. Which method of surface preparation involves the use of very fine abrasive through a
sandblast mechanism to clean sensitive surfaces without making a heavy etch?
a. Dust Blasting
b. Water Blasting (Water Jetting)
c. Metal Pretreatments
 d. Solvent Cleaning

60. What does hot phosphate surface treatment primarily aim to do?
a. Remove contamination and oxide from metal surfaces
b. Inhibit corrosion and improve paint adhesion on steel or galvanized surfaces
free of rust, scale, dirt, or paint
c. Act as a cure-all primer for all surfaces
d. Eliminate the need for abrasive blasting

61. Which surface preparation method is specifically designed to remove all visible oil,
grease, dirt, rust, and other corrosion products, leaving a matte finish?
a. SSPC-SP WJ1/NACE WJ1
b. SSPC-SP WJ2/NACE WJ2
c. SSPC-SP WJ3/NACE WJ3
d. SSPC-SP WJ4/NACE WJ4

62. What is the maximum percentage of tightly adherent matter allowed on a surface
prepared according to SSPC-SP WJ3/NACE WJ3?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 33%

63. Which surface preparation standard involves the removal of all loose mill scale, loose
rust, loose paint, and other loose detrimental foreign matter with hand tools?
a. SSPC-SP 2
b. SSPC-SP 3
c. SSPC-SP 6
d. SSPC-SP 7

64. What is the minimum surface preparation standard for applying alkyd coatings?
a. SSPC-SP 2
b. SSPC-SP 6
c. SSPC-SP 10
d. SSPC-SP 12

65. Which method of abrasive blasting involves including abrasive particles in a water
stream?
 a. Air blasting
b. Water blasting
c. Mechanical rotary blasting
d. Power tool cleaning

66. Which coating type requires near-white or commercial blast surface preparation?
a. Drying Oil
b. Vinyl
c. Oleoresinous Phenolic
d. Chlorinated Rubber

67. What is the primary advantage of air pressure blasting?

a. Portability
b. Precision
c. Efficiency
d. Cost-effectiveness

68. Which SSPC standard is withdrawn and replaced by SSPC WJ1/NACE WJ1, SSPC
WJ2/NACE WJ2, SSPC WJ3/NACE WJ3, and SSPC WJ4/NACE WJ4?
a. SSPC 12-92
b. SSPC 10-85
c. SSPC 14
d. SSPC 16-(2010)

69. What is a principal advantage of an air-blast system?

a. Minimal water consumption
b. Lack of dust during operation
c. High-pressure water blast capability
d. Automatic application of prime coat

70. What is a disadvantage of dry abrasive blasting?

a. High water consumption
b. Rapid surface oxidation
c. Risk of high-pressure water injuries
d. Excessive buildup of water in the area
71. Which type of blasting operation requires dehumidification to prevent surface
rusting?
a. Wet abrasive blasting
b. Rotary blasting
c. Centrifugal blasting
d. Dry abrasive blasting

72. What is a disadvantage of wet abrasive blasting?

a. Difficulty in cleaning accumulated dust
b. Lack of surface adhesion for coatings
c. Risk of high-pressure water injuries
d. Requirement for inhibitors in the water

73. What is a principal advantage of centrifugal blasting?

a. Dry surface oxidation
b. Automatic elimination of contaminants
c. Low water consumption
d. Minimal surface preparation required after fabrication

74. Which type of blasting equipment eliminates the need for air compressors and
pipelines?
a. Wet abrasive blasting equipment
b. Rotary blasting equipment
c. Centrifugal blasting equipment
d. Wheel blast cleaning equipment

75. What is a disadvantage associated with wheel blast cleaning equipment?

a. Minimal maintenance requirements
b. Low initial cost
c. High wear associated with moving parts
d. Simple power supply requirements

76. What is the principle of operation illustrated in Figure 9.26?

a. Impact propulsion of abrasive
b. Sliding of abrasive on vanes
c. High-pressure water blasting
d. Distribution of abrasive across the pattern
77. Which type of wheel is commonly used in wheel blast cleaning equipment?
a. Slider type
b. Batter type
c. Impact type
d. Rotary type

78. What is a distinct advantage of using wheel blast cleaning equipment?

a. High water consumption
b. Lack of dust during operation
c. Requirement for inhibitors in the water
d. Minimal surface preparation required after fabrication

79. What is the typical width of a wheel used in wheel blast cleaning equipment?
a. 1 1/2 inches
b. 2 inches
c. 2 1/2 inches
d. 3 inches

80. At approximately what speed does a typical wheel rotate in wheel blast cleaning
equipment?
a. 1,000 rpm
b. 1,500 rpm
c. 2,000 rpm
d. 2,500 rpm

81. What is the range of velocities for abrasive particles in wheel blast cleaning?
a. 2,000 to 5,000 ft/min
b. 5,000 to 10,000 ft/min
c. 5,000 to 14,000 ft/min
d. 10,000 to 15,000 ft/min

82. What type of abrasive is usually used with wheel blast cleaning equipment?
a. Sand
b. Garnet
c. Metallic
d. Silicon carbide
83. How much horsepower is typically required to drive a wheel in a wheel blast cleaning
installation?
a. 5 to 10 horsepower
b. 10 to 15 horsepower
c. 15 to 20 horsepower
d. 20 to 25 horsepower

84. What method is used to eliminate dust and dirt in a vacuum blast system?
a. Enclosing the nozzle in a rubber cap
b. Using a high-pressure air stream
c. Incorporating a recirculating blast system
d. Adding water to the blasting process

85. Which of the following materials is NOT commonly used as an abrasive in vacuum
blasting?
a. Aluminum oxide
b. Garnet
c. Coke/copper slag
d. Sand

86. What is necessary for proper operation of the vacuum blast method?
a. High-pressure air
b. A large blast nozzle
c. A vacuum mechanism
d. A rubber cup around the blast nozzle

87. In abrasive blast operations, what factor affects the angle of the abrasive stream to
the work?
a. Distance of the nozzle or wheel from the work
b. Type of abrasive used
c. Surface temperature
d. Environmental conditions

88. What is the most efficient method for hand blasting operations?
a. Waving the nozzle in several directions
b. Sweeping over the surface any number of times
c. Marking out a section of an area and blasting it with an even motion
d. Directing the blast path perpendicularly to the surface
89. What is the primary characteristic of silica sand mentioned in the passage?
a. Angular edges
b. Presence of extraneous foreign material
c. Crystalline silica of even grade
d. Dusty texture

90. Which abrasive type is described as having sharp angular edges and lacks dust or
dirt?
a. Industrial grades of baking soda
b. Steel shot
c. Black grit made from boiler slag
d. Silica sand

91. What determines the surface profile obtained from abrasive blasting?
a. Only the type of abrasive used
b. Only the size of the abrasive particles
c. The type of abrasive, its hardness, size, and velocity of impact
d. Only the cleanliness of the surface

92. Which abrasive type is mentioned to have been invented in recent years and serves
niche markets well?
a. Industrial grades of baking soda
b. Black grit made from boiler slag
c. Steel shot
d. Steel grit

93. What is indicated by the discussion regarding the bonding strength of coatings in
relation to surface profile?
a. Coatings always bond better with higher profile surfaces.
b. Steel grit with a high profile consistently provides the best bonding strength.
c. Surface profile is secondary to other factors like the type of abrasive used and
degree of cleanliness.
d. Surface profile has no effect on the bonding strength of coatings.

94. Which abrasive type is specifically mentioned to provide a superior bonding strength
on white metal surfaces?
a. Flintshot
b. Steelgrit G40
c. Black Beauty
 d. Steelshot S280

95. What factor does SSPC summarize as affecting the profile height during blast
cleaning?
a. Steel thickness
b. Time involved in cleaning the surface
c. Velocity of impact
d. Degree of reclamation of the abrasive

96. Which abrasive type is hypothesized to have a scouring action due to the fracturing
of nonmetallic particles upon impact?
a. Steel shot
b. Black grit made from boiler slag
c. Steel grit
d. Sand or mineral abrasive

97. Which abrasive type is effective in exposing the greatest number of reactive sites on
the metal surface?
a. Steel shot
b. Industrial grades of baking soda
c. Sand or mineral abrasive
d. Black grit made from boiler slag

98. What is emphasized as an essential characteristic of sand or mineral abrasives for

cleaning rusty areas effectively?
a. Direct impact and falling away from the surface
b. Breaking and shattering into multiple pieces upon impact
c. Scouring action due to fracturing of particles upon impact
d. Lesser impact energy compared to metal shot or grit

99. What is the primary difference in action between sand abrasives and steel shot
abrasives?
a. Sand abrasives rebound upon impact
b. Steel shot abrasives scour the surface clean
c. Sand abrasives cause compression of the surface
d. Steel shot abrasives are less efficient in removing surface residues
100. Which type of abrasive is formed by crushing and cracking steel shot?
a. Sand
b. Steel Grit
c. Steel Shot
d. Mineral Grit

101. What surface preparation technique is best suited for heavy brittle deposits like mill
scale?
a. Sand blasting
b. Steel shot blasting
c. Steel grit blasting
d. Mineral grit blasting

102. Which type of abrasive blasting results in a more finely cut, abraded, and scoured
surface?
a. Sand blasting
b. Steel shot blasting
c. Steel grit blasting
d. Mineral grit blasting

103. What is a major factor affecting the speed of cleaning the surface during abrasive
blasting?
a. Size of the abrasive particles
b. Type of substrate material
c. Ambient temperature
d. Humidity level

104. Which abrasive type offers a higher cleaning rate compared to steel grits and steel
shots?
a. Steel Grit
b. Ottawa Silica Sand
c. Slag Abrasives
d. Mineral Grit

105. What is one of the significant costs involved in abrasive blasting, especially in tanker
holds?
a. Equipment maintenance
b. Labor costs
c. Abrasive reclamation or disposal
 d. Containment system expenses

106. What method evolved for treating lead-based paint debris on-site to reduce its
leachable lead content?
a. Sand blasting
b. Steel shot blasting
c. Use of iron filings
d. Slag abrasives

107. Which abrasive type is preferred for large-scale structures due to economies of
scale?
a. Steel Grit
b. Ottawa Silica Sand
c. Slag Abrasives
d. Mineral Grit

108. Which abrasive type is described as having a cutting action due to its sharp edges?
a. Steel Shot
b. Ottawa Silica Sand
c. Steel Grit
d. Slag Abrasives

109. What method has proven to be most efficient and cost-effective for reducing lead
levels in debris from landfills?
a. Mixing with cement and asphalt
b. Mixing with Blastox® (calcium silicate mixture)
c. Mixing with proprietary abrasive compounds
d. Treating with independent chemical agents

110. Which type of concrete surface is typically found on sidewalks and concrete floors?
a. Wood-floated concrete
b. Broomed and swept concrete
c. Hard-troweled concrete
d. Machine-made concrete pipe

111. What is the principal bonding agent in concrete?

 a. Portland cement
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Colloidal gel of calcium silicate hydrates
d. Aggregates

112. Which type of Portland cement is used where resistance to sulfates is required?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 5

113. What is a characteristic feature of cinder block concrete?

a. Dense, smooth surface
b. Relatively good surface for coating application
c. High compressive strength
d. Extremely porous with holes throughout the surface

114. How is a hard-troweled surface typically achieved?

a. By applying a mortar with a high content of sand over the surface
b. By brooming and sweeping the concrete surface
c. By pouring concrete against steel forms
d. By casting concrete using poor compacting techniques

115. Which type of concrete surface contains more laitance and is typically weaker and
more porous?
a. Hard-troweled concrete
b. Normal-troweled concrete
c. Wood-floated concrete
d. Machine-made concrete pipe

116. What is the primary purpose of applying a mortar with a high content of cement over
a concrete surface?
a. To increase porosity
b. To create a smoother surface
c. To enhance structural integrity
d. To decrease the density of the concrete

117. Which type of cement is commonly used where a white surface is required?
a. Type 1
 b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. White Portland cement

118. What is the main function of water in concrete?

a. To increase fluidity
b. To decrease setting time
c. To hydrate the cement powder
d. To reduce surface preparation problems

119. Which method of concrete surface finishing results in a relatively rough surface with
sand grains brought to the surface?
a. Swept concrete
b. Wood-floated concrete
c. Gunite
d. Concrete block

120. Which type of surface preparation method for concrete involves the scrubbing of a
cement mortar mix over the concrete surface?
a. Stoning
b. Floating
c. Sacking
d. Plastering

121. Which type of concrete surface is dense with few pinholes but may have grooves
formed in it?
a. Wood-floated concrete
b. Swept concrete
c. Gunite
d. Poured concrete

122. What is the primary challenge associated with coating gunite surfaces?
a. Surface roughness
b. Presence of pinholes and air pockets
c. Subsurface cavities
d. Dense surface texture
123. Which form of surface treatment involves the use of oil to prevent concrete from
sticking to the form?
a. Lacquering
 b. Waxing
c. Sacking
d. Stoning

124. What is the purpose of the sacking process described in the passage?
a. To smooth the concrete surface
b. To fill air and water pockets in the concrete
c. To remove imperfections from the concrete
d. To create a granular finish on the concrete

125. Which method opens up pores and pinholes on the concrete surface?
a. Sacking
b. Stoning
c. Wood Floating
d. Steel Trowel

126. Which method leaves a sandy, granular finish on the concrete surface?
a. Stoning
b. Wood Floating
c. Steel Trowel
d. Hard Troweling

127. Which method provides a smooth, even surface using a layer of cement plaster?
a. Stoning
b. Wood Floating
c. Steel Trowel
d. Hard Troweling

128. What potential issue is mentioned with the hard troweling method?
a. Excessive water absorption
b. Brittle cement surface
c. Uneven coating application
d. Lack of adhesion to the concrete surface

129. Which method involves applying a relatively stiff mix of cement mortar and working
it over with a trowel until the surface becomes dense and smooth?
a. Sacking
b. Wood Floating
 c. Hard Troweling
d. Synthetic Concrete Surfacers

130. Which method is described as being better at filling pits and leaving little sacking mix
on the surface?
a. Stoning
b. Wood Floating
c. Steel Trowel
d. Hard Troweling

131. Which method involves applying a one-to-one volume of Portland cement and fine
sand?
a. Stoning
b. Wood Floating
c. Hard Troweling
d. Synthetic Concrete Surfacers

132. What precaution should be taken after applying the hard-troweled surface to prevent
spalling?
a. Immediate coating application
b. Thorough curing with the concrete wall
c. Adding lime to the cement mix
d. Using a damp cloth to wipe the surface

133. Which method involves rubbing a mortar mix into the concrete air and water pockets
using a circular motion?
a. Sacking
b. Stoning
c. Wood Floating
d. Steel Trowel

134. What is the primary purpose of synthetic concrete surfacers?

a. To replace traditional concrete troweling methods
b. To provide a smooth surface for coating applications
c. To increase the strength of poured concrete surfaces
d. To reduce the cost of surface preparation
135. Which method is commonly used to prepare a poured concrete surface for the
application of synthetic surfacers?
a. Acid etching
b. Sacking and stoning
c. Abrasive blasting
d. Troweling

136. Which type of resinous surfacer is thin and applied using a squeegee?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4

137. What is the purpose of giving a light blast to the concrete surface before applying
synthetic surfacers?
a. To increase the roughness of the surface
b. To remove concrete laitance and open pinholes
c. To increase the thickness of the synthetic surfacer
d. To reduce the adhesion of the surfacer to the concrete

138. What is the most common acid used for acid etching of troweled concrete surfaces?
a. Sulfuric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Hydrochloric acid (muriatic acid)
d. Phosphoric acid

139. What is the purpose of scrubbing the concrete surface after acid etching?
a. To remove excess acid
b. To increase the adhesion of the coating
c. To neutralize the reaction with calcium compounds
d. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the surface

140. Which statement about acid etching is true?

a. It is safe to use without protective gear.
b. It does not react with calcium compounds in the cement.
c. It can be performed without any environmental precautions.
d. It requires proper protective equipment due to its hazards.
141. Which type of concrete surface preparation is commonly used for interior
centrifugally cast concrete pipes?
a. Troweling
b. Acid etching
c. Heavy blasting
d. Light blasting

142. Which resinous surfacer type is troweled over the poured concrete surface leaving a
layer of synthetic resin mortar?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4

143. What is the recommended method to prevent heavy blasting of concrete surfaces?
a. Increasing air pressure
b. Using coarse abrasive materials
c. Holding the nozzle close to the surface
d. Reducing air pressure and using fine abrasive materials

144. What is the preferable surface condition shown in Figure 9.59?

a. Heavy etch in the lower left-hand corner
b. Light etch in the upper right-hand corner
c. Moderate etch in the upper left-hand corner
d. Un-etched concrete in the lower right-hand corner

145. Which surface preparation method is NOT recommended for heavily swept concrete
surfaces?
a. Light blasting
b. Acid etching
c. Heavy coating application
d. Mechanical scarifying

146. What is the primary purpose of resinous surfacers on concrete block structures?
a. To increase surface hardness
b. To fill cavities and deep holes
c. To create a granular surface
d. To enhance adhesion for coatings
147. What is the recommended method for treating concrete surfaces contaminated with
protein materials?
a. Acid etching
b. Alkaline washing
c. Abrasive blasting
d. Steam cleaning

148. Which type of contamination requires removal down to solid concrete prior to
coating application?
a. Oils and greases
b. Alkalies
c. Chemicals
d. Acid salts

149. Which organization provides guidelines for concrete surface preparation?

a. International Concrete Repair Institute (ICRI)
b. American Concrete Institute (ACI)
c. National Ready Mixed Concrete Association (NRMCA)
d. Concrete Reinforcing Steel Institute (CRSI)

150. Which surface profile is recommended for tank linings and immersion coatings to
prevent corrosion and contamination?
a. CSP 3 Light Shot Blast
b. CSP 4 Light Scarification
c. CSP 5 Medium Shot Blast
d. CSP 7 Heavy Abrasive Blast

151. In which atmospheric condition is the best surface preparation considered a small
insurance premium against coating failure?
a. Marine
b. Industrial
c. Rural
d. Urban

152. Which factor has a significant bearing on surface preparation according to the
provided passage?
a. Environmental conditions
b. Coating color
c. Coating thickness
 d. Surface temperature

153. Which CSP level is recommended for use in marine conditions to prevent immediate
surface reaction problems?
a. CSP 2 Grinding
b. CSP 5 Medium Shot Blast
c. CSP 6 Medium Scarification
d. CSP 8 Scabbled

154. What is the primary purpose of surface preparation according to the passage?
a. To enhance coating color
b. To ensure the surface is free from rust
c. To provide a surface with strong adhesion for coating application
d. To increase surface temperature

155. Which atmospheric condition would generally require the least degree of surface
preparation?
a. Marine
b. Industrial
c. Rural
d. Urban

156. What is the consequence of coating failure in offshore structures according to the
passage?
a. Minimal economic impact
b. Increased safety
c. Compromised safety and high repair costs
d. Reduced corrosion

157. Which CSP level is recommended for underground pipelines to resist moisture and
earth movement?
a. CSP 3 Light Shot Blast
b. CSP 7 Heavy Abrasive Blast
c. CSP 8 Scabbled
d. CSP 9 Heavy Scarification

158. In which atmospheric condition is spot rusting considered unsatisfactory?

a. Marine
 b. Industrial
c. Rural
d. Urban

159. What is the key to long and effective coating life according to the passage?
a. Coating color
b. Coating thickness
c. Proper surface preparation
d. Environmental conditions
 ANSWERS
1. b 29. d 57. b
2. c 30. b 58. b
3. b 31. b 59. a
4. b 32. a 60. b
5. c 33. c 61. a
6. b 34. c 62. d
7. b 35. b 63. a
8. b 36. c 64. b
9. c 37. b 65. b
10. d 38. b 66. d
11. c 39. b 67. a
12. a 40. b 68. a
13. c 41. b 69. b
14. d 42. d 70. b
15. c 43. d 71. d
16. c 44. d 72. d
17. c 45. c 73. b
18. c 46. c 74. d
19. b 47. c 75. c
20. b 48. c 76. b
21. c 49. d 77. a
22. c 50. b 78. b
23. a 51. c 79. c
24. c 52. b 80. c
25. c 53. a 81. c
26. b 54. c 82. c
27. c 55. a 83. c
28. c 56. a 84. a
 85. d 110. c 135. c
86. d 111. c 136. a
87. a 112. d 137. b
88. c 113. d 138. c
89. c 114. a 139. a
90. c 115. b 140. d
91. c 116. b 141. c
92. a 117. d 142. b
93. c 118. c 143. d
94. c 119. b 144. b
95. c 120. c 145. c
96. d 121. b 146. b
97. c 122. a 147. c
98. c 123. a 148. d
99. b 124. b 149. a
100. b 125. b 150. d
101. b 126. b 151. c
102. a 127. c 152. a
103. a 128. b 153. b
104. b 129. c 154. c
105. c 130. a 155. c
106. c 131. a 156. c
107. a 132. b 157. c
108. c 133. a 158. c
109. b 134. b 159. c