AIR LAW ATPL 2

AERODROMES, LIGHTS AND SIGNALS

1. What does a runway strip include?

a) The runway and cleared zone
b) The runway and stop way
c) The runway and clearway
d) The runway and runway end safety area

2. What defines 'aerodrome elevation'?

a) The height (AMSL) of the aerodrome reference point (ARP)
b) The height (AMSL) of the highest runway threshold
c) The highest point on the landing area
d) The highest point on the movement area

3. How is a displaced threshold indicated?

a) Yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold point
b) Arrows pointing towards the threshold along the runway
c) A white X on the unusable part of the threshold
d) A transverse white stripe added to the threshold marking

4. Where a runway has a displaced threshold and the whole of the runway is used for take-off,
which of the following can be used to indicate the centre of the runway from the end to the
displaced threshold?
a) Approach lighting (such that it does not dazzle the pilot taking off)
b) Red centre line lighting
c) Green/yellow alternating taxiway lights
d) Unidirectional green lights

5. What marks a runway holding position?

a) One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
b) Occulting yellow 'guard' lights
c) A red marker board either side of the taxiway
d) A red light stop bar

6. What colour are runway edge lights?

a) Blue
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) White
7. What must the inscription on a Cat I, Cat II, Cat III or Cat II/III holding position sign also
contain?
a) The runway designator
b) The taxiway designator
c) A no entry sign for vehicles
d) The taxiway designation and number

8. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a) Apron
b) Ramp
c) Stands
d) Parking Bays

9. Runway threshold lights shall be:

a) Fixed lights green colours.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the
runway.
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
runway.
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

10. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are
codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway
code 4?
a) 35 metres
b) 45 metres
c) 50 metres
d) 40 metres

11. The organization responsible for the licensing aerodromes of in Nigeria is;
a) Nigerian Civil Aviation Authority
b) Nigerian Airspace Management
c) Nigerian Airports Authority
d) Nigerian Police

12. The designated geographical location of an aerodrome is referred to as;

a) Aerodrome reference point
b) Aerodrome elevation
c) Aerodrome beacon
d) Name of aerodrome
13. An Aircraft navigation lights are found to be unserviceable on the ground before flight.
No repairs can be carried out:
a) The aircraft may not be flown by day or by night.
b) The aircraft may not be flown by day
c) The aircraft may not be flown by night.
d) All of the above

14. Emergency distance as relates to a runway refers to:

a) length of runway plus clearway only.
b) length of runway plus, stopway plus clearway.
c) length of runway plus stopway only.
d) length of runway plus accelerate distance, plus stopway.

15. Given the airport diagram below, assume the tower advises you that right traffic is in use
for landing on Runway 21. In calm wind conditions the magnetic heading on base leg
would be approximately?
a) 2100
b) 1200
c) 3000
d) 0300.
16. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should you contact ground control?
a) Prior to turning off the runway.
b) After reaching a taxi strip that leads directly to the parking area.
c) After leaving the runway and crossing the runway holding lines
d) When the tower instructs you to do so.

AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATION

17. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for
search and rescue?
a) SAR
b) AD
c) GEN
d) ENR

18. Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure
procedures?
a) GEN
b) ENR
c) MAP
d) AD

19. All details dealing with filing of flight plans are shown in the:
a) Notams
b) Aeronautical Information Publication
c) Nig.CARs
d) Aeronautical Information Circulars

INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES

- DEPARTURE

20. What does the abbreviation DER stand for?

a) Distance to end of route
b) Departure end route
c) Distance to end of route
d) Departure end runway

21. During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:

a) within 50 of runway centre line
b) within 100 of runway centre line
c) within 150 of runway centre line
d) within 250 of runway centre line
22. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes?
a) NDB and ILS
b) VOR and NDB
c) VOR and DME
d) NDB and DME

23. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its
descent below the OCA?
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights
in sight
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight
yet
d) When it seems possible to land

24. What basic assumption is made with regard to the capability of the aeroplane when
discussing departure procedures?
a) That it can comply with the noise abatement requirements
b) That the procedure is capable of being flown by the average pilot
c) That all engines are working
d) That the initial part of the procedure will be flown with the flaps and lift
enhancers operating

APPROACH PROCEDURES

25. An instrument approach is made up of segments. How many of them are there?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

26. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach
procedure?
a) En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach
b) Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach
c) Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal
d) En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating

27. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned
with the runway and descent commenced?
a) Final
b) Initial
c) Intermediate
d) Arrival
28. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound
from outbound tracks flown being reciprocal. This called:
a) base turn
b) procedure turn
c) reverse procedure
d) racetrack

29. Which of the following is not one of the five approach procedure segments?
a) Initial
b) Missed Approach
c) Terminal
d) Intermediate

30. Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?

a) Cloud base and ground visibility for take off
b) Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take off
c) Cloud base and RVR for take off
d) Cloud ceiling and RVR for take off.

HOLDING

31. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
a) Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
b) A non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
c) It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot's discretion.
d) Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

32. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according
to:
a) Course.
b) Heading.
c) Bearing.
d) Track.

ALTIMETER SETTINGS

33. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?
a. On engine start
b. In the taxi clearance
c. In the ATC clearance
d. With the take-off clearance
34. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
a) When passing the transition altitude
b) When passing the transition level
c) Within the transition layer
d) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

35. Which of the following is the location of FL0?

a) The first flight level above the transition level
b) The level defined with reference to a QNH of 1013.25mb
c) The atmospheric pressure level of 1013.25mb
d) Where QNH = QNE

36. If adequate QNH altimeter setting reports to enable the pilot to determine the lowest
flight level which will ensure terrain clearance cannot be provided owing to the scarcity
of reporting station. Then, if the highest terrain en route is 10,000 feet, the permanent
lowest safe west bound IFR flight level is:
a) FL 110
b) FL 120
c) FL 130
d) FL 150

SECURITY

37. What is the aim of aviation security?

a) To prevent unauthorised personnel from having uncontrolled access to aeroplanes
b) To make sure that all baggage carried on an aeroplane has been searched for
prohibited articles
c) To prevent hi-jacking of aeroplanes
d) To prevent breaches of international law in aeroplanes

38. What is the Annex of the Chicago Convention that covers Security?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 15
c) Annex 16
d) Annex 17

39. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for carriage of:
a) deportees and people under lawful custody
b) deportees,people under lawful custody and inadmissibles
c) only people under lawful custody
d) only deportees and inadmissibles
40 The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law:
a. may deliver such person to the competent authorities
b. may request such person to disembark
c. may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
d. may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

SEARCH AND RESCUE

41. What is the Annex of the Chicago Convention that covers SAR?
a) Annex 10
b) Annex 12
c) Annex 14
d) Annex 16

42. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:
a) Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour
b) Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the
Chicago Convention
c) Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
d) Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR

43. What does the SAR signal “X” on the ground mean?
a) We need help
b) We are OK.
c) We need medical assistance
d) We have gone away.

44. What is the principle objective of a firefighting and rescue service?

a) To prevent the loss of aeroplanes by fire
b) To attend all crashed aircraft to prevent the spread of fire
c) To save life
d) To save property

AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION

45. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?

a) State of Occurrence
b) State of Registry
c) ICAO
d) Both A and B
46. The purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and:
a) apportion blame
b) to improve manufacturing design.
c) to help judicial proceedings
d) nothing more.

47. An aircraft wheels gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and
sustains damage. Is this:
a) an incident
b) an accident
c) a serious incident
d) a normal operating hazard