13/09/2023 Code-D_Phase-4

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
)
1D
FT0
P4

SECTION-A
24
23

1. About how much times electromagnetic 3. Which of the following is correct

M

force is stronger than weak nuclear force? representation of SI unit of force?

(R

(1) 1011 (1) J

(2) 1037 (2) Newton-meter
(3) 1026 (3) N
(4) kg meter/second
(4) 100

4. Which is the mediating particle of

2. Which of the following force is the strongest Electromagnetic force?
in nature?
(1) Graviton
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Meson
(2) Electromagnetic force
(3) Photon
(3) Strong nuclear force
(4) Boson
(4) Weak nuclear force

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

1
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

5. Who among the following is not a Nobel 12. If h is Planck’s constant and λ is the
laureate in physics wavelength,
h
has the dimension of
λ
(1) Marie curie
(1) Energy
(2) Wilhelm Roentgen
(2) Momentum
(3) Abdus salam
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Ernest Rutherford
(4) Frequency

6. The percentage error in the measurement of

13. A force of 40 N acts on a body. If the units of
the radius of a disc is 2%. Maximum
mass and length are doubled and the unit of
percentage error in the surface area of the
disc will be the time tripled, then the force in new system
becomes
(1) 2%
(1) 90 N
(2) 3%
(2) 90 new unit
(3) 4%
(3) 160
new unit
(4) 6% 9

(4) 160
N
9

7. If A = 3.331 cm, and B = 3.1 cm then A + B in

significant figures is equal to
14. If absolute error in a quantity A is ΔA and in
(1) 6.4 cm
quantity B is ΔB, then maximum possible
(2) 6 cm error in calculation of (A – B) will be
(3) 6.43 cm (1) ΔA – ΔB
(4) 6.431 cm (2) ΔB – ΔA
(3) ΔA + ΔB
A B
8. If momentum (p), area (A) and time (T) are
taken to be fundamental quantities, then (4) ΔA + ΔB
energy has the dimensional formula
(1) [p1 A–1 T1 ] 15. Which of the following number has least
(2) [p2 A1 T1 ] number of significant figures?
(1) 0.80760
(3) [p1 A–1/2 T1 ]
(2) 0.802005
(4) [p1 A1/2 T–1 ] (3) 0.08076
(4) 80.267
9. Distance (x) travelled by a particle depends
)

on time t as x = αt + β. The dimensions of (α/

1D

16. The ratio of the numerical values of the

β) is average velocity to average speed of the
T0

(1) [L–1 ] body is always

F
P4

(2) [T] (1) Unity

24

(3) [T–1 ] (2) Unity or less

23

(4) [LT–1 ] (3) Unity or more

M

(4) Less than unity

(R

10. If position (x) of a moving body depends on

acceleration (a) and time (t), then select the 17. Dimensional formula of velocity gradient is
(dimensionally) correct relation. (1) [M0 LT–1 ]
(1) x ∝ a2 t (2) [M0 L0 T–1 ]
(2) x ∝
a
2 (3) [M0 L–1 T]
t

(3) x ∝ at
2
(4) [M0 L0 T0 ]
(4) x ∝
a
2

t
18. Which of the following is not a unit of time?

11. A screw gauge has pitch of 0.1 cm. Its (1) Second
circular scale has 100 divisions. What is its (2) Minute
least count? (3) Hour
(1) 0.1 mm (4) Light year
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 0.001 mm

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

2
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

19. The systematic error in a measurement is x. 25. A car moves towards west at a speed of 5
If number of observations is increased to two ms–1 for 10 s. Then it turns and moves due
times, then systematic error will be south with same speed for 5 s. The average
(1) x velocity of the car for complete journey is
(2) 2x (1) 5 ms–1
(3) x
(2) 10 ms–1
2

(4) x
(3) 5√5 −1
4 ms
3

(4) 2√3 −1
ms
20. The displacement x of an object is given by x 5

= 2t – 3t2 . The instantaneous velocity at t = 2

s is 26. A particle starts from rest with a constant
(1) 10 m/s acceleration a = 1 m/s2 . Then the distance
(2) –10 m/s travelled within first three second is
(3) 12 m/s (1) 2.5 m
(4) –12 m/s (2) 4.5 m
(3) 5.3 m
21. The velocity of a particle moving on x-axis is (4) 6.4 m
given by v = x2 + x, where v is in m/s and x in
m. What is acceleration (in m s–2 ) when 27. The two ends of a train moving with constant
passing through point x = 2 m? acceleration passes a certain point with
(1) 12 velocities u and 2u. The velocity with which
the middle point of train passes the same
(2) 18
point is
(3) 24
(1) 5 u
(4) 30 2

–
(2) √5 u
−
−
22. A car travelling at a speed of 36 kmph is (3) 5
√ u
brought to rest in 10 m by applying brakes. If 2

the same car is travelling at speed 72 kmph, (4) 3

u
it can be brought to rest with same 2

retardation in
(1) 20 m 28. A 300 m long train is moving with a uniform
(2) 40 m velocity of 90 km/h. The time taken by the
(3) 2.5 m train to cross a pole is
)
1D

(4) 5 m (1) 20 s
T0

(2) 8 s
F

(3) 12 s
P4

23. A ball is released from a sufficient height.

The distance covered by the ball in 1st, 3rd (4) 16 s
24

and 6th seconds are in ratio

23

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 29. If a person moves with constant speed, then

M
(R

(2) 1 : 5 : 11 (1) Velocity of the person must be constant

(3) 3 : 5 : 9 (2) Velocity of the person must be variable
(4) 1 : 2 : 3 (3) Velocity of the person may be constant
(4) Displacement of the person must be
zero
24. A person travels along a straight road for the
first half time with a velocity v1 and the next
half time with a velocity v2 . The mean
velocity v of the person is (v1 and v2 are in
same direction)
(1) 2 = 1 + 1
V V1 V2

(2) v =
v1 +v2

2
−−
(3) v = √
v1

v2

−−− −
(4) v = √v1 v2

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

3
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

30. Two objects A and B are moving with speeds 32. The value of 45° in radian is
vA and vB (vB > vA) along positive x-axis. (1)
π

2
The position(x) – time(t) graph is best π
represented by (2)
3

(1) (3)
π

4
π
(4)
6

33. Astronomical unit is a unit of

(1) Area
(2) (2) Mass
(3) Length
(4) Time

34. The slope of velocity time graph gives

(1) Distance
(3)
(2) Displacement
(3) Average velocity
(4) Acceleration

35. Neutron was discovered by

(4)
(1) C.V. Raman
(2) Becquerel
(3) James Chadwick
(4) G. Marconi

31. A particle is projected vertically upwards.

The time corresponding to a location at
height h while ascending and while
descending are 3 s and 5 s respectively,
then velocity of projection is (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 40 m/s
)
1D

(2) 30 m/s
T0

(3) 75 m/s
F

(4) 80 m/s
P4
24
23
M

SECTION-B
(R

36. Which among the following is not a 38. If the dimensional formula of velocity is [Mx
fundamental force?
Ly Tz], then x + y + z is equal to
(1) Gravitational force
(1) Zero
(2) Electromagnetic force
(2) 1
(3) Strong nuclear force
(3) 2
(4) Centripetal force
(4) 3

37. In a new system of unit, 40 kg be the unit of

39. The quantity having both unit and
mass, 10 km be the unit of length and 1
dimensions, is
minute be the unit of time. Then one joule is
equal to (1) Velocity
(1) 9.0 × 10–7 new unit (2) Plane angle
(2) 3.6 × 10–7 new unit (3) Strain
(4) Specific gravity
(3) 9.0 × 10–6 new unit
(4) 9.0 × 10–5 new unit

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

4
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

40. Which of the following graphs shows an 43. A person travels along a straight road for
object moving with negative acceleration? first
t 4t
time with speed v1 and for next 5 time
5
(1) with a speed v2 . The mean speed v is given
by
(1) v = v +v 1 2

(2) v =
v1 +4v2

(3) 1
=
1
+
4

v 5v1 5v2

(2) (4) v =
2 −−− −
⋅ √v1 v2
5

44. Motion of a particle is given by the equation

s = (2t3 + 3t2 + 4t + 2) m, where s is position
in meter and t is time in second. The value of
acceleration of particle at time t = 1 s is
(1) 12 m/s2
(3)
(2) 18 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) Zero

45. The minimum value of y = x2 – 4x will exist at

x is equal to
(4)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1
4

(4) 1

46. A body is thrown vertically upward with

some speed. If velocity and acceleration of a
41. A physical quantity z is represented by body at highest point are v and a
2 −3

Z =
A B
. If the maximum possible repesctively, then
C
)

percentage errors in A, B and C are x%, y% (1) v = 0, a = 0

1D

and z% respectively, then maximum (2) v = 0, a ≠ 0

T0

percentage error in z is (3) v ≠ 0, a = 0

F

(1) (x − y + z)%
P4

(4) v ≠ 0, a ≠ 0
24

(2) (2x + 3y + z)%

23

(3) (2x − 3y + z)% 47. The value of slope of the graph governed by
M

(4) equation y = x2 at x = 2 is
(R

x y
( − + z)%
2 3 (1) 2
(2) 4
42. If in a vernier calliper n VSD coincides with (3) 1
2
(n – 1) MSD, then the least count of vernier
calliper is (Take 1 MSD = 1 mm) (4) 1

(1) (n – 1) mm
(2) n mm
(3) ( 1 ) mm
n

(4) 1
mm
(n−1)

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

5
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

48. The position time (x-t) graph of an object in 50. The position-time graph of two particles A
uniform motion is shown below. The velocity and B are as shown in figure, then
of the object is

(1) vA = vB
(2) vA > vB
(1) Positive
(3) vA < vB
(2) Negative
(3) Zero (4) vA ≥ vB
(4) Decreasing

49. 1 nanometer is equal to

(1) 109 m
(2) 10–6 m
(3) 10–9 m
(4) 106 m

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Which of the following contains same 54. 200 mL M

HCl and 300 mL M
HNO3 were
number of atoms as in 20 g calcium? 2 10

mixed. Concentration of hydrogen ion [H+],

)
1D

(1) 8 g oxygen atoms

in the mixture is
T0

(2) 12 g carbon
(1) 0.20 M
F

(3) 24 g magnesium
P4

(2) 0.26 M
(4) 14 g nitrogen atoms
24

(3) 0.15 M
23

(4) 0.45 M
52. Mass of 2.5 g atom of magnesium is
M
(R

(1) 2.5 g
55. Volume occupied by 6.02 × 1024 molecules
(2) 25 g
of CH4 at STP is
(3) 50 g
(1) 22.4 L
(4) 60 g
(2) 112 L
(3) 180 L
53. Mass percent of hydrogen in methane is
(4) 224 L
(1) 25%
(2) 30%
56. Change in volume when 10 ml NH3 (g) is
(3) 35%
completely decomposed into N2 (g) and
(4) 40% H2 (g) is
(1) Increase in 10 ml
(2) Decrease in 30 ml
(3) Increase in 20 ml
(4) Decrease in 15 ml

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

6
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

57. Which has minimum number of atoms 64. How much volume of NH3 is produced when
among the following? 3 litres of N2 and 3 litres of H2 are mixed at
(1) 32 g of O2 constant temperature and pressure?
(2) 4 g of He (1) 6 L
(3) 11 g of CO2 (2) 4 L
(4) 2.3 g of Na (3) 2 L
(4) 1 L
58. In order to prepare 500 mL of 0.2 M NaOH,
the mass of NaOH required is 65. If mass percentage of hydrogen in a
(1) 2 g hydrocarbon is 14.29% then the empirical
formula of the compound will be
(2) 4 g
(1) CH3
(3) 8 g
(2) C2 H3
(4) 16 g
(3) CH4
59. The number of atoms present in 1 ml of (4) CH2
water (d = 1 g/ml) is (NA = 6 × 1023 )
(1) 1022 66. If phosphoric acid (H3 PO4 ) on reaction with
(2) 1023 NaOH forms Na2 HPO4 ; then equivalent
mass of phosphoric acid in the reaction will
(3) 1021 be
(4) 1024 (1) 50
(2) 49
60. 300 g of C2 H6 is burnt in excess of oxygen. (3) 98
Mass of CO2 produced is (4) 196
(1) 110 g
(2) 220 g 67. Concentration term which depends on
temperature, is
(3) 440 g
(1) Molality
(4) 880 g
(2) Mole fraction
(3) % w/v
61. Formula mass is used instead of molecular
mass for (4) % w/w
(1) H2 O
)
1D

(2) Ne 68. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to

form two compounds XY and X2 Y3 . When
T0

(3) NaCl
0.1 mol of XY weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of
F

(4) CH4 X2 Y3 weighs 12 g, then the atomic weights

P4

of X and Y respectively are

24

62. A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a (1) 50, 50

23

solute in 15 g of water. The mass percent of (2) 20, 80

M

the solute in the solution is

(R

(3) 60, 40
(1) 25%
(4) 30, 70
(2) 33.3%
(3) 50%
69. If percentage abundance of three isotopes of
(4) 10% an atom A of atomic masses 20, 18 and 22
respectively are 95%, 4% and 1%, then the
63. Mole fraction of solute in a 4.45 molal weighted average atomic mass of the
aqueous solution is naturally occurring element A will be
(1) 0.121 (1) 15 amu
(2) 0.021 (2) 16.5 amu
(3) 0.074 (3) 19.94 amu
(4) 0.205 (4) 21.34 amu

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

7
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

70. The total number of valence electrons in 4.8 76. 100 mL of 1 M HCl solution is diluted to 500
g of O2– ion is (NA is Avogadro’s number) mL. The final molarity of HCl solution is
(1) 0.40
(1) 0.2 NA
(2) 0.20
(2) 0.3 NA
(3) 0.44
(3) 2 NA
(4) 0.5
(4) 2.4 NA
77. Number of significant figures in 2.18 × 10–3
71. 5 g of a piece of marble was treated with is
excess of dil. HCl. When reaction was (1) 1
complete 448 ml of CO2 was obtained at
(2) 2
STP. The percentage of CaCO3 in the
marble is [Molar mass of CaCO3 = 100 (3) 3
g/mol] (4) 4
(1) 20%
(2) 80% 78. 0.56 g of a gas occupies 280 cm3 at NTP,
(3) 60% then the molecular mass of the gas is
(4) 40% (1) 22.4 u
(2) 4.8 u
72. A gas has vapour density equal to 11.2. The (3) 56 u
volume occupied by 1 g of the gas at STP (4) 44.8 u
will be
(1) 11.2 L 79. Mass of carbon present in 0.2 mole of
(2) 22.4 L Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3 is
(3) 1 L (1) 43.2 g
(4) 10 L (2) 7.2 g
(3) 11.4 g
73. 5.6 L of a triatomic gas at STP weighs 16 g. (4) 9.6 g
Number of atoms in 64 g of the gas is (NA
represents Avogadro number)
80. The amount of water (in kilograms)
(1) NA produced by the combustion of 9.6 g of
(2) 2 NA methane (CH4 ) is
(3) 3 NA CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(g)
)
1D

(4) 4 NA (1) 0.004

(2) 0.0216
F T0

(3) 0.216
74. The empirical formula of a compound is CH.
P4

Its molecular weight is 78. The molecular (4) 0.514

24

formula of the compound will be

23

(1) C2 H2 81. Molecule having same molecular and

M

(2) C6 H6 empirical formula is

(R

(1) H2 C2 O4
(3) C4 H4
(2) H2 S2 O8
(4) C2 H6
(3) H3 PO3

75. Volume of oxygen gas obtained at STP on (4) CH3 COOH

complete decomposition of 0.2 mol of KCIO3
is 82. If the mass ratio of He to N2 in a container is
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 2 : 1 then the ratio of their moles will be
(1) 5.6 L (1) 1 : 2
(2) 8.96 L (2) 3 : 2
(3) 6.72 L (3) 12 : 1
(4) 9.8 L (4) 14 : 1

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

8
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

83. If vapour density is defined with respect to 85. 1

th mass of one atom of C-12 is equal to
He, what will be the vapour density of 12

oxygen? (1) 1 atomic mass unit

(1) 16 (2) Mass of 1 atom of any of the element
(2) 8 (3) Mass of 1 atom of C-14
(3) 32 (4) 1
th mass of 1 atom of H
12

(4) 64

84. Given below are two statements : one is

labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : CuO and Cu2 O illustrate the
law of multiple proportion.
Reasons R : Percentage of copper and
oxygen in samples of CuO obtained by
different methods were found to be same.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

SECTION-B

86. 280 ml of sulphur vapours at NTP weigh 3.2 89. An imaginary gas is found to have the
g. The molecular formula of the sulphur formula (CO)x. Its vapour density is 70. Value
)
1D

vapour is of x is
T0

(1) S (1) 7
F

(2) S2 (2) 4
P4

(3) S4 (3) 6
24

(4) S8 (4) 5
23
M
(R

87. A + 2B → 3C, what is the maximum number 90. 6 g hydrogen and 48 g of oxygen were
of moles of C formed, if 2 moles of A is heated to produce water. Amount of water
heated with 3 moles of B? produced in the reaction will be
(1) 3 (1) 1 mol
(2) 1.5 (2) 2 mol
(3) 4.5 (3) 2.5 mol
(4) 6 (4) 3 mol

88. A sample of Ba3 (PO4 )2 contains 0.6 moles 91. 11.2 L of CO2 gas at STP contains as many
of oxygen atoms. The number of moles of molecules as present in
phosphorus atoms in the sample is (1) 300 g of C2 H6
(1) 0.15 (2) 45 g of H2 C2 O4
(2) 0.3 (3) 4.5 g of H2 O
(3) 2.4 (4) 98 g of H2 SO4
(4) 0.2

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

9
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

92. Number of He atoms present in 40 amu of 97. Mass of 50% pure CaCO3 required to
the helium gas is produce 5.6 L of CO2 (g) at S.T.P. is
(1) 20 (1) 25 g
(2) 10 (2) 50 g
(3) 40 (3) 75 g
(4) 4 (4) 100 g

93. Number of carbon atoms in 18 g glucose is 98. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atoms
(NA represents Avogadro number) of the same element have
(1) 0.6 NA (1) Identical properties but different mass
(2) 1.2 NA (2) Identical mass but different properties
(3) 1.8 NA (3) Identical mass and identical properties
(4) 0.1 NA (4) Non-identical properties and mass

94. Number of Fe atoms in 22.4 g haemoglobin 99. A compound of metal (M) and nitrogen (N)
if it contains 0.25% Fe (Atomic mass of Fe = with formula M2 N3 contains 28% nitrogen.
56) is The atomic mass of metal M is ___
(1) 6.02 × 1021 (1) 9
(2) 24
(2) 6.02 × 1020
(3) 54
(3) 3.01 × 1020
(4) 78
(4) 3.01 × 1021
100. 0.25 gram atom of an element weighs 25 g.
95. Maximum number of oxygen atoms are The atomic mass of the element (amu) is
present in (1) 50
(1) 8 g of O (2) 100
(2) 8 g of O2 (3) 200
(3) 8 g of O3 (4) 25
(4) All have equal number of oxygen
atoms

96. A gaseous mixture contains equal masses of

)

O2 and SO2 . The mole fraction of SO2 gas in

1D

the mixture is
T0

(1) 1
F

2
P4

(2) 1
24

3
23

(3) 2

3
M

(4)
(R

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Find the odd one w.r.t. endomembrane 102. In human beings, the membrane of the
system? erythrocyte has approximately
(1) Lysosomes and vacuoles (1) 52% protein and 40% lipid
(2) Peroxisomes and chloroplasts (2) 40% protein and 52% lipid
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi body (3) 50% protein and 50% lipid
(4) Lysosomes and golgi body (4) 40% protein and 60% lipid

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

10
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

103. The infoldings of inner membrane of 110. How many centrioles is/are present in a
mitochondria are called centrosome?
(1) Matrix (1) One
(2) Cisternae (2) Two
(3) Cristae (3) Three
(4) Pili (4) Four

104. Presence of which of the following structures 111. The term glycocalyx is used for
is common in animal and higher plant cells? (1) A layer surrounding plant cell
(1) Mitochondria (2) Cell wall of bacteria
(2) Plastids (3) A layer surrounding bacterial cell wall
(3) Centrioles (4) Outermost layer of animal cell
(4) Large central vacuole
112. A polysome contains
105. In acrocentric chromosome the centromere (1) Many ribosomes and a single mRNA
is situated
(2) Single ribosome and many mRNAs
(1) In the middle
(3) Single ribosome and single mRNA
(2) Close to one end
(4) Many ribosomes and many mRNAs
(3) At the terminal position
(4) Slightly away from the middle
113. Which of the given structures is not present
in prokaryotes?
106. How many microtubules are observed in the (1) Cell wall
transverse section of cilia or flagella of
(2) Cell membrane
eukaryotes?
(1) 1 (3) Nuclear envelope
(2) 9 (4) Genetic material
(3) 20
(4) 27 114. The function of packaging of materials and
their delivery to the intracellular targets is
performed by
107. Choose the feature which is common in (1) Golgi apparatus
mitochondria, chloroplast and prokaryotic
(2) ER
cell?
(1) Single stranded DNA (3) Lysosome
)
1D

(4) Mitochondria
(2) Presence 70S ribosomes
T0

(3) Absence of enzymes

F

(4) Surrounded by rigid cell wall 115. A special type of plastid which store starch is
P4

(1) Chromoplast
24

(2) Elaioplasts
108. Incorrect statement for vacuoles is
23

(3) Aleuroplast
(1) Single membrane bound organelle.
M

(4) Amyloplast
(R

(2) Contains water, sap and excretory

products.
(3) Occupies upto 90% volume of the plant 116. Which of the following is incorrect about
cell. ribosome?
(4) Transport of ions into the vacuole from (1) Ribosomes are granular structures
cytoplasm is passive. (2) Non-membranous organelles
(3) Responsible for protein synthesis
109. Nuclear envelope of a nucleus (4) In eukaryotes only 80S ribosomes are
(1) Separates nucleoplasm from the found
cytoplasm.
(2) Surrounds a perinuclear space of 10 – 117. Sometimes few chromosomes have non-
100 mm in width. staining secondary constriction at a constant
(3) Is smooth and never has ribosomes. location. This gives the appearance of a
(4) Contains nuclear pore complex that small fragment called
control one way movement of (1) Short arm
substances. (2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Telomere

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

11
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

118. Schleiden and Schwann together formulated 124. Chlorophyll pigment is present in the
the cell theory, but that theory did not ______ of chloroplast
(1) Tell that all plants are composed of (1) Thylakoids and stroma
different kinds of cells (2) Matrix
(2) Explain that how new cells are formed (3) Thylakoids
(3) Tell that animal cells have a thin outer (4) Stroma
layer
(4) Tell that presence of cell wall is a
unique character of the plant cells 125. Nucleus as a cell organelle was first
described by
(1) Flemming
119. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram
(2) Robert Brown
(3) George Palade
(4) Camillo Golgi

126. Which of the given is the site of rRNA

synthesis?
(1) Nucleolus
(2) Nucleus
(3) Ribosome
(1) A – Inner membrane; B – Thylakoids
(4) Cytoplasm
(2) B – Crista; C – Matrix
(3) C – Inter-membrane space; D –
Cisternae 127. In animal cells, steroidal hormones are
synthesised by
(4) D – Matrix; A – Tonoplast
(1) RER
(2) SER
120. The non-membrane bound cell organelle
(3) Ribosomes
which helps in cell division is
(4) Golgi bodies
(1) Ribosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Nucleolus 128. State true (T) or false (F) for given
statements and select the correct option.
(4) Vacuole (a) Nucleoli are larger and numerous in the
cells actively involved in protein synthesis.
121. Enzymes and electron carriers for the (b) Outer membrane of nucleus is often
)

connected to Golgi apparatus.

1D

formation of cellular energy are present in

the mitochondria at (c) Chromatin fibre could be stained with
T0

basic dyes.
(1) Outer membrane only
F
P4

(2) Inner membrane only (a) (b) (c)

24

(3) Both outer and inner membranes (1) T T T

23

(4) Mitochondrial matrix only (2) F T T

M

(3) T F T
(R

122. Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the (4) F F F

bacterial cells are helpful in
(1) Cell wall formation (1) (1)
(2) Attachment to the host tissue (2) (2)
(3) Secretion process (3) (3)
(4) Cell motility (4) (4)

123. Mesosome helps in all, except 129. Which structure in bacteria prevents them
from collapsing?
(1) Cell wall formation
(1) Glycocalyx
(2) Respiration and secretion process
(2) Capsule
(3) Nucleotide synthesis
(3) Cell wall
(4) Increasing the surface area of plasma
membrane (4) Mesosome

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

12
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

130. Select the odd one w.r.t. surface structures of 133. Major site of formation of glycoproteins and
the bacteria. glycolipids is
(1) Flagella (1) Vacuole
(2) Pili (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Polysome (3) Plastids
(4) Fimbriae (4) Lysosomes

131. A live cell was first seen and described by 134. Na+/K+ pump in the living cells is an
(1) Robert Hooke example of
(2) Robert Brown (1) Energy releasing process
(3) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (2) Active transport
(4) Theodore Schwann (3) Osmosis
(4) Passive transport
132. Select the inclusion body, found in
prokaryotes 135. Who proposed most widely accepted ‘fluid
(1) Contractile vacuole mosaic model’ of cell membrane?
(2) Mesosome (1) George Palade
(3) Glycogen granule (2) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Peroxisome (3) Theodore Schwann
(4) Singer and Nicolson

SECTION-B

136. ‘Omnis cellula-e cellula’ explains that 140. The plasmid DNA confers certain unique
(1) Organisms are made up of cells and its phenotypic characters to the bacterial cell
products like
(2) Presence of cell wall is a unique (1) Mesosome formation
character of plant cells (2) Chromatophore formation
(3) Activities of an organism are sum total (3) Resistance to antibiotics
of interactions of its constituent cells (4) Formation of 80S ribosomes
(4) Cells arise from pre-existing cells
)
1D

141. The function of ribosome of a polysome is to

T0

137. Lysosomes are the organelles formed by the (1) Translate the mRNA into protein
F

process of
(2) Synthesise lipids in eukaryotic cells
P4

(1) Packaging in the food vacuole

(3) Replicate DNA during cell division
24

(2) Packaging in the Golgi apparatus

23

(4) Store various hydrolytic enzymes

(3) Autodigestion
M

(4) Glycosidation in the SER

(R

142. Small disc-shaped structure at the surface of

the centromere is called
138. All of the following are features of (1) Kinetochore
prokaryotic cells, except that
(2) Metaphasic plate
(1) Their genomic DNA is linear
(3) Chromomere
(2) Their extrachromosomal DNA is
(4) Telomere
circular
(3) Their genetic material is naked
(4) They have 70S ribosomes 143. All of the following structures has DNA,
except
(1) Mitochondrion
139. Glycocalyx may be thick and tough in
(2) Chloroplast
bacterial cells. It is called
(1) Cell wall (3) Nucleus
(4) Peroxisome
(2) Slime layer
(3) Capsule
(4) Plasma membrane

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

13
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

144. The ______ face of golgi complex gives rise 148. In all organisms, basic unit of life is
to the secretory vesicles. (1) DNA
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(2) Cell
(1) Convex
(3) Protoplasm
(2) Cis
(4) Cytoplasm
(3) Maturing
(4) Forming
149. The shape of nerve cells is
(1) Round and biconcave
145. On the basis of his studies, who concluded
(2) Branched and long
that the presence of cell wall is a unique
character of the plant cells. (3) Amoeboid
(1) Matthias Schleiden (4) Cuboidal
(2) Theodor Schwann
(3) George Palade 150. The centriole-like structure from which cilia
(4) Rudolf Virchow and flagella emerge in eukaryotes is called
(1) Basal body
(2) Hook
146. Chromatin contains
(3) Axoneme
(1) DNA and basic proteins only
(2) DNA and RNA only (4) Spindle fibre
(3) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone
proteins
(4) RNA and histone proteins only

147. Select the mis-matched pair.

(1) Vacuole – Tonoplast
(2) Inclusion body – Only in eukaryotic cell
(3) Chromatophores – Blue-green algae
(4) Mitochondria – Sausage shaped

ZOOLOGY
)
1D
F T0

SECTION-A
P4
24

151. Neuroglia make up ______ the volume of 153. A type of cell not present in areolar tissue is
23

neural tissue in our body. (1) Mast cell

M

Choose the option which fills the blank

(R

(2) Fibroblast
correctly.
(1) Less than one-half (3) Macrophage
(2) More than One-half (4) Chondrocyte
(3) Equal to one-half
(4) Less than one-four 154. Alveolar walls are lined by
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) Stratified squamous epithelium
152. Which of the following does not show
presence of connective tissue fibres of (3) Compound cuboidal epithelium
collagen? (4) Ciliated squamous epithelium
(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Cartilage
(4) Tendon

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

14
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

155. Simple columnar epithelium is composed of 162. Which of the following facilitate the cells to
a single layer of ‘A’ cells whose nuclei communicate with each other by connecting
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid
are located at the ‘B’ . transfer of ions, small molecules and
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯
Select the option which fills A and B sometimes big molecules?
correctly. (1) Tight junctions
(1) A = Tall and slender, B = Base (2) Gap junctions
(2) A = Short and round, B = Base (3) Adhering junctions
(3) A = Tall and polygonal, B = Centre (4) Desmosomes
(4) A = Short and flat, B = Centre
163. The epithelium which is made up of more
156. Cells of specialized connective tissue, than one layer of cells and their main
cartilage, are called function is to provide protection against
(1) Chondrocytes chemical and mechanical stresses is found
in inner lining of
(2) Osteoblasts
(1) Bronchi
(3) Osteoclasts
(2) PCT of nephron
(4) Fibroblasts
(3) Stomach
(4) Pancreatic ducts
157. Which of the following is not a function of
simple epithelium?
(1) Diffusion of gases 164. Bones are the haemopoetic organs in adult
humans. They are actually a type of
(2) Absorption of nutrients
(1) Adipose tissue
(3) Filtration of nitrogenous waste
(2) Areolar tissue
(4) Bearing chemical stresses
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) Fluid connective tissue
158. Lining of which of the following has similar
kind of Epithelium?
(1) Inner lining of wall of blood vessels and 165. Division of labour due to tissue formation
air sacs of lung first became evident in members of phylum
(2) DCT and stomach (1) Porifera
(3) Bronchioles and Intestine (2) Platyhelminthes
(4) PCT and oviduct (3) Echinodermata
(4) Cnidaria
)
1D

159. Skeletal muscle is connected to bone with

the help of 166. Which of the following is present in blood?
T0

(1) Tendon (1) Collagen fibres

F
P4

(2) Ligaments (2) Macrophages

24

(3) Hyaline cartilage (3) Leukocytes

23

(4) Elastic cartilage (4) Fibroblasts

M
(R

160. Simple epithelium is not present on surfaces 167. In humans, epithelium that plays limited role
associated with in absorption, diffusion and secretion is
(1) Secretion likely to be found in/at
(2) Absorption (1) Small intestine
(3) Protection (2) Trachea
(4) Filtration (3) Fallopian tube
(4) Buccal cavity

161. Tissue whose cells are specialised to store

fat and is located mainly beneath the skin is
(1) Specialised connective tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Tendon
(4) Ligament

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

15
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

168. Choose the incorrect statement. 172. Intercalated disc in a cardiac muscle is
(1) Structural proteins which provide (1) Responsible for light and dark bands of
strength, elasticity and flexibility to the the muscle
connective tissue are secreted by (2) Dark line seen along the long axis of
fibroblasts. the muscle fibre
(2) Endothelium has abundant blood (3) Responsible for cells to contract as a
supply and is highly vascular. unit
(3) Smooth muscle fibres are responsible (4) Present in structures or organs of the
for changing the diameter of blood body subjected to high stresses
vessels.
(4) Blood is a fluid connective tissue
containing plasma and formed 173. How many of the below given features
elements. belong to smooth muscle fibres?
Fusiform, Multinucleated, Involuntary, no
striations, attached to skeletal bones
169. Identify the ciliated columnar epithelial
tissue among the figures given below and (1) Two
choose the correct option. (2) Three
(1) (3) Four
(4) Five

(2) 174. The tissue which exerts greatest control over

the body’s responsiveness to stimuli is
(1) Cardiac muscle tissue
(2) Neural tissue
(3) Skeletal tissue
(4) Blood
(3)

175. Select the correct statement w.r.t. neural

tissue.
(1) All neuroglial cells are excitable in
nature
(2) Neurons are unit of neural system that
(4) respond to stimulus
(3) Muscles constitute less than one-half
the volume of neural tissue in our body
)
1D

(4) Neural tissue consists of actively

T0

dividing cells called neurons and glial

F

cells
P4

170. Complete the analogy by selecting correct

24

option.
176. The function of ‘A’ epithelium is to move
23

Ciliated epithelium : Fallopian tubes ::

particles or mucus in a specific direction and
M

_______ : Alveoli.
mainly present in the inner surface of hollow
(R

(1) Columnar epithelium organs like ‘B’. ?

(2) Muscular tissue Select the correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(3) Squamous epithelium A B
(4) Neural tissue (1) Cuboidal PCT of nephron
(2) Ciliated Bronchioles
171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of (3) Cuboidal Stomach
collagen fibres. (4) Columnar Intestine
(1) Fluid connective tissue (1) (1)
(2) Dense regular connective tissue (2) (2)
(3) Dense irregular connective tissue (3) (3)
(4) Loose connective tissue (4) (4)

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

16
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone. 181. Cell junctions that prevent the leakage of
(1) The red bone marrow in some bones is substances across a tissue are
the site of production of blood cells (1) Tight junctions
(2) Osteocytes are present in the spaces (2) Adhering junctions
called lacunae (3) Gap junctions
(3) Bone is solid and pliable and resists (4) Desmosomes
compression
(4) Bones are rich in calcium salts and
collagen fibres 182. Property associated with neurons excludes
(1) Conductivity
(2) Excitability
178. Similarity between bone and cartilage are all
except (3) Contractility
(1) Presence of lamellae (4) Response to stimulus
(2) Presence of lacunae
(3) Presence of matrix secreting cells 183. In which of the following parts, Nissl's
(4) Categorised as specialized connective granule is present in a neuron?
tissue (1) Axon only
(2) Cyton axon and axon terminals
179. Select the odd one out w.r.t. the dense (3) Cyton and dendrites
irregular connective tissue. (4) Cyton only
(1) Periosteum of bone
(2) Dermis of skin 184. In which of the following organisms, all
(3) Glisson's capsule functions of life are performed by a single
(4) Ligament cell?
(1) Planaria
(2) Hydra
180. Select the option which identifies
(3) Scypha
A and B correctly.
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ (4) Paramecium

185. Which of the following is the secretion of

exocrine gland?
(1) Insulin
(1) A - Lymph, B – Muscle tissue (2) Glucagon
)

(2) A - Neural tissue, B - Blood (3) Thyroxine

1D

(3) A - Areolar tissue, B - Blood (4) Cerumen

T0

(4) A - Areolar tissue, B - Neural tissue

F
P4
24
23

SECTION-B
M
(R

186. The connective tissue that helps in 187. Choose the incorrect statement among the
maintaining the body temperature in following?
neonates is (1) Dense irregular connective tissue has
(1) Dense regular tissue fibroblast and many fibres mainly
(2) Brown adipose tissue collagen that are oriented randomly
(3) White adipose tissue (2) Muscular tissue has abundant
intercellular substance, hence provide
(4) Dense irregular tissue
great mobility of the head only
(3) Nervous tissue exerts greatest control
of the body’s responsiveness to
changing environment
(4) Schwann cells are responsible for
myelination in the PNS (peripheral
nervous system, each internodal
segment is myelinated by single
Schwann cell.

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

17
Fortnightly Test 2023-24_RM(P4)-Test-01D

188. A statement of assertion (A) is followed by a 194. Select the muscle tissue in options below
statement of reason (R). which shows striations and whose fibres
A : Endothelium of blood vessels is made up constitute branched contractile tissue.
of squamous epithelium. (1) Heart muscles
R : This epithelium is made up of flattened
(2) Muscles in stomach wall
cells with irregular boundaries.
(3) Biceps
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) Muscles in wall of blood vessels
the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 195. Cells of squamous and cuboidal epithelium
the reason is not the correct respectively are
explanation of the assertion. (1) Columnar and flattened
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Flattened and cube-like
is false.
(3) Flattened and columnar
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements. (4) Cube and slender with basal nucleus

189. Match the column I and II. Choose the 196. Sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of
correct option. (1) Neurons
Column I Column II (2) Muscle fibres
Secretion can (3) Epithelial cells
a. Plasma cells (i) constrict blood (4) Chondrocytes
vessels
b. Mast cells (ii) Ingest foreign matter
197. Which of the following is not a function of
c. Macrophages (iii) Produce antibodies adipose tissue?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (1) Reduces heat loss through skin
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) Serves as an energy reserve
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (3) Cells are specialised to store fats
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) Transport of nutrients

190. The innermost wall of blood vessels are 198. Tissue that consists of elongated cells called
composed of fibres that are capable of utilizing ATP to
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium bring about movement is
(2) Columnar epithelium (1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
)

(3) Cuboidal epithelium

1D

(4) Squamous epithelium (3) Connective tissue

T0

(4) Epithelial tissue

F
P4

191. Presence of which of the following junctions

perform the function of cementing to keep
24

199. Read statements A and B carefully and

neighbouring cells together? choose the correct option.
23

(1) Tight junction Statement A – All smooth muscle fibres are

M

involuntary but all involuntary muscle fibres

(R

(2) Adhering junction

are not smooth muscle fibres.
(3) Gap junction Statement B – All voluntary muscle fibres
(4) Communication Junction are striated but all striated muscle fibres are
not voluntary.
192. The most widely distributed connective (1) Both statements A and B are correct
tissue in the body of complex animals is (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Dense connective tissue (3) Only statement A is correct
(2) Adipose tissue (4) Only statement B is correct
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Fluid connective tissue 200. The type of tissue present at the outer ear
joints is also found in the
193. The fibres of which of the following types of (1) Tip of nose
muscular tissues are multinucleated and (2) Tendon
show alternate light and dark bands? (3) Ligament
(1) Smooth muscle tissue (4) Bone
(2) Skeletal muscle tissue
(3) Cardiac muscle tissue
(4) Visceral muscle tissue

@CET_JEE_NEET | viju | CLICK HERE & JOIN

18