ITIL� 4 Foundation Exam-Prep

Over 6 mock tests and 200+ Realistic

ITIL Questions with explanations to
get you certified.

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Table of Content

1.0 About the Exam-Prep

2.0 ITIL Overview

2.1 What is ITIL?

3.0 ITIL 4 Certification Scheme

3.1 Journey to ITIL Master
3.2 ITIL� 4 Foundation Exam Overview

4.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 1

5.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 2

6.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 3

7.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 4

8.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 5

ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 6

1.0 About the Exam-Prep

ITIL� provides a framework of best-practice guidance for IT service management, and since its creation,
ITIL has grown to become the most widely accepted approach to IT service management in the world.
These practice tests have been designed to support your knowledge of ITIL and Service Management
and provide additional guidance to pass your ITIL� 4 Foundation on your first attempt !!

This book is designed to provide learners an opportunity to test their knowledge on ITIL 4 concepts and
principles, key principles of IT service management and the ITIL practices.
The content contained within this mock tests is neither definitive nor prescriptive, but is based on ITIL best
practice. The guidance in the ITIL publications is applicable generically and is of benefit to all IT
organizations irrespective of their size or the technology in use. It is neither bureaucratic nor unwieldy if
utilized sensibly and in full recognition of the business needs of the organization.
2.0 ITIL Overview

2.1 What is ITIL?

The purpose of ITIL 4 is to provide organizations with comprehensive guidance for the management of
information technology in the modern service economy. The ITIL 4 framework is built on established ITSM
practices and expands itself to the wider context of customer experience, value streams and digital
transformation, as well as embracing new ways of working, such as Lean, Agile, and DevOps. It provides
an end-to-end IT/digital operating model for the creation, delivery and continual improvement of tech-
enabled products and services and how technology and IT teams play a crucial role in wider business
strategy.
The ITIL 4 framework provides a practical and flexible basis to support organizations on their journey to
the new world of digital transformation and to help them address new service management challenges. It
is designed to ensure a flexible, coordinated and integrated system for the effective governance and
management of IT-enabled services.

ITIL 4 provides an end-to-end digital operating model for the delivery and operation of IT-enabled
products and services and enables IT teams to continue to play an important role in a wider business
strategy. ITIL 4 also provides a holistic end-to-end approach that integrates frameworks such as Lean,
Agile, and DevOps.
3.0 ITIL 4 Certification Scheme

The ITIL 4 Foundation is the beginning of your ITIL 4 journey. It will open your mind to a wider, more
advanced guidance in the other ITIL publications and training to support your professional growth. The
certification scheme shared below streamlined to provide clear paths for practitioners to continue their
ITIL journey.

The ITIL 4 certification scheme comprises of the following levels:

ITIL Foundation
ITIL Specialist modules (3)
ITIL Strategist
ITIL Leader
ITIL Master

3.1 Journey to ITIL Master

The ITIL� (4) Foundation is the entry level certification, offering a general awareness of the key
concepts, elements, and terminology of ITIL 4. This certification is targeted at professionals who need a
basic understanding of ITIL or who would like to progress to higher levels of the ITIL 4 certification
scheme.

After attaining the ITIL� Foundation certification, a candidate may choose to take the ITIL Managing
Professional stream or the ITIL Strategic Leader stream.

ITIL Managing Professional (ITIL MP) & ITIL strategic leader (ITIL SL) are intended to provide end
learners with greater depth of content in key areas of service management and IT strategy to support their
learning journey and career progression. The two streams are made up of five modules altogether.

ITIL Managing Professional (ITIL MP) targets IT practitioners working within technology and digital teams
across businesses. The Managing Professional (MP) stream provides practical and technical knowledge
about how to run successful IT projects, teams and workflows.

ITIL Strategic Leader (ITIL SL) recognizes the value of ITIL, not just for IT operations, but for all digitally
enabled services. Becoming an ITIL Strategic Leader (ITIL SL) demonstrates that the professional has a
clear understanding of how IT influences and directs business strategy.

The ITIL Managing Professional stream includes four modules. All four modules are valuable
independently, but all four modules must be completed to obtain the ITIL� Managing Professional
designation.

The completion of the ITIL� (4) Foundation is a prerequisite for the ITIL Managing Professional modules.
The ITIL Strategic Leader includes two modules, which are both valuable independently but both must be
completed to obtain the ITIL� Strategic Leader designation. The ITIL Strategist Direct, Plan, & Improve
module is common to both streams. The ITIL Leader Digital & IT Strategy module requires 3 years of
experience (along with the ITIL (4) Foundation certification) as a prerequisite.

If a candidate completes all 5 modules, gaining both designations from the two streams, they will be
eligible for assessment to become an ITIL� Master.

3.2 ITIL� 4 Foundation Exam Overview

The ITIL� is an online-proctored any-time any-where `closed book' examination which shall be
administered by PeopleCert.

Exam Format: Web-based and paper-based

Questions: 40 Multiple Choice Questions (No negative marks)

Passing Score: 65% (26 Qs to be answered correctly)

Exam 60 minutes (additional 15 min for non-native English Duration: speakers)

4.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 1

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
2. There is only one correct answer per question
3. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
4. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
5. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
6. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam
7. This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the exam paper is allowed
Q1
Branding value is the type of:

A. Return on Investment.
B. Value on Investment.
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Answer: B.
Explanations:
The answer is value on investment since branding is a non-monetary benefit.
Q2
Plan-Do-Check-Act is also called as:

A. Deming Cycle.
B. KANO Model.
C. Pareto Analysis.
D. None of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
By definition, The Deming cycle is also known as Plan-Do-Check-Act.
Q3
Defining what will be measured is compared to the _______ step in Plan Do Check Act.

A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Defining what will be measured is a planning activity.
Q4
What should be accessed to know where we stand now in the 7-step process?

A. Baseline
B. Measurable Targets
C. SKMS integration with other process
D. All the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Baseline assessments will be performed to know the current state.
Q5
The three types of metrics are:

A. Process, Technical and Service Metrics.

B. Process, Business and Technology Metrics.
C. Technology, Business and Service Metrics.
D. Technology, Process and Service Metrics.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
The three types are Technology, Process and Service Metrics.
Q6
Which statement about outcome is CORRECT?

A. Outcomes use activities to produce tangible or intangible deliverables

B. Outcomes rely on outputs to deliver results for a stakeholder
C. Outcomes help a service consumer to assess the cost of a specific activity
D. Outcomes give service consumers assurance of products or services

Answer: B

Explanation
By definition, outcome is a result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs. It relies on outputs to
deliver results for stakeholders.
Q7
Which is a result of applying the guiding principle `progress iteratively with feedback'?

A. Understanding the customer's perception of value

B. The ability to discover and respond to failure earlier
C. Standardization of practices and services
D. Understanding the current state and identifying what can be reused

Answer: B

Explanation
Working in a timeboxed, iterative manner with feedback loops embedded into the process allows for:
greater flexibility
faster responses to customer and business needs the ability to discover and respond to failure earlier an
overall improvement in quality.
Having appropriate feedback loops between the participants of an activity gives them a better
understanding of where their work comes from, where their outputs go, and how their actions and outputs
affect the outcomes, which in turn enables them to make better decisions.
Q8
Which should be handled by `service request management'?

A. A request to resolve an error in a service

B. A request to change a target in a service level agreement
C. A request to implement a security patch
D. A request to provide a laptop

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by
handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner. Each
service request may include one or more of the following:
a request for a service delivery action (for example, providing a report or replacing a toner cartridge)
a request for information (for example, how to create a document or what the hours of the office are)
a request for provision of a resource or service (for example, providing a phone or laptop to a user, or
providing a virtual server for a development team)
a request for access to a resource or service (for example, providing access to a file or folder)
feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments to
a support team).
Q9
What can help to reduce resistance to a planned improvement when applying the guiding principle
`collaborate and promote visibility'?

A. Involving customers after all planning has been completed.

B. Restricting information about the improvement to essential stakeholders only.
C. Increasing collaboration and visibility for improvement.
D. Engaging every stakeholder group in the same way, with the same communication.
Answer: C.

Explanation
Working together in a way that leads to real accomplishment requires information, understanding, and
trust. Work and its results should be made visible, hidden agendas should be avoided, and information
should be shared to the greatest degree possible. The more people are aware of what is happening and
why, the more they will be willing to help. When improvement activity occurs in relative silence, or with
only a small group being aware of the details, assumptions and rumors can prevail. Resistance to change
will often arise as staff members speculate about what is changing and how it might impact them.
Q10
Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

A. The service value chain

B. Governance
C. Continual improvement
D. Opportunity and demand

Answer: D.

Explanation
The ITIL SVS includes the following components:
-- Guiding principles: Recommendations that can guide an organization in all circumstances, regardless of
changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure.
-- Governance: The means by which an organization is directed and controlled.
-- Service value chain: A set of interconnected activities that an organization performs to deliver a
valuable product or service to its consumers and to facilitate value realization.
-- Practices: Sets of organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective.
-- Continual improvement: A recurring organizational activity performed at all levels to ensure that an
organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations. ITIL 4 supports continual
improvement with the ITIL continual improvement model.
Q11
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the `supplier management' practice is
to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performances are [_____] appropriately to support
the seamless provision of quality products and services.

A. rewarded
B. measured
C. managed
D. defined

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their
performances are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality products and
services. This includes creating closer, more collaborative relationships with key suppliers to uncover and
realize new value and reduce the risk of failure.
Q12
Which is the purpose of the `relationship management' practice?

A. To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users
B. To identify, analyze, monitor, and continually improve links with stakeholders
C. To systematically observe services and service components
D. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the
organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. It includes the identification, analysis,
monitoring, and continual improvement of relationships with and between stakeholders.
Q13
Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks to confidentiality, integrity and availability?

A. Information security management

B. Change enablement
C. Service configuration management
D. Problem management

Answer: A

Explanation
The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the
organization to conduct its business. This includes understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security
such as authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and nonrepudiation (ensuring that
someone can't deny that they took an action).
Q14
Which `service level management' activity helps staff to deliver a more business-focused service?

A. Using complex technical terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)

B. Creating targets based on the percentage of uptime of a service
C. Understanding the ongoing requirements of customers
D. Measuring low-level operational activities

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service level management requires focus and effort to engage and listen to the requirements, issues,
concerns, and daily needs of customers:
Engagement is needed to understand and confirm the actual ongoing needs and requirements of
customers, not simply what is interpreted by the service provider or has been agreed several years
before. Listening is important as a relationship-building and trust-building activity, to show customers that
they are valued and understood. This helps to move the provider away from always being in `solution
mode' and to build new, more constructive partnerships.
Q15
Which describes a `change authority'?

A. A way to manage the people aspects of change

B. A model used to determine who will assess a change
C. A person who approves a change
D. A tool used to help changes

Answer: C.

Explanation
The person or group who authorizes a change is known as a change authority. It is essential that the
correct change authority is assigned to each type of change to ensure that change control is both efficient
and effective. In high- velocity organizations, it is a common practice to decentralize change approval,
making the peer review a top predictor of high performance.
Q16
Which is one of the MAIN concerns of the `design and transition' value chain activity?

A. Understanding stakeholder needs

B. Understanding the organization's vision
C. Ensuring service components are available
D. Meeting stakeholder expectations

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the design and transition value chain activity is to ensure that products and services
continually meet stakeholder expectations for quality, costs, and time to market.
Q17
What is the purpose of the `monitoring and event management' practice?

A. To systematically observe services and service components

B. To manage workarounds and known errors
C. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
D. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

Answer: A.
Explanation
The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and
service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events. This practice
identifies and prioritizes infrastructure, services, business processes, and information security events, and
establishes the appropriate response to those events, including responding to conditions that could lead
to potential faults or incidents.
Q18
Which is a risk that might be removed from a service consumer by an IT service?

A. Cost of purchasing servers

B. Service provider ceasing to trade
C. Failure of server hardware
D. Security breach

Answer: C.

Explanation
There are two types of risk that are of concern to service consumers:
risks removed from a consumer by the service (part of the value proposition). These may include failure of
the consumer's server hardware or lack of staff availability. In some cases, a service may only reduce a
consumer's risks, but the consumer may determine that this reduction is sufficient to support the value
proposition risks imposed on a consumer by the service (risks of service consumption). An example of
this would be a service provider ceasing to trade, or experiencing a security breach.
Q19
What is the definition of warranty?

A. A means of identifying a result for a stakeholder

B. A means of determining whether a service is fit for use
C. A means of determining whether a service is fit for purpose
D. A means of identifying events that could cause harm or loss

Answer: B.

Explanation
Warranty Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements. Warranty can be
summarized as `how the service performs' and can be used to determine whether a service is `fit for use'.
Warranty often relates to service levels aligned with the needs of service consumers. This may be based
on a formal agreement, or it may be a marketing message or brand image. Warranty typically addresses
such areas as the availability of the service, its capacity, levels of security and continuity. A service may
be said to provide acceptable assurance, or `warranty', if all defined and agreed conditions are met.
Q20
Which practice is responsible for moving new or changed components to live or other environments?

A. Release management
B. Change enablement
C. Deployment management
D. Supplier management

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software,
documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in
deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.
Q21
Which statement about the `incident management' practice is CORRECT?

A. It authorizes changes to resolve incidents.

B. It resolves the highest impact incidents first.
C. It maintains detailed procedures for diagnosing incidents.
D. It identifies the cause of major incidents.

Answer: B.

Explanation
Incident management can have an enormous impact on customer and user satisfaction, and on how
customers and users perceive the service provider. Every incident should be logged and managed to
ensure that it is resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user. Target resolution
times are agreed, documented, and communicated to ensure that expectations are realistic. Incidents are
prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are
resolved first.
Q22
Which action is performed by a service provider?

A. Authorizing budget for service consumption

B. Ensuring access to agreed resources
C. Receiving of the agreed goods
D. Requesting required service actions

Answer: B.

Explanation
Service offering is a formal description of one or more services, designed to address the needs of a target
consumer group. A service offering may include goods, access to resources, and service actions. Of
these components, accessing resources granted or licensed to a consumer under agreed terms and
conditions (for example, to the mobile network, or to the network storage). The resources remain under
the provider's control and can be accessed by the consumer only during the agreed service consumption
period
Q23
Which step of the continual improvement model includes baseline assessments?

A. Did we get there?

B. Where do we want to be?
C. Where are we now?
D. What is the vision?

Answer: C.

Explanation
The success of an improvement initiative depends on a clear and accurate understanding of the starting
point and the impact of the initiative. An improvement can be thought of as a journey from Point A to Point
B, and "Where are we now?" step clearly defines what Point A looks like. A journey cannot be mapped out
if the starting point is not known. A key element in this step is a current state assessment. This is an
assessment of existing services, including the users' perception of value received, people's competencies
and skills, the processes and procedures involved, and/or the capabilities of the available technological
solutions. The organization's culture, i.e. the prevailing values and attitudes across all stakeholder groups,
also needs to be understood to decide what level of organizational change management is required.
Q24
Which statement about service relationship management is CORRECT?

A. It requires the service consumer to create resources for the service provider
B. It focuses on the fulfillment of the agreed service actions
C. It requires cooperation of both the service provider and service consumer
D. It focuses on the service actions performed by users

Answer: C

Explanation
Service relationship is a cooperation between a service provider and service consumer. Service
relationships include service provision, service consumption, and service relationship management. Of
these three components, service relationship management is joint activities performed by a service
provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available
service offerings.
Q25
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the service configuration management
practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the _____, and the CIs that support
them, is available when and where it is needed.

A. configuration of services
B. authorization of changes
C. relationships with suppliers
D. skills of people

Answer: A.

Explanation
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable
information about the configuration of services, and the CIs that support them, is available when and
where it is needed. This includes information on how CIs are configured and the relationships between
them.
Q26
Which statement about `continual improvement' is CORRECT?

A. A single team should carry out `continual improvement' across the organization
B. `Continual improvement' should have minimal interaction with other practices
C. All improvement ideas should be logged in a single `continual improvement register'
D. Everyone in the organization is responsible for some aspects of `continual improvement'

Answer: D.

Explanation
Continual improvement is everyone's responsibility. Although there may be a group of staff members who
focus on this work full-time, it is critical that everyone in the organization understands that active
participation in continual improvement activities is a core part of their job. To ensure that this is more than
a good intention, it is wise to include contribution to continual improvement in all job descriptions and
every employee's objectives, as well as in contracts with external suppliers and contractors.
Q27
Which is a use of the change schedule?

A. Automating the change process

B. Assigning resources to changes
C. Creating change models
D. Deciding the approval authority for changes

Answer: B.

Explanation
Change schedule is a calendar that shows planned and historical changes. The change schedule is used
to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign resources. It can also be used
after changes have been deployed to provide information needed for incident management, problem
management, and improvement planning. Regardless of who the change authority is, they may need to
communicate widely across the organization. Risk assessment, for instance, may require them to gather
input from many people with specialist knowledge. Additionally, there is usually a need to communicate
information about the change to ensure people are fully prepared before the change is deployed.
Q28
Which practice has a strong influence on the user experience and perception of the service provider?

A. Change enablement
B. Service level management
C. Service desk
D. Supplier management

Answer: C.

Explanation
The service desk may not need to be highly technical, although some are. However, even if the service
desk is fairly simple, it still plays a vital role in the delivery of services, and must be actively supported by
its peer groups. It is also essential to understand that the service desk has a major influence on user
experience and how the service provider is perceived by the users.
Q29
When should a workaround be created?

A. After the resolution of a problem

B. When a potential permanent solution has been identified
C. As soon as possible, once the incident is logged
D. When a problem cannot be resolved quickly

Answer: D.

Explanation
When a problem cannot be resolved quickly, it is often useful to find and document a workaround for
future incidents, based on an understanding of the problem. Workarounds are documented in problem
records. This can be done at any stage; it doesn't need to wait for analysis to be complete. If a
workaround has been documented early in problem control, then this should be reviewed and improved
after problem analysis has been completed.
Q30
Which practice requires skills and competencies related to business analysis, supplier management and
relationship management?

A. IT asset management
B. Incident management
C. Monitoring and event management
D. Service level management

Answer: D.

Explanation
The skills and competencies for service level management include relationship management, business
liaison, business analysis, and commercial/supplier management. The practice requires pragmatic focus
on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as
percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service.
Q31
Which guiding principle considers which parts of an existing process should be kept by identifying how
they contribute to value creation?

A. Keep it simple and practical

B. Think and work holistically
C. Collaborate and promote visibility
D. Progress iteratively with feedback

Answer: A.

Explanation
One important step of the "Keep it simple and practical" guiding principle is judging what to keep.
When analyzing a practice, process, service, metric, or other improvement target, always ask whether it
contributes to value creation. When designing or improving service management, it is better to start with
an uncomplicated approach and then carefully add controls, activities, or metrics when it is seen that they
are truly needed.
Critical to keeping service management simple and practical is understanding exactly how something
contributes to value creation. For example, a step in a process may be perceived by the operational staff
involved as a waste of time. However, from a corporate perspective, the same step may be important for
regulatory compliance and therefore valuable in an indirect, but nevertheless important, way. It is
necessary to establish and communicate a holistic view of the organization's work so that individual
teams or groups can think holistically about how their work is being influenced by, and in turn influences,
others.
Q32
Which statement about problems is CORRECT?

A. Problems must be resolved quickly in order to restore normal business activity.

B. Problem prioritization involves risk assessment
C. Problems are not related to incidents.
D. Problem analysis should focus on one of the four dimensions to achieve a fast diagnosis.

Answer: B.

Explanation
Problems are prioritized for analysis based on the risk that they pose, and are managed as risks based on
their potential impact and probability. It is not essential to analyze every problem; it is more valuable to
make significant progress on the highest-priority problems than to investigate every minor problem that
the organization is aware of.
Q33
Which dimension of service management considers the workflows and controls needed to deliver
services?

A. Information and technology

B. Value streams and processes
C. Organization and people
D. Partners and suppliers

Answer: B.

Explanation
The fourth dimension of service management is value streams and processes. Like the other dimensions,
this dimension is applicable to both the SVS in general, and to specific products and services. In both
contexts it defines the activities, workflows, controls, and procedures needed to achieve agreed
objectives.
Q34
What can be described as an operating model for the creating and management of products and
services?
A. Practices
B. Governance
C. Guiding principles
D. Service value chain

Answer: D.

Explanation
The central element of the SVS is the service value chain, an operating model which outlines the key
activities required to respond to demand and facilitate value realization through the creation and
management of products and services.
Q35
What is a configuration item?

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service
B. A problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved
C. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
D. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition, configuration items are any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT
service.
Q36
Which skill is required by the `service level management' practice?

A. Problem management
B. Supplier management
C. Event monitoring
D. Technical expertise

Answer: B.

Explanation
The skills and competencies for service level management include relationship management, business
liaison, business analysis, and commercial/supplier management. The practice requires pragmatic focus
on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as
percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service.
Q37
How should an organization prioritize incidents?

A. Use an agreed classification which is based on the business impact of the incident
B. Create an order of incidents based on the dates and times when they were logged.
C. Ask the user for their preferred resolution timeframe.
D. Assess the availability of the appropriate support team.

Answer: A

Explanation
Incident management can have an enormous impact on customer and user satisfaction, and on how
customers and users perceive the service provider. Every incident should be logged and managed to
ensure that it is resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user. Target resolution
times are agreed, documented, and communicated to ensure that expectations are realistic. Incidents are
prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are
resolved first.
Q38
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. When an organization has decided to improve a
service, it should start by considering ___________.

A. revised processes
B. existing information
C. additional measurements
D. new methods

Answer: B.

Explanation
In the process of eliminating old, unsuccessful methods or services and creating something better, there
can be great temptation to remove what has been done in the past and build something completely new.
This is rarely necessary, or a wise decision. This approach can be extremely wasteful, not only in terms of
time, but also in terms of the loss of existing services, processes, people, and tools that could have
significant value in the improvement effort. Do not start over without first considering what is already
available to be leveraged.
Q39
Which guiding principle says that services and processes should NOT provide a solution for every
exception?

A. Think and work holistically

B. Optimize and automate
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

Answer: C.

Explanation
Always use the minimum number of steps to accomplish an objective. Outcome-based thinking should be
used to produce practical solutions that deliver valuable outcomes. If a process, service, action, or metric
fails to provide value or produce a useful outcome, then eliminate it. Although this principle may seem
obvious, it is frequently ignored, resulting in overly complex methods of work that rarely maximize
outcomes or minimize cost.

Trying to provide a solution for every exception will often lead to over- complication. When creating a
process or a service, designers need to think about exceptions, but they cannot cover them all. Instead,
rules should be designed that can be used to handle exceptions generally. This is the key message of
"Keep it simple and practical" practice.
Q40
Which practice has a purpose that includes the handling of pre-defined, user-initiated demands for
service?

A. Deployment management
B. Service request management
C. Service configuration management
D. Change enablement

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by
handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.
Q41
Which guiding principle considers how the steps of a process can be performed as efficiently as possible?

A. Optimize and automate

B. Start where you are
C. Focus on value
D. Think and work holistically

Answer: A.

Explanation
Organizations must maximize the value of the work carried out by their human and technical resources.
The four dimensions model provides a holistic view of the various constraints, resource types, and other
areas that should be considered when designing, managing, or operating an organization. Technology
can help organizations to scale up and take on frequent and repetitive tasks, allowing human resources to
be used for more complex decision-making. However, technology should not always be relied upon
without the capability of human intervention, as automation for automation's sake can increase costs and
reduce organizational robustness and resilience.

Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as it needs to be. Before an activity can
be effectively automated, it should be optimized to whatever degree is possible and reasonable. It is
essential that limits are set on the optimization of services and practices, as they exist within a set of
constraints which may include financial limitations, compliance requirements, time constraints, and
resource availability.
Q42
What is the definition of a problem?

A. An incident for which a full resolution is not yet available

B. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service
C. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (Cl)
D. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition, a problem is a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.
Q43
Which statement about the `continual improvement model' is CORRECT?

A. The model is applicable to only certain parts of the service value system
B. Organizations should work through the steps of the model in the sequence in which they are presented
C. Organizations should use an additional model or method to link improvements to customer value
D. The flow of the model helps organizations to link improvements to its goals

Answer: D

Explanation
The ITIL continual improvement model can be used as a high-level guide to support improvement
initiatives. Use of the model increases the likelihood that ITSM initiatives will be successful, puts a strong
focus on customer value, and ensures that improvement efforts can be linked back to the organization's
vision. The model supports an iterative approach to improvement, dividing work into manageable pieces
with separate goals that can be achieved incrementally.
It is important to remember that the scope and details of each step of the model will vary significantly
based on the subject and the type of improvement. It should be recognized that this model can serve as a
workflow, but it can also be used simply as a high-level reminder of a sound thought process to ensure
improvements are properly managed. The flow seeks to ensure that improvements are linked to the
organization's goals and are properly prioritized, and that improvement actions produce sustainable
results.
Q44
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

A. They allow service consumers to achieve a desired result

B. They co-create value for service providers by reducing costs and risks.
C. They are deliverables provided to service consumers.
D. They provide products to service providers based on outputs.

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition, outcome is a result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs. In other words,
outcomes allow service consumers to achieve a desired result.
Q45
What is the MOST important reason for prioritizing incidents?

A. To ensure that user expectations are realistic

B. To provide links to related changes and known errors
C. To ensure that incidents with highest impact are resolved first
D. To help information-sharing are learning

Answer: C.

Explanation
Incident management can have an enormous impact on customer and user satisfaction, and on how
customers and users perceive the service provider. Every incident should be logged and managed to
ensure that it is resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user. Target resolution
times are agreed, documented, and communicated to ensure that expectations are realistic. Incidents are
prioritized based on an agreed classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are
resolved first.
5.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 2

Multiple Choice
Instructions
8. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
9. There is only one correct answer per question
10. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
11. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
12. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
13. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the
exam paper is allowed
Q46
Custodian of technical knowledge and expertise relating to managing the IT infra is the role of:

A. IT Security Management.
B. Service Desk.
C. Technical Management.
D. Operations Management.

Answer: C.

Explanations:
They are responsible for everything related to technical knowledge.
Q47
Application Management is responsible for the applications which are:
A. Built in-house.
B. Bought Outside.
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Answer: C.

Explanations:
Application management is responsible for all the applications used by the organization.
Q48
Operations Control activities do not include:

A. Console Management.
B. Job Scheduling.
C. Backup and Restore.
D. Physical IT Environment.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
Facilities Management is responsible for the Physical IT Environment.
Q49
All the improvement initiatives are recorded in:

A. CSI Register.
B. SKMS.
C. CMS.
D. All of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
All the improvement initiatives are stored in CSI for tracking and future reference.
Q50
CSF and Kpi are the metrics for:

A. Process.
B. Technology.
C. Service.
D. All of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
A process is measured by CSF and KPI.
Q51
What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve,
without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks?

A. An IT asset
B. Service management
C. A service
D. Continual improvement

Answer: C.
Explanation
By definition, service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers
want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.
Q52
What are the MOST important skills required by service desk staff?

A. Problem resolution skills

B. Technical skills
C. Incident analysis skills
D. Supplier management skills

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service desk staff require training and competency across a number of broad technical and business
areas. In particular, they need to demonstrate excellent customer service skills such as empathy, incident
analysis and prioritization, effective communication, and emotional intelligence.
Q53
Which guiding principle recommends standardizing and streamlining manual tasks?

A. Collaborate and promote visibility

B. Optimize and automate
C. Think and work holistically
D. Focus on value

Answer: B.

Explanation
When applying 'optimize and automate', one recommendation is to simplify and/or optimize before
automating. Attempting to automate something that is complex or sub-optimal is unlikely to achieve the
desired outcome. Take time to map out the standard and repeating processes as far as possible, and
streamline where you can (optimize). From there you can start to automate.

Question 9.
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The management of information security incidents
usually requires ________.
A. Specialist teams
B. A separate process
C. Immediate escalation
D. Third party support

Answer: B

Explanation
Organizations should design their incident management practice to provide appropriate management and
resource allocation to different types of incident. Incidents with a low impact must be managed efficiently
to ensure that they do not consume too many resources. Incidents with a larger impact may require more
resources and more complex management. There are usually separate processes for managing major
incidents, and for managing information security incidents.
Q54
What are the ITIL guiding principles used for?

A. To ensure that an organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations

B. To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a valuable service
C. To direct and control an organization
D. To help an organization make good decisions

Answer: D.

Explanation
The guiding principles embody the core messages of ITIL and of service management in general,
supporting successful actions and good decisions of all types and at all levels. They can be used to guide
organizations in their work as they adopt a service management approach and adapt ITIL guidance to
their own specific needs and circumstances.
Q55
Which is a key requirement for a successful service level agreement?

A. It should relate to simple operational metrics

B. It should be written in legal language
C. It should be simply wittan arid easy to understand
D. It should be based on the service provider's view of the service

Answer: C

Explanation
Some of the key requirements for successful SLAs include:
-- They must be related to a defined `service' in the service catalog; otherwise they are simply individual
metrics without a purpose, that do not provide adequate visibility or reflect the service perspective. -- They
should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with
balanced bundles of metrics, such as customer satisfaction and key business outcomes. -- They should
reflect an `agreement', i.e. engagement and discussion between the service provider and the service
consumer. It is important to involve all stakeholders, including partners, sponsors, users, and customers.
-- They must be simply written and easy to understand and use for all parties.
Q56
When should the effectiveness of a problem workaround be assessed?

A. Whenever the problem is resolved

B. Whenever the problem is prioritized
C. Whenever the workaround is used
D. Whenever the workaround becomes a known error

Answer: C.

Explanation
The effectiveness of workarounds should be evaluated each time a workaround is used, as the
workaround may be improved based on the assessment.
Q57
Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

A. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation

B. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly
C. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly
D. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests

Answer: C

Explanation
Emergency changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve
an incident or implement a security patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change
schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly. As far as possible, emergency changes should be subject to the same testing,
assessment, and authorization as normal changes, but it may be acceptable to defer some
documentation until after the change has been implemented, and sometimes it will be necessary to
implement the change with less testing due to time constraints. There may also be a separate change
authority for emergency changes, typically including a small number of senior managers who understand
the business risks involved.
Q58
Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and
incidents?

A. Relationship management
B. Problem management
C. Service desk
D. Supplier management

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have them
acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned.
Q59
Which practice updates information relating to symptoms and business impact?

A. Service level management

B. Change control
C. Service request management
D. Incident management

Answer: D.

Explanation
It is important that people working on an incident provide good-quality updates in a timely fashion. These
updates should include information about symptoms, business impact, CIs affected, actions completed,
and actions planned. Each of these should have a timestamp and information about the people involved,
so that the people involved or interested can be kept informed. There may also be a need for good
collaboration tools so that people working on an incident can collaborate effectively.

Question 16
How does a service consumer contribute to the reduction of risk? A. By managing server hardware
B. By paying for the service
C. By communicating constraints
D. By managing staff availability

Answer: C.

Explanation
It is the duty of the provider to manage the detailed level of risk on behalf of the consumer. This should be
handled based on a balance of what matters most to the consumer and to the provider. The consumer
contributes to the reduction of risk through:
-- actively participating in the definition of the requirements of the service and the clarification of its
required outcomes -- clearly communicating the critical success factors (CSFs) and constraints that apply
to the service
-- ensuring the provider has access to the necessary resources of the consumer throughout the service
relationship.
Q60
Which ITIL practice has a purpose that includes reducing the likelihood of incidents?
A. Change control
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Continual improvement

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition: The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of
incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known
errors.
Q61
Which is NOT a component of the service value system?

A. The guiding principle

B. Practices
C. The four dimensions of service management
D. Governance

Answer: C.

Explanation
The ITIL Service Value System includes the following components:
-- Guiding principles Recommendations that can guide an organization in all circumstances, regardless of
changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure.
-- Governance The means by which an organization is directed and controlled. Service value chain A set
of interconnected activities that an organization performs to deliver a valuable product or service to its
consumers and to facilitate value realization. -- Practices Sets of organizational resources designed for
performing work or accomplishing an objective.
-- Continual improvement A recurring organizational activity performed at all levels to ensure that an
organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations. ITIL 4 supports continual
improvement with the ITIL continual improvement model.
So the four dimensions of service management is not a component of the service value system.
Q62
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving
services?

A. Keep it simple and practical

B. Start where you are
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Focus on value

Answer: B.

Explanation
In the process of eliminating old, unsuccessful methods or services and creating something better, there
can be great temptation to remove what has been done in the past and build something completely new.
This is rarely necessary, or a wise decision. This approach can be extremely wasteful, not only in terms of
time, but also in terms of the loss of existing services, processes, people, and tools that could have
significant value in the improvement effort. Do not start over without first considering what is already
available to be leveraged.
"Start where you are" recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services.
Q63
Which statement about service desks is CORRECT?

A. The service desk should rely on self-service portals instead of escalation to support teams
B. The service desk should escalate all technical issues to support and development teams
C. The service desk should remain isolated from technical support teams
D. The service desk should work in close collaboration with support and development teams

Answer: D.

Explanation
No matter how efficient the service desk and its people are, there will always be issues that need
escalation and underpinning support from other teams. Support and development teams need to work in
close collaboration with the service desk to present and deliver a `joined up' approach to users and
customers.
Q64
Which describes a set of defined steps for implementing improvements?

A. The `continual improvement model'

B. The `continual improvement register'
C. The `engage' value chain activity
D. The `improve' value chain activity

Answer: A.

Explanation
ITIL continual improvement model provides organizations with a structured approach to implementing
improvements. The ITIL continual improvement model can be used as a high-level guide to support
improvement initiatives. Use of the model increases the likelihood that ITSM initiatives will be successful,
puts a strong focus on customer value, and ensures that improvement efforts can be linked back to the
organization's vision. The model supports an iterative approach to improvement, dividing work into
manageable pieces with separate goals that can be achieved incrementally. Defined steps with in
continual improvement model are as follows:
Q65
When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?

A. When an emergency change is requested

B. At least once a year
C. Each time the standard change is implemented
D. When the procedure for the standard change is created
Answer: D.

Explanation
Standard changes are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented,
and can be implemented without needing additional authorization. They are often initiated as service
requests, but may also be operational changes. When the procedure for a standard change is created or
modified, there should be a full risk assessment and authorization as for any other change. This risk
assessment does not need to be repeated each time the standard change is implemented; it only needs
to be done if there is a modification to the way it is carried out.
Q66
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the supplier management practice is
to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their ________ are managed appropriately to support the
seamless provision of quality products and services.

A. users
B. performances
C. value
D. costs

Answer: B

Explanation
By definition: The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization's
suppliers and their performances are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality
products and services. This includes creating closer, more collaborative relationships with key suppliers to
uncover and realize new value and reduce the risk of failure.
Q67
What are 'engage', 'plan' and 'improve' examples of?

A. Service level management

B. Change control
C. Service value chain inputs
D. Service value chain activities

Answer: D.

Explanation
ITIL service value chain includes six value chain activities which lead to the creation of products and
services and, in turn, value. The activities are Plan, Improve, Engage, Design and Transition,
Obtain/Build, Deliver and Support.
Q68
What helps diagnose and resolve a simple incident?

A. Rapid escalation
B. The use of scripts
C. Formation of a temporary team
D. Problem prioritization

Answer: B.

Explanation
There should be a formal process for logging and managing incidents. This process does not usually
include detailed procedures for how to diagnose, investigate, and resolve incidents, but can provide
techniques for making investigation and diagnosis more efficient. There may be scripts for collecting
information from users during initial contact, and this may lead directly to diagnosis and resolution of
simple incidents. Investigation of more complicated incidents often requires knowledge and expertise,
rather than procedural steps.
Q69
Which is part of service provision?

A. The management of resources needed to consume the service

B. The grouping of one or more services based on one or more products
C. The joint activities performed to ensure continual value co-creation
D. The management of resources configured to deliver the service

Answer: D.

Explanation
Service provision is the activities performed by an organization to provide services. It includes
management of the provider's resources, configured to deliver the service; ensuring access to these
resources for users; fulfillment of the agreed service actions; service level management; and continual
improvement. It may also include the supply of goods.
Q70
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

A. Outcomes are how the service performs

B. An outcome is a tangible or intangible activity
C. An outcome can be enabled by more than one output
D. An output can be enabled by one or more outcomes

Answer: C.

Explanation
Acting as a service provider, an organization produces outputs that help its consumers to achieve certain
outcomes. While Output is a tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity, Outcome is a result for a
stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs.
Q71
Which is included in the purpose of the 'design and transition' value chain activity?

A. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships

B. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs
C. Ensuring that service components are available when needed
D. Supporting services according to specifications

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the design and transition value chain activity is to ensure that products and services
continually meet stakeholder expectations for quality, costs, and time to market.
Q72
When should a change request be submitted to resolve a problem?

A. As soon as a workaround for the problem has been identified

B. As soon as the analysis of cost risks and benefits justifies the change
C. As soon as a solution for the problem has been identified
D. As soon as the analysis of the frequency and impact of incidents justifies the change

Answer: B.

Explanation
Error control activities manage known errors, which are problems where initial analysis has been
completed; it usually means that faulty components have been identified. Error control also includes
identification of potential permanent solutions which may result in a change request for implementation of
a solution, but only if this can be justified in terms of cost, risks, and benefits.
Q73
What is a warranty?

A. The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something

B. Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements
C. The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource
D. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need

Answer: B.

Explanation
Warranty is the assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements. Warranty can be
summarized as `how the service performs' and can be used to determine whether a service is `fit for use'.
Warranty often relates to service levels aligned with the needs of service consumers. This may be based
on a formal agreement, or it may be a marketing message or brand image. Warranty typically addresses
such areas as the availability of the service, its capacity, levels of security, and continuity. A service may
be said to provide acceptable assurance, or `warranty', if all defined and agreed conditions are met.
Q74
Which dimension considers how knowledge assets should be protected?

A. Value streams and processes

B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Organizations and people

Answer: B.

Explanation
In relation to the information component of "Information and Technology" dimension, organizations should
consider the following questions:
- What information is managed by the services?
- What supporting information and knowledge are needed to deliver and manage the services?
- How will the information and knowledge assets be protected, managed, archived, and disposed of?
Q75
What is the purpose of the 'deployment management' practice?

A. To move new or changed components to live environments

B. To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance
C. To set clear business-based targets for service performance
D. To make new or changed services available for use

Answer: A.

Explanation
The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software,
documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in
deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.
Q76
Which guiding principle recommends eliminating activities that do not contribute to the creation of value?

A. Keep it simple and practical

B. Start where you are
C. Collaborate and promote visibility
D. Optimize and automate

Answer: A.

Explanation
When applying the "Keep it simple and practical" principle, one should consider following advice:
- Ensure every activity should contribute to the creation of value.
- Do fewer things, but do them better. Minimizing activities to include only those with value for one or more
stakeholders will allow more focus on the quality of those actions.
- Respect the time of the people involved. A process that is too complicated and bureaucratic is a poor
use of the time of the people involved.
- Easier to understand, more likely to adopt. To embed a practice, make sure it is easy to follow.
With this, "Keep it simple and practical" is the best answer.
Q77
Which service level metrics are BEST for measuring user experience?
A. Operational metrics
B. Single system-based metrics
C. Metrics linked to defined outcomes
D. Metrics for the percentage of uptime of a service

Answer: C

Explanation
Service level agreements (SLAs) have long been used as a tool to measure the performance of services
from the customer's point of view, and it is important that they are agreed in the wider business context.
Using SLAs may present many challenges; often they do not fully reflect the wider service performance
and the user experience. Some of the key requirements for successful SLAs include:
-- They must be related to a defined `service' in the service catalog; otherwise they are simply individual
metrics without a purpose, that do not provide adequate visibility or reflect the service perspective. -- They
should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with
balanced bundles of metrics, such as customer satisfaction and key business outcomes. -- They should
reflect an `agreement', i.e. engagement and discussion between the service provider and the service
consumer. It is important to involve all stakeholders, including partners, sponsors, users, and customers.
-- They must be simply written and easy to understand and use for all parties.
Q78
What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents?

A. Change
B. Known error
C. Problem
D. Event

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition:
- Problem is a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents.
- Known error is a problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved.
- Event is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other
configuration item (CI).
- Change is the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on
services.
Q79
Which is a service request?

A. Requesting investigation of a degraded service

B. Requesting an enhancement to an application
C. Requesting information about how to create a document
D. Requesting a workaround for an issue

Answer: C.

Explanation
Each service request may include one or more of the following:
-- A request for a service delivery action (for example, providing a report or replacing a toner cartridge)
-- A request for information (for example, how to create a document or what the hours of the office are)
-- A request for provision of a resource or service (for example, providing a phone or laptop to a user, or
providing a virtual server for a development team)
-- A request for access to a resource or service (for example, providing access to a file or folder)
feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments to
a support team).
Q80
Which practice has a purpose to support the quality of the service by handling all agreed user initiated
service requests?

A. IT asset management
B. Change control
C. Service request management
D. Service desk

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by
handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.
Q81
What is a recommendation of the 'focus on value' guiding principle?

A. Make focus on value a responsibility of the management

B. Focus on the value of new and significant projects first
C. Focus on value at every step of the improvement
D. Focus on value for the service provider first

Answer: C.

Explanation
When applying the 'focus on value' principle, one recommendation is to include focus on value in every
step of any improvement initiative. Everybody involved in an improvement initiative needs to understand
what outcomes the initiative is trying to facilitate, how its value will be measured, and how they should be
contributing to the co-creation of that value.
Q82
When planning 'continual improvement', which approach for assessing the current state of a service is
CORRECT?

A. An organization should always develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet
their needs
B. An organization should always use a strength, weakness, opportunity and threat (SWOT) analysis
C. An organization should always use an approach that combines Lean, Agile and DevOps methodologies
D. An organization should always use a single technique to ensure metrics are consistent

Answer: A.

Explanation
When assessing the current state, there are many techniques that can be employed, such as a strength,
weakness, opportunity, and threat (SWOT) analysis, a balanced scorecard review, internal and external
assessments and audits, or perhaps even a combination of several techniques. Organizations should
develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet their needs.
Q83
Which is the CORRECT approach for managing a large improvement initiative as smaller iterations?

A. Each iteration should be continually reevaluated based on feedback

B. Feedback should be reduced for large improvements as it is unlikely that circumstances will change
C. Feedback should only be taken into account when one iteration fails to meet its objective
D. Each iteration should be designed before starting the initiative and implemented without feedback

Answer: A.
Explanation
A major improvement initiative or programme may be organized into several significant improvement
initiatives, and each of these may, in turn, comprise smaller improvement efforts. The overall initiative or
programme, as well as its component iterations, must be continually re-evaluated and potentially revised
to reflect any changes in circumstances and ensure that the focus on value has not been lost. This re-
evaluation should make use of a wide range of feedback channels and methods to ensure that the status
of the initiative and its progress are properly understood.
Q84
Which statement about the steps to fulfill a service request is CORRECT?

A. They should include incident handling

B. They should be brief and simple
C. They should be complex and detailed
D. They should be well-known and proven

Answer: D.

Explanation
Some service requests have very simple workflows, such as a request for information. Others, such as
the setup of a new employee, may be quite complex and require contributions from many teams and
systems for fulfillment. Regardless of the complexity, the steps to fulfill the request should be well-known
and proven. This allows the service provider to agree times for fulfillment and to provide clear
communication of the status of the request to users.
Q85
Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?

A. Service configuration management

B. Service level management
C. Problem management
D. Change control

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the change control practice is to maximize the number of successful service and product
changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and
managing the change schedule.
Q86
Which two statements about an organization's culture are CORRECT?
1. It is created from shared values based on how it carries out its work
2. It is determined by the type of technology used to support services
3. It should be based on the culture of prospective suppliers
4. It should be based on the objectives of the organization

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

Answer: D.

Explanation
The effectiveness of an organization cannot be assured by a formally established structure or system of
authority alone. The organization also needs a culture that supports its objectives, and the right level of
capacity and competency among its workforce. It is vital that the leaders of the organization champion
and advocate values which motivate people to work in desirable ways. Ultimately, however, it is the way in
which an organization carries out its work that creates shared values and attitudes, which over time are
considered the organization's culture.
Q87
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A change is defined as the addition, modification, or
removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on ______________.

A. assets
B. values
C. services
D. elements

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition, change is the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or
indirect effect on services.
Q88
Which statement about a "continual improvement register" is CORRECT?

A. It should be managed at the senior level of the organization

B. There should only be one for the whole organization
C. It should be used to capture user demand
D. It should be re-prioritized as ideas are documented

Answer: D.

Explanation
To track and manage improvement ideas from identification through to final action, organizations use a
database or structured document called a continual improvement register (CIR). There can be more than
one CIR in an organization, as multiple CIRs can be maintained on individual, team, departmental,
business unit, and organizational levels. Some organizations maintain a single master CIR, but segment
how it is used and by whom at a more granular level. Improvement ideas can also initially be captured in
other places and through other practices, such as during project execution or software development
activities. In this case, it is important to document for attention the improvement ideas that come up as
part of ongoing continual improvement. As new ideas are documented, CIRs are used to constantly
reprioritize improvement opportunities. The use of CIRs provides additional value because they help to
make things visible. This is not limited to what is currently being done, but also to what is already
complete and what has been set aside for further consideration at a later date.
6.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 3

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
2. There is only one correct answer per question
3. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
4. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
5. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
6. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam
7. This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the exam paper is allowed
Q89
__________ is the type of the event where a manual or an automated interference is required.

A. Informational
B. Exceptional
C. Warning
D. Manual Events

Answer: C.

Explanations:
A Warning event may seek an automated or a manual response.
Q90
When might a Known Error be raised?

A. When an RCA has been identified

B. When the RCA is not identified but a workaround has been provided
C. When an Incident is resolved on the First Call
D. None of the above

Answer: B.

Explanations:
KE can be raised when a workaround is provided.
Q91
A Major Incident should have:

A. separate procedure.
B. shorter time scales.
C. high level of urgency.
D. All of the above

Answer: D.

Explanations:
All the options have a high impact on business.
Q92
Which of these people and processes can raise problems?

A. Incident Management
B. Suppliers and Developers
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. All of the above

Answer: D.

Explanations:
Any one of these factors can raise problems.
Q93
Service Desk which supports specific types of requests or incidents is called:

A. Local Service Desk.

B. Supporting Service Desk.
C. Specialized Service Desk.
D. Virtual Service Desk.

Answer: C.

Explanations:
The Specialized Service Desk is dedicated to its domain of expertise.
Q94
Which is the purpose of the 'engage' value chain activity?
A. Ensuring that the organization's vision is understood
B. Meeting expectations for quality, costs and time-to-market
C. Ensuring the continual improvement of services
D. Providing transparency and good relationships

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the engage value chain activity is to provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs,
transparency, and continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders.
Q95
How should the workflow for a new service request be designed?

A. Avoid workflows for simple service requests

B. Leverage existing workflows whenever possible
C. Use a single workflow for all types of service request
D. Use different workflows for each type of service request

Answer: B.

Explanation
When new service requests need to be added to the service catalog, existing workflow models should be
leveraged whenever possible.
Q96
Which dimension includes a workflow management system?

A. Information and technology

B. Organizations and people
C. Value streams and processes
D. Partners and suppliers

Answer: A

Explanation
The second dimension of service management is information and technology. As with the other three
dimensions, information and technology applies both to service management and to the services being
managed. The technologies that support service management include, but are not limited to, workflow
management systems, knowledge bases, inventory systems, communication systems, and analytical
tools. Service management increasingly benefits from developments in technology. Artificial intelligence,
machine learning, and other cognitive computing solutions are used at all levels, from strategic planning
and portfolio optimization to system monitoring and user support. The use of mobile platforms, cloud
solutions, remote collaboration tools, automated testing, and deployment solutions has become common
practice among service providers.
Q97
Which competencies are required by the 'service level management' practice?

A. Problem investigation and resolution

B. Business analysis and commercial management
C. Incident analysis and prioritization
D. Balanced scorecard reviews and maturity assessment

Answer: B.

Explanation
The skills and competencies for service level management include relationship management, business
liaison, business analysis, and commercial/supplier management. The practice requires pragmatic focus
on the whole service and not simply its constituent parts; for example, simple individual metrics (such as
percentage system availability) should not be taken to represent the whole service.
Q98
Which dimension includes activities and workflows?

A. Value streams and processes

B. Organizations and people
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Information and technology

Answer: A.

Explanation
The fourth dimension of service management is value streams and processes. Like the other dimensions,
this dimension is applicable to both the SVS in general, and to specific products and services. In both
contexts it defines the activities, workflows, controls, and procedures needed to achieve agreed
objectives.
Q99
What defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service
consumption?

A. An IT asset
B. A configuration item (CI)
C. A customer
D. A user

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition, a customer is a person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility
for the outcomes of service consumption.
Q100
A major incident has been closed, but there is a risk that it might happen again. How should this be
logged and managed?

A. As a problem
B. As a change request
C. As a service request
D. As an event

Answer: A.

Explanation
Problem identification activities identify and log problems. These include:
-- performing trend analysis of incident records -- detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users,
service desk, and technical support staff
-- during major incident management, identifying a risk that an incident could recur
-- analyzing information received from suppliers and partners -- analyzing information received from
internal software developers, test teams, and project teams.
So the answer for this question is "A Problem"
Q101
Which skill is an essential part of the 'service level management' practice?

A. Diagnosis
B. Technical knowledge
C. Listening
D. Problem analysis

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service level management requires focus and effort to engage and listen to the requirements, issues,
concerns, and daily needs of customers:
-- Engagement is needed to understand and confirm the actual ongoing needs and requirements of
customers, not simply what is interpreted by the service provider or has been agreed several years
before. -- Listening is important as a relationship-building and trust-building activity, to show customers
that they are valued and understood. This helps to move the provider away from always being in `solution
mode' and to build new, more constructive partnerships.
Q102
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the service configuration management
practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the
[_____] that support them, is available when and where it is needed.

A. Cls
B. assets
C. customers
D. suppliers

Answer: A.

Explanation
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable
information about the configuration of services, and the CIs that support them, is available when and
where it is needed. This includes information on how CIs are configured and the relationships between
them.
Q103
What is defined as any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service?

A. An incident
B. An IT asset
C. A service request
D. A configuration item (CI)

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition, configuration items are any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT
service. Service configuration management collects and manages information about a wide variety of CIs,
typically including hardware, software, networks, buildings, people, suppliers, and documentation.
Services are also treated as CIs, and configuration management helps the organization to understand
how the many CIs that contribute to each service work together.
Q104
Which practice requires that staff demonstrate excellent customer service skills, such as empathy and
emotional intelligence?

A. Problem management
B. Supplier management
C. Release management
D. Service desk

Answer: D
Explanation
Service desk staff require training and competency across a number of broad technical and business
areas. In particular, they need to demonstrate excellent customer service skills such as empathy, incident
analysis and prioritization, effective communication, and emotional intelligence. The key skill is to be able
to fully understand and diagnose a specific incident in terms of business priority, and to take appropriate
action to get this resolved, using available skills, knowledge, people, and processes.
Q105
Which practice has a purpose that includes aligning the organization's practices and services with
changing business needs?

A. Relationship management
B. Continual improvement
C. Service configuration management
D. Service level management

Answer: B.

Explanation
Continual improvement practice is the practice of aligning an organization's practices and services with
changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of all elements involved in
the effective management of products and services.
Q106
In which two situations should the ITIL guiding principles be considered?
1. In every initiative
2. In relationships with all stakeholders
3. Only in specific initiatives where the principle is relevant
4. Only in specific stakeholder relationships where the principle is relevant

A. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 3

Answer: C.

Explanation
A guiding principle is a recommendation that guides an organization in all circumstances, regardless of
changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure. A guiding principle is universal
and enduring. The guiding principles are applicable to practically any initiative and to all relationships with
stakeholder groups.
Q107
Which practice has a purpose that includes observing a service to report selected changes of state
identified as events?

A. Information security management

B. Change control
C. Monitoring and event management
D. Incident management

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the monitoring and event management practice is to systematically observe services and
service components, and record and report selected changes of state identified as events. This practice
identifies and prioritizes infrastructure, services, business processes, and information security events, and
establishes the appropriate response to those events, including responding to conditions that could lead
to potential faults or incidents.
Q108
What is an IT asset?

A. The removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services
B. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
C. A request from a user mat initiates a service action
D. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver a service

Answer: B.

Explanation
By definition, an IT asset is any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT
product or service.
Q109
Which activity is part of the 'continual improvement' practice?

A. Delivering tactical and operational engagement with customers

B. Providing a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests
C. Identifying and logging opportunities
D. Populating and maintaining the asset register

Answer: C.

Explanation
Key activities that are part of continual improvement practices include:
-- encouraging continual improvement across the organization -- securing time and budget for continual
improvement -- identifying and logging improvement opportunities -- assessing and prioritizing
improvement opportunities -- making business cases for improvement action -- planning and
implementing improvements -- measuring and evaluating improvement results -- coordinating
improvement activities across the organization.
Q110
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?

A. Outcomes help service consumers achieve outputs

B. Service providers help service consumers achieve outcomes
C. Helping service consumers achieve outcomes reduces service provider costs
D. Outcomes are one or more services that fulfill the needs of a service consumer

Answer: B.

Explanation
Achieving desired outcomes requires resources (and therefore costs) and is often associated with risks.
Service providers help their consumers to achieve outcomes, and in doing so, take on some of the
associated risks and costs. On the other hand, service relationships can introduce new risks and costs,
and in some cases, can negatively affect some of the intended outcomes, while supporting others.
Q111
Which statement about costs is CORRECT?

A. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service utility

B. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service warranty
C. Costs removed from the consumer are part of the value proposition
D. Costs removed from the consumer are part of service consumption

Answer: C.
Explanation
From the service consumer's perspective, there are two types of cost involved in service relationships:
-- costs removed from the consumer by the service (a part of the value proposition). This may include
costs of staff, technology, and other resources, which the consumer does not need to provide -- costs
imposed on the consumer by the service (the costs of service consumption). The total cost of consuming
a service includes the price charged by the service provider (if applicable), plus other costs such as staff
training, costs of network utilization, procurement, etc. Some consumers describe this as what they have
to `invest' to consume the service.
Q112
What should be done to determine the appropriate metrics for measuring a new service?

A. Asking customers to provide numerical targets that meet their needs

B. Using operational data to provide detailed service reports
C. Asking customers open questions to establish their requirements
D. Measuring the performance over the first six months, and basing a solution on the results

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service level management involves collating and analyzing information from a number of sources,
including:
Customer engagement - This involves initial listening, discovery, and information capture on which to
base metrics, measurement, and ongoing progress discussions. Consider asking customers some simple
open questions such as:
-- What does your work involve?
-- How does technology help you?
-- What are your key business times, areas, people, and activities?
Q113
Which two statements about the 'service request management' practice are CORRECT?
1. Service requests are part of normal service delivery
2. Complaints can be handled as service requests
3. Service requests result from a failure in service
4. Normal changes should be handled as service requests

A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation
Fulfillment of service requests may include changes to services or their components; usually these are
standard changes. Service requests are a normal part of service delivery and are not a failure or
degradation of service, which are handled as incidents. Since service requests are pre- defined and pre-
agreed as a normal part of service delivery, they can usually be formalized, with a clear, standard
procedure for initiation, approval, fulfillment, and management.
Service request management can provide a channel for improvement initiatives, compliments, and
complaints from users. It also contributes to improvement by providing trend, quality, and feedback
information about fulfillment of requests.
Q114
How should automation be implemented?

A. By initially concentrating on the most complex tasks

B. By replacing the existing tools first
C. By replacing human intervention wherever possible
D. By optimizing as much as possible first

Answer: D.

Explanation
Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as it needs to be. Before an activity can
be effectively automated, it should be optimized to whatever degree is possible and reasonable. It is
essential that limits are set on the optimization of services and practices, as they exist within a set of
constraints which may include financial limitations, compliance requirements, time constraints, and
resource availability.
Q115
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The use of _________ should support, not replace
what is observed, when using the 'start where you are' guiding principle.

A. plans
B. tools
C. process
D. measurement

Answer: D.

Explanation
The use of measurement is important to this principle. It should, however, support but not replace what is
observed, as over-reliance on data analytics and reporting can unintentionally introduce biases and risks
in decision- making. Organizations should consider a variety of techniques to develop knowledge of the
environments in which they work. Although it is true that some things can only be understood through
measuring their effect (for example, natural phenomena such as the wind), direct observation should
always be the preferred option. Too often existing data is used with no consideration of direct personal
investigation.
Q116
What is typically needed to assign complex incidents to support groups?

A. The incident priority

B. A self-help tool
C. The incident category
D. A change schedule

Answer: C.

Explanation
More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for resolution. Typically, the routing is
based on the incident category, which should help to identify the correct team.
Q117
Which describes a standard change?

A. A change that must be implemented as soon as possible

B. A change that needs to be scheduled. assessed and authorized following a defined process
C. A high-risk change that needs very thorough assessment
D. A change that is typically implemented as a service request

Answer: D.

Explanation
Standard changes are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented,
and can be implemented without needing additional authorization. They are often initiated as service
requests, but may also be operational changes. When the procedure for a standard change is created or
modified, there should be a full risk assessment and authorization as for any other change. This risk
assessment does not need to be repeated each time the standard change is implemented; it only needs
to be done if there is a modification to the way it is carried out.
Q118
Which practice uses techniques such as SWOT analysis, balanced scorecard reviews, and maturity
assessments?

A. Continual improvement
B. Service request management
C. Problem management
D. Incident management

Answer: A.

Explanation
Within continual improvement, when assessing the current state, there are many techniques that can be
employed, such as a strength, weakness, opportunity, and threat (SWOT) analysis, a balanced scorecard
review, internal and external assessments and audits, or perhaps even a combination of several
techniques. Organizations should develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet
their needs.
Q119
What is the expected outcome from using a service value chain?

A. The application of practices

B. Value realization
C. Service value streams
D. Customer engagement

Answer: B.

Explanation
Service value chain is an operating model which outlines the key activities required to respond to demand
and facilitate value realization through the creation and management of products and services.
Q120
How does information about problems and known errors contribute to 'incident management'?

A. It enables quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents

B. It removes the need for collaboration during incident resolution
C. It removes the need for regular customer updates
D. It enables the reassessment of known errors

Answer: A.

Explanation
Information about incidents should be stored in incident records in a suitable tool. Ideally, this tool should
also provide links to related CIs, changes, problems, known errors, and other knowledge to enable quick
and efficient diagnosis and recovery.
Q121
What is the purpose of the 'relationship management' practice?
A. To set dear business-based targets for service performance
B. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders
C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs
D. To support the agreed quality of a service handling all agreed, user- initiated service requests

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the
organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. It includes the identification, analysis,
monitoring, and continual improvement of relationships with and between stakeholders.
Q122
Which guiding principle helps to ensure that better information is available for decision making?

A. Keep it simple and practical

B. Collaborate and promote visibility
C. Optimize and automate
D. Think and work holistically

Answer: B.

Explanation
Following is the key message of 'Collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle: When initiatives
involve the right people in the correct roles, efforts benefit from better buy-in, more relevance (because
better information is available for decision-making) and increased likelihood of long-term success.
Q123
What is the purpose of the 'information security management' practice?

A. To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets

B. To observe services and service components
C. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when
and where it is needed
D. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the
organization to conduct its business. This includes understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security
such as authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and nonrepudiation (ensuring that
someone can't deny that they took an action).
Q124
Which of these should be logged and managed as a problem?

A. Trend analysis shows a large number of similar incidents

B. A monitoring tool detects a change of state for a service
C. A user requests delivery of a laptop
D. Continual improvement' needs to prioritize an improvement opportunity

Answer: A.

Explanation
Problem identification activities identify and log problems. These include:
-- performing trend analysis of incident records -- detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users,
service desk, and technical support staff
-- during major incident management, identifying a risk that an incident could recur
-- analyzing information received from suppliers and partners -- analyzing information received from
internal software developers, test teams, and project teams.
Q125
Which stakeholders co-create value in a service relationship?

A. Provider and supplier

B. Investor and consumer
C. Investor and supplier
D. Consumer and provider

Answer: D.

Explanation
There was a time when organizations self-identifying as `service providers' saw their role as delivering
value to their customers in much the same way that a package is delivered to a building by a delivery
company. This view treated the relationship between the service provider and the service consumer as
mono-directional and distant. The provider delivers the service and the consumer receives value; the
consumer plays no role in the creation of value for themselves. This fails to take into consideration the
highly complex and interdependent service relationships that exist in reality. Increasingly, organizations
recognize that value is co-created through an active collaboration between providers and consumers, as
well as other organizations that are part of the relevant service relationships. Providers should no longer
attempt to work in isolation to define what will be of value to their customers and users, but actively seek
to establish mutually beneficial, interactive relationships with their consumers, empowering them to be
creative collaborators in the service value chain. Stakeholders across the service value chain contribute
to the definition of requirements, the design of service solutions and even to the service creation and/or
provisioning itself.
Q126
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by
facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific
____________ and risks.

A. information
B. warranty
C. utility
D. costs

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition, services is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers
want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.
Q127
What is described by the service value system?

A. How to apply the systems approach of the guiding principle think and work holistically
B. How all the components and activities of the organization work together as a system to enable value
creation
C. Services based on one or more products. designed to address needs of a target consumer group
D. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-
creation

Answer: B.

Explanation
The ITIL service value system describes how all the components and activities of the organization work
together as a system to enable value creation. Each organization's service value system has interfaces
with other organizations, forming an ecosystem that can in turn facilitate value for those organizations,
their customers, and other stakeholders.
Q128
Which guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps necessary to achieve an
objective?

A. Think and work holistically

B. Focus on value
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Keep it simple and practical

Answer: D.

Explanation
Key message of the 'Keep it simple and practical' principle is as follows:
Always use the minimum number of steps to accomplish an objective. Outcome-based thinking should be
used to produce practical solutions that deliver valuable outcomes. If a process, service, action, or metric
fails to provide value or produce a useful outcome, then eliminate it. Although this principle may seem
obvious, it is frequently ignored, resulting in overly complex methods of work that rarely maximize
outcomes or minimize cost.
Q129
Which practice owns and manages issues, queries and requests from users?

A. Service desk
B. Problem management
C. Incident management
D. Change control

Answer: A.

Explanation
Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have them
acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned. How this practice is managed and delivered may vary
from a physical team of people on shift work to a distributed mix of people connected virtually, or
automated technology and bots. The function and value remain the same, regardless of the model.
Q130
What are the three phases of 'problem management'?

A. Problem logging, problem classification, problem resolution

B. Problem identification, problem control, error control
C. Problem analysis, error identification, incident resolution
D. Incident management problem management, change enablement

Answer: B.

Explanation
Problem management involves three distinct phases:
-- Problem identification activities identify and log problems -- Problem control activities include problem
analysis, and documenting workarounds and known errors.
-- Error control activities manage known errors, which are problems where initial analysis has been
completed; it usually means that faulty components have been identified.
Q131
Which guiding principle recommends coordinating all dimensions of service management?

A. Keep it simple and practical

B. Think and work holistically
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Start where you are

Answer: B.

Explanation
Services are delivered to internal and external service consumers through the coordination and
integration of the four dimensions of service management. Taking a holistic approach to service
management includes establishing an understanding of how all the parts of an organization work together
in an integrated way. It requires end-to-end visibility of how demand is captured and translated into
outcomes. In a complex system, the alteration of one element can impact others and, where possible,
these impacts need to be identified, analyzed and planned for.
Q132
What should be used to set user expectations for request fulfillment times?

A. The time needed to realistically deliver the service

B. The time that the customer indicates for service delivery
C. The consumer demand for the service
D. The service levels of the supplier

Answer: A.

Explanation
To be handled successfully, service request management should follow these guidelines:
-- Service requests and their fulfillment should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree
possible. -- Policies should be established regarding what service requests will be fulfilled with limited or
even no additional approvals so that fulfillment can be streamlined.
-- The expectations of users regarding fulfillment times should be clearly set, based on what the
organization can realistically deliver.
Q133
Which describes normal changes?

A. Changes that are typically initiated as service requests

B. Changes that need to be scheduled and assessed following a process
C. Changes that must be implemented as soon as possible
D. Changes that are low-risk and pre-authorized

Answer: B.

Explanation
Normal changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized following a process.
Change models based on the type of change determine the roles for assessment and authorization.
Some normal changes are low risk, and the change authority for these is usually someone who can make
rapid decisions, often using automation to speed up the change. Other normal changes are very major
and the change authority could be as high as the management board (or equivalent). Initiation of a normal
change is triggered by the creation of a change request. This may be created manually, but organizations
that have an automated pipeline for continuous integration and continuous deployment often automate
most steps of the change control process.
7.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 4

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
2. There is only one correct answer per question
3. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
4. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
5. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
6. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam
7. This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the exam paper is allowed
Q134
Change Management scope does not include:

A. modifications of a CI.
B. deleting a CI.
C. changes in Service Catalog.
D. strategic change of an organization.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
Strategic change is not handled by Change Management.
Q135
_____ is used as a reference point for the future builds, releases and changes.

A. Baseline
B. Configuration Report
C. Configuration Management
D. All the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Baseline is the snapshot taken at the given time for future reference.
Q136
The storage place for all software CDs, codes, and licenses is called:

A. Configuration Management Database.

B. Service Asset Database.
C. Service Knowledge Management System.
D. Definitive Media Library.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
All S/W related items are stored in the Definitive Media Library.
Q137
Release Policy should contain:
A. a Unique Identification Number.
B. roles and responsibilities.
C. frequency of the releases.
D. All the above

Answer: D.

Explanations:
A release policy should contain all these requirements.
Q138
________ ensures the right information is delivered to the appropriate person at the right time.

A. Knowledge Management
B. Policy Document
C. Business relationship Management
D. None of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Knowledge management ensures that the right information is delivered to the right person at the right
time.
Q139
In which step of the 'continual improvement model' is an improvement plan implemented?

A. Take action
B. What is the vision?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?

Answer: A.

Explanation
In Step 5 - 'Take action' - the plan for the improvement is acted upon. This could involve a traditional
waterfall-style approach, but it could be more appropriate to follow an Agile approach by experimenting,
iterating, changing directions, or even going back to previous steps.
Q140
Which is the purpose of the 'service level management' practice?

A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders
B. To set clear business-based targets for service levels
C. To ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
D. To support the agreed quality of a service handling all agreed. user- initiated service requests

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service
levels, and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against
these targets.
Q141
Which gives a user access to a system?

A. Service requirement
B. Service consumption
C. Service agreement
D. Service provision

Answer: D.

Explanation
Service provision is activities performed by an organization to provide services. Service provision
includes:
-- management of the provider's resources, configured to deliver the service -- ensuring access to these
resources for users -- fulfillment of the agreed service actions -- service level management and continual
improvement.
Q142
Which statement about the use of measurement in the 'start where you are' guiding principle is
CORRECT?

A. It should always be used to support direct observation

B. The act of measuring always positively impacts results
C. It should always be used instead of direct observation
D. Measured data is always more accurate than direct observation

Answer: A.

Explanation
The use of measurement is important to this principle. It should, however, support but not replace what is
observed, as over-reliance on data analytics and reporting can unintentionally introduce biases and risks
in decision- making. Organizations should consider a variety of techniques to develop knowledge of the
environments in which they work. Although it is true that some things can only be understood through
measuring their effect (for example, natural phenomena such as the wind), direct observation should
always be the preferred option. Too often existing data is used with no consideration of direct personal
investigation.
Q143
What are guiding principles?

A. A set of interconnected activities that help an organization deliver a valuable service

B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers
C. A description of one or more services that help address the needs of a target consumer group
D. Recommendations that help an organization when adopting a service management approach

Answer: D.

Explanation
A guiding principle is a recommendation that guides an organization in all circumstances, regardless of
changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure. A guiding principle is universal
and enduring. The guiding principles defined here embody the core messages of ITIL and of service
management in general, supporting successful actions and good decisions of all types and at all levels.
They can be used to guide organizations in their work as they adopt a service management approach and
adapt ITIL guidance to their own specific needs and circumstances. The guiding principles encourage and
support organizations in continual improvement at all levels
Q144
Which is a key activity carried out in the 'did we get there?' step of the 'continual improvement' model?

A. Perform baseline assessments

B. Define measurable targets
C. Evaluate measurements and metrics
D. Execute improvement actions
Answer: C.

Explanation
This step involves checking the destination of the journey to be sure that the desired point has been
reached. For each iteration of the improvement initiative, both the progress (have the original objectives
been achieved?) and the value (are those objectives still relevant?) need to be checked and confirmed
(by evaluating measurements and metrics). If the desired result has not been achieved, additional actions
to complete the work are selected and undertaken, commonly resulting in a new iteration. If this step is , it
is hard to be sure whether the desired or promised outcomes were actually achieved, and any lessons
from this iteration, which would support a course correction if needed, will be lost.
Q145
Which is the purpose of the 'service desk' practice?

A. To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users
B. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible
C. To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests
D. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and
tactical levels

Answer: A.

Explanation
The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service
requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its
users.
Q146
What must always be done before an activity is automated?

A. Ensure that DevOps has been successfully implemented

B. Check that the activity has already been optimized
C. Check that suitable new technology has been purchased
D. Ensure the solution removes the need for human intervention

Answer: B.

Explanation
Optimization means to make something as effective and useful as it needs to be. Before an activity can
be effectively automated, it should be optimized to whatever degree is possible and reasonable. It is
essential that limits are set on the optimization of services and practices, as they exist within a set of
constraints which may include financial limitations, compliance requirements, time constraints, and
resource availability.
Q147
Which are elements of the service value system?

A. Governance, service value chain, practices

B. Outcomes, utility, warranty
C. Service provision, service consumption. service relationship management
D. Customer value, stakeholder value, organization

Answer: A.

Explanation
The ITIL SVS includes the following components:
-- Guiding principles: Recommendations that can guide an organization in all circumstances, regardless of
changes in its goals, strategies, type of work, or management structure.
-- Governance: The means by which an organization is directed and controlled.
-- Service value chain: A set of interconnected activities that an organization performs to deliver a
valuable product or service to its consumers and to facilitate value realization. -- Practices: Sets of
organizational resources designed for performing work or accomplishing an objective.
-- Continual improvement: A recurring organizational activity performed at all levels to ensure that an
organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations. ITIL 4 supports continual
improvement with the ITIL continual improvement model.
Q148
Which practice would help a user gain access to an application that they need to use?

A. Service request management

B. Service configuration management
C. Service level management
D. Change enablement

Answer: A.

Explanation
Each service request may include one or more of the following:
-- a request for a service delivery action (for example, providing a report or replacing a toner cartridge)
-- a request for information (for example, how to create a document or what the hours of the office are)
-- a request for provision of a resource or service (for example, providing a phone or laptop to a user, or
providing a virtual server for a development team)
-- a request for access to a resource or service (for example, providing access to a file or folder, granting
access to an application) -- feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new
interface or compliments to a support team).
Q149
Which statement about the 'change management' practice is CORRECT?

A. Normal changes are triggered by the creation of a change request which can be created manually or
automated
B. Standard changes are those that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a standard
process
C. Assessment and authorization of normal changes should be expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly
D. There should be a separate change authority for standard changes which includes senior managers
who understand the risks involved

Answer: A.

Explanation
Normal changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized following a process.
Change models based on the type of change determine the roles for assessment and authorization.
Some normal changes are low risk, and the change authority for these is usually someone who can make
rapid decisions, often using automation to speed up the change. Other normal changes are very major
and the change authority could be as high as the management board (or equivalent). Initiation of a normal
change is triggered by the creation of a change request. This may be created manually, but organizations
that have an automated pipeline for continuous integration and continuous deployment often automate
most steps of the change control process.
Q150
What is a change schedule used for?

A. To help manage normal changes

B. To help authorize standard changes
C. To help assign a change authority
D. To help plan emergency changes
Answer: A.

Explanation
Normal changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed, and authorized following a process.
Emergency changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve
an incident or implement a security patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change
schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly.
Q151
Why should some service requests be fulfilled with no additional approvals?

A. To set user expectations for fulfillment times

B. To ensure that information security requirements are met
C. To ensure that spending is properly accounted for
D. To streamline the fulfillment workflow

Answer: D.

Explanation
Some service requests require authorization according to financial, information security, or other policies,
while others may not need any. To be handled successfully, service request management should follow
these guidelines:
-- Service requests and their fulfillment should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree
possible. -- Policies should be established regarding what service requests will be fulfilled with limited or
even no additional approvals so that fulfillment can be streamlined.
-- The expectations of users regarding fulfillment times should be clearly set, based on what the
organization can realistically deliver.
Q152
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A user is ________ that uses services.

A. a team
B. an organization
C. a person
D. a supplier

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition: A user is a person who uses services.
Q153
What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?

A. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts

B. To support the `incident management practice and improvement planning
C. To manage standard changes
D. To manage emergency changes

Answer: A.

Explanation
The change schedule is used to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign
resources. It can also be used after changes have been deployed to provide information needed for
incident management, problem management, and improvement planning. Regardless of who the change
authority is, they may need to communicate widely across the organization. Risk assessment, for
instance, may require them to gather input from many people with specialist knowledge. Additionally,
there is usually a need to communicate information about the change to ensure people are fully prepared
before the change is deployed.
Q154
Which practice has a purpose that includes managing risks to confidentiality, integrity and availability?

A. Continual improvement
B. Monitoring and event management
C. Information security management
D. Service level management

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the
organization to conduct its business. This includes understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security
such as authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and nonrepudiation (ensuring that
someone can't deny that they took an action).
Q155
Which ITIL practice recommends performing service reviews to ensure that services continue to meet the
needs of the organization?

A. Service configuration management

B. Service desk
C. Service level management
D. Service request management

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service level management provides the end-to-end visibility of the organization's services. To achieve
this, service level management:
-- establishes a shared view of the services and target service levels with customers
-- ensures the organization meets the defined service levels through the collection, analysis, storage, and
reporting of the relevant metrics for the identified services
-- performs service reviews to ensure that the current set of services continues to meet the needs of the
organization and its customers -- captures and reports on service issues, including performance against
defined service levels.
Q156
What is the purpose of the 'problem management' practice?

A. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible
B. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business
C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing
identification and improvement of services
D. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents,
and managing workarounds and known errors

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition: The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the likelihood and impact of
incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known
errors.
Q157
Which statement about the automation of service requests is CORRECT?

A. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as problems

B. Service requests and their fulfillment should be automated as much as possible
C. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as incidents
D. Service requests and their fulfillment should be carried out by service desk staff without automation

Answer: B.

Explanation
To be handled successfully, service request management should follow these guidelines:
-- Service requests and their fulfillment should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree
possible. -- Policies should be established regarding what service requests will be fulfilled with limited or
even no additional approvals so that fulfillment can be streamlined.
-- The expectations of users regarding fulfillment times should be clearly set, based on what the
organization can realistically deliver. -- Opportunities for improvement should be identified and
implemented to produce faster fulfillment times and take advantage of automation. -- Policies and
workflows should be included for the documenting and redirecting of any requests that are submitted as
service requests, but which should actually be managed as incidents or changes.
Q158
What is important for a 'continual improvement register' (CIR)?

A. Improvement ideas from many sources are kept in a single CIR

B. Improvement ideas are tested. funded and agreed
C. Improvement ideas are documented, assessed and prioritized
D. Improvement ideas that are not being actioned immediately are removed from the CIR

Answer: C.

Explanation
It does not matter exactly how the information in a CIR is structured, or what the collections of
improvement ideas are called in any given organization. What is important is that improvement ideas are
captured, documented, assessed, prioritized, and appropriately acted upon to ensure that the
organization and its services are always being improved.
Q159
What is defined as a change of state that is significant for the management of an IT service?

A. Incident
B. Event
C. Problem
D. Known error

Answer: B.

Explanation
Event is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration
item (CI). Events are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring
tool.
Q160
What can a service remove from the consumer and impose on the consumer?

A. Utility
B. Outcome
C. Asset
D. Cost
Answer: D

Explanation
Costs removed from the consumer by the service (a part of the value proposition). This may include costs
of staff, technology, and other resources, which the consumer does not need to provide. Costs imposed
on the consumer by the service (the costs of service consumption). The total cost of consuming a service
includes the price charged by the service provider (if applicable), plus other costs such as staff training,
costs of network utilization, procurement, etc. Some consumers describe this as what they have to
`invest' to consume the service.
Q161
Which is an example of a business related measurement?

A. The number of problems resolved

B. The average time to response to change requests
C. The average resolution time for incidents
D. The number of passengers checked in

Answer: D.

Explanation
"The average time to respond to change requests", "The average resolution time for incidents" and "The
number of problems resolved" are all IT related measurements.
"The number of passengers checked in" is a pure business related measurement.
Q162
What describes the steps needed to create and deliver a specific service to a consumer?

A. A value stream
B. Service level management
C. Practices
D. Service management

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition: Value stream is a series of steps an organization undertakes to create and deliver products
and services to consumers.
Q163
What is used to link activities within the service value chain?

A. Opportunity, demand and value

B. Service desk
C. Inputs. outputs and triggers
D. Service level agreements

Answer: C.

Explanation
6 activities of the service value chain represent the steps an organization takes in the creation of value.
Each activity transforms inputs into outputs. These inputs can be demanded from outside the value chain
or outputs of other activities. All the activities are interconnected, with each activity receiving and
providing triggers for further action.
Q164
Which guiding principle focuses on reducing costs and human errors?

A. Think and work holistically

B. Focus and value
C. Optimize and automate
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

Answer: C.

Explanation
Automation typically refers to the use of technology to perform a step or series of steps correctly and
consistently with limited or no human intervention. For example, in organizations adopting continuous
deployment, it refers to the automatic and continuous release of code from development through to live,
and often automatic testing occurring in each environment. In its simplest form, however, automation
could also mean the standardization and streamlining of manual tasks, such as defining the rules of part
of a process to allow decisions to be made `automatically'. Efficiency can be greatly increased by
reducing the need for human involvement to stop and evaluate each part of a process.

Opportunities for automation can be found across the entire organization. Looking for opportunities to
automate standard and repeating tasks can help save the organization costs, reduce human error, and
improve employee experience.
Q165
Which guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty?

A. Start where you are

B. Focus on value
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Optimize and automate

Answer: B.

Explanation
Focus on value is mostly focused on the creation of value for service consumers. However, a service also
contributes to value for the organization and other stakeholders. This value may come in various forms,
such as revenue, customer loyalty, lower cost, or growth opportunities.
Q166
Which is included in the purpose of the 'deliver and support' value chain activity?

A. Understanding the organizations service vision

B. Meeting stakeholder expectations for time to market
C. Understanding stakeholder needs
D. Providing services to agreed specifications

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the delivery and support value chain activity is to ensure that services are delivered and
supported according to agreed specifications and stakeholders' expectations.
Q167
What is a change schedule PRIMARILY used for?

A. To publish a list of service requests that users can select

B. To help plan, authorize and schedule emergency changes
C. To ensure that a single change authority reviews evew change
D. To help plan changes, assist in communication and avoid conflicts

Answer: D.

Explanation
The change schedule is used to help plan changes, assist in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign
resources. It can also be used after changes have been deployed to provide information needed for
incident management, problem management, and improvement planning. Regardless of who the change
authority is, they may need to communicate widely across the organization. Risk assessment, for
instance, may require them to gather input from many people with specialist knowledge. Additionally,
there is usually a need to communicate information about the change to ensure people are fully prepared
before the change is deployed.
Q168
What is an incident?

A. The planned removal of an item that might affect a service

B. A service interruption resolved by the use of self-help tools
C. A possible future event that could cause harm
D. A result enabled by one or more outputs

Answer: B.

Explanation
By definition: An incident is an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service.
Regardless of ways to resolve - by using self-help tools or by support team, mentioned service
interruption is an incident
Q169
Which role approves the cost of services?

A. Customer
B. Change authority
C. Sponsor
D. User

Answer: C.

Explanation
Sponsor is the person who authorizes budget for service consumption. For example, the chief financial
officer (CFO) fills the role of the sponsor when they review the proposed service arrangement and
approve the cost of the contract as negotiated.
Q170
What is the purpose of the 'incident management' practice?

A. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests

B. To support the agreed service quality by effective handling of all agreed user-initiated service requests
C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition: The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the negative impact of
incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible.
Q171
Which practice makes new services available for use?

A. Deployment management
B. Change enablement
C. IT asset management
D. Release management
Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition: The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and
features available for use.
Q172
Which guiding principle helps to ensure that each improvement effort has more focus and is easier to
maintain?

A. Think and work holistically

B. Progress iteratively with feedback
C. Collaborate and promote visibility
D. Start where you are

Answer: B.

Explanation
Key message of 'Progress iteratively with feedback' principle: Resist the temptation to do everything at
once. Even huge initiatives must be accomplished iteratively. By organizing work into smaller,
manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort
will be sharper and easier to maintain.
Q173
Which dimension includes the knowledge needed for the management of services?

A. Value streams and processes

B. Organizations and people
C. Information and technology
D. Partners and suppliers

Answer: C.

Explanation
When applied to the SVS, the information and technology dimension includes the information and
knowledge necessary for the management of services, as well as the technologies required. It also
incorporates the relationships between different components of the SVS, such as the inputs and outputs
of activities and practices.
Q174
What is defined as an unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of a service?

A. An incident
B. An event
C. A change
D. A problem

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition: An incident is an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service.
Q175
Which describes the utility of a service?

A. A service that increases constraints on the consumer

B. A service that is fit for use
C. A service that supports the performance of the consumer
D. A service that meets its service level targets
Answer: C.

Explanation
Utility is the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need. Utility can be
summarized as `what the service does' and can be used to determine whether a service is `fit for
purpose'. To have utility, a service must either support the performance of the consumer or remove
constraints from the consumer. Many services do both.
Q176
Which two practices use workarounds?

A. Problem management and incident management

B. Change enablement and problem management
C. Change enablement and continual improvement
D. Incident management and continual improvement

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition: Workaround is a solution that reduces or eliminates the impact of an incident or problem for
which a full resolution is not yet available. Some workarounds reduce the likelihood of incidents.
Q177
Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with end-to-end service delivery?

A. Collaborate and promote

B. Think and work holistically
C. Focus on value
D. Optimize and automate

Answer: B.

Explanation
Taking a holistic approach to service management includes establishing an understanding of how all the
parts of an organization work together in an integrated way. It requires end-to-end visibility of how
demand is captured and translated into outcomes. In a complex system, the alteration of one element can
impact others and, where possible, these impacts need to be identified, analyzed and planned for.
Q178
What is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of
services?

A. Service provision
B. Service offering
C. Service management
D. Service consumption

Answer: C.

Explanation
By definition: Service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for
customers in the form of services.
8.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 5

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
2. There is only one correct answer per question
3. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
4. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
5. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
6. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam
7. This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the exam paper is allowed
Q179
A measure of how quickly and effectively a component can be restored to normal condition is:

A. Serviceability
B. Maintainability.
C. Availability.
D. All of the above

Answer: B.

Explanations:
Maintainability is a measure of how quickly and effectively a component can be restored to normal
condition.
Q180
The Business Critical elements of a business process supported by an IT service is called:

A. Business Relationship Management.

B. Business Continuity Management.
C. Business Impact Analysis.
D. Vital Business Functions.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
The business critical elements of the business process supported by an IT Service are known as Vital
Business Functions or VBFs; if IT focuses on the wrong aspects of the business functions, it is wasting
critical resources by designing the wrong solutions for the wrong reasons, thereby diminishing the value
of the service for the customer.
Q181
Right access to the right files to the right people at the right time is the objective of:

A. Availability Management.
B. Information Security Management.
C. Service Asset and Configuration Management.
D. All of the above

Answer: B.

Explanations:
This is the process which takes care of security management.
Q182
Creation of the Service Design Package is the main objective of:

A. Design Coordination.
B. Knowledge Management.
C. Business Relationship Manager.
D. None of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Creation of the Service Design Package is the main objective of Design Coordination.
Q183
Pre-authorized changes with documented procedure are called:

A. Service Transition
B. Standard Change.
C. Emergency Change.
D. Change Model.

Answer: B.

Explanations:
Standard changes are the changes which have low cost and low risk and can be handled as Service
Requests.
Q184
Which directly assists with the diagnosis and resolution of simple incidents?

A. Use of shift working patterns

B. Scripts for collecting user information
C. Creation of a temporary team
D. Fulfillment of service requests

Answer: B.

Explanation
There should be a formal process for logging and managing incidents. This process does not usually
include detailed procedures for how to diagnose, investigate, and resolve incidents, but can provide
techniques for making investigation and diagnosis more efficient. There may be scripts for collecting
information from users during initial contact, and this may lead directly to diagnosis and resolution of
simple incidents. Investigation of more complicated incidents often requires knowledge and expertise,
rather than procedural steps.
Q185
What is required by all service desk staff?

A. Root cause analysis skills

B. Knowledge of telephony technology
C. Demonstration of emotional intelligence
D. Excellent technical knowledge

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service desk staff require training and competency across a number of broad technical and business
areas. In particular, they need to demonstrate excellent customer service skills such as empathy, incident
analysis and prioritization, effective communication, and emotional intelligence. The key skill is to be able
to fully understand and diagnose a specific incident in terms of business priority, and to take appropriate
action to get this resolved, using available skills, knowledge, people, and processes.
Q186
Which is included in the purpose of the 'service level management' practice?

A. To ensure that suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately

B. To ensure accurate information about the configuration of services is available
C. To set dear business-based targets for service levels
D. To maximize the number of successful service and product changes

Answer: C.
Explanation
The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service
levels, and to ensure that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against
these targets.
Q187
Which of these activities is carried out as part of 'problem management'?

A. Trend analysis of incident records

B. Creating incident records
C. Diagnosing and resolving incidents
D. Escalating incidents to a support team for resolution

Answer: A.

Explanation
Problem identification activities identify and log problems. These include:
-- performing trend analysis of incident records -- detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users,
service desk, and technical support staff
-- during major incident management, identifying a risk that an incident could recur
-- analyzing information received from suppliers and partners -- analyzing information received from
internal software developers, test teams, and project teams.
Q188
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. The service desk should be the entry point and
single point of contact for the _______________ with all of its users.

A. Service consumer
B. Customer
C. Supplier
D. Service provider

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service
requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its
users.
Q189
Which helps to streamline the fulfillment of service requests?

A. Eliminating service requests which have complex workflows

B. Separating requests relating to service failures from the degradation of services
C. Understanding which service requests can be accomplished with limited approvals
D. Creating new workflows for every service request

Answer: C.

Explanation
To be handled successfully, service request management should follow these guidelines:
-- Service requests and their fulfillment should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree
possible. -- Policies should be established regarding what service requests will be fulfilled with limited or
even no additional approvals so that fulfillment can be streamlined.
-- The expectations of users regarding fulfillment times should be clearly set, based on what the
organization can realistically deliver. -- Opportunities for improvement should be identified and
implemented to produce faster fulfillment times and take advantage of automation. -- Policies and
workflows should be included for the documenting and redirecting of any requests that are submitted as
service requests, but which should actually be managed as incidents or changes.
Q190
Which TWO are important aspects of the `service request management' practice?

A. Providing a variety of channels for access

B. Standardization and automation
C. Establishing a shared view of targets
D. Policies for approvals

Answer: B,D.

Explanation
To be handled successfully, service request management should follow these guidelines:
-- Service requests and their fulfillment should be standardized and automated to the greatest degree
possible. -- Policies should be established regarding what service requests will be fulfilled with limited or
even no additional approvals so that fulfillment can be streamlined.
-- The expectations of users regarding fulfillment times should be clearly set, based on what the
organization can realistically deliver.
- Opportunities for improvement should be identified and implemented to produce faster fulfillment times
and take advantage of automation. -- Policies and workflows should be included for the documenting and
redirecting of any requests that are submitted as service requests, but which should actually be managed
as incidents or changes.
Q191
Which does the ITIL service value system discourage?

A. Organizational silos
B. Interfaces among practices
C. Coordinated authorities and responsibilities
D. Organizational agility

Answer: A.

Explanation
One of the biggest challenges an organization can face when trying to work effectively and efficiently with
a shared vision, or to become more Agile and resilient, is the presence of organizational silos.
Organizational silos can form in many ways and for many different reasons. Silos can be resistant to
change and can prevent easy access to the information and specialized expertise that exists across the
organization, which can in turn reduce efficiency and increase both cost and risk. Silos also make it more
difficult for communication or collaboration to occur across different groups.
The architecture of the ITIL SVS specifically enables flexibility and discourages siloed working. The
service value chain activities and the practices in the SVS do not form a fixed, rigid structure. Rather, they
can be combined in multiple value streams to address the needs of the organization in a variety of
scenarios. Organizations should be able to define and redefine their value streams in a flexible, yet safe
and efficient manner. This requires continual improvement activity to be carried out at all levels of the
organization; the ITIL continual improvement model helps to structure this activity. The continual
improvement and overall operation of an organization are shaped by the ITIL guiding principles. The
guiding principles create a foundation for a shared culture across the organization, thus supporting
collaboration and cooperation within and between the teams, and removing the need for constraints and
controls previously provided by silos.
Q192
Which statement about the `continual improvement' practice is CORRECT?

A. It is the role of senior management to authorize improvement initiatives.

B. Training should be provided to those involved in continual improvement
C. Continual improvement participation should be limited to a small dedicated team.
D. A single continual improvement register should be maintained by senior management.
Answer: B.

Explanation
Continual improvement is everyone's responsibility. Although there may be a group of staff members who
focus on this work full-time, it is critical that everyone in the organization understands that active
participation in continual improvement activities is a core part of their job. So the statement "Continual
improvement participation should be limited to a small dedicated team" is INCORRECT.
The highest levels of the organization need to take responsibility for embedding continual improvement
into the way that people think and work. Senior management needs to support the improvement initiative
but the authorization responsibility can be delegated to others. So the statement "It is the role of senior
management to authorize improvement initiatives" is INCORRECT.
To track and manage improvement ideas from identification through to final action, organizations use a
database or structured document called a continual improvement register (CIR). There can be more than
one CIR in an organization, as multiple CIRs can be maintained on individual, team, departmental,
business unit, and organizational levels. So the statement "A single continual improvement register
should be maintained by senior management" is INCORRECT.
Training and other enablement assistance should be provided to staff members to help them feel
prepared to contribute to continual improvement. Although everyone should contribute in some way, there
should at least be a small team dedicated full-time to leading continual improvement efforts and
advocating the practice across the organization. This team can serve as coordinators, guides, and
mentors, helping others in the organization to develop the skills they need and navigating any difficulties
that may be encountered.
Q193
Which practice has a purpose that includes maximizing success by ensuring that risks have been properly
assessed?

A. Change control
B. Relationship management
C. Release management
D. Monitoring and event management

Answer: A.

Explanation
The purpose of the change control practice is to maximize the number of successful service and product
changes by ensuring that risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and
managing the change schedule.
Q194
Which value chain activity ensures that service components meet agreed specifications?

A. Plan
B. Deliver and support
C. Design and transition
D. Obtain/build

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the obtain/build value chain activity is to ensure that service components are available
when and where they are needed, and meet agreed specifications.
Q195
Which ITIL practice has the purpose to establish and nurture the links between the organization and its
stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels?

A. Supplier management
B. Change enablement
C. Relationship management
D. Service desk

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish and nurture the links between the
organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels. It includes the identification, analysis,
monitoring, and continual improvement of relationships with and between stakeholders.
Q196
Which is considered by the 'partners and suppliers' dimension?

A. Using formal roles and responsibilities

B. Defining controls and procedures
C. Working with an integrator to manage relationships
D. Using artificial intelligence

Answer: C.

Explanation
There are different types of supplier relationships between an organization and its suppliers that need to
be considered as part of the organization's sourcing strategy. These include:
Insourcing - The products or services are developed and/or delivered internally by the organization.
Outsourcing - The process of having external suppliers provide products and services that were
previously provided internally. Outsourcing involves substitution, i.e. the replacement of internal capability
by that of the supplier.
Single source or partnership - Procurement of a product or service from one supplier. This can either be a
single supplier who supplies all services directly or an external service integrator who manages the
relationships with all suppliers and integrates their services on behalf of the organization. These close
relationships (and the mutual interdependence they create) foster high quality, reliability, short lead times,
and cooperative action. Multi-sourcing - Procurement of a product or service from more than one
independent supplier. These products and services can be combined to form new services which the
organization can provide to internal and external customers. As organizations place more focus on
increased specialization and compartmentalization of capabilities to increase agility, multi-sourcing is
increasingly a preferred option. Traditionally organizations have managed these suppliers separately
across different parts of the organization, but there is a move towards developing an internal service
integration capability or selecting an external service integrator.
Q197
What is recommended by the guiding principle 'progress iteratively with feedback'?

A. An improvement initiative that is broken into a number of manageable sections

B. An assessment of how all the parts of an organization will affect an improvement initiative
C. A current state assessment that is carried out at the start of an improvement initiative
D. The identification of all interested parts at the start of an improvement initiative

Answer: A.

Explanation
Key message of 'Progress iteratively with feedback' guiding principle is:
-- Resist the temptation to do everything at once. -- Even huge initiatives must be accomplished
iteratively. -- By organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed
in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper and easier to maintain.
Q198
What is the definition of a known error?

A. A problem that has been analyzed and has not been resolved
B. A cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents
C. An unplanned interruption to a service, or reduction in the quality of a service
D. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration item
(CI)

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition, known error is a problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved.
Q199
Which term relates to service levels aligned with the needs of service consumers?

A. Warranty
B. Cost
C. Utility
D. Service management

Answer: A.

Explanation
Warranty is the assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements. Warranty can be
summarized as `how the service performs' and can be used to determine whether a service is `fit for use'.
Warranty often relates to service levels aligned with the needs of service consumers. This may be based
on a formal agreement, or it may be a marketing message or brand image. Warranty typically addresses
such areas as the availability of the service, its capacity, levels of security and continuity. A service may
be said to provide acceptable assurance, or `warranty', if all defined and agreed conditions are met.
Q200
Which usually requires a team of representatives from many stakeholder groups?

A. Logging a new problem

B. Authorizing an emergency change
C. Investigating a major incident
D. Fulfilling a service request

Answer: C.

Explanation
The most complex incidents, and all major incidents, often require a temporary team to work together to
identify the resolution. This team may include representatives of many stakeholders, including the service
provider, suppliers, users, etc.
Q201
Which is an external input to the service value chain?

A. The `improve' value chain activity

B. Customer requirements
C. Feedback loops
D. An overall plan

Answer: B.

Explanation
Regardless of which practices are deployed, there are some common rules when using the service value
chain:
-- All incoming and outgoing interactions with parties external to the value chain are performed via engage
-- All new resources are obtained through obtain/build -- Planning at all levels is performed via plan --
Improvements at all levels are initiated and managed via improvement.
The key inputs to this 'Engage' activity are:
-- a product and service portfolio provided by plan -- high-level demand for services and products
provided by internal and external customers
-- detailed requirements for services and products provided by customers -- requests and feedback from
customers
-- incidents, service requests, and feedback from users -- information on the completion of user support
tasks from deliver and support
-- marketing opportunities from current and potential customers and users -- cooperation opportunities
and feedback provided by partners and suppliers
-- contract and agreement requirements from all value chain activities -- knowledge and information about
new and changed products and services from
-- design and transition, and obtain/build -- knowledge and information about third-party service
components from suppliers and partners
-- product and service performance information from deliver and support -- improvement initiatives from
improve
-- improvement status reports from improvement.
Q202
Which will NOT be handled as a service request?

A. The degradation of a service

B. A complaint about a support team
C. The provision of a laptop
D. The replacement of a toner cartridge

Answer: A.

Explanation
Service request is a request from a user or a user's authorized representative that initiates a service
action which has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery.
Each service request may include one or more of the following:
-- a request for a service delivery action (for example, providing a report or replacing a toner cartridge)
-- a request for information (for example, how to create a document or what the hours of the office are)
-- a request for provision of a resource or service (for example, providing a phone or laptop to a user, or
providing a virtual server for a development team)
-- a request for access to a resource or service (for example, providing access to a file or folder)
feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments to
a support team).
The degradation of a service is an incident, not a normal part of service delivery.
Q203
Which helps to manage an incident when it is unclear which support team should be working on the
incident?

A. Target resolution times

B. Self-help
C. Swarming
D. Disaster recovery plans

Answer: C.

Explanation
Some organizations use a technique called swarming to help manage incidents. This involves many
different stakeholders working together initially, until it becomes clear which of them is best placed to
continue and which can move on to other tasks.
In this situation, when it is unclear which support team should be working on the incident, swarming helps
to manage the incident.
Q204
Which is a key requirement for a successful service level agreement (SLA)?

A. Using single-system-based metrics that relate to outputs

B. Using bundled metrics to relate performance to outcomes
C. Using an agreement between the service provider and service supplier
D. Using individual metrics that relate to the service catalog

Answer: B.

Explanation
Some of the key requirements for successful SLAs include:
-- They must be related to a defined `service' in the service catalog; otherwise they are simply individual
metrics without a purpose, that do not provide adequate visibility or reflect the service perspective. -- They
should relate to defined outcomes and not simply operational metrics. This can be achieved with
balanced bundles of metrics, such as customer satisfaction and key business outcomes. -- They should
reflect an `agreement', i.e. engagement and discussion between the service provider and the service
consumer. It is important to involve all stakeholders, including partners, sponsors, users, and customers.
-- They must be simply written and easy to understand and use for all parties.
Q205
What includes governance as a component?

A. Practices
B. The service value system
C. The guiding principles
D. The service value chain

Answer: B.

Explanation
For service management to function properly, it needs to work as a system. The ITIL Service Value
System describes the inputs to this system (opportunity and demand), the elements of this system
(organizational governance, service management, continual improvement, and the organization's
capabilities and resources), and the outputs (achievement of organizational objectives and value for the
organization, its customers, and other stakeholders).
Q206
Which practice establishes a channel between the service provider and its users?

A. Change enablement
B. Relationship management
C. Service desk
D. Supplier management

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service
requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its
users. Service desks provide a variety of channels for access. These include:
-- phone calls, which can include specialized technology, such as interactive voice response (IVR),
conference calls, voice recognition, and others -- service portals and mobile applications, supported by
service and request catalogs, and knowledge bases
-- chat, through live chat and chatbots
-- email for logging and updating, and for follow-up surveys and confirmations. Unstructured emails can
be difficult to process, but emerging technologies based on AI and machine learning are starting to
address this -- walk-in service desks are becoming more prevalent in some sectors, e.g. higher education,
where there are high peaks of activity that demand physical presence
-- text and social media messaging, which are useful for notifications in case of major incidents and for
contacting specific stakeholder groups, but can also be used to allow users to request support -- public
and corporate social media and discussion forums for contacting the service provider and for peer-to-peer
support.
Q207
Which is handled as a service request?

A. A compliment about an IT support team

B. The failure of an IT service
C. An emergency change to implement a security patch
D. An investigation to identify the cause of an incident

Answer: A.

Explanation
Each service request may include one or more of the following:
-- a request for a service delivery action (for example, providing a report or replacing a toner cartridge)
-- a request for information (for example, how to create a document or what the hours of the office are)
-- a request for provision of a resource or service (for example, providing a phone or laptop to a user, or
providing a virtual server for a development team)
-- a request for access to a resource or service (for example, providing access to a file or folder)
-- feedback, compliments, and complaints (for example, complaints about a new interface or compliments
to a support team).
Q208
What actions does a service desk take for all issues, queries and requests that are reported to them?

A. Schedule, assess, authorize

B. Initiate, approve, fulfill
C. Acknowledge, classify, own
D. Diagnose, investigate, resolve

Answer: C.

Explanation
The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for incident resolution and service
requests. It should also be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its
users. Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests, and have
them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned. How this practice is managed and delivered may
vary from a physical team of people on shift work to a distributed mix of people connected virtually, or
automated technology and bots. The function and value remain the same, regardless of the model.
Q209
Which practice recommends using tools for collaboration and the automated matching of symptoms?

A. Incident management
B. Service level management
C. Service request management
D. Problem management

Answer: A.

Explanation
Information about incidents should be stored in incident records in a suitable tool. Ideally, this tool should
also provide links to related CIs, changes, problems, known errors, and other knowledge to enable quick
and efficient diagnosis and recovery. Modern IT service management tools can provide automated
matching of incidents to other incidents, problems, or known errors, and can even provide intelligent
analysis of incident data to generate recommendations for helping with future incidents.

It is important that people working on an incident provide good-quality updates in a timely fashion. These
updates should include information about symptoms, business impact, CIs affected, actions completed,
and actions planned. Each of these should have a timestamp and information about the people involved,
so that the people involved or interested can be kept informed. There may also be a need for good
collaboration tools so that people working on an incident can collaborate effectively.
Q210
What does 'change control' PRIMARILY focus on?

A. Changes to products and services

B. Changes to service levels
C. Changes to skills and competencies
D. Changes to organizational structure

Answer: A.

Explanation
It is important to distinguish change control from organizational change management. Organizational
change management manages the people's aspects of changes to ensure that improvements and
organizational transformation initiatives are implemented successfully. Change control is usually focused
on changes in products and services.
Q211
Which practice provides users with a way to get various requests arranged, explained and coordinated?

A. Service level management

B. Service desk
C. Continual improvement
D. Relationship management

Answer: B.

Explanation
With increased automation and the gradual removal of technical debt, the focus of the service desk is to
provide support for `people and business' rather than simply technical issues. Service desks are
increasingly being used to get various matters arranged, explained, and coordinated, rather than just to
get broken technology fixed, and the service desk has become a vital part of any service operation.
Q212
Which approach is CORRECT when applying the guiding principle 'keep it simple and practical'?

A. Only add controls and metrics that are required for compliance
B. Only add controls and metrics when they are needed
C. Design controls and metrics first then remove those not adding value
D. Design controls and metrics and add them individually until all are implemented

Answer: B.

Explanation
When designing or improving service management, it is better to start with an uncomplicated approach
and then carefully add controls, activities, or metrics when it is seen that they are truly needed.
Q213
Which is the purpose of release management?

A. To protect the organization's information

B. To move hardware and software to live environments
C. To handle user-initiated service requests
D. To make new and changed services available for use

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features
available for use.
Q214
What are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI or monitoring tool?

A. Requests
B. Incidents
C. Events
D. Problems

Answer: C.

Explanation
Event is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other configuration
item (CI). Events are typically recognized through notifications created by an IT service, CI, or monitoring
tool.
Q215
Which practice includes conducting regular reviews to ensure that services are still appropriate and
relevant?

A. Service level management

B. Change enablement
C. Continual improvement
D. Service desk

Answer: A.

Explanation
Service level management provides the end-to-end visibility of the organization's services. To achieve
this, service level management:
-- establishes a shared view of the services and target service levels with customers
-- ensures the organization meets the defined service levels through the collection, analysis, storage, and
reporting of the relevant metrics for the identified services
-- performs service reviews to ensure that the current set of services continues to meet the needs of the
organization and its customers -- captures and reports on service issues, including performance against
defined service levels.
Q216
Which guiding principle considers customer and user experience?

A. Start where you are

B. Focus on value
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

Answer: B.

Explanation
An important element of value is the experience that service consumers have when they interact with the
service and the service provider. This is frequently called customer experience (CX) or user experience
(UX) depending on the adopted definitions, and it must be actively managed.
Q217
Which practice includes the use of approaches such as Lean, Agile and DevOps with the aim of
facilitating a greater amount of change at a quicker rate?

A. Continual improvement
B. Service desk
C. Service level management
D. Monitoring and event management

Answer: A.

Explanation
Approaches to continual improvement can be found in many places. Lean methods provide perspectives
on the elimination of waste. Agile methods focus on making improvements incrementally at a cadence.
DevOps methods work holistically and ensure that improvements are not only designed well, but applied
effectively. Although there are a number of methods available, organizations should not try to formally
commit to too many different approaches. It is a good idea to select a few key methods that are
appropriate to the types of improvement the organization typically handles and to cultivate those methods.
In this way, teams will have a shared understanding of how to work together on improvements to facilitate
a greater amount of change at a quicker rate.
Q218
Which practice forms a link between the service provider and the users of services?

A. Problem management
B. Service level management
C. Service desk
D. Change enablement

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service desks add value not simply through the transactional acts of, for example, incident logging, but
also by understanding and acting on the business context of this action. The service desk should be the
empathetic and informed link between the service provider and its users.
Q219
Which dimension considers data security and privacy?

A. Organizations and people

B. Partners and suppliers
C. Information and technology
D. Value streams and processes

Answer: C.

Explanation
The challenges of information management, such as those presented by security and regulatory
compliance requirements, are also a focus of this "Information and technology" dimension. For example,
an organization may be subject to the European Union's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR),
which influences its information management policies and practices. Other industries or countries may
have regulations that impose constraints on the collection and management of data of multinational
corporations. For example, in the US the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
provides data privacy and security provisions for safeguarding medical information.
Q220
Which statement about the 'change enablement' practice is CORRECT?

A. Standard changes are changes that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a
standard process
B. Service requests are usually normal changes that can be implemented quickly without authorization
C. Emergency changes are changes that must be fully tested and fully documented prior to
implementation
D. Emergency changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible and therefore
authorization is expedited

Answer: D.

Explanation
Emergency changes are changes that must be implemented as soon as possible; for example, to resolve
an incident or implement a security patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change
schedule, and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly. As far as possible, emergency changes should be subject to the same testing,
assessment, and authorization as normal changes, but it may be acceptable to defer some
documentation until after the change has been implemented, and sometimes it will be necessary to
implement the change with less testing due to time constraints. There may also be a separate change
authority for emergency changes, typically including a small number of senior managers who understand
the business risks involved.
Q221
What is a service?

A. A possible event that could cause harm or loss or make it more difficult to achieve objectives
B. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co
creation based on agreed and available service offerings
C. A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity
D. A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without
the customer having to manage specific costs and risks

Answer: D.

Explanation
By definition, service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers
want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs and risks.
Q222
Which practice needs people who understand complex systems and have creative and analytical skills?

A. Problem management
B. Service level management
C. Change enablement
D. Service request management

Answer: A.

Explanation
Many problem management activities rely on the knowledge and experience of staff, rather than on
following detailed procedures. People responsible for diagnosing problems often need the ability to
understand complex systems, and to think about how different failures might have occurred. Developing
this combination of analytical and creative ability requires mentoring and time, as well as suitable training.
Q223
An SLA is a service level agreement. Which describes the `watermelon SLA' effect?

A. The metrics in an SLA are focused on internal measures, so that reports show everything is good.
while the customer is not satisfied.
B. SLA targets change very frequently, so that each report includes new measures and trends cannot be
analyzed.
C. Introducing SLAs for a service enables customers to see that the service provider is doing a really
good job. so this improves satisfaction.
D. A single SLA defines target service levels for multiple customers, so every customer sees reports about
other customers' experiences.

Answer: A.

Explanation
Traditional SLAs have been based on individual activities such as incident resolution times, system
availability (`99.9'), and volume metrics (e.g. number of incidents or requests handled). Without a
business context these metrics are often meaningless. For example, although a system availability of
99.6% is impressive, this still needs to align with key business requirements. The system may have an
acceptable unavailability of 0.4%, but if that time falls when there is an important process happening
(such as a commercial transaction, an operating theater in use, or point-of-sale tills in use), then
customer/user satisfaction will be low, regardless of whether the SLA has been met. This can be
problematic for the service provider if it thinks it is doing a great job (the reports are all green), when in
fact its customers are dissatisfied with the service received and also frustrated that the provider doesn't
notice this. This is known as the watermelon SLA effect, because like a watermelon, the SLA may appear
green on the outside, but is actually red inside. Service level management identifies metrics and
measures that are a truthful reflection of the customer's actual experience and level of satisfaction with
the whole service. These will vary across organizations and the only way to learn what these are is to find
out directly from customers.
"The metrics in an SLA are focused on internal measures, so that reports show everything is good, while
the customer is not satisfied" is an example of watermelon SLA.
9.0 ITIL� 4 Foundation Mock Test 6

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1. You should attempt all 40 questions. Each question is worth one mark
2. There is only one correct answer per question
3. There is no negative marking for wrong answers
4. You need to answer 26 questions correctly to pass the exam
5. Mark your answers on the answer sheet provided. use a pencil (NOT pen)
6. You have 60 minutes to complete this exam
7. This is a `closed book' exam. No material other than the exam paper is allowed
Q224
Under which of the SVC activities does the service desk play a major role?

A. Improve
B. Engage
C. Design and Transition
D. Obtain/Build

Answer: B.

Explanation
Engage: The service desk engages with users mainly and with other identified stakeholders, which is a
central function within the Engage activity
Q225
Which activity in the service value chain is responsible primarily for providing feedback from customers?

A. Obtain/Build
B. Deliver and Support
C. Plan
D. Engage

Answer: D.
Explanation
While the feedback can come through any activity, the primary responsibility lies with Engage to liaise
with customers and to understand the pulse
Q226
Which is part of the `focus on value' guiding principle?

A. Understanding what services help the service consumer to do

B. Identifying activities that can be achieved in smaller iterations
C. Reducing the number of steps in the customer experience
D. Assessing services to identify parts that can be reused

Answer: A.

Explanation
The service provider must understand what is truly of value to the service consumer. The service provider
needs to know:
why the consumer uses the services
what the services help them to do
how the services help them achieve their goals the role of cost/financial consequences for the service
consumer the risks involved for the service consumer.
Q227
Which practice uses technologies such as intelligent telephony systems, a knowledge base and
monitoring tools?

A. Service desk
B. Deployment management
C. Service configuration management
D. Problem management

Answer: A.

Explanation
A centralized service desk requires supporting technologies, such as:
intelligent telephony systems, incorporating computer-telephony integration, IVR, and automatic call
distribution workflow systems for routing and escalation workforce management and resource planning
systems a knowledge base
call recording and quality control
remote access tools
dashboard and monitoring tools
configuration management systems.
Q228
Which of the following is the purpose of information security management practice?

A. To ensure that the systems information, and networks are adequately secured against security threats
B. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business
C. To protect the financial and regulatory information of the business
D. To ensure that a security ring fence is built to protect the knowledge that the company holds in its
repositories

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the information security management practice is to protect the information needed by the
organization to conduct its business. This includes understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security
such as authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and nonrepudiation (ensuring that
someone can't deny that they took an action).
Q229
Which is the difference between a problem and a known error?

A. Problems are created to identify a permanent solution to an incident known errors are created when
the permanent solution to an incident is yet to be implemented.
B. Problems are created to identify the root cause of incidents; known errors are created when the root
cause of an incident is known but a permanent solution is yet to be implemented.
C. Problems are created to identify root cause of incidents; known errors are created to identify the
product bugs that are released from the development cycle.
D. Problems are created to identify a permanent solution to an incident known errors are created to track
and identify product bugs that come from the development cycle.

Answer: B.

Explanation
Problems are created to identify root cause of incidents (which is the first step before implementing a
permanent solution); when the root cause is known but a permanent solution is yet to be implemented,
then a known error is created to keep track of known errors in the service/product
Q230
The service request management practice exists for this reason:

A. To ensure that the services are restored to the end user to support in increasing the end user's
productivity and effectiveness
B. To support the provisioning of services through the change control practice
C. To provide an overarching framework for managing service requests and standard changes that are
predefined and established
D. To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all predefined, user-initiated service requests

Answer: D.

Explanation
To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all predefined, user- initiated service requests in an
effective and user-friendly manner. Although the answer in the choices is not the complete definition, it is
thus far the closest and most appropriate definition for service request management.
Q231
What is the primary objective of a service model?

A. To provide a graphical representation of the CMDB that will help projects understand the architecture
and make decisions related to planning and improvements
B. To provide a graphical representation of the CMDB in order to increase productivity, reduces outage
times, and provide support for making decisions
C. To provide a graphical representation of the CMDB that will provide an overall architecture of the
services, and this can be used for making architectural decisions
D. To provide a graphical representation of CIs and their relationships that will help the organizations
identity the CIs whose relationships are not defined, thereby supporting the verification of the CMDB

Answer: B.

Explanation
While all the options are correct to a certain level, this option is the primary objective of having a service
map to start with. While it is desirable to have an architectural view that helps in planning and making
decisions, on the ground, technicians would benefit the most when faced with incidents, and when the
change managers have to make a decision while approving changes. For identifying orphan CIs, you
don't necessarily need a service model; you could do it with the CMDB directly.
Q232
Which is an activity of `problem identification'?

A. Analyzing the cause of problems

B. Establishing potential permanent solutions
C. Establishing problem workarounds
D. Analyzing information from software developers

Answer: D.

Explanation
Problem identification activities identify and log problems. These include:
performing trend analysis of incident records detection of duplicate and recurring issues by users, service
desk, and technical support staff
during major incident management, identifying a risk that an incident could recur
analyzing information received from suppliers and partners analyzing information received from internal
software developers, test teams, and project teams.
Q233
What is the basis for maintaining a continual improvement register (CIR)?

A. CIR is the repository for managing the artifacts pertaining to improvement ideas, related codes, and
other documentation.
B. It provides a comparison point for measuring the quality of improvements identified by the staff in an
organization.
C. It is a repository that manages improvement ideas throughout its life cycle.
D. CIR is the product backlog for improvements. The only difference is that the identified improvements
are stored in the CIR and the ideas are moved into the product backlog after reviews.

Answer: C.

Explanation
To track and manage improvement ideas from identification through to final action, organizations use a
database or structured document called a continual improvement register (CIR). CIR is a repository for
registering ideas. The ideas remain in the CIR throughout its life cycle.
Q234
What kind of a tool should be used to log incidents?

A. A tool that provides access to all IT staff, users, and the service desk and that is available on demand
B. A tool that provides links to CIs, problems and known errors
C. A tool that is specialized for registering incidents, and carries attributes such as incident summary,
incident description, priority, category, etc Also, there must be room provided for customizing the fields.
D. A tool that can be used for self-healing of incidents ana that can provide quick resolution

Answer: B.

Explanation
The incident logging tool most importantly must provide the capability to link to problem tickets, change
tickets, configuration items, and other types of service management records. Through these linkages,
identifying improvements, defining changes, and carrying out problem management activities can be
achieved.
Q235
Which is provided by the `engage' value chain activity?

A. Ensuring that stakeholder expectations for quality are met

B. Ensuring that service components are available when needed
C. Ensuring that services are operated to meet agreed specifications
D. Ensuring that stakeholder needs are understood by the organization

Answer: D.

Explanation
The purpose of the engage value chain activity is to provide a good understanding of stakeholder needs,
transparency, and continual engagement and good relationships with all stakeholders.
Q236
Which of the following is not a valid type of deployment approach?

A. Phased deployment
B. Continuous deployment
C. Emergency deployment
D. Continuous delivery

Answer: C.

Explanation
We have emergency releases but not emergency deployments. Deployment approach is about how we
carry out the deployments and not about urgency or timing.
Q237
Which statement about value creating activities is CORRECT?

A. Each value stream should be designed with a specific combination of service value chain activities
B. A value stream is an operating model for creating value through products and services
C. Service value chain activities have pre-determined dependencies on ITIL practices
D. Organizations should ensure that each value stream is applicable to many scenarios

Answer: A.

Explanation
Value stream is a series of steps an organization undertakes to create and deliver products and services
to consumers. A value stream is a combination of the organization's value chain activities. Structuring the
organization's activities in the form of value streams allows it to have a clear picture of what it delivers and
how, and to make continual improvements to its services.
Q238
Which of the following is the correct definition of a configuration item?

A. Any component that delivers value to a customer through the efficiencies provided by the incident
management practice
B. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service
C. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service
D. Any financially valuable component that needs to be managed by the service management practice

Answer: B.

Explanation
By definition, configuration item is any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT
service
Q239
What is the importance of finding out where the organization is currently before embarking on identifying
improvements?

A. Understanding where we are currently helps us understand the mistakes that were made earlier.
B. The ground realities provide an excellent value to assess the relevance of improvement ideas.
C. A baseline serves as a starting point and as a comparison value for the progress made through
improvements.
D. It provides a balance in terms of the improvements that are taken before and after an improvement is
delivered.

Answer: C.

Explanation
It is the starting point or a baseline that gives the organization a reference point that serves two purposes:
(1) as a measurement baseline, and (2) to design the improvement actions to take us from the current
situation to the desired state.
Q240
Which statement about change authorities is CORRECT?

A. Change authorities are assigned for each type of change and change model
B. Change authorities are only required for authorizing emergency changes
C. Change authorities are only required for authorizing normal changes
D. Change authorities are assigned when each change is deployed

Answer: A.

Explanation
The person or group who authorizes a change is known as a change authority. It is essential that the
correct change authority is assigned to each type of change to ensure that change control is both efficient
and effective. In high-velocity organizations, it is a common practice to decentralize change approval,
making the peer review a top predictor of high performance.
Q241
What is the purpose of the `deployment management' practice?

A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

B. To move new or changed components to live environments
C. To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
D. To make new and changed services and features available for use

Answer: B.

Explanation
The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software,
documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments. It may also be involved in
deploying components to other environments for testing or staging.
Q242
Which statement about standard changes is CORRECT?

A. The change can be implemented with less testing if necessary

B. A full assessment should be completed each time the change is implemented
C. The appropriate change authority should be assigned to each type of change
D. The change does not require additional authorization

Answer: D.

Explanation
Standard changes are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented,
and can be implemented without needing additional authorization. They are often initiated as service
requests, but may also be operational changes. When the procedure for a standard change is created or
modified, there should be a full risk assessment and authorization as for any other change. This risk
assessment does not need to be repeated each time the standard change is implemented; it only needs
to be done if there is a modification to the way it is carried out.
Q243
Which of these is not a valid problem identification technique?

A. Five-why analysis
B. On the back of a major incident
C. Analyzing recurring issues
D. Performing trend analysis of incidents

Answer: A.

Explanation
Five-why analysis is performed to identify the root cause of a problem that has been already identified.
Q244
Which of the following is the right definition of an IT asset?

A. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or service
B. An IT component that goes through the life cycle starting from procurement to disposal
C. An IT component that is required to deliver a service
D. A component that has a financial value and is owned by the service provider to provide services

Answer: A.

Explanation
By definition, an IT asset is any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT
product or service.
Q245
Which is the ideal methodology for developing improvements?

A. A methodology for the delivery of improvement must be identified based on the improvement that
needs to be developed.
B. A hybrid model involving both Agile and waterfall methodology is to be employed, to ensure that the
changing requirements are considered and the delivery timelines are adhered to.
C. The waterfall methodology is employed for improvement, as the nature of improvements does not
change the inherent requirements.
D. Agile methodology provides the flexibility and the expressive freedom for improvements to be delivered
as and when new improvement requirements are identified and ratified.

Answer: A.

Explanation
There is no one universal methodology that is ideal when it comes to development of improvements.
Every improvement is different, and the trick is to keep the methodology selection flexible in identifying
one or the other depending on the nature of work.
Q246
Which of the activities is a valid error control activity?

A. Identification of permanent solution

B. Applying workarounds to incidents
C. Analysis of root cause of known errors
D. Analyzing recurring issues

Answer: A.

Explanation
Identifying permanent solutions to known errors in the KEDB is one of the major activities that are carried
out in this phase. The objective of this phase is to ensure the reduction of known errors by either finding a
permanent solution or by making the applied workaround permanent.
Q247
Which guiding principle helps an organization to understand the impact of an altered element on other
elements in a system?

A. Think and work holistically

B. Keep it simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value

Answer: A.

Explanation
Taking a holistic approach to service management includes establishing an understanding of how all the
parts of an organization work together in an integrated way. It requires end-to-end visibility of how
demand is captured and translated into outcomes. In a complex system, the alteration of one element can
impact others and, where possible, these impacts need to be identified, analyzed and planned for.
Q248
Relationship management practice deals with the customer at what levels?

A. Strategic
B. Strategic tactical, and operational
C. Strategic and tactical
D. Tactical and operational

Answer: C.

Explanation
Relationship management engages customers at a strategic and tactical perspective.
Q249
How does culture play a role in identifying improvements?

A. Identifying improvements must come from all quarters. This is not possible if the organization does not
give its staff the freedom to express and experiment.
B. A culture needs to be inculcated in an organization through the formation of a continual improvement
team that is responsible for delivery of improvement ideas.
C. Culture provides the basis for services and products to improve and create value for customers.
D. The culture of an organization enables collaboration and coordination that is decisive in coming up with
improvement ideas.

Answer: A.

Explanation
Improvements cannot be identified in a vacuum. It cannot all be done by a specific team. The organization
must come together to identify improvements. For this to happen, a culture that orients people into
thinking of improvements must be set; this essentially comes from fearlessness and expressiveness.
Q250
What is the primary role of change authority?

A. Approve or reject changes based on the change schedule

B. Advise the change control practice on the risks posed by the change
C. Authorize standard changes that are due for implementation
D. Provide recommendations to the change control practice for creating change requests

Answer: B.
Explanation
Change advisory is a body that provides guidance to change control on changes, the risks they pose, and
to identify potential changes that could be malicious.
Q251
What is the difference between a POC and a pilot?

A. A POE is conducted to provide ample proof that the services are still valid. A pilot is used to ensure that
the service is fit for purpose.
B. A POE is used to bring about transformation changes to a product or a service. A pilot is leveraged to
identify a functionality that can be developed and tested successfully.
C. A POE is done to ensure sponsor engagement and to provide valid proof that the solution is valid. A
pilot provides functional specifications that further provide proof that the solution is on the right path.
D. A POE is conducted to prove that the solution can be implemented. A pilot develops and implements a
small piece of the functionality.

Answer: D.

Explanation
A POC provides substantive proof that the solution that is conceived is on the right path. A pilot takes the
POC further in developing a small piece of functionality, thereby providing further proof.
Q252
Which two statements about the guiding principles are CORRECT?
1. The guiding principles support continual improvement
2. Each guiding principle applies to a selection of the available stakeholder groups
3. Organizations should decide which one of the guiding principles is relevant to them
4. Organizations should consider how the guiding principles interact with each other

A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3

Answer: A.

Explanation
Guiding principles can be used to guide organizations in their work as they adopt a service management
approach and adapt ITIL guidance to their own specific needs and circumstances. The guiding principles
encourage and support organizations in continual improvement at all levels. As well as being aware of the
ITIL guiding principles, it is also important to recognize that they interact with and depend upon each
other. For example, if an organization is committed to progressing iteratively with feedback, it should also
think and work holistically to ensure that each iteration of an improvement includes all the elements
necessary to deliver real results. Similarly, making use of appropriate feedback is key to collaboration,
and focusing on what will truly be valuable to the customer makes it easier to keep things simple and
practical.
Organizations should not use just one or two of the principles, but should consider the relevance of each
of them and how they apply together. Not all principles will be critical in every situation, but they should all
be reviewed on each occasion to determine how appropriate they are.
Q253
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The `incident management' practice should maintain
_______________ for logging and managing incidents.

A. a formal process
B. detailed procedures
C. a value chain activity
D. a dedicated team
Answer: A.

Explanation
There should be a formal process for logging and managing incidents. This process does not usually
include detailed procedures for how to diagnose, investigate, and resolve incidents, but can provide
techniques for making investigation and diagnosis more efficient. There may be scripts for collecting
information from users during initial contact, and this may lead directly to diagnosis and resolution of
simple incidents. Investigation of more complicated incidents often requires knowledge and expertise,
rather than procedural steps.
Q254
Which is part of the definition of a customer?

A. The role that defines the requirements for a service

B. The role that authorizes budget for service consumption
C. A means of enabling value co-creation
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value

Answer: A.

Explanation
Customer is the person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the
outcomes of service consumption.
Q255
Which of the following is not included in an SLA document?

A. Service levels
B. Metrics
C. Service objectives
D. Key performance indicators

Answer: C.

Explanation
Service levels, metrics, and key performance indicators are inherent to an SLA document. However,
service objectives are generally included in a formal agreement (in most cases, a contract) between a
customer and a service provider.
Q256
When is the earliest that a workaround can be documented in `problem management'?

A. After the problem has been logged

B. After the problem has been analyzed
C. After the problem has been prioritized
D. After the problem has been resolved

Answer: B.

Explanation
When a problem cannot be resolved quickly, it is often useful to find and document a workaround for
future incidents, based on an understanding of the problem. Workarounds are documented in problem
records. This can be done at any stage; it doesn't need to wait for analysis to be complete. If a
workaround has been documented early in problem control, then this should be reviewed and improved
after problem analysis has been completed.

As mentioned, the workaround should be documented when a problem cannot be resolved quickly,
implying that the problem has already been analyzed (even though the analysis has not completed yet).
Q257
An organization asks a stakeholder to review a planned change. Which guiding principle does this
demonstrate?

A. Focus on value
B. Keep it simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

Answer: D.

Explanation
Working together in a way that leads to real accomplishment requires information, understanding, and
trust. Work and its results should be made visible, hidden agendas should be avoided, and information
should be shared to the greatest degree possible. The more people are aware of what is happening and
why, the more they will be willing to help. When improvement activity occurs in relative silence, or with
only a small group being aware of the details, assumptions and rumors can prevail. Resistance to change
will often arise as staff members speculate about what is changing and how it might impact them. Asking
a stakeholder to review a planned change demonstrates collaborate and promote visibility guiding
principle
Q258
Which of the following steps are not present in the seven-step model?

A. What should be done?

B. Take action
C. Where do we want to be?
D. Where are we now?

Answer: A.

Explanation
What Should Be Done is not one of the defined steps in the seven-step model.

Question 36
Deciding how to differentiate ourselves from our competitive alternatives is the objective of:
A. Service Design.
B. Service Strategy.
C. Demand Management.
D. Capacity Management.

Answer: B.

Explanations:
This is one of the objectives of Service Strategy.
Q259
The four parameters of the Warranty in Service Value are:

A. Availability, Continuity, Capacity and Security.

B. Availability, Capacity, Continuity and Maintainability.
C. ROI, VOI, Improvement and Improvements.
D. Capacity, Security, Serviceability and Security.

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Warranty is based on Availability, Continuity, Capacity and Security.
Q260
Service Package is the combination of:

A. Core Service Package, Supporting Service Package and Service Asset Package.
B. Service Asset and Service Value.
C. Core Service Package, Supporting Service package and Enabling Service Package.
D. All of the above

Answer: C.

Explanations:
Service Package will contain the outcome desired, enhancing value and the utility and warranty of the
core.
Q261
PBA and UP are a part of:

A. Finance Management.
B. Demand Management.
C. Business Management.
D. Service Portfolio Management.

Answer: B.

Explanations:
These are the two main activities of Demand Management.
Q262
Pipeline services, Active services and Retired services are the components of:

A. Service Portfolio Management.

B. Service Catalog Management.
C. Business Management.
D. Demand Management.

Answer: A.

Explanations:
SPM consists of all the services which are active, pipeline and retired
Q263
Finance Management Activities include:

A. Accounting,Budgeting,Chargeback and Demand Modeling.

B. Accounting, Buyback and Clearance.
C. Accounting, Budgeting and Chargeback.
D. None of the above.

Answer: C.

Explanations:
Finance Management Activities, by definition, consist of Accounting, Budgeting, and Chargeback.
Q264
Who is responsible for communication and interaction with customers?

A. Service Level Manager

B. Service Owner
C. Business Relationship Manager
D. Process Owner
Answer: C.

Explanations:
It is the responsibility of the Business Relationship Manager to act as a single point of contact for these
activities.
Q265
Service which is needed in order to deliver the core service is called:

A. Enhancing Service.
B. Enabling Service.
C. Both the above
D. Neither A nor B.

Answer: B.

Explanations:
Enabling service is required by any service provider to provide core service.
Q266
An SDP is produced for:

A. New service and Retiring Service only.

B. New Service and for a major change in service only.
C. New Service only.
D. New Service, Major Change in a service and Retiring Service.

Answer: D.

Explanations:
By definition, an SDP is produced for New Service, Major Change in a service and Retiring Service.
Q267
Catalog Management which has information about the business and its relationship with business units
and processes is called:

A. Service Catalog Management.

B. Technical Service Catalog.
C. Service Portfolio Management.
D. Business Service Catalog.

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Catalog Management which has information about the business and its relationship with business units
and processes is called Business Service Catalog.
Q268
The agreement between the internal departments of an organization, which helps the Service Provider to
deliver the service, is called a(n):

A. Underpinning Contract.
B. Service Level Agreement.
C. Operational Level Agreement.
D. Service Level Requirement.

Answer: C.

Explanations:
The agreement between the internal departments of an organization, which helps the service provider to
deliver the service, is called an Operational Level Agreement.
Q269
Which is the content to be avoided when drafting an SLA?

A. Service Performance
B. Security Measures
C. Legal terms
D. Mutual Responsibilities

Answer: C.

Explanations:
Legal terms should always be avoided when drafting an SLA.
Q270
In a process, RACI is the model used for identifying the following:

A. Roles and Responsibilities

B. Process Knowledge
C. Domain Knowledge
D. All of the above

Answer: A.

Explanations:
RACI is used for defining and understanding the roles and responsibilities.
Q271
The performance of the supplier is managed by which process?

A. Service Level Management

B. Business relationship Management
C. Supplier Management
D. All of the above

Answer: C.

Explanations:
Supplier Management's main objective is to measure the performance and take a decision on the contract
renewal.
Q272
Service Capacity, Business Capacity and Component Capacity are the components of:

A. Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management.
C. Service Continuity Management.
D. Supplier Management.

Answer: A.

Explanations:
Service Capacity, Business Capacity and Component Capacity are components of Capacity
Management.