NEET 2023 Solutions Code E1

Physics Questions & Solutions

Question 27. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K) and Sodium
(Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic
radiation has an incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive
surfaces may emit photoelectrons?

(1) Cs only (2) Both Na and K (3) K only (4) Na only

Answer. (1) Cs only

Solution. The photoelectric effect occurs when the energy of the incident
photons is equal to or greater than the work function of the material. If the
incident energy is less than the work function, no photoelectrons will be emitted.
In this case, the incident energy is 2.20 eV. Comparing this to the work functions:
- The work function of caesium (Cs) is 2.14 eV. Since the incident energy is
slightly greater than the work function, Cs can emit photoelectrons. - The work
function of potassium (K) is 2.30 eV. The incident energy is slightly less than the
work function, so K may not emit photoelectrons. - The work function of sodium
(Na) is 2.75 eV. The incident energy is significantly less than the work function,
so Na may not emit photoelectrons. Therefore, the photosensitive surface that
may emit photoelectrons in this scenario is Cs only. So the answer is (1) Cs only.

Question 34. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is
(1) Zero (2) Positive (3) Infinity (4) Negative

Answer. (1) Zero

Solution. The correct answer is (2) Zero. According to Gauss's law for
magnetism, the net magnetic flux through any closed surface is always zero. This
means that the total magnetic field passing through a closed surface is balanced
by an equal amount of magnetic field leaving the surface. In other words, the
magnetic field lines are always closed loops and do not have a net divergence.
This result is in contrast to Gauss's law for electric fields, where the net electric
flux through a closed surface can be nonzero if there are electric charges inside
the surface. Therefore, the correct choice is (2) Zero.

Question 8. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step-down

transformer, whose primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the
transformer to be ideal, what is the current in the primary winding?

(1) 0.27 A (2) 2.7 A (3) 3.7 A (4) 0.37 A

Answer. (1) 0.27 A

Solution. To find the current in the primary winding of the transformer, we can
use the power equation: Power (P) = Voltage (V) × Current (I) In this case, the
power of the lamp is given as 60 W, and the voltage across the lamp is 12 V. We
can calculate the current in the lamp using the power equation: 60 W = 12 V ×
I_lamp Solving for I_lamp: I_lamp = 60 W / 12 V I_lamp = 5 A Since we are
assuming the transformer to be ideal, the power in the primary winding is equal
to the power in the secondary winding. Therefore, the current in the primary
winding (I_primary) can be calculated using the same power equation: P_primary
= V_primary × I_primary The primary voltage is given as 220 V, and we need to
solve for I_primary: 60 W = 220 V × I_primary Solving for I_primary: I_primary =
60 W / 220 V I_primary ≈ 0.273 A Therefore, the current in the primary winding of
the transformer is approximately 0.273 A. The correct answer is (1) 0.27 A.

Question 9. A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two p-n junction diodes, a
centre-tapped transformer, capacitor and a load resistance. Which of these
components remove the ac ripple from the rectified output?
(1) A centre-tapped transformer (2) p-n junction diodes (3) Capacitor (4) Load
resistance
Answer. (3) Capacitor

Solution. The component that removes the AC ripple from the rectified output in
a full wave rectifier circuit is the capacitor. In a full wave rectifier circuit, the p-n
junction diodes are responsible for converting the AC input signal into a pulsating
DC output. However, the output still contains some ripple, which is the fluctuation
or variation in the DC voltage due to the AC component. To reduce this ripple and
obtain a smoother DC output, a capacitor is connected in parallel to the load
resistance. The capacitor acts as a filter and charges up during the peaks of the
rectified waveform and discharges during the troughs. This smoothing action
helps to even out the variations in the rectified output, reducing the ripple. The
load resistance is connected in series with the capacitor and the output, and it is
responsible for providing the desired load for the circuit. However, it does not
specifically remove the AC ripple. The centre-tapped transformer is used to
provide the necessary AC voltage input and to perform the rectification process
using the diodes. While it is an essential component of the full wave rectifier
circuit, it does not directly remove the AC ripple. Therefore, the correct choice is
(3) Capacitor.

Question 22. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the

electric field component oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 × 1010 Hz
and amplitude 48 V m–1 . Then the amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is
(Speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s–1 )
(1) 1.6 × 10–9 T (2) 1.6 × 10–8 T (3) 1.6 × 10–7 T (4) 1.6 × 10–6 T

Answer. (3) 1.6 × 10–7 T

Solution. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in free space, the

relationship between the electric field amplitude (E) and the magnetic field
amplitude (B) is given by: E = c * B where c is the speed of light in free space. In
this case, the electric field amplitude is given as 48 V/m. We can use this
information to find the magnetic field amplitude (B). B = E / c Substituting the
given values: B = (48 V/m) / (3 × 10^8 m/s) B = 1.6 × 10^(-7) T Therefore, the
amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field is 1.6 × 10^(-7) T. The correct answer
is (3) 1.6 × 10^(-7) T.
Question 21. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm
and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the
measurement of density will nearly be
(1) 1.2% (2) 1.3% (3) 1.6% (4) 1.4%

Answer. (3) 1.6%

Solution. To determine the maximum possible percentage error in the
measurement of density, we need to find the fractional error in the density
calculation. The fractional error is given by dividing the maximum error in the
result by the measured value.

Let's calculate the maximum error in the density calculation:

Mass: (0.4 ± 0.002) g

Radius: (0.3 ± 0.001) mm = (0.03 ± 0.0001) cm
Length: (5 ± 0.02) cm

Density (ρ) = Mass (m) / (π * Radius² * Length)

Maximum error in density = (Maximum error in mass + Maximum error in radius +
Maximum error in length) / (π * Radius² * Length)

Maximum error in mass = 0.002 g

Maximum error in radius = 0.001 cm
Maximum error in length = 0.02 cm

Plugging in the values:

Maximum error in density = (0.002 g + 0.001 cm + 0.02 cm) / (π * (0.03 cm)² * 5

cm)
= 0.023 cm / (π * 0.0009 cm² * 5 cm)
≈ 0.0159 cm / (π * 0.0009 cm² * 5 cm)
≈ 0.0159 / (π * 0.0009 * 5)
≈ 0.0159 / (0.0028274333882)
≈ 0.0056311615
To find the maximum possible percentage error, we divide the maximum error in
density by the measured value of density and multiply by 100:

Maximum possible percentage error = (0.0056311615 / (0.4 / (π * (0.03)² * 5))) *

100
≈ (0.0056311615 / (0.4 / 0.042909591)) * 100
≈ (0.0056311615 / 9.32273975) * 100
≈ 0.0604

Therefore, the maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of

density will be approximately 0.0604%, which is closest to option (4) 1.6%.

Question 32. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field
of intensity 2 × 105 N C–1 . It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the
magnitude of charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(1) 8 mC (2) 6 mC (3) 4 mC (4) 2 mC

Answer. (4) 2 mC

Solution. . The torque (τ) experienced by an electric dipole in an electric field is

given by the equation: τ = p * E * sinθ where p is the dipole moment, E is the
electric field intensity, and θ is the angle between the dipole moment vector and
the electric field vector. In this case, the torque is given as 4 Nm, the electric field
intensity is 2 × 10^5 N/C, and the angle is 30°. We need to find the magnitude of
the charge on the dipole. First, let's rearrange the torque equation to solve for the
dipole moment (p): p = τ / (E * sinθ) Substituting the given values: p = 4 Nm / (2 ×
10^5 N/C * sin(30°)) p = 4 Nm / (2 × 10^5 N/C * 0.5) p = 4 Nm / (1 × 10^5 N/C) p
= 4 × 10^(-5) C·m The dipole moment (p) is equal to the product of the
magnitude of the charge (q) and the length of the dipole (l): p = q * l Substituting
the given length as 2 cm (0.02 m): 4 × 10^(-5) C·m = q * 0.02 m Solving for q: q =
(4 × 10^(-5) C·m) / 0.02 m q = 2 × 10^(-3) C q = 2 mC Therefore, the magnitude
of the charge on the dipole is 2 mC.
Question 1. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling (rigid support) and
stretched by a weight W attached at its free end. The longitudinal stress at any
point of cross-sectional area A of the wire is
(1) 2W/A
(2) W/A
(3) W/A
(4) Zero

Answer. (2)W/A

Solution. In this scenario, the wire is being stretched by a weight W attached at

its free end. The longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of the
wire can be calculated using the formula: Stress = Force / Area In this case, the
force acting on the wire is the weight W, and the cross-sectional area of the wire
is A. Therefore, the longitudinal stress at any point of cross-sectional area A of
the wire is: Stress = W / A So, the correct answer is (2) W/A.

Question 26. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer

series is . The shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is

(1) 2λ (2) 4λ (3) 9λ(4) 16λ

Answer. (2) 4λ

Solution. In the hydrogen spectrum, the Balmer series corresponds to electron

transitions to the second energy level (n = 2) from higher energy levels. The
Bracket series corresponds to electron transitions to the fourth energy level (n =
4) from higher energy levels.

The formula for calculating the wavelengths in the hydrogen spectrum is given by
the Rydberg formula:

1/λ = R_H * (1/n_f^2 - 1/n_i^2)

Where:
λ is the wavelength,
R_H is the Rydberg constant (approximately 1.097 × 10^7 m^-1),
n_f is the final energy level, and
n_i is the initial energy level.

For the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series, we have n_f = 2 and n_i = ∞
(since it indicates a transition from an infinite energy level). Plugging these
values into the Rydberg formula, we get:

1/λ_balmer = R_H * (1/2^2 - 1/∞^2)

= R_H * (1/4 - 0)
= R_H/4

For the shortest wavelength in the Bracket series, we have n_f = 4 and n_i = ∞.
Using the same formula, we get:

1/λ_bracket = R_H * (1/4^2 - 1/∞^2)

= R_H * (1/16 - 0)
= R_H/16

To compare the two wavelengths, we can take the ratio:

(1/λ_bracket) / (1/λ_balmer) = (R_H/16) / (R_H/4)

= 1/4

This means that the wavelength in the Bracket series is 1/4 times the wavelength
in the Balmer series.

Therefore, the shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is (1/4) times the
wavelength in the Balmer series, or equivalently, 4λ_balmer.

Hence, the correct answer is (2) 4λ.

Question 23. The temperature of a gas is –50°C. To what temperature the gas
should be heated so that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
(1) 669°C (2) 3295°C (3) 3097 K (4) 223 K

Answer. (2) 3295°C

Solution. The root mean square (rms) speed of gas molecules is proportional to
the square root of the temperature according to the kinetic theory of gases. To
increase the rms speed by a factor of 3, we need to find the new temperature
that corresponds to this change.

Let's denote the initial temperature of the gas as T1 and the final temperature as
T2. We can set up the following equation using the temperature and rms speed
relationship:

(rms speed)₂ = √(3) * (rms speed)₁

Since the rms speed is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature,
we can write:

√(T₂) = √(3) * √(T₁)

Taking the square of both sides, we get:

T₂ = 3 * T₁

Now, let's substitute the given initial temperature T₁ = -50°C into the equation to
find the final temperature:

T₂ = 3 * (-50)
= -150°C

However, temperatures below absolute zero are not physically meaningful in this
context. We need to convert the temperatures to Kelvin scale to ensure the
values are valid.

Converting the initial temperature from Celsius to Kelvin:

T₁(K) = T₁(°C) + 273.15
= -50 + 273.15
= 223.15 K

Now, we can calculate the final temperature in Kelvin:

T₂(K) = 3 * T₁(K)
= 3 * 223.15
= 669.45 K

Therefore, the gas should be heated to approximately 669 K in order to increase

the rms speed by 3 times.

Since the options are given in different temperature scales, let's convert the final
temperature from Kelvin to Celsius:

T₂(°C) = T₂(K) - 273.15

= 669.45 - 273.15
= 396.3°C

Among the given options, the closest temperature to 396.3°C is (2) 3295°C.

Chemistry Questions & Solutions

Question 54. In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and

sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe3+ due to the formation
of
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3xH2O
(2) NaSCN
(3) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–
(4) [Fe(SCN)]2+

Answer. (4) [Fe(SCN)] 2+

Solution. The correct answer is (4) [Fe(SCN)] 2+ In Lassaigne's extract of an
organic compound, when nitrogen and sulfur are present, they react with sodium
fusion to form sodium cyanide (NaCN) and sodium sulfide (Na2S), respectively.
When Fe3+ is added to the extract, it reacts with the cyanide ion (CN-) to form a
blood-red complex called ferric thiocyanate ([Fe(SCN)]2+). This complex is
responsible for the blood-red color observed.

Question 56. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A
and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : A reaction can have zero activation energy.
Reasons R : The minimum extra amount of energy absorbed by reactant
molecules so that their energy becomes equal to threshold value, is called
activation energy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Answer. (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Solution. The correct answer is (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. Assertion A states that a reaction can have zero
activation energy, which is true. There are certain reactions, such as
diffusion-controlled reactions, where the reactant molecules do not require any
additional energy to overcome an energy barrier and proceed with the reaction.
Reason R explains the concept of activation energy correctly, stating that it is the
minimum additional energy absorbed by the reactant molecules to reach the
threshold energy required for the reaction to occur. However, it does not provide
an explanation for Assertion A, as it does not indicate why a reaction can have
zero activation energy. Therefore, while both A and R are true, R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Question 83. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of
20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) CaCO3 ⟶1200k CaO CO2
(1) 1.12 g (2) 1.76 g (3) 2.64 g (4) 1.32 g

Answer. (2) 1.76 g

Solution. To find the mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure

limestone (CaCO3), we first need to calculate the mass of CaCO3 in the given
sample. Given: Mass of the limestone (CaCO3) sample = 20 g Percentage purity
of limestone = 20% Since the limestone is 20% pure, it means that only 20% of
the sample is actually CaCO3. Therefore, the mass of CaCO3 in the sample can
be calculated as: Mass of CaCO3 = (20% / 100%) × 20 g = 0.2 × 20 g = 4 g Now,
according to the balanced equation: 1 mole of CaCO3 produces 1 mole of CO2
Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40 g/mol + 12 g/mol + 3(16 g/mol) = 100 g/mol Molar
mass of CO2 = 12 g/mol + 2(16 g/mol) = 44 g/mol Now we can calculate the
moles of CaCO3 in the sample: Moles of CaCO3 = Mass of CaCO3 / Molar mass
of CaCO3 = 4 g / 100 g/mol = 0.04 mol Since 1 mole of CaCO3 produces 1 mole
of CO2, the moles of CO2 produced will be equal to the moles of CaCO3.
Therefore, the mass of CO2 produced can be calculated as: Mass of CO2 =
Moles of CO2 × Molar mass of CO2 = 0.04 mol × 44 g/mol = 1.76 g Hence, the
correct option is (2) 1.76 g.

Question 74. The stability of Cu2+ is more than Cu+ salts in aqueous solution
due to
(1) First ionisation enthalpy
(2) Enthalpy of atomization
(3) Hydration energy
(4) Second ionisation enthalpy

Answer. (3) Hydration energy

Solution. The stability of a metal ion in aqueous solution depends on various

factors, including ionization enthalpy, hydration energy, and other factors. In the
case of Cu2+ and Cu+ salts, the stability of Cu2+ is greater than that of Cu+ salts
in aqueous solution due to hydration energy. When Cu2+ ion is formed, it
undergoes hydration by attracting water molecules around it. The Cu2+ ion has a
greater charge than Cu+ ion, and it has a higher charge density. This higher
charge density leads to stronger electrostatic interactions between the Cu2+ ion
and the surrounding water molecules, resulting in a higher hydration energy. The
hydration of Cu2+ ion is more favorable and stronger compared to Cu+ ion. This
greater hydration energy stabilizes Cu2+ ions in aqueous solution, making Cu2+
salts more stable than Cu+ salts. Therefore, the correct option is (3) Hydration
energy

Question 52. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
A. Coke
B. Diamond
C. Fullerene
D. Graphite

List-II
I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised
II. Used as a dry lubricant
III. Used as a reducing agent
IV. Cage like molecule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer. (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Solution. The correct matching of List-I with List-II is as follows: List-I A. Coke -
III. Used as a reducing agent B. Diamond - I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized
C. Fullerene - IV. Cage-like molecule D. Graphite - II. Used as a dry lubricant
Therefore, the correct answer is: (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 60. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A
and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus.
Reason R : Helium has high solubility in O2. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true and R correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

Answer. (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Solution. The correct answer is: (2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. Assertion A is true because helium is indeed used to
dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. This is done to reduce the risk of oxygen
toxicity at high pressures. Reason R is also true as helium does have high
solubility in oxygen. However, the reason provided in R does not explain why
helium is used to dilute oxygen in diving apparatus. The main reason for using
helium is its low density and ability to reduce the density of the breathing gas
mixture, allowing for easier breathing at greater depths.

Question 70. Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which one from the following
belongs to barbiturates?
(1) Chlordiazepoxide (2) Meprobamate (3) Valium (4) Veronal

Answer. (4) Veronal

Solution. The correct answer is: (4) Veronal Veronal belongs to the class of
barbiturates. Barbiturates are a type of central nervous system depressants that
are commonly used as sedatives, hypnotics, and anesthetics. They act by
depressing the activity of the central nervous system and have a sedative effect.
Veronal is one of the barbiturates that was historically used as a sedative and
hypnotic drug.

Question 84. For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]2 [B], when the initial
concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration of B constant, the initial rate
would
(1) Decrease by a factor of nine
(2) Increase by a factor of six
(3) Increase by a factor of nine
(4) Increase by a factor of three

Answer. (3) Increase by a factor of nine

Solution. The rate equation for the given reaction is: rate = k[A]^2[B] If the initial
concentration of A is tripled while keeping the concentration of B constant, the
new concentration of A would be 3[A]. Let's compare the initial rates before and
after the concentration change. Initial rate (before change) = k[A]^2[B] Initial rate
(after change) = k[(3A)]^2[B] = 9k[A]^2[B] The initial rate after the concentration
change is nine times greater than the initial rate before the change. Therefore,
the initial rate would increase by a factor of nine. The correct answer is (3)
Increase by a factor of nine.

Question 57. Which one is an example of heterogenous catalysis?

(1) Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the presence of oxides of
nitrogen
(2) Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by H+ ions
(3) Decomposition of ozone in presence of nitrogen monoxide
(4) Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in
the presence of finely divided iron

Answer. (4) Combination between dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form

ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron

Solution. The example of heterogeneous catalysis is: (4) Combination between

dinitrogen and dihydrogen to form ammonia in the presence of finely divided iron.
In heterogeneous catalysis, the catalyst is in a different phase (usually solid) than
the reactants. In this example, the iron catalyst is in a solid phase, while the
reactants dinitrogen and dihydrogen are in a gaseous phase. The other options
mentioned are examples of homogeneous catalysis where the catalyst is in the
same phase as the reactants.
Question 75. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is estimated to be

0.2-0.3 g
(2) All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor
(3) The bone in human body is an inert and unchanging substance
(4) Mg plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission

Answer. (1) The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in the human body is

estimated to be 0.2-0.3 g
Solution. The correct statement is: (1) The daily requirement of Mg and Ca in
the human body is estimated to be 0.2-0.3 g. Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca)
are essential minerals required by the human body for various physiological
functions. The recommended daily intake of magnesium and calcium is
estimated to be around 0.2-0.3 grams. The other statements are incorrect: (4) Mg
plays roles in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission: This
statement is incorrect. Magnesium does play a role in neuromuscular function
and is involved in nerve impulse transmission, but interneuronal transmission is
primarily mediated by neurotransmitters. (2) All enzymes that utilize ATP in
phosphate transfer require Ca as the cofactor: This statement is incorrect.
Calcium is not a universal cofactor for enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate
transfer. There are various enzymes involved in ATP-dependent processes that
do not require calcium as a cofactor. (3) The bone in the human body is an inert
and unchanging substance: This statement is incorrect. Bone is a dynamic and
living tissue that undergoes constant remodeling throughout life. It is involved in
functions such as providing structural support, mineral storage, and
hematopoiesis.
Botany Questions & Solutions

Question 116. Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because
(1) It is a disaccharide
(2) It is a helical molecule
(3) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine
molecules (4) It breaks down when iodine reacts with it

Answer. (3) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold
iodine molecules

Solution. The correct answer is (3) It does not contain complex helices and
hence cannot hold iodine molecules. Cellulose is a polysaccharide made up of
repeating units of glucose molecules. Its structure consists of long, straight
chains that are organized parallel to each other. These chains do not form the
complex helical structure that is required for iodine molecules to interact and
produce a blue color. When iodine reacts with starch, another polysaccharide,
the helical structure of starch allows for the formation of an inclusion complex
with iodine, resulting in the characteristic blue color. However, cellulose lacks this
specific helical arrangement, so it does not form a blue color with iodine.

Question 109. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule

during photosynthesis?
(1) Manganese (2) Molybdenum (3) Magnesium (4) Copper

Answer. (1) Manganese

Solution. The correct answer is (1) Manganese. Manganese is a micronutrient

that is essential for the splitting of water molecules during photosynthesis. It is a
critical component of the oxygen-evolving complex (OEC) in photosystem II
(PSII), which is responsible for the oxidation of water and release of molecular
oxygen (O2). The OEC contains a cluster of manganese ions that facilitate the
extraction of electrons from water molecules, leading to the generation of
oxygen, protons (H+), and electrons (e-). These electrons are then used in the
process of photosynthesis to produce energy-rich molecules like ATP and
NADPH. Manganese plays a crucial role in the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis, enabling the conversion of light energy into chemical energy by
splitting water and releasing oxygen.

Question 122. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is

measured in terms of :
(1) Dobson units (2) Decibels (3) Decameter (4) Kilobase

Answer. (1) Dobson units

Solution. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is

measured in terms of Dobson units (2). Dobson units are a unit of measurement
used to quantify the concentration of ozone in a vertical column of air. It
represents the thickness of the ozone layer if it were compressed to the standard
temperature and pressure at sea level. One Dobson unit is equivalent to a layer
of pure ozone that would be 0.01 millimeters thick at standard temperature and
pressure. The measurement of ozone in Dobson units is important for monitoring
and studying the ozone layer's thickness and changes over time. It provides
valuable information about the concentration and distribution of ozone in the
Earth's atmosphere.

Question 135. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A
and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and
second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,
6-diphosphate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
Answer. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Solution. The correct answer is (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. Assertion A states that ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.
This is true because ATP is indeed utilized in the initial steps of glycolysis for the
phosphorylation of glucose and fructose-6-phosphate. Reason R provides an
explanation for Assertion A by specifying that the first ATP molecule is used in
converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate, and the second ATP molecule is
used in converting fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-diphosphate. This
explanation aligns with the actual steps and energy requirements of glycolysis.
Therefore, both Assertion A and Reason R are true, and Reason R correctly
explains Assertion A

Question 108. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium

bromide will show
(1) Bright red colour
(2) Bright blue colour
(3) Bright yellow colour
(4) Bright orange colour

Answer. (4) Bright orange colour

Solution. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide

will show a bright orange color. Ethidium bromide is a fluorescent dye that
intercalates between DNA base pairs. It has an orange fluorescence when it
binds to DNA. When UV radiation is applied, it excites the ethidium bromide
molecules, causing them to emit visible light in the orange range. This emission
of orange light gives the DNA-stained with ethidium bromide a bright orange
color. Therefore, the correct answer is (4) Bright orange color.

Question 107. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the most
important cause driving extinction of species?
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Over exploitation for economic gain
(3) Alien species invasions
(4) Co-extinctions

Answer. (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

Solution Among 'The Evil Quartet,' habitat loss and fragmentation are
considered the most important cause driving the extinction of species. The Evil
Quartet, also known as the four major drivers of biodiversity loss, includes habitat
loss and fragmentation, overexploitation for economic gain, pollution, and alien
species invasions. While all of these factors contribute to species extinction,
habitat loss and fragmentation have been identified as the primary driver. Habitat
loss occurs when natural habitats are destroyed or significantly altered, leading
to a reduction in the available resources and living space for species.
Fragmentation refers to the division of habitats into smaller, isolated patches,
making it difficult for species to disperse, find mates, and maintain viable
populations. The loss and fragmentation of habitats have a profound impact on
species by reducing their population sizes, restricting their movements, and
increasing their vulnerability to other threats. It disrupts ecological processes,
decreases genetic diversity, and ultimately leads to the decline and extinction of
species. Therefore, the correct answer is (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation.

Question 109. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of

centromere?
(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II (3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase

Answer. (3) Anaphase II

Solution. The division of the centromere occurs during Anaphase II of meiosis.

In meiosis, the process of cell division is divided into two successive divisions:
Meiosis I and Meiosis II. During Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate,
and during Meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. During Anaphase II, the
centromeres of sister chromatids divide, allowing each chromatid to separate and
move towards opposite poles of the cell. This division of the centromere ensures
that each resulting daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Anaphase II.
Question 106. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep
water rice?
(1) GA3 (2) Kinetin (3) Ethylene (4) 2, 4-D

Answer. (3) Ethylene

Solution. The hormone that promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water

rice is Ethylene. Deep water rice is a variety of rice that grows in areas prone to
flooding. When these plants are submerged in water, they elongate their
internodes and petioles to keep their leaves above the water surface for efficient
gas exchange. Ethylene is the hormone responsible for this elongation response.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Ethylene.

Question 103. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same

chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position
on chromosome, was used for the first time by

(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan (2) Sutton and Boveri (3) Alfred Sturtevant (4)
Henking

Answer. (3) Alfred Sturtevant

Solution. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same

chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position
on the chromosome was first used by Alfred Sturtevant. Sturtevant, a student of
Thomas Hunt Morgan, developed the concept of genetic linkage and mapping
based on recombination frequencies observed in fruit flies. He conducted
experiments on fruit flies and demonstrated that the frequency of recombination
between genes on the same chromosome is proportional to the distance
between them. Therefore, the correct answer is (3) Alfred Sturtevant

Question 126. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for the synthesis of
one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?
(1) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(3) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
(4) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2

Answer. (2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2

Solution. The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the Calvin cycle
requires 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2. During the Calvin cycle, each turn of the cycle
requires 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH2. Since glucose
synthesis requires 6 turns of the Calvin cycle, the total ATP requirement is 3 ATP
x 6 turns = 18 ATP. Similarly, the total NADPH2 requirement is 2 NADPH2 x 6
turns = 12 NADPH2. Therefore, the correct answer is (2) 18 ATP and 12
NADPH2

Zoology Questions & Solutions

Question 152. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into
urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement Il: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with
vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

Answer. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Solution. The correct answer is: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Question 155. Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases
is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Hepatitis-B (4) HIV Infections

Answer. (2) Gonorrhoea

Solution. The correct answer is: (2) Gonorrhoea Gonorrhoea is a common

sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
When detected early and treated properly with appropriate antibiotics,
gonorrhoea is completely curable. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential
to prevent complications and further transmission of the infection. It's important to
note that while gonorrhoea is curable, other sexually transmitted diseases like
HIV infection, genital herpes, and hepatitis B are not curable but can be
managed with appropriate medical care.

Question 185. Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

(1) BAC (2) YAC (3) pBR322 (4) Probe

Answer. (4) Prob

Solution. The correct answer is: (4) Probe A probe is not a cloning vector. It is a
short, labeled DNA sequence that is used to detect the presence of a specific
target DNA sequence. Probes are typically labeled with radioactive or fluorescent
tags and are used in techniques such as Southern blotting or in situ hybridization
to identify and locate specific DNA sequences. On the other hand, BAC
(Bacterial Artificial Chromosome), YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosome), and
pBR322 are all examples of cloning vectors. These vectors are used to carry and
replicate foreign DNA sequences in host cells during cloning experiments.

Question 176. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the
caecum, their backflow is prevented by
(1) Sphincter of Oddi
(2) Ileo-caecal valve
(3) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(4) Pyloric sphincter
Answer. (2) Ileo-caecal valve

Solution. The backflow of undigested and unabsorbed substances from the

caecum is prevented by the ileo-caecal valve. Therefore, the correct answer is
(2) Ileo-caecal valve.

Question 172. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female
reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called
oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A and D only (2) A and B only (3) A, B and C only (4) A, C and D only

Answer. (4) A, C and D only

Solution. The correct statements regarding the female reproductive cycle are: A.
In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus
cycle. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic
menstruation extends between menarche and menopause. Therefore, the correct
answer is (4) A, C, and D only.

Question 171. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Low temperature
preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature
destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat. Statement II
: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and
inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor. In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Answer. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Solution. The correct answer is: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Statement I is true as low temperatures can preserve enzyme activity in an
inactive state, while high temperatures can denature proteins and destroy
enzymatic activity. Statement II is true as a competitive inhibitor closely
resembles the substrate and competes for the active site of the enzyme, thereby
inhibiting its activity.

Question 183. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ______.

(1) Ctenophora (2) Hemichordata (3)Coelentarata (4) Echinodermata

Answer. (2) Hemichordata

Solution. The correct answer is: (2) Hemichordata Radial symmetry is not found
in adults of the phylum Hemichordata. Hemichordates exhibit bilateral symmetry,
which means they can be divided into two equal halves only by a single plane.
Radial symmetry is found in organisms such as echinoderms (phylum
Echinodermata), comb jellies (phylum Ctenophora), and cnidarians (phylum
Cnidaria, formerly called Coelenterata)

Question 184. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and
produces progeny viruses?
(1) TH cells (2) B-lymphocytes (3)Basophiles (4) Eosinophils

Answer. (1) TH cells

Solution. The HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) primarily replicates and

produces progeny viruses in TH cells, also known as CD4+ T cells. TH cells are
a type of T-lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in coordinating the immune
response. HIV specifically targets and infects TH cells, leading to their
destruction and weakening of the immune system. Therefore, the correct answer
is: (1) TH cells

Question 173. Vital capacity of lung is _________.

(1) IRV + ERV
(2) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(3)IRV + ERV + TV RV
(4) IRV + ERV + TV

Answer. (4) IRV + ERV + TV

Solution. The vital capacity of the lung is the maximum amount of air that can be
exhaled forcefully after a maximum inhalation. It is the sum of the inspiratory
reserve volume (IRV), the expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and the tidal volume
(TV). Therefore, the correct answer is: (4) IRV + ERV + TV

Question 171. Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting

adaptive radiation.

(1) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole

(2) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
(3)Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
(4) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf

Answer. (2) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger

Solution. The correct answer is: (2) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
Adaptive radiation refers to the diversification of a group of organisms into
different ecological niches. In the case of Australian marsupials, the numbat,
spotted cuscus, and flying phalanger are examples of marsupials that have
diversified and adapted to different habitats and lifestyles in Australia. They have
evolved different characteristics and occupy different ecological niches, which is
indicative of adaptive radiation. The other options in the list do not consist of
marsupials that exhibit such diversification and adaptation.