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CRIMINOLOGY ● PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAMINATION ● FIRE OFFICER EXAMINATION ● NAPOLCOM

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PRE-BOARD FOR FEBRUARY 2-4, BOARD 10. Judicial notice may be either mandatory or discretionary. Which of the
following statements may the court grant discretionary judicial notice?
LICENSURE EXAMINATION I. Matters which are of public knowledge
II. Matters which are capable of unquestionable
demonstrations.
Part I: Criminal law, Jurisprudence and Procedure Area
III. Matters which ought to be known to judges because of
their judicial functions.
1. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded
A. I, II
by the law or these rules (rules of court) is a statement that expresses:
B. II, IV
A. Competent evidence
C. I, II, III
B. Material evidence
D. I, III
C. Physical evidence
D. Cumulative evidence
11. An admission made by a party during a proceeding does not require proof.
How may the admitter contradict such an admission?
2. As a rule, no evidence shall be admissible other than the original document
I. Showing that the admission was made by palpable
itself, when the subject of inquiry is its contents, expresses what rule? mistake.
A. Best evidence rule
II. Showing that no such admission was made.
B. English rule
III. Showing that he was compelled by the police to make
C. Parol evidence rule
such an admission.
D. Secondary evidence rule
A. III only
B. I, II, III
3. This is evidence which is addressed to the senses of the court.
C. I, II
I. Object evidence
D. II, IV
II. Circumstantial
III. Real evidence
12. It consists of writings or any material containing letters, words, numbers,
IV. Documentary
figures, symbols, or other modes of written expressions offered as proof of
A. I, II, III, IV their contents.
B. II, IV
A. Object evidence
C. I, III
B. Documentary evidence
D. I, II, III
C. Prima facie evidence
D. Real evidence
4. A rule which states that when the terms of an agreement have been reduced
to writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there
13. Which evidence is addressed to the senses of the court?
can be, between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of
A. Object evidence
such terms other than the contents of the written agreement.
B. Expert evidence
A. Best evidence rule
C. Documentary evidence
B. Parol evidence rule
D. Circumstantial evidence
C. Secondary evidence rule
D. Parole evidence
14. What are the qualifications of a witness?
A. Person who can perceive
5. This is the declaration made by a person under the consciousness of an
B. Person who believes in God
impending death.
C. A person who can make perception to others.
A. Dying declaration
A. A, B, C
B. Declaration about pedigree
B. A, C
C. Declaration against interest
C. A, B
D. Post-mortem statement
D. C Only
6. Statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place or
15. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, or descendants
immediately prior or subsequent thereto, with respect to the circumstances
or ascendants or children is the ________________.
thereof is known as
A. Family first doctrine
A. Dying declaration
B. Filial privilege
B. Extrajudicial confession
C. Parental privilege
C. Parts of the res gestae
D. Parental and filial privilege
D. Admission
16. Declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or
7. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded
of any offense necessarily included therein is known as ___________.
by the law or the rules of court. The underlined statement has reference to:
A. Admission
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Extrajudicial confession
B. Direct evidence
C. Confession
C. Cumulative evidence
D. Acknowledgment
D. Competency of evidence
17. It is the examination in chief of a witness by the party presenting him on the
8. Evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in
facts relevant to the issue:
its existence or non-existence. Evidence on collateral matters shall not be
A. Direct Examination
allowed except:
B. Re-Direct Examination
A. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or
C. Cross Examination
improbability of the fact in issue
D. Clarificatory Examination
B. When it directly imputes to the accused the commission of the crime
C. When it has tendency in reason to pinpoint the doer of the criminal act
18. Upon the termination of the direct examination, the witness may be cross
D. When it changes the burden of proof
examined by the adverse party as to any matter stated in the direct
examination or connected therewith to test his accuracy and truthfulness.
9. Which of the following does the court shall NOT or cannot make a judicial
A. Direct Examination
notice?
B. Re-Direct Examination
A. National customs and traditions
C. Cross Examination
B. Existence and territorial extent of states
D. Presentation of Evidence
C. Forms of government and symbols of nationality
D. Admiralty and maritime courts of the world
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19. What do you call that question which suggests to the witness the answer A. Republic Act 9262
which the examining party desires to hear; therefore, that question is not B. Republic Act 9211
permitted? C. Republic Act 9346
A. Misleading Question D. Republic Act 9344
B. Leading Question 31. Under the Revised Penal Code, the first and indispensable requisite of self-
C. Direct Examination defense is___.
D. Control Questions A. Unlawful aggression
B. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
20. What is that question where one assumes as true a fact not yet testified to C. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending
by the witness, or contrary to that which he has previously stated, and this himself
kind of questioning is not allowed in courts? D. the person defending be not induced by hatred, revenge, or other evil
A. Misleading Question motive.
B. Leading Question
C. Interrogative Question 32. This happens when two or more people come to an agreement concerning
D. Peak Of Tension Question the commission of a felony and decide to commit it. It refers to______.
A. Conspiracy
21. When the aggravating circumstance of recidivism is present in commission B. Proposal
of a crime, the offender is called a: C. Piracy
A. Quasi-recidivist D. Criminal agreement
B. Recidivist
C. Habitual criminal 33. Which characteristics of criminal law that states that criminal law is binding
D. Habitual delinquent on all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines regardless of sex, age,
and nationality?
22. An ordinary mitigating circumstance reduces the penalty only as to the: A. General
A. Minimum period B. Territorial
B. Degree C. Practical
C. Indeterminate Sentence Law D. Prospective
D. Probation Law
34. Anti-Fencing Law (PD 1612) will apply only when the valuable articles
23. To overcome intelligence as an element of criminal liability one must prove – proceed from what crimes?
A. Deprivation of cognition A. Only to proceeds of theft or robbery.
B. Mistake of fact B. Only to proceeds of estafa.
C. Compulsion of an irresistible force C. Also, to proceeds of usurpation.
D. Mistake of identity D. Proceeds of murder or homicide
24. In mala prohibita, the criminal liability of the offender is determined by his 35. The United Nations defined human rights as those rights, which are
____________. _________ in our nature and without which we cannot live as human beings.
A. criminal intent A. inherent
B. intent to perpetrate the act B. prescribed by law
C. negligence, lack of foresight, lack of skill C. constitutionally provided
D. ignorance of the law D. protected by the government
25. In light felonies the following are criminally liable – 36. Which of the following rights CANNOT be considered as inherent upon a
A. Principal only person?
B. Accessories only A. Right against self-incrimination
C. Accomplices only B. Right to dignity
D. Principal and Accomplices only C. Right to life
D. None of them
26. Proximate cause means:
A. the motivate in committing the crime 37. Based on the components of Philippine criminal justice system, you shall
B. the unlawful intent in committing in committing the crime exclude which of the following?
C. the efficient cause uninterrupted by any supervening event without A. Public Attorney’s Office
which the result would not have occurred B. National Bureau of Investigation
D. the reason of the offender in committing the crime C. Philippine National Police
D. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
27. What is meant by the term “mens rea”?
A. No intent to commit so grave a wrong 38. Basically, law enforcement plays three roles in the criminal justice system.
B. Good faith in the commission of the crime Among the choices A, B, C and D, which of them is NOT one?
C. No malice in committing the crime A. Crime Prevention and public service
D. Unlawful intent B. Investigation of crime
C. Arrest of suspected criminal
28. Which of the following penalties under the Revised Penal Code is NOT D. Refer the case and the suspects to the office of the public prosecutor
considered afflictive? for preliminary investigation.
A. Reclusion perpetua
B. Prision mayor 39. The taking of a person into custody so that he may bound to answer for the
C. Reclusion temporal commission of an offense is legally called arrest, which has two kinds:
D. Arresto mayor 1. In flagrante delicto arrest
29. Under which of the following that the maximum duration of the convict’s 2. Arrest by virtue of a warrant
sentence shall not be more than three (3) times the length of time 3. Hot pursuit arrest
corresponding to the most severe penalties imposed upon him which 4. Arrest without warrant warrant
however shall not exceed forty (40) years? 5. Arrest of a wanted person
A. Supreme Court Ruling A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. Revised Penal Code B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1987 Constitution C. 2 and 4 only
D. Threefold rule in the service of sentence D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
30. The imposition of death penalty to heinous crimes is prohibited by which law?
40. At present, the Philippine National Police is the Philippines’ primary law
enforcement agency whose creation is mandated by the 1987 Constitution. 51. Rights of a private individuals for the purpose of securing to them the
Its character is – enjoyment of their means of happiness.
A. Uniformed A. Civil rights
B. Civil servant B. Natural rights
C. Military C. First generation rights
D. Civilian D. Constitutional rights
41. Criminals are called by different nomenclatures, in legal context, a criminal 52. Rights that enable a person to participate in running the affairs of the
is a person – government.
A. Who committed a crime A. Protective rights
B. Who underwent judicial process and found guilty B. Electoral rights
C. Who passes all the components of Criminal Justice System such as C. Legal rights
law enforcement, prosecution, courts and subsequently reintegrated to D. Political rights
the community
D. Who was found guilty of a crime and punished 53. Known as the right against discrimination is _____.
A. Aboriginal right
42. It means that human rights cannot be rightfully taken away from a free B. Right of equality
individual. C. Reproductive right
A. Inherent D. Social justice right
B. Inalienable
C. Indivisible 54. Rights of the people to be free from colonial rule and decide their own
D. Indivisible destiny. This refers to what category of human rights?
A. Right of self determination
43. A person’s human rights does not lose even if he fails to use or assert them? B. Minority group rights
Which of these? C. Reproductive rights
A. Fundamental D. Economic, social, and cultural rights
B. Imprescriptible
C. Universal 55. The PHASE in the commission of the crime is when the person is from the
D. Indivisible point of beginning or within the point where he can still decide to desist or
continue the commission of the crime is the phase.
44. Human rights are _________ because it can be enforced without national A. Objective
borders. B. Internal
A. Universal C. Subjective
B. Inherent D. External
C. Interdependent
D. Fundamental 56. The accused in criminal proceeding has in his favor the rule that criminal laws
have should be construed liberally in his favor because ____________.
45. Rights that can be abolished by the act of Congress are – A. Of the requirement of the observance of due process
A. Natural rights B. The prosecution has the burden of proof
B. Constitutional rights C. The police are presumed to performed there duty with regularity
C. Statutory rights D. The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty
D. Legal rights
57. After the decision was rendered with the trial court, the accused found new
46. It enables a citizen to participate in running the affairs of the government. evidence. What remedy should do based on the new evidence?
A. Civil rights A. File the motion for reconsideration
B. Right of suffrage B. File the motion for new trial
C. Economic and social rights C. File a notice of appeal
D. Political rights D. File a petition for certiorari
47. The following are classified as civil rights, EXCEPT – 58. The declaration of the accused acknowledging his guilt of offense charged,
A. Right to property and education or of any offense necessarily included therein is ______________.
B. Right against involuntary servitude A. Liability
C. Constitutional right of the accused B. Confession
D. Liberty of abode C. Admission
D. Responsibility
48. Civil and political rights are classified as –
A. Fourth generation rights 59. A police officer testifying in court is allowed to refer to his/her notes or
B. Third generation rights memorandum.
C. Second generation rights A. to help him in the prosecution of the case
D. First generation rights B. in order to refresh his memory
C. as it is his right as a police officer
49. Rights which the law is enforced at the instance of private individuals for the D. as his codigo and his personal record
purpose of securing to them the enjoyment of their means of happiness is
known as – 60. The constitutional limitation of the ex post facto law in the enactment of
A. Human rights criminal laws simply means that our criminal law shall applied ___________.
B. Social rights A. Retroactively
C. Economic rights B. In favor of the accused
D. Civil rights C. Prospectivity
D. In against the state
50. Which rights are classified as Second-Generation Rights which originated in
the socialist tradition and have been variously promoted by revolutionary 61. Preliminary investigation is a matter of right when the penalty for the crime is
struggles and welfare movements? _____________.
A. Political rights A. Not exceeding six years of imprisonment
B. Economic, social, and cultural rights B. Imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day regardless of
C. Right of people to development fine
D. Right to healthy environment C. Imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months, and 1 day regardless of fine
D. Less than four years of imprisonment circumstances not allowing a warrantless arrest just so to charge him for a
crime he did not commit, the crime committed is:
62. Police officer JAIMES arrested DANIEL without legal ground and without a A. Illegal arrest
warrant. JAIMES committed a crime of _______________. B. Unlawful arrest
A. Violation of domicile C. Illegal detention
B. Illegal arrest D. Incriminatory machinations
C. Arbitrary detention
D. Unlawful arrest 73. A woman of 18 years old, went to the house of her boyfriend. When the man
woke up, he was surprised to find her beside him on the bed. As they were
63. The crime committed is punishable by imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 in love with each other, they had sexual intercourse without the man
months, and 1 day. The crime was committed in metro manila or chartered promising anything to the girl. What crime was committed?
cities. Where should a complaint be filed in order to initiate criminal action? A. Abduction
A. To file the complaint directly with the municipal trial court B. Consented abduction
B. at the police station for warrantless arrest and inquest proceeding C. Seduction
C. At the prosecutor’s office for the conduct of preliminary investigation D. No crime was committed
D. To file the information directly with the Regional Trial Court
74. When a woman is kidnapped with lewd or unchaste designs, the crime
64. Which of the following is NOT secondary evidence? committed is:
A. A testimony of witness as to the contents of the original A. Forcible abduction
B. A tape-recorded recital of the contents of the original B. Illegal detention
C. A recital of the contents in the original in the authentic document C. Kidnapping
D. A copy of the original document D. Coercion
65. What is this rule in the evidence which states that when the terms of an 75. When the kidnapping is without lewd designs, the crime committed is:
agreement have been reduced to considered as containing all the terms A. Illegal detention
agreed upon and there can be between the parties and their successor in B. Forcible abduction
interest no evidence of the written agreement? C. Coercion
A. Secondary evidence D. Kidnapping
B. Best evidence rule 76. But where the offended party was forcibly taken to the house by the offender
C. Exclusionary rule to force her to marry him, the crime committed is:
D. Parol evidence rule A. Coercion
B. Forcible abduction
66. The crime committed is punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months, or C. Illegal detention
less. The crime was committed in the province. Where should the complaint D. None of the above
be filed to initiate criminal action?
A. May file the complaint directly with the Municipal Trial Court 77. X, a taxi driver, saw a bag left by one of his passengers which when he
B. At the police station for warrantless arrest and inquest proceeding opened contained valuables amounting to 20 thousand pesos. Assume that
C. May file the information directly with the Regional Trial Court he deliberately fails to return the bag and its contents to the passenger, would
D. At the prosecutor’s office for the conduct of preliminary investigation X be held liable and for what crime?
A. Yes, for theft
67. Which of the following circumstances makes the evidence incompetence? B. No crime he did not take the money by force
A. Evidence obtains in accordance with the constitution C. Yes, for qualified theft
B. Evidence obtained through third-degree method of investigation D. No crime he did not have criminal intent
C. Evidence obtains in accordance with the law or statue
D. Evidence obtains in accordance with the Rules 78. Assume that X is an honest taxi driver and is now asking you as a as to whom
shall he return the bag considering that he does not know its owner?
68. A person is lawfully arrested maybe search for anything __________. A. I will advise him to return the bag to Ben Tulfo
A. That the police at this description have deemed to be proper B. I will advise him to return the bag to the nearest police station
B. Even if not connected to the commission of an offense C. I will advise him to give the bag to me and I will give it back to the owner
C. Which may have been used or constitute for the commission of the D. I will advise him to give the bag to the mayor of the city or municipality.
offense
D. That may be ordered by the court as its discretion 79. Assume that X returned the bag to a local radio station for its safekeeping
and eventual return to the owner instead of handing it over to the proper
69. What is the purpose why independent relevant evidence is admitted by authorities. Question is X guilty of any crime?
courts? A. Yes, because the law specifically enumerates the proper person to
A. To show that a certain fact occurred, whether true or not return lost property and he failed to do this.
B. To prove to the court the allegations. B. Yes, if the local radio station failed to return the bag X is guilty as an
C. To prove that the fact is true. accomplice in the crime
D. To prove that the fact is not true C. Yes, because by returning the lost property to the media, X’s real
purpose is only to gain media exposure and not really his desire to
70. If the person arrested is not delivered to the authorities, the private individual return the bag.
making the arrest incurs criminal liability for: D. No, because there is absence of criminal intent which is an element of
A. Unlawful arrest felonies.
B. Arbitrary detention
C. Illegal detention 80. X wanted to kill Y. One night he saw Y deep in his sleep in his room. X went
D. Kidnapping out of the house, bought gasoline pour it on Y’s house and set it on fire. As
a result of the fire Y died. What crime was committed by X?
71. If the offender is a public officer is vested with power to arrest and detain and A. Arson
he detained a person without legal grounds, the crime committed is: B. Murder
A. Unlawful detention C. Arson with homicide
B. Illegal detention D. Qualified arson
C. Arbitrary detention
D. Abduction 81. Assume that X did not know that Y was inside the house. He poured gas into
Y’s house and set it on fire. His only intention was to burn the house. But
72. M arrested N without legal ground and for the purpose of delivering him to again, as earlier stated Y was inside the burning house which caused his
the proper authorities. If the arrest is made without a warrant and under death. What crime was committed by X?
A. Arson
B. Arson with homicide/qualified arson D. Murder
C. Murder
D. Technical arson 91. X (man) married Y (woman) in the Philippines. Later X went to the USA and
married Z. When Y learned of this, he filed a case against X. What crime was
82. Assume that X entered Y’s room and while the latter was sleeping, stabbed committed by X?
him to death. X in order to hide any traces of the crime decided to burn the A. Adultery
house. What crime was committed by X? B. Bigamy
A. Complex crime of murder with arson C. Concubinage
B. Heinous crime D. Immorality
C. Plain murder
D. Murder and arson 92. In the above case supposing that, X and Z took a vacation in the Philippines.
They rented a condominium unit and were always seen caressing each other
83. What crime is committed by say more than ten (10) unarmed persons who in public places. Are they liable for any crime?
gather in a meeting for the purpose of committing theft? A. Yes for bigamy
A. Conspiracy B. Yes for concubinage
B. Illegal associations C. Yes for adultery
C. No crime D. No because they are not caught having sex
D. Attempted theft
93. Let us suppose that while in the Philippines a serious misunderstanding took
84. What acts are punishable by law committed by imputing to an innocent place between X and Z. X therefore killed Z. What crime was committed by
person the commission of a crime or imputing to him things calculated to X?
blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue. A. Murder or homicide
A. Libel B. Infanticide
B. Incriminatory machinations C. Parricide
C. Slander D. Rape
D. Incriminating innocent persons
94. X is a teller of Banco Filipino Español. He received a deposit of P5000 from
85. A and B were having a heated altercation over some trivial traffic a depositor, which he pocketed instead of crediting it to the account of the
misunderstanding. The Barangay Captain who happened to pass by saw the depositor. The transaction was evidenced by an official receipt. What crime
two while they were involved in exchanging unpleasantries. The Barangay was committed by X?
Captain tried to pacify A and B, but A resented this intervention and punched A. Theft
the Brgy. Captain causing the latter to break his jaw requiring more than thirty B. Qualified theft
(30) days hospitalization and incapacity. What crime was committed by A? C. Estafa
A. Serious Physical injuries D. Malversation of public property
B. Assault upon a person in authority
C. Serious physical injuries with assault upon a person in authority 95. X a jail guard while escorting a prisoner en route to the Regional Trial Court
D. Assault upon a person in authority resulting to serious physical injuries. allowed the latter to answer the call of nature without taking precaution to
prevent his escape as indeed the prisoner escaped through the windows of
86. X was arrested by PLT Mills because the former parked his motor vehicle in the comfort room. What is the liability of the jail guard?
a no parking area. What felony was committed by PLT Mills? A. No liability as it is not required that X would even go to the extent of
A. Illegal arrest escorting the prisoner inside the comfort room, otherwise the job of a
B. Delay in the delivery of detained person jail guard would be unbearable.
C. Arbitrary detention B. No liability because he was not in conspiracy with the prisoner
D. Unlawful arrest C. Evasion of service of sentence
D. Evasion through negligence.
87. X and Y are next door neighbors. X became irritated by the constant barking
of Y’s dog so one night he shot the dog causing the dog to die. What crime 96. X (a man) forcibly grabbed Y (a woman) by the waist and dragged her to a
was committed by X? place hidden from the public view about 20 meters from the place where the
A. Homicide latter was standing. Due to Y’s constant screaming X became afraid and
B. Malicious mischief immediately ran away leaving Y alone. What crime was committed by X?
C. Murder A. Illegal detention
D. Physical injuries B. Attempted rape
C. Acts of lasciviousness
88. Supposing after killing the dog, X realized that he missed dinner that night D. Grave coercion
and that he was so hungry, so he took the dog’s carcass and cooked it and
thereafter ate it. What crime was committed by X? 97. What crime is committed by a man who would forcibly enter another person’s
A. Theft house without the knowledge of the owner but once inside, immediately and
B. Complex crime peacefully left the house the moment he was discovered by the owner of the
C. Malicious mischief house?
D. Cruelty to animals A. Attempted robbery
B. Trespass to dwelling
89. Supposing X realized after killing the dog that he could be held criminally C. Frustrated robbery
liable for his act. So, he decided to do away with the evidence of the crime. D. Qualified trespass to dwelling
He hid the gun which he used to kill the dog inside the drawer of Z another
next-door neighbor to make it appear that the gun belonged to Z. What crime 98. X became enraged with Y. X was so mad he wanted to get even with Y. On
was committed by X with respect to this latest act? the spur of the moment Y took the clothes of Y from the drawer and burned
A. Intriguing against honor them to ashes. What crime was committed by X?
B. Incriminating innocent person A. Theft
C. Libel B. Malicious mischief
D. Slander by deed C. Robbery
D. Arson
90. X is less than three (3) days old. X was killed by his own father because the
father is afraid that his real wife would discover that he (the father) had sired 99. X threatened Y that he would kill the latter if Y would not give Five hundred
X with Y. What crime was committed by the father? pesos (P500). What crime was committed by X?
A. No crime A. Grave coercion
B. Parricide B. Attempted murder
C. Infanticide C. Grave threats
D. Attempted homicide different abilities like managerial skills and technical skills. To achieve
managerial efficiency, you would also need several non-technical skills for
100. Which among the following is considered as slight physical injuries only? planning, forecasting, decision-making, process management, organization
A. Maltreatment management, coordination, and control. As postulated by HENRY FAYOL,
B. Loss of one’s reproductive organ this is known as the ______________________________ in organization
C. Loss of one’s tooth/eye management.
D. Burning the skin of another A. Administrative Management Theory
B. Scientific Management Theory
Part II: Law Enforcement Administration Area C. Classical Administration Theory
D. Bureaucratic Management Theory
1. What is referred to as the process of identifying the work to be done as well
as delegating the responsibility and authority for the purpose of establishing 9. POSDCORB is an acronym widely used in the field of management and
relationships and work efficiency. public administration that reflects the classical view of organizational theory.
A. Organization Initially, POSDCORB was envisioned to develop public service
B. Administration professionals. The elements are as follows EXCEPT:
C. Management A. Planning
D. Inter-agency coordination B. Coordinating
C. Selection
2. PLTCOL Marquez is the Chief of Police of Sariaya, Quezon. Part of his D. Budgeting
functions as a police manager involves the recognition of what police actions
need to be accomplished in his area of jurisdiction. Similarly, as COP, he is 10. The Regional Director of PRO 5 exercises command authority over the entire
also in charge of duly delegating work responsibility and the appropriate BICOL region. Being the person in command, he can develop policies for
authority. Thus, PLTCOL Marquez can establish positive inter-action regional implementation as part of his management functions. Also, he is
between the police personnel under his command, as well as create responsible for keeping the higher management well informed of the
organizational work efficiency. This refers to the process of: accomplishment of these planned policies. What is this management
________________ action/function that must be done to keep his junior officers and subordinates
A. Organization aware of the status quo?
B. Administration A. Management planning
C. Management B. Budget management
D. Unit Coordination C. Management reporting
D. Departmental memorandum
3. Refers to the activities of coordinating, controlling, and directing police
resources, activities, and personnel. 11. One management theory which concentrates on the human factor of
A. Police Organization management. It assumes two opposing stands on the supervision of
B. Police Administration subordinates. First, that people (employees) have very little ambition and
C. Police Management dislike work. The second presents a more positive view of employees at
D. Police Resources work. In terms of employee behavior, the former, states the employees need
to be coerced to satisfactorily perform while the latter assumes that people
4. Police managers shall take charge of utilizing the resources of the police do not inherently dislike work and if properly rewarded thru satisfying esteem
department towards the accomplishment of their departmental mission. and self-actualization needs, they will perform well on the job.
These tasks include overseeing and supervision of police actions, as well as A. D McGregor’s Theory X & Y
management of personnel and organizing assets to attain objectives. B. Hierarchy of needs by Abraham Maslow
A. Police Organization C. Hawthorne Effect
B. Police Administration D. None of them
C. Police Management
D. Police Resources 12. Douglas McGregor explains the importance of heightened supervision,
external rewards, and penalties as a factor in human management theory.
5. An organizational structure designed to combine the staff personnel and the The other highlights the motivating role of job satisfaction and encourages
line units. It depicts the delegation of authority in the organization and is workers to approach tasks without direct supervision. This is known as
commonly seen as a revision of the LINE organization. ________________________, following the human behavior or human
A. LINE organization relation management approach.
B. FUNCTIONAL organization A. Theory X & Y
C. LINE & STAFF organization B. Hierarchy of needs
D. None of the above C. Classical management
D. D. McGregor did not offer any theory
6. The PNP as an organization is composed of National Support Units (NSU)
such as the Headquarters Support Service (HSS) and other administrative 13. The police are the servants of the higher authorities. The Policing theory
units, as well as the operational units such as the Highway Patrol Group evolved from the necessities of autocratic government and makes the police
(HPG). These support units may have different functions, but each unit is organization the strong arm of the ruling classes.
equally important and contributes to the overall pursuits of the organization. A. Home Rule theory
This type of organizational set-up is known as _____________________? B. Continental theory
A. LINE organization C. Deviance control theory
B. FUNCTIONAL organization D. None of the above
C. LINE & STAFF organization
D. None of the above 14. Under ordinary circumstances the police cannot be prosecuted for illegal
action unless permission is obtained from the government. The police enjoy
7. What MANAGEMENT THEORY focuses on broad administrative principles the privilege of special laws administered by special courts regulating the
applicable to higher levels within the organization? It is composed of fourteen relations of public officials to private citizens. These are the characteristics of
(14) management principles and various concepts of a general theory of ________________ policing theory.
administration that can be used by top level managers. A. Home rule
A. HENRY Fayol’s Theory of Administrative Management B. Continental
B. Frederick Taylor’s Scientific Management Theory C. Deviance control
C. Bureaucracy Theory according to Max Weber D. None of the above
D. The Hierarchy of Needs of Abraham Maslow
15. The yardstick of police efficiency is based on the absence of crime. Thus, the
8. Typically, an organization is made up of various levels of management. There Police service serves as an instrument of crime prevention.
are TOP, MIDDLE, and BOTTOM level managers. As such they possess A. Modern policing concept
B. Old policing concept A. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon public
C. Continental policing concept approval of police actions.
D. Principle of crime control B. The police must strictly enforce the law and disregard public opinion.
C. The police must secure the willing cooperation of the public in voluntary
16. Antiquated philosophy where the police service is looked upon as a observance of the law to be able to secure and maintain the respect of
repressive and suppressive machinery of the government. Contrary to the the public.
modern philosophy of police service which focuses on social services and D. Police should maintain a relationship with the public that gives reality to
not just criminal apprehension and the police being an instrument of crime the historic tradition that the police are the public and the public are the
prevention. police.
A. Modern policing model
B. Old policing model 24. Republic Act No. 8551, clarifies the role of the PNP in counter-insurgency
C. Continental model functions. Specifically, in Sec. 3 (RA 8551), amending Sec. 12 of RA 6975, it
D. Community oriented policing model states that the PNP shall support the Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP)
on matters involving suppression of insurgencInformation gathering and
17. Following the Principle of unity of objectives, an organization is effective if it performance of its ordinary police functions.
enables organization members to contribute to the organization’s objectives. A. Actual involvement in armed combat against rebels on a regular basis.
On the other hand, what principle explains that the responsibility of the B. Perform the primary responsibility on matters involving the suppression
subordinates to their superior for performance is absolute and the superior of insurgency.
cannot escape responsibility for the organization on activities performed by C. The PNP shall only deal with serious threats to national security.
their subordinates.
A. Principle of absoluteness of responsibility 25. Uniformed personnel of the Philippine National Police (PNP) shall be entitled
B. Principle of parity of authority and responsibility to a LONGEVITY PAY of how many percent of their basic monthly salary for
C. Scalar Principle every five (5) years of service?
D. Principle of organizational efficiency A. Ten (10) percent of base pay.
B. Ten (10) percent of the total of base pay and allowances.
18. A subordinate police officer is completely responsible to his superior officer. C. Ten (10) percent of allowances less the base pay.
In the same manner, a superior officer is entirely responsible to organization. D. Noe of the above
Therefore, a Municipal COP as an example is accountable for the actions of
his unit commanders. Correspondingly, these same commanders become 26. Any PNP member designated to any key position whose rank is lower than
responsible for the actions of their respective line level personnel. Therefore, that which is required for such position after 6 months of occupying the same
what is this principle that clarifies these channels of responsibility? be entitled to promotion (provided the personnel to be promoted is qualified
A. Principle of absoluteness of responsibility for the available position).
B. Principle of parity of authority and responsibility A. PNP Regular promotion
C. Scalar Principle B. Special promotion
D. Principle of organizational efficiency C. By virtue of position promotion
D. Promotion from the ranks
19. Those that are carried out by the line personnel such as patrol, traffic and
investigation and carries out the purposes of the Police Department. Such 27. What DIVISION assist and advises the C, PNP on the employment of
units deal directly and inter-act with the community. financial resources and CONTROL OF FUNDS and budgeting, as well as
A. Police staff functions managing the financial affairs of the PNP?
B. Police line functions A. Directorate for Plans (DP)
C. Auxiliary functions B. Directorate for Comptrollership (DC)
D. All the above C. Directorate for Logistics (DL)
D. None of them
20. Pipoy, a notorious holdaper in Quiapo is eyeing a student talking on his
Iphone while waiting for the jeepney, however, Patrolman Enteng was 28. A kind of retirement given to PNP uniformed personnel upon reaching the
detailed near the terminal with his buddy. Pipoy’s desire to do his plan is age of fifty-six (56) years old.
present, but with the sight of the police officers, Pipoy lacks ____________. A. Optional retirement
A. Intention B. Forced retirement
B. Motive C. Compulsory retirement
C. Proper plan D. Retirement due to old age
D. Opportunity
29. The age, height, weight, and educational (formerly included) before the
21. One of the key elements followed in a Police Organization describing the enactment of RA 8551 requirements for initial appointment to the PNP may
limitation of a given position of leadership in terms of the actual number of be waived only when:
subordinate employees he/she can effectively handle or supervise. The A. There are enough applicants applying for the waiver program in
resulting situation (element) will facilitate the delegation of some of the power NAPOLCOM.
of the superior officer to an officer of a junior rank. B. The number of qualified applicants fall below the minimum annual
A. Delegation of authority quota.
B. Unity of command C. When the number of qualified applicants is sufficient.
C. Scalar principle D. Not applicable. A waiver can be applied for by a disqualified applicant
D. Span of control anytime.
22. A division acts as a subdivision of the ______________, which is described 30. Following the rules on appointment if the appointment of a PNP applicant is
as the largest functional unit within a department. under the waiver program then it is considered as?
A. Bureau A. Permanent appointment
B. Section B. Interim appointment
C. Unit C. Temporary appointment
D. Division D. All appointments are the same.
23. Sir Robert Peel is recognized as the “Father of Modern Policing System”. He 31. In terms of appointment of personnel, the appointment of Police Lieutenants
organized the “Metropolitan Police” through the enactment of Metropolitan (PLT) to Police Lieutenant Colonel (PLCOL) is given by whom?
Police Act of 1829. The result changed the focus of policing efforts. It shifted A. PNP Regional Directors
from reactive policing to proactive policing approach. The KEY principle B. The Chief of the PNP
revolves around the premise of CRIME PREVENTION and COMMUNITY C. NAPOLCOM
INVOLVEMENT. All but one follows what is now known as the Peelian D. DILG
Policing Principles.
32. On average nationwide, the MANNING LEVELS of the PNP shall be 41. Local chief executives such as the city and municipal mayors shall have the
approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of? following authority over the PNP units in their respective jurisdictions. One
A. 1:500 such power is the authority to choose the chief of police (COP) from a list of
B. 1:1000 ______________ eligibles recommended by the Provincial Director (PD),
C. 1:1500 preferably from the same province, city, or municipality.
D. Not applicable in nationwide level A. Two (2) eligibles
B. Three (3) eligibles
33. The process by which an individual police officer who is recruited into the C. Five (5) eligibles
service receives formal instruction on the job for special and defined purpose D. One (1) eligible provided he/she is recommended by the C, PNP
and performs actual job functions with periodic appraisal on his performance
and progress. 42. Compared to the staffing pattern of the PNP, the head of the Fire Bureau is
A. Basic recruit training given the rank of Fire Director and shall be duly referred to as the
B. In-service training __________________ (as for the position title)?
C. Field training program A. National Fire Marshall
D. Roll call training B. Chief of the Fire Bureau (C, BFP)
C. Director of the Fire Bureau (D, BFP)
34. Total Permanent Physical Disability refers to any IMPAIRMENT OF THE D. None of the above
BODY which renders PNP member indefinitely incapable of substantially
performing the mandated duties and functions of his positions. If this 43. Upon the effectiveness of RA 6975, the DILG shall consist of the
happens, he or she is given how many percent of his or her salary as DEPARTMENT PROPER, the NAPOLCOM, the PPSC, and the following
pension? bureaus: PNP, BFP and the BJMP. The department properly serves as the
A. One (1) year salary of the disabled PNP personnel official office of the SILG. In the performance of his functions, he is duly
B. Guaranteed five (5) year’s period depending on rank assisted by undersecretaries and assistant secretaries, respectively.
C. Eighty (80) percent of the last salary held regardless of rank Specifically, the SILG is assisted by two (2) Undersecretaries, one for local
D. Fifty (50) percent of the base of the retired grade government and the other one is for ___________________?
A. Law and order
35. Formal administrative DISCIPLINARY MACHINERY of the NAPOLCOM B. Law enforcement
tasked to hear cases on APPEAL from decisions rendered by the Internal C. Public order
Affairs Service and the C, PNP. D. Peace and order
A. National Appellate Board
B. Regional Appellate Board 44. The National Police Commission is the agency mandated by the Constitution
C. PNP Appellate Board and the major police reform laws, Republic Act Nos. 6975 and 8551 to
D. NAPOLCOM Appellate Board administer and control the Philippine National Police. Exercise
ADMINISTRATIVE CONTROL and operational supervision over the
36. Can investigate cases filed against PNP members through MOTU PROPIO, Philippine National Police (PNP) which shall mean the power to, EXCEPT:
or complaints, and provide documents or recommendations as regards to the A. Develop policies and promulgate a police manual prescribing rules and
promotion of the members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP personnel regulations for efficient organization, administration, and operation.
to any key position. B. Affirm, reverse, or modify, through the National Appellate Board,
A. National Appellate Board of NAPOLCOM personnel administrative actions involving the demotion or dismissal
B. PNP Internal Affairs Service (PNP-IAS) from the service by the Chief, PNP.
C. Civil Service Commission (CSC) C. Monitor and investigate crimes other than police anomalies and
D. All the above irregularities.
D. Conduct of qualifying entrance and promotional examinations for
37. What refers to the reduction of police personnel through leave, resignation, uniformed members.
or retirement?
A. Uniformed personnel Promotion system 45. The NAPOLCOM as a collegial body is composed of an Ex-officio Member
B. PNP attrition system (the DILG Secretary), four regular Commissioners (1 Woman, 2 from Law
C. Demotion Enforcement sector, and 1 from the Civilian sector) and the Chief, PNP as
D. Compulsory retirement Executive Officer, one of whom will be designated by the President as the
Vice-chairperson.
38. A strict chain of command is followed by the Philippine National Police (PNP). A. The stated composition is CORRECT.
At the very top of the police organization, the COMMAND GROUP exists. B. The stated composition is INCORRECT.
The Deputy Chief PNP for OPERATIONS (TDCO) acts as the C. There are no Ex-officio members of NAPOLCOM.
_________________ in terms of hierarchy of authority. D. None of the above
A. Second (2nd) man in command
B. Third (3rd) man in command 46. The National Bureau of Investigation or NBI is a law enforcement agency
C. Fourth (4th) man in command under the ________________________, and is headed by a Director
D. There is no such rule. appointed by the President, and shall have the rank, salary, and benefits
equivalent to that of an _____________________?
39. Who among the following has the power to summarily dismiss a uniformed A. Department of Justice / Secretary
PNP personnel? B. Department of Justice / Assistant Secretary
A. NAPOLCOM C. Department of Justice / Undersecretary
B. PNP Chief D. None of the above
C. PNP Regional Directors
D. Any of them 47. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency or PDEA serves as the
________________________ of the Dangerous Drug Board (DDB) and shall
40. Upon the filing of a complaint or information sufficient in form and substance be responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of all the
against a member of the PNP for grave felonies where the penalty imposed provisions on any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential
by law is six (6) years and one (1) day or more, the court shall immediately chemical as provided in RA 9165.
suspend the accused from office for a period not exceeding A. Policy making body
_____________________ from arraignment. B. Face of the department
A. Not exceeding Thirty (30) days C. Think tank Division
B. Maximum of Sixty (60) days D. Implementing arm
C. Not exceeding ninety (90) days
D. There is no fixed amount of time. 48. According to RA 9165 or the Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act, the
Dangerous Drug Board or DDB shall be a policymaking and strategy-
formulating body. This means, it is vested of the following tasks, EXCEPT:
A. Planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug development, societies were primitive in terms of laws, policing, and
prevention and control. punishment. The punishment meted out was ruthless and cruel by this kind
B. Development and adoption of a comprehensive, integrated, of civilization.
unified and balanced national drug abuse prevention and A. Folk communal society
control strategy. B. Bureaucratic society
C. Implementation of the pertinent provisions of the drug law, C. Post-industrial
such as Sec. 5 (provision on drug pushing), Sec. 11 D. None of the above
(provision on drug possession), and such other relevant
provisions as stated in RA 9165. 57. A court system developed where two lawyers represent their positions before
D. All are correct. an impartial person or group of people, usually a jury or judge, who attempt
to determine the truth of the case. Under this system, both parties are
49. The President of the Philippines is the Head of State and Head of afforded the right to seek a lawyer to represent them, and each side is
Government. He functions as the ______________________ of the Armed provided with an equal opportunity to present their arguments and evidence
Forces of the Philippines (AFP). in court.
A. Chief of Staff of the Armed Forces of the Philippines A. Bureaucratic system
B. Ex-Officio Chairman of the AFP B. Inquisitorial system
C. Commander in Chief of the armed forces C. Advocate system
D. The president is not a uniformed personnel D. Continental system
50. Strictly rules-based with a preference for order and a sometimes military-like 58. The law system is contained in a body of unwritten laws based on legal
approach. In such organizations, the leader exerts full control over the team precedents established by the courts. It influences the decision-making
and subordinates are expected to simply follow and obey, not to offer process in unusual cases where the outcome cannot be determined based
feedback or contribute ideas. on existing statutes or written rules of law. Also referred to as the “Anglo-
A. Authoritarian American” justice.
B. Democratic A. Adversarial system
C. Free rein (laissez faire) B. Continental law system
D. Motivational C. Inquisitorial system
D. Common law system
51. The COGNITIVE process in obtaining sound JUDGMENT from several
courses of actions is referred to as ______________? 59. Police system in a federal, union, or other similar form of political
A. Management planning arrangement. The operational control, management, and supervision of the
B. Goal setting police agencies or law enforcement agencies is the exclusive responsibility
C. Decision making of the governments of the states or provinces.
D. None of the above A. Centralized law enforcement system
B. Semi-centralized law enforcement system
52. Policies, procedures, rules, and regulations of the organization are based on C. Decentralized law enforcement system
the statement of __________________. One of the four (4) primal conditions D. None of the above
of a Police organization. It provides for the organization’s objectives and
actions. 60. An international agreement in which a country agrees, at the request of
A. Authority another country and under specified conditions, to turn over persons who are
B. Cooperation within its jurisdiction and who are charged with crimes against, or are
C. Doctrine fugitives from, the requesting country.
D. Discipline A. Bi-lateral agreements on fugitives
B. INTERPOL Red Notice
53. These are crimes defined by the United Nations (UN) as crimes whose C. Extradition Treaty
inception, proportion and/or direct or indirect effects involve more than one D. International mutual aid
country.
A. Globalized crimes 61. Considered as the lifeblood of INTERPOL, contributing to its criminal
B. International crimes databases, and cooperating on cross-border investigations, operations, and
C. Transnational crimes arrests. Such agencies link the national police force of the member country
D. All the above to the global network of INTERPOL.
A. INTERPOL General Secretariat
54. A comparative policing method designed to immerse the police researcher B. Executive Committee of the INTERPOL
with the policing methodologies and systems in an actual environment. It C. National Central Bureau or NCB
involves more than mere inference but rather entails physical presence. D. Option A and B are both correct.
Therefore, resulting observation is based on the personal experiences of the
observer (Police Researcher). The method demands a hands-on approach 62. An organization created by the Association of Southeast Asian Nations that
to comparative policing study. deals with the preventive, enforcement, and operational aspects of
A. HISTORICAL technique cooperation against transnational crime. As a regional police organization in
B. COLLABORATIVE process Asia, it is actively involved in sharing knowledge and expertise on policing,
C. SAFARI method enforcement, law, criminal justice, and transnational and international
D. None of the above crimes.
A. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
55. Comparative Policing Studies involves various THEORIES. It explains why B. European Union Agency for Law Enforcement (EUROPOL)
there are differences in police systems and because of the study, a country C. ASEAN Chiefs of National Police (ASEANAPOL)
can replicate or model its policing system from another country because of D. United Nations Police (UN)
situation similarity or dissimilarity. All but one of the below stated theories
focuses on the societal development, higher standards of living, and the 63. Japan and Switzerland are considered MODEL countries in the field of
continuing modernization of a model nation. Comparative Policing studies. Switzerland became famous for its tagline,
A. Alertness to crime theory “there is no crime in Switzerland”. Comparably, Japan’s low crime rate (stable
B. Modernization theory and resistant to fluctuation), is strongly attributed to?
C. Opportunity theory A. A strong Patriarchal Family system.
D. Theory of Anomie B. Police focus on community policing through police boxes or
KOBANS.
56. The development of current policing systems was greatly due to the C. Having a “shame based” type of culture in society.
development of societies. Modern society now has a system of laws, police D. All the above
organizations, and numerous punishment systems. However, before this
64. A permit issued by the Chief, PNP or his duly authorized representative, of hazard possibility because of the presence of security weaknesses due to
recognizing a natural person to be qualified to perform the duties as security facility location, proximity to police stations, and crime situation. Thus, the
professional or training personnel. facility becomes more susceptible to attack.
A. License to operate (LTO) A. Relative criticality
B. Security Professional Certificate B. Relative risk
C. License to exercise security profession (LESP) C. Relative vulnerability
D. Pre-licensing training program (PLTP) D. All the above
65. The most current security law allows any Filipino citizen or a juridical entity 73. Employee No. 1 is a known “loner” in his office, an introvert. Employee No. 2
to organize a private security agency and provide security services, provided is the “company clown”, an extrovert. Either one can be a prospective
the agency is owned and controlled by? PILFERER given the unexpected opportunity. How do you categorize such
A. The agency is composed 60% Filipino and only 40% foreign activity where the theft committed was due to a pre-determined plan?
nationals. A. Casual pilfering
B. It is not mandated by all, provided MAJORITY shares is B. Shop lifting
owned by Filipinos. C. Systematic pilfering
C. The ownership and control must be 100% Filipino citizens. D. The act becomes robbery instead of theft.
D. The new security law did not specify ownership and control
provisions. 74. Training or seminar given to employees (especially new hires) of an
installation by means of lecture and other methods (virtual, face to face, or
66. Under RA 11917 (latest security law), A PSA shall be entitled to possess even both) pertaining to measures and safeguards to be taken to protect the
firearms after having successfully passed the requirements prescribed by the interest of the installation against loss, damage, sabotage, pilferage, and
Chief PNP and in accordance with Republic Act No. 10591. Provided, a PSA other attacks.
shall only be allowed to possess small arms, not exceeding, how many A. Pre-licensing training programs
number of firearms? B. Refresher training programs
A. One (1) firearm for every two (2) security professional C. Security education programs
B. Two (2) firearms for every single security professional D. All the above
C. Not exceeding one (1) firearm for each security professional
D. Not exceeding two (2) firearms for each security 75. Known as a fact-finding probe to determine security hazards. It is a security
professional process of conducting an exhaustive physical examination and thorough
inspection of all operation system and procedures of a facility.
67. In security planning, the use of a series of defensive mechanisms layered to A. Hazard mitigation and control
protect the facility covers the CONCEPT of DEFENSE in DEPTH. This B. Security Audit
security concept entails the idea or notion that: C. Security Inspection
A. Security planners must focus on strengthening the security D. Security survey
of a facility to protect it against attack.
B. Security managers must think of means of reducing the risk 76. These can be rivers, cliffs, dense growth, or other terrain difficult to
of loss from the occurrence of any undesirable event. overcome. It may also be fences, walls, grills, doors, screens, or roadblocks.
C. The gist of the concept is “where one mechanism fails, the Any structural or physical device capable of restricting, delaying, deterring
other steps up to impede the attack.” illegal access to an installation is deemed as such.
D. All the above A. Natural barriers
B. Lines of security defense
68. Considered as the most fundamental aspect of protection. It involves the use C. Barriers
of physical controls to protect life and assets. It also contributes to the D. Perimeter fences
protection of information and people and serves as the BASELINE of security
measures. 77. A type of perimeter security control mechanism that denies the intruder the
A. Physical security opportunity of being familiar with the activities of the facility. Its purpose is to
B. Personnel security deny the intruder of visual access to the secured facility. However, as a
C. Operational security disadvantage, it does the same for the security personnel.
D. Physical Lines of Defenses A. Guard control station
B. Solid fence
69. Management field related to asset management, physical security, and C. Barrier
human resource safety functions. It includes repetitive and systematic, D. Full-view fence
interconnected activities designed to ensure safe operation and involves the
proper utilization of resources within the organization to ensure 78. What is a device (mechanical or electrical) capable of warning occupants, as
accomplishment. well as the security detail, of danger by means of audio and visual signal. It
A. Security Planning contains a triggering mechanism that activates the distress signal.
B. Security Design A. Alarm sensor
C. Risk Management B. Panic button
D. Security Management C. Alarm
D. Security control panel
70. Field of management in security that focuses on risk reduction and analysis.
It uses various methods and techniques of risk prevention designed to 79. Security is designed to prevent unsuitable individuals from gaining access to
eliminate already existing or future factors which may increase risks. classified matter or to any security facility, and to prevent appointment, or
A. Security management retention. Included in this classification are the conduct of CHECKS of the
B. Risk management background of employees corresponding to the security requirements of their
C. Security planning work.
D. Risk planning A. Positive vetting
B. Background interview/interrogation
71. Referred to as any act or condition which may result in the compromise of C. Personnel security
information, loss of life, loss or destruction of property or disruption of the D. Employee Lifestyle check
objectives of the installation.
A. Security hazards 80. What document classification pertains to information and material that should
B. Security violations not be published or NOT COMMUNICATED to anyone except for official
C. Man-made hazards purposes? Such documents include but is not limited to Organizational
D. None of them communication and Training documents like manuals of operation.
72. The extent and degree of hazards to security is dependent on the following: A. Top secret
CRITICALITY and VULNERABILITY. Which results in a heightened degree B. Confidential
C. Secret D. Operational plans
D. Restricted
90. Products of police operational planning adopted by the police organization to
81. In security management, personnel movement control is essential. guide the police officers in the conduct of their duties and functions,
Therefore, the use of PASS control system is utilized in virtually all especially during field operations.
companies regardless of the type of industry. The pass system involves the A. Manual or regulations
use of badges or passes in coordination with barriers to work. One such B. Implementing rules and regulations
system requires that an exchange takes place at the entrance of a controlled C. Duty manual
area. D. Standard operating procedures
A. Single pass system
B. Multiple pass system 91. Plans that shall map out in advance all operations involved in the
C. Pass exchange system organization management. It includes formulation of the police department’s
D. Biometrics system goals and policies, authority and responsibilities, allocation of resources, and
personnel management.
82. Management function is concerned with visualizing future situations, making A. Administrative plans
estimates concerning them, identifying issues, needs and potential danger B. Budget planning
points, analyzing and evaluating the alternative ways and means for reaching C. Policy plans
desired goals. D. Operational planning
A. Organizing
B. Administration 92. The foremost conceptual model of problem solving in modern police
C. Planning departments. The model was developed out of problem-oriented policing
D. Directing approaches. This model is depicted in an acronym and has become the basis
for many police agencies’ training curricula and problem-solving efforts.
83. The primordial consideration in planning is ________________. These are A. The STANDARD model
general statements of intention and typically with time horizon, or it is an B. The COPS model
achievable end state that can be measured and observed. C. The SARA model
A. Goals D. The POP model
B. Objectives
C. Strategy 93. Following the conceptual model in modern day police organizations, the
D. Tactics SARA process was developed. It is a specific planning process that deals
with problem solving. The acronym stands for each of the specific problem-
84. These are seen as products of prudence in the management of human solving processes. Example: S stands for Scanning. This is where planning
affairs. Also, a plan of action which could be a program of actions adopted managers look for problems in the department and the community.
by an individual or group. Correspondingly, “A” stands for _____________________ which means
A. Guidelines discovering the impacts of the offered solution and considered as the
B. Procedures evaluation phase/stage of the SARA process.
C. Protocols A. Analysis
D. Policy B. Assessment
C. Appraisal
85. The following are the given characteristics of a GOOD plan, EXCEPT: D. Advocacy
A. The plan must be simple and not allow flexibility.
B. Economy in terms of Resources needed for implementation. 94. Still in conjunction with the SARA MODEL, what phase/stage involves the
C. With clearly defined Objectives or Goals. help of other government agencies, private organizations and other business
D. Must provide Standard of Operation. or private individuals. This phase can focus on the victim, on the offender,
the environment or all three. It is simply the proposed answer to the identified
86. The C, PNP and other chiefs of the different units or headquarters within their issues.
area of jurisdiction to achieve the objectives or mission of the police A. Scanning
organization must understand, accept, and duly perform this management B. Appraisal
planning responsibility. C. Response
A. Fiscal planning responsibility D. Reaction
B. External policy planning responsibility
C. Goal and strategy planning responsibility 95. A term used in modern policing to refer to the process of conducting spatial
D. Internal policy planning responsibility analysis within an area. The process allows the police department to
determine areas with high crime frequency and intensity. Places with crime
87. The basic philosophy of this planning approach is the inclusion of the people problems and other police-related issues are also identified.
in the decision making of the planning process for whom the plan is being A. Crime analysis
produced. The people who are to be affected by the plan are interacted with B. Crime survey
by way of dialogues or field surveys. C. Crime solution efficiency
A. Synoptic D. Crime mapping
B. Incremental
C. Transactive 96. The use of crime mapping (Traditional) involves the utilization of certain
D. Advocacy elements, such as: Legend, crime clock and what type of MAP?
A. Physical map
88. Organizational doctrines that define the fundamental principles of governing B. Digital map
the rules of conduct, behavior, and attitude, as well as the ethical norms of C. Small map
the police organization. D. Any type of map
A. Fundamental doctrines
B. Complimentary doctrines 97. The following are the three (3) main functions of crime mapping:
C. Operational doctrines 1. It facilitates visual and statistical analyses of the spatial nature of
D. Ethical doctrines crime and other types of events.
2. It allows analysts to link unlike data sources together based on
89. Plan classification that addresses immediate (work) needs which are specific common geographic variables (e.g., linking census information,
and how it can be accomplished on time with available allocated resources. school information, and crime data for a common area).
Applicable for one week or less than year duration. 3. It provides maps that help to communicate analysis results.
A. Strategic plans
B. Tactical plans Out of the three (3) main functions, which function allows the police
C. Intermediate plans officer to compare different information such as the location of police
stations and barangay halls, and the actual locations of crime B. Recruited Informants
incidents? C. Casual Informants
A. Option NO. 1 D. Agent Informants
B. Option NO. 2
C. Option NO. 3 5. A type of surveillance wherein it employs general impression of the subject’s
D. All the above habit and associates are required.
A. Loose Tail Surveillance
98. Crime mapping is a very important tool in managing and controlling crime in B. Close Tail Surveillance
an area. Investigators can understand the crime patterns and trends it also C. Rough Shadowing
helps in resource allocation and in geographic profiling of criminals. This D. Open Surveillance
MEANS?
A. The HEAD of the local police can direct more police 6. It is the process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting, and getting vital
elements in a particular area and time without worry of crime information/facts/circumstances to establish the truth.
displacement. A. Investigation
B. The COP can choose when and where to deploy the Patrol B. Custodial Investigation
personnel as he can easily observe places with high (crime) C. Intelligence
frequency and intensity. D. Data Gathering
C. OPTION A and B are both correct.
D. Only OPTION A is correct. 7. Pontiveros is assigned in the investigation of a shooting incident, wherein
several fired empty shells are found at the crime scene to be used as
99. Law enforcement function that involves systematic analysis for identifying evidence. Where should PCpl. Pontiveros marked the fired empty shell?
and analyzing patterns and trends (days, time, victim age and gender, etc.) A. Near inside/outside open mouth
in crime. Such information on patterns can help law enforcement agencies B. Side or body
deploy resources in a more effective manner and assist detectives in C. Both A and B
identifying and apprehending suspects. D. None of the above, because it should be in Ogive/Nose and Base
A. Crime analysis
B. Crime Rate 8. For competent investigator, it is the key to freedom from bondage of
C. Crime mapping ignorance.
D. Crime Solution efficiency A. Training
B. Technique
100. Involves the use of crime mapping to identify immediate patterns for crimes C. Tools
such as theft cases, robbery, snatching, Hold-up incidents and the like. It D. Principle
assists the law enforcement agency in the area in providing speedy police
response and citizen assistance. 9. What should be the investigator attitude upon the end of the interview?
A. Tactical crime analysis A. Leave the subject as if nothing’s happened
B. Strategic crime analysis B. Stare at the subject from head to foot
C. Administrative crime analysis C. Thanks the subject for his cooperation
D. None of them D. Vacant the place of interview
Part III: Crime Detection and Investigation Area 10. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in
describing events of the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and
1. This report was usually prepared by Duty Desk Officer, the purpose of this is serves to convince the judge that the accused was not maltreated nor
to provide a brief, informative summary of the nature and important event in affected by sinister psychological influence.
the case. A. Mental reconstruction
A. Synopsis B. Crime reenactment
B. Conclusion C. Reconstruction
C. Follow-up Report D. Physical reconstruction
D. Recommendation
11. In conducting interrogation of the suspect, what is the principal psychological
2. PSMS Reyes is examining a crime scene, wherein a student sustained a factor that will help you to a successful interrogation?
gunshot wound at his back, but the wounding firearm is near his hand. Based A. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting
on the facts situated, what will be you conclusion? B. Interrogation conducted in privacy
A. It is a suicide C. Public interrogation of the suspect
B. It is homicidal D. Interrogation laced with threats
C. It is accidental
D. It is euthanasia 12. Which of the following is NOT on the modes of identifying the suspect?
A. Taking of a confession or admission
3. Miguel T. Paul was invited by the police and subjected him into interrogation, B. Through the existence of circumstantial evidence
during the custodial investigation the police officer appraised him of his rights C. Interviewing the witnesses
under Republic Act 7438. Miguel T. Paul executed an extra-judicial D. Evidence establishing corpus delicti
confession acknowledging his guilt to the crime charge. What are the
requirements needed for extra-judicial confession be admissible as evidence 13. As the investigator on case, the physical evidence found at the crime scene
in court? is BEST describe as those that ________.
1. It must be taken under oath in the presence of his counsel A. Should be of interest to the scene of the crime operatives
2. Confession be reduced into writing, in a particular dialect known B. Can be perceived by senses
to the confessant himself C. Are composed of matters
3. Such confession must be given voluntarily D. Can explain what actually have happened in a crime
4. The same must be signed by the confessant or otherwise thumb
marked 14. You observed in the suspect the following: sweating, color change, dry
A. 1, 2 and 3 mouth, pulse, and breathing. In your analysis, what does this manifest?
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. It manifests sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt
C. 1 and 3 B. It can be expression of embarrassment
D. 1, 3 and 4 C. It manifests psychological symptoms of guilt
D. It can be considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt.
4. This type of informants is obligated to furnish information because of their
official positions. 15. A crime may generate evidence in the form of physical objects, to make
A. Automatic Informants effective use of articles found at the scene the investigator must ________.
A. Preserve its physical and legal integrity B. Verbal warning
B. All of them C. Written warning
C. Recognize and collect them D. Oral warning
D. Evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand
27. Training road users to avoid and prevent traffic accident is part of _________.
16. They are the one who makes arrangement for the killing and injuring A. Traffic safety campaign
(physically, economically, and psychologically) the member or non-member B. Traffic safety education
of a family. C. Safe coercion
A. Enforcer D. Traffic Enforcement Section
B. Fixer
C. Corruptee 28. Which of the following is the BEST reason why the concept of TRAFFIC
D. Caporegime ECONOMY is included as one of the pillars of traffic management?
17. The following are members of Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) in the A. Because traffic is a national daily problem which affect the Filipino
Philippines, EXCEPT: people.
A. The Governor of the Banko Sentral ng Pilipinas B. Because traffic directly and indirectly affects our national economy.
B. The Chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Commission C. Because traffic influences the transport and delivery of goods and
C. Commissioner of the Insurance Commission services
D. Secretary of Department of the Interior and Local Government D. Because traffic is expensive for those caught in it.
18. What is this process of changing the bulk of cash coming from illicit activities
into portable form and into the mainstream financial institution? 29. What is this method of traffic education that from the start already involves
A. Layering the student in a real-life driving situation?
B. Integration A. Simulated condition
C. Placement B. Comprehensive method
D. Conversion C. Outcome base method
19. 19. The following are possibilities on what can happen to the bullet upon entry D. Traditional instruction
into the body, EXCEPT ______.
A. Either shatter and fragment 30. This circumstance is usually caused by factors such as, vehicular accident,
B. Ricochet off bone stalled vehicle, absence of traffic enforcer and road construction.
C. Maybe ineffective A. Traffic
D. Shift location away from the entry path or exit B. Traffic Jam
20. The following are attributes of organized criminal group EXCEPT that it is C. Bottle Neck
_______. D. Gridlock
A. Dominating, witty, influential, and generous contributor to the church,
politician, etc…. 31. It is an event in vehicular accident wherein the traffic units involved come to
B. Monopolistic, governed by rules and regulations and has rest and usually stabilizes the accident situation.
specialization/division of labor A. Stopping
C. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in bribery and constitutes a B. Injury
unique subculture. C. Disengagement
D. Non-ideological, hierarchical, and exclusive membership D. Start of evasive action
21. What is the prescriptive period of the crime of syndicated or large-scale 32. It is any person using a traffic way for travel, parking, or other purposes as a
human trafficking? pedestrian or driver, including any vehicle or animal.
A. 40 years A. Hazard
B. 10 years B. License Driver
C. 20 years C. Pedestrian
D. 15 years D. Traffic Unit
22. The Pakistan TV station or channel which is responsible in the network 33. Whenever signs are seen intended to inform road users of special obligation,
coverage during Operation Neptune Spear against Osama Bin Laden. instructions, or prohibitions which motorists must comply, the purpose is
A. Alto Broadcasting System and Chronicle Broadcasting Network _______.
B. Al Jazeera A. Place identification
C. Global Media Arts Station B. Bus and jeepney stop
D. Cable News Netwok or CNN C. Regulatory
D. Danger warning
23. A category of terrorist organization which is aimed at establishing a dominant
or superior race that will be looked upon by the entire populace in the world. 34. Two vehicles approach an intersection at approximately the same time, the
A. Ethnocentric Terrorism vehicle ________ should give the right of way.
B. Revolutionary Terrorism A. Coming from the left
C. Political Terrorism B. Coming from the center
D. Nationalistics C. Coming from the right
24. A continuing illegal activity of group three or more person which is primarily D. One which arrives first
concerned with the generation of profits, irrespective of national boundaries
because of globalization. 35. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to
A. Transnational Organized Crime provide pedestrians with safety zone when crossing:
B. Transnational Crime A. Center
C. Organized Criminal Group B. Cross walk
D. NONE C. Lane
25. Conceptualized in the 1920's and had its initial headquarters in Vienna. This D. Stop lines
organization was established to promote international criminal police
cooperation. 36. The ______________ shall designate special courts from among the existing
A. International Criminal Police Commission RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and hear cases involving
B. International Criminal Police Organization violation of RA 9165.
C. International Association of the Chiefs of Police A. DOJ
D. Asian National Police B. Supreme Court
26. This traffic warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation C. DDB
but are more importantly occupied at a moment. D. Sandiganbayan
A. Visual warning
37. A person who is applying for Professional Driver’s license is required to B. Abatement
undergo Mandatory Drug Testing. C. Ventilation
A. True D. Combustion
B. False
C. Partially True 47. A complete and detailed checked of the structures and materials involved in
D. Partially False the fire to make sure that every spark and ember has been extinguished and
to have assurance against rekindling.
38. Mr. Tini Gasan after a prolonged usage of drugs, cannot function without A. Overhaul
drugs in his system and if he does not take drugs, he develops withdrawal B. Rescue
signs such as restlessness, pain, or convulsions. C. Salvage
A. Physically dependent on drugs D. None
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs 48. Fire Officer Reyes after search in the area found a burned body and later
D. Socially dependent on drugs subjected to autopsy; however, after examination of lungs and blood it
showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be
39. Rommel Ramirez, sensing that their group will be captured by the anti- drug your interpretation under such circumstance?
operation of PDEA. He placed inside the lady’s pants a sachet of shabu. If A. The person died because of asphyxia
proven to have “planted” a Shabu, what will be his penalty under existing B. The person died because of the burning
laws on drugs? C. The person was killed before it was burned
A. Life Imprisonment D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
B. Death
C. Reclusion Perpetua 49. Which of the following is NOT a special aggravating circumstances in arson?
D. Reclusion Temporal A. If committed for the benefit of another.
B. If committed with intent to gain.
40. Selling, distributing, supplying, or transporting of legitimately imported, in- C. If spite or hatred is the motive behind it.
transit, manufactured or procured controlled precursors and essential D. If committed by insane person.
chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking 50. What will happen when one or more electrical appliances or device which
B. Chemical diversion draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
C. Sale existing electrical system?
D. Chemical smuggling A. Overheating
B. Electric meter
41. Only a physician can prescribe a medicinal drug. The practice of taking drugs C. Consumption
without proper medicinal supervision is called non-medical use of drugs or D. Overloading
___________.
A. Drug misuse 51. What is the evidence that has a mass and occupies space?
B. Drug Misadministration A. Physical
C. Drug abuse B. Testimonial
D. Drug addiction C. Circumstantial
D. Hearsay
42. According to Section 36 of RA 9165, the following are mandated to undergo
a mandatory drug testing, except: 52. Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be difficult for drug addicts to
A. Applicant for firearms license and for the permit to carry firearms A. Be happy and feel good
outside residence. B. Sustain their habit of drug abuse
B. All persons charge before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense C. Undergo rehabilitation
having an impossible penalty of less than six (6) years and one (1) day. D. Have easy access to illegal drugs
C. Officers and members of the military, police, and other law enforcement
agencies 53. Deaths resulting from asphyxia are due to
D. Officers and employee of public and private offices A. Sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen intake
B. Sudden or gradual loss of perspiration
43. Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent before an arrest person C. The hardening and clotting of the blood
may be required undergo a laboratory examination within 24 hours D. Lack of platelets in the blood
A. The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug abuse
B. There is a clear showing that the suspect was under the influence of 54. Which of the following is the objective of traffic engineering to achieve
drugs efficient, free, and rapid flow of traffic?
C. The person is showing physical sign of drug abuse A. So that the motorist and other road users can avoid traffic accidents
D. The person is showing psychological drug addiction B. All of these
C. So that the motorist and other road users will have an enjoyable
44. This method of therapy on alcoholism seeks to create an aversion from convenient ride
alcohol by administration of a nauseating drugs in a drinking liquor which D. So that the motorist and other road users can reach their destination
develops a dislike in alcohol. safely and on time
A. Aversion Treatment
B. Psychotherapy method 55. Which of the following is the BEST reason why biorhythm is an important
C. Program of alcoholics anonymous aspect of traffic safety so that the person can avoid accidents
D. Alcohol therapy A. Knows his physical capacity on the certain day
B. Knows his intellectual capacity on the certain day
45. A type of prostitute where she accepts all comers and has nothing to do with C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel in the certain day
selecting and soliciting the customers. D. Ascertain his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain
A. Hustler day
B. Factory Girls
C. Door Knocker 56. A killing NOT caused by human being is death by
D. Call Girls A. By means of intent
B. Negligence
46. Is an act of making an opening to a building for purposes of removing smoke C. Imprudence
and heat from the burning building. One of the purposes of this act is to D. Natural cause
prevent backdraft.
A. Distillation
57. What is this stage when the offender commences the commission of felony B. Wait for the light to change
directly by overt acts and does not perform all the acts of execution? C. See the traffic stop and heed
A. Attempted D. Proceed only when it is safe
B. Frustrated
C. None of these 69. A shabbily crafted police report submitted by the police officers and part of
D. Consummated the record in the court proceedings, at its WORST, makes the
A. Police report a basis of scrutiny
58. Aware of the number of arrest and cased filed in court, expert propose that B. Police officer just another contributor to the state of criminal justice
hearing of illegal cases should be tried and heard by C. Police officer practically a witness for the defense
A. RTC Court designated as heinous crimes D. Police report just another court record
B. Special Court designated by the SC among existing RTC
C. Sandiganbayan 70. The following are agreed reasons why many contemporary investigators
D. Special Court designated by the SC argue that the success of most criminal investigation begin at the crime
scene, EXCEPT:
59. Which of the following DOES NOT contribute to the reasons why the value A. It is at the crime scene where vital physical evidence can be discovered
of physical evidence is diminish? B. It is at the crime scene where the modus operandi of the criminal can
A. Human failure to appreciate it be discovered and established
B. Human failure to study C. It is at the crime scene where vital information can be learned
C. Human failure to find it D. It is at the crime scene where vital witnesses can be located or
D. Human failure to understand sometimes the suspect arrested
60. When a person who is known as drug addict by his own volition ceased by 71. What kind of evidence can be associated with the group?
taking illegal drugs, he/she is. A. Individual characteristics
A. In abstinence B. Class characteristics
B. In self-healing C. Testimonial evidence
C. Into wellness D. Physical evidence
D. In self-medication
72. Forensic specialists have the duty to train investigators and crime searchers
61. When murders are based on relationships are to be committed in a home, in the _____ of evidence.
who among the following MOST LIKELY could be murdered in the A. Interpretation
BEDROOM B. Cataloguing
A. Parents in-law C. Recognition
B. Female D. Analysis
C. Male
D. Children 73. The organized crime groups usually following the three-step process of
converting illegal income or proceeds into free cash back to the hands of the
62. What is this liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 C (100 F)? kingpins, EXCEPT;
A. Kerosene A. Integration
B. Corrosive liquid B. Placement
C. Turpentine C. Layering
D. Combustible liquid D. Converting
63. The following are characteristics of human errors that cause traffic, EXCEPT: 74. The search pattern generally used to cover large area is.
A. Lack of due diligence on the part of pedestrians A. Strip
B. Lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers B. Spiral
C. Bad driving habits like slow drivers C. Zone
D. Poor legislative traffic regulations and activities D. Grid
64. The following are the three-fold aim of criminal investigation, EXCEPT: 75. The method of approximation of the time of death based on what appears
A. Prosecute the suspect typically as deep blue or purplish discoloration of the body after death is
B. Gather evidence of guilt of the suspect A. Postmortem lividity
C. Locate the suspect B. Medico legal
D. Identify the suspect C. Autopsy
D. Rigor mortis
65. The following are some of the elements of investigative process, EXCEPT:
A. Collection 76. Which of the following are rarely fatal wounds and merely an injury on the
B. Preservation outer layer of the skin?
C. Recognition A. Lacerations
D. Presentation B. Abrasions
C. Puncture
66. What term is used to describe frontal collision of vehicles? D. Contusions
A. Collision
B. Head on collision 77. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the treatment and
C. Full impact collision rehabilitation of drug dependents?
D. Frontal collision A. Charge can be filed against drug dependents who is not rehabilitated
under the voluntary submission program.
67. As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary for the use of our streets. B. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be ordering the confinement of drug
The following instances when these maximum speed limits may not be dependent who refuses to apply under the voluntary submission
observed, EXCEPT: program
A. Drivers who are members of the PNP and AFP C. A drug dependent discharge as rehabilitated but does not qualify for
B. Any driver bringing a wounded or sick person for emergency treatment exemption from criminal liability shall be placed on probation
C. The drivers or his passengers who are in pursuit of a criminal D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject to after-care and follow-
D. A physician or his driver when responding to emergency calls up treatment from DOH shall be for a period of not exceeding 18
months
68. What should NOT be done by a fire truck driver when crossing an intersection
when there is traffic control? 78. The BEST type of questioning that allows no possibility of misinterpretation
A. Must do a full stop is questioning.
A. Logical C. Taking of illegal drugs
B. Rational D. Distrust with or among strangers
C. Direct
D. Indirect 90. Study shown that workplace homicide suspects are TYPICALLY caused by
the following, EXCEPT.
79. One’s impression or personal belief is A. Disgruntled employee
A. Fact B. Domestic offender
B. Proof C. Obsessive employee
C. Evidence D. Stranger or outside
D. Opinion
91. What is the set of doctrines or beliefs that form the basis of political,
80. Which of the following is NOT one of the behaviors commonly associated economic, and other systems?
with organized crime activities? A. Politics
A. Conduct of illicit activities and provisions of illicit goods B. Ideology
B. Systematic murder and influence peddling’ C. Religion
C. Conspiracy and engagement in legitimate business D. Tradition
D. Extortion and Corruption
92. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle
81. The following are the most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, or pedestrian is
EXCEPT: A. Immunity
A. Opium poppy B. Leniency
B. Coca bush C. Giving way
C. Indian hemp D. Right of way
D. Ephedra
93. The illicit funds of PINUNO of organized group is in the financial institutions
82. Death by asphyxia MAY BE the result of the following strangulation EXCEPT: already. As the investigator, and anticipating the next move of PINUNO, what
A. Hanging is this process in money laundering that Don Emilio will undertake to prevent
B. Suffocation the tracing back of illicit funds?
C. Manual A. Integration
D. Ligature B. Conversion
C. Placement
83. What do you call a mark produced by a vehicle travelling in an arc or curved D. Layering
direction?
A. Skid mark 94. The evidence that can be associated with a single, unique source is
B. Scuff mark A. Individual characteristics
C. Centrifugal force B. Physical
D. Centrifugal skid C. Class characteristics
D. Testimonial
84. The following are considered as an “Elusive” object in crime scene
investigation, EXCEPT: 95. As arson investigators, you understood that the following as some of the
A. Associative evidence factors that may affect the EXTENT of burning, EXCEPT:
B. Object evidence A. Wind velocity
C. Testimonial evidence B. Number of incendiary
D. Physical evidence C. Relative humidity
D. Air temperature
85. In the study of organized crime, a criminal group that is a non-ideological and
possess no political agenda always motivated by 96. Which of the following is the purpose of searching in the crime scene?
A. Control A. All of these
B. Influence B. Tracing evidence
C. Profit C. Corpus delicti
D. Power D. Associative evidence
86. The following are causes of traffic accident, EXCEPT: 97. In terms of organizational structure, what is the similarity of organized crimes
A. Undisciplined drivers from military of the police?
B. Vehicle over speeding A. Autocratic
C. Road works obstructions B. Bureaucratic
D. Lack traffic rules and regulation C. Democratic
D. Patrimonial
87. A building must have this design which is used a continuous passageway for
the transmission of air? 98. Over speeding, can cause traffic accidents and we attribute the same to
A. Exhaust system A. Unworthy vehicle
B. Duct system B. Traffic error
C. Fire exit C. Human error
D. Duct D. Road deficiency
88. Investigating a burning building, you look for the source of fire and its ignition. 99. What kind of search method where in the crime scene is subdivided into
Which of the following is NOT a source of ignition? areas, a building into rooms of floors and then each of the fire officer or
A. Electrical officers are then assigned accordingly?
B. Accidental A. Concentric search
C. Mechanical B. Strip search
D. Chemical C. Sector search
D. Double strip
89. Outside of the family structure, emotional disputes that results to killing often 100. What is the photograph of arrested suspects both full face and side profile?
occur in the cars and similar social gathering places. Which of the following A. Line up
are MOST LIKELY the caused? B. Selfie
A. Consumption of alcohol and beverages C. Portrait parle
B. Jealousy between friends D. Mug shot
D. Clean
Part IV: Forensic Science
12. What is the degree of difference between two colors or between the
1. What kind of light is already existing in an indoor or outdoor setting lightest light or the darkest darks in an image?
(normal light condition) that is not cause illumination supplied by the A. Disparity
photographer? B. Distinction
A. Steady C. Variance
B. Short D. Contrast
C. Split
D. Ambient 13. If investigators mark new evidence, the whole series of shots including
all the evidence shots, what must the investigators do?
2. How will the police photographer fix a captured image for presentation? A. Collect all the evidence
A. Permanently B. Secure the area
B. Carefully C. No need to re-shoot
C. Beautifully D. Re-shoot for new evidence
3. When MUST investigators place evidence markers while taking
14. What process an investigator must do to make the captured image
photographs? available anytime needed for the investigation?
A. Before taking shot
A. Collating
B. Do not place evidence markers
B. Collection
C. After shoot again C. Preservation
D. After being shots
D. Visualizing
4. While taking pictures of a victim, location, and injuries, what MUST an
investigator do with the Images taken? 15. In taking photographs on tools marks evidence for court presentation
A. To keep what is the best film to use to provide more contrast and details?
B. To protect A. Color
C. To highlight B. Color reversal
D. To bring to the station C. Color positive
D. Black and white
5. What is an important player in determining the lens opening because
its quality can limit the effective maximum opening called “the maximum 16. Photographs as evidence means that someone must testify that the
aperture”? photographs should accurately portray the scene as viewed by the
A. Condenser ____.
B. Lens A. Victim
C. focusing mechanism B. Witness
D. View finder C. Investigator
D. Photographer
6. What is the first setting a photographer considers when photographing
anything at the crime scene in order because it controls the focus? 17. Infrared has many uses such as detecting body fluids, heat, CCTV, and
A. Shutter is best used in military operation at night and normally use when?
B. Viewfinder A. Rainy
C. Cable release B. Nighttime
D. Aperture C. Midnight
D. Daytime
7. What part of a camera with a central aperture which is adjustable for its
size to regulate the amount of light to enter the lens or optical system? 18. Which of the following is not the type of view in crime scene
A. Diaphragm photography?
B. Shutter A. Aerial
C. Shutter speed dial B. Long
D. Shutter release C. Close-up
D. Sketch
8. What is the photographical process that will aid an investigator in how 19. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used
to handle and what environmental condition is needed for preservation? being easy to apply and less destructive to the paper, tissue, and cloths.
A. Identification A. iodine fuming
B. Keeping B. silver nitrate method
C. Collection C. ninhydrin method
D. dusting method
9. Which of the following is NOT a reason why photographic evidence is
admissible? 20. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by
A. Relevant and Competent _____________.
B. Authentic A. Developing the latent print
C. Accurate B. Taking Photography
D. Irrelevant C. Lifting the impression using fingerprint lifting tape
D. Brushing it
10. After the capturing of image needed for investigation, what is an
important procedure the police photographer must do? 21. The process of placing the letter symbols under each pattern as the
A. To keep result of the interpretation of all ten fingers?
B. To show to friends A. Classification formula
C. To show to friends B. Blocking out
D. To document C. Reference classification
D. Fingerprint identification
11. After the crime has been established photographs were taken, what 22. The classification in the classification formula which is always
should investigation do to keep the exact picture of the crime scene?
represented by numerical value depending upon a whorl pattern
A. Investigate appearing in each finger.
B. Secure A. Primary classification
C. Observe
B. Key classification
C. Final classification 33. The identification of two impression can be established primarily
D. Major classification through:
A. Formation of different types of patterns
23. In the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is B. Unexplained similarity of ridges
placed at the extreme right of the classification formula? C. Formation of the two terminus
A. Key classification D. Similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions
B. Final classification
C. Major classification 34. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast
D. Secondary classification of a latent fingerprint impression dusted with black powder on a green
background?
24. The key classification is located at the extreme left of the classification A. Yellow Filter
formula and by getting the ridge count of ___? B. Green Filter
A. Loop pattern C. Red Filter
B. First radial loop D. Blue Filter
C. First loop
D. First whorl 35. If the fingerprint pattern is not identical, there is no basis for?
A. Acceptable conclusion
25. In case of missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the B. Subscription
classification of said missing finger? C. Comparison
A. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand D. Authentic Findings
B. Mutilated finger
C. Plain whorl with meeting tracing 36. In fingerprint probe, which of the following are key points of fingerprint
D. None search:
A. Desk table near entrance and exit
26. What fingerprint pattern has no ridge count? B. Safes appliance
A. Whorl C. Door, Windows, and Panel
B. Arches D. All of these
C. Loops
D. Deltas 37. Which of the following is a component of a polygraph apparatus that
records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject?
27. Studies have shown that only half of the fingerprints present on paper A. Galvanograph
can be made. B. Pneumograph
A. Irrational C. Kymograph
B. Visible D. Cardiosphymograph
C. Focal point
D. Imaginary 38. After the polygraph examination and presented to the court of law, who
determines the guilt or innocence of the subject?
28. What is a point in whorl and loop prints which lies within three- A. Investigator
prolonged shaped structure? B. Polygraph Examiner
A. Delta C. Fiscal
B. Ridge D. Trial Judge
C. Core
D. Furrow 39. What can an examiner practically detect during the process of
polygraph examination?
29. What is the system in assigning number and letter non-specific general A. Competency
pattern, shape, limited ridge flow and some limited ridge counts B. Deception
between common and landmarks? C. Physiological
A. Natural classification output D. Mental disorder
B. Fingerprint boarder lines
C. Classification pointers 40. When should a polygraph examiner perform chart probing and
D. Fingerprint classification formula determine the truthfulness of the subject.
A. At the end of each polygraph test
30. The totally burned body of the suspect during the fire in a densely B. During the onset of the polygraph examination
populated area in Tondo Manila, what is the application of dental C. When the subject is relaxed
knowledge that are imposed by the police agencies in criminal justice D. While questioning is on-going
system?
A. Forensic dentistry 41. What would be the most helpful to crime investigation using the
B. Medical Odontology polygraph examination?
C. Forensic odontology A. The suspect is willing to undergo the test.
D. Legal dentistry B. Direct evidence is available against the suspect but not
enough established.
31. n case of double thumb of the same size what should be the course of C. Investigators need to know the truth.
action in classifying them? D. The investigators must connect the suspect to the crime.
A. Take both pattern and classify.
B. Classify only the outer thumb. 42. What is the normal emotional response induced by a specific threat or
C. Classify only the inner thumb. danger which is most of the time beyond one's defensive power?
D. Print them together on the block and classify. A. Panic
A. Response
32. A forensic procedure performed by trained personnel of the PNP Crime B. Confidence
Laboratory through scientific methods of investigation for the purpose C. Fear
of preserving the crime scene, gathering information, documentation,
collection, and examination of all physical evidence. 43. What is an unpleasant, often strong emotion caused by anticipation or
A. Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO) awareness of danger when a subject is subjected to polygraph
B. Forensic Science examination?
C. Criminalistics A. Fear
D. Forensic Group B. Irritation
C. Panic 55. What is the study that deals with the application of chemistry to criminal
D. Nervousness investigation will focuses on the analysis of substances connected to
crime investigation?
44. When the subject keeps on rocking his chair, NAIL BITING, what will A. Biochemistry
be in the mind of the investigator on the subject’s reaction? B. Organic Chemistry
A. Nervousness C. Forensic Science
B. Fear D. Forensic Chemistry
C. Panic
D. Irritation 56. What is the possible result when barberio’s test is applied to determine
the presence of seminal in the underwear of a rape victim.
45. What part or component of a polygraph machine records the speed and A. Orange-red pigment
force of the when breathing while the subject is questioned? B. White color pigment
A. Galvanometer C. Bright red crystals will appear
B. Cardiosphygmograph D. Sender yellowish crystal
C. Pneumograph
D. Kymograph 57. When hair is present in the crime scene, investigators can determine
the identity of suspect by Evaluating hair structure and DNA from cells
46. What component in a polygraph machine that records graphically the attached to what PART of the hair?
movement of the radial pulse? A. Shaft
A. Pneumograph B. Root
B. Kymograph C. Tip
C. Cardiometer D. Medulla
D. Cardio-sphygmograph
47. Person who has knowledge of taking and usage of medicine. 58. What is a method in determining the identity of soil collected from the
A. Pharmacist crime scene, the soil found in the shoes of the suspect to separate the
B. Dentist soil from other material?
C. Pharmacy A. Ouchtertony
D. Forensic Pathologist B. Burning
C. Density Gradient
48. What will be the color of the result using Diphenylamine in sulphuric D. Acid-Phosphatase
acid?
A. Blue 59. When a rape case is being investigated, investigators know that
B. Red something ……. Scene, presence of semen is possible, what test can
C. Yellow be applied to determine the …
D. None A. Acid-Phosphatase
B. Phenolphthalein
49. Gun powder residue may be determined by. C. Paraffin
A. Takayama test D. Density Gradient
B. Diphenylamine-paraffin test
C. Florence test 60. Impression is possible left in the doorknobs of a case of robbery, what
… to determine the suspects?
50. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and A. Density Gradient
blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact B. DNA
fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately. C. Barberios’s
A. 6 inches D. Paraffin
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches 61. When the positive result in screening test blood is blue, what test was
D. 24 inches applied?
A. Wagenhaar’s
51. Which is the most explosive chemical compound ever created and a B. Guaiacum
part of a class of chemicals as high-energetic materials? C. Takayama
A. Nitrous oxide D. Hemin Crystal
B. Azidoazide azide
C. Nitroglycerine 62. A type of primer consisting of two flash holes or vent. It was designed
D. Sodium azide by Col. Hiram Berdan.
A. Berdan primer
52. What is a blasting explosive that is based on nitroglycerine? B. Boxer primer
A. Black powder C. Battery cup primer
B. Dynamite D. None
C. Ammonium nitrate
D. Low explosive 63. A clergyman introduced the first workable percussion ignition system
and introduced the priming mixture.
53. What type of explosives has detonation velocity of 7,000+ k/sec that A. Alexander John Forsyth
creates a blast pressure effect that travels 360 degrees? B. Roger Bacon
A. Gun powder C. Berthold Schwartz
B. Low D. Paul M. Vieille
C. Black powder
D. High 64. A complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, gunpowder, cartridge
case and primer or loaded shell for use in any firearm.
54. A Forensic Chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and A. Ammunition
composition of the following, except… B. Cartridge
A. Blood C. Shotgun Cartridge
B. Fingerprint D. Missile
C. Explosive
D. Body fluids 65. A type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in filmmaking:
A. Dummy Ammunition
B. Blank Ammunition
C. Drill Ammunition 77. The stripe on the periphery of a fired bullet from a rifled gun barrel is
D. Live Ammunition caused by the…
A. Frictional contact of the bullet at any hard object during its
66. A type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the flight.
diameter of the body of the cartridge? B. Direct contact with any object.
A. Belted Type C. Contact with the rifling of the bore of the gun while still inside
B. Rebated Type the gun bore.
C. Rimless Type D. Any of the above
D. Rimmed Type
78. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the crime scene will
67. A type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is found at the cavity request the ballistician to determine.
rim of the cartridge case. A. Caliber and type of firearm where it was fired
A. Pin fire B. Whether or not the fired bullet was fired from the suspected
B. Center fire firearm.
C. Rim fire C. Whether or not they were fired from one and the same
firearm.
68. Unit of the bore measurement in shot gun determined by the number of D. All of these
solid lead balls of the bore diameter obtainable to a pond ball.
A. Gauge 79. To ascertain the real shooter, forensic ballistics has the potential to
B. Caliper assist investigators, what can be determined after a thorough
C. Base diameter investigation in connection to the suspect?
D. Bore diameter A. Nationality
B. Age
69. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell? C. Gender
A. Priming mixture D. Identity
B. Primer
C. Smokeless powder 80. How should a police investigator pick up a firearm left by the suspect at
D. Black powder the scene of a crime?
A. Picking up through the handle
70. A magnifier probe used to examine the interior of firearm barrels and B. Picking up through the barrel
accurately measure the pitch of rifling of a firearm, and it was developed C. Picking up with bare hands and put in his bag
by John H. Fisher? D. Inserting a straw in the trigger guard of the gun
A. Bullet Recovery Tube
B. Helixometer 81. In shooting incidence even small samples of evidence that could be
C. Analytical Torsion Balance found in the crime scene, by examining the wadding materials, which
D. Chronograph of the following the investigation cannot identify?
E. Bullet Comparison Microscope A. Age and gender of the suspect
B. Range of possible shots based on impression in the
71. Fired Cartridge case/shell is usually marked at the ____? shotshells
A. Inside or outside near open mouth C. Gauge of the firearm used
B. Side or body of the shell D. Manufacturer or the maker
C. Any of the above
82. There are several methods used by law enforcement agencies, which
72. Fired bullets found at the scene of the crime are usually marked at the is not a basic crime scene search pattern?
______. A. Line
A. Ogive B. Stripe
B. Nose C. Grid
C. Base D. Quadrant
D. Any of the above
83. What is the raised portion between the grooves inside the barrel of a
73. Individual marks were found at the interior portion of the bullet due to gun after the spiral grooves are cut and rifling is produced examined by
poor alignment of the cylinder with bore of the firearm. investigators on the gun used by the perpetrator?
A. Skid marks A. Muzzle
B. Shaving marks B. Muzzle
C. Stripping marks C. Lands
D. Slippage marks D. Gauge
74. Which refers to the metal cup containing a highly sensitive priming
84. During investigation, what are microscopic marks left on the forward
mixture of chemical compound which when hit by the firing pin will face of the rim of a rimfire cartridge case when it is forced against the
ignite?
breech end of the chamber by firing pin?
A. Primer
A. Chamber
B. Hammer B. Land
C. Cartridge
C. Ejector
D. Case D. Breech face
75. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
85. Which of the following refers to legally admissible and authentic
A. Touch the outside of the trigger guard samples of handwriting which are of known origin used for comparison
B. Be straighten along the barrel with questioned writing.
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
A. Personal letters
D. Be inside the trigger guard B. Composition
C. Warrant
76. What is the secret of good shooting form?
D. Exemplars
A. Relaxed and natural position and both eyes are open
B. Proper sighting of the target
86. What characteristic is whether writing is inclined to left, right, straight
C. Keeping the thumb along the hammer up or down or combination of these, the degree of inclination exists?
D. Firing slowly and carefully A. pen lifts
B. Shading
C. Connection strokes B. Scanner
D. Slant C. Photocopier
D. Computers
87. When a writer fixed a portion of a writing by going back over another
stroke that is not readable or not acceptable. What was done by the 97. What is not included when an examiner needs to identify a particular
writer? typewriter used in questioned documents?
A. Retracing A. Vertical position of the characters in a relation to the line of
B. Shading writing
C. Reverse B. Relation of the characters and the vertical and horizontal
D. Recall alignment
C. Brand and make
88. What type of fraudulent SIGNATURE in which there is no apparent D. Size and design
attempt imitation or simulation?
A. Evidential 98. What is an identifying typewriter characteristic that can be eliminated
B. Spurious by cleaning replacing the ribbon?
C. Altered A. Rebound
D. Forged B. Off its feet
C. Serif
89. A PNP applicant tried to manipulate his birth certificate to qualify him in D. Transitory
the service, on his application form discrepancies in a form of some
deletion and addition of numbers. What will be the findings of this 99. What is the ratio of height to width consistent in each letter?
document? A. Baseline
A. Altered B. Line
B. Obliterated C. Size
C. disputed D. Connecting
D. forged
100. What is the interruption or gap in writing stroke in forming a letter when
90. What type of characteristics are the idiosyncrasies of a particular a writing instrument leaves the paper?
person? A. Pen emphasis
A. Evaluation B. Hiatus
B. Comparison C. Pen lifts
C. Class D. Patching
D. Individual
Part V: Criminology
91. What are discrimination elements of the unknown, observed or
determined through analysis examination or study must be compared 1. Criminology is considered as a _________________?
with those known observed of the standard items? A. Prevention of Crime
A. Analysis B. Subject
B. Comparison C. Interdisciplinary
C. Identification D. Bachelor
D. Evaluation
2. According to RA 11131, Criminology is considered a ______?
92. What is the science or study of handwriting based on the fundamental A. Science
strokes the curve and the straight? B. Applied Science
A. Graphoanalysis C. Principle
B. Graphometrics D. Part of Society
C. Graphology
D. Graphometry 3. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018.
A. RA 10666
93. What is the device used by examiners to study and evaluate similar B. RA 10963
colored documents? C. RA 11131
A. Video spectral comparator D. RA 11200
B. Microspectrophotometer ➔ a microscope and a
spectrophotometer for broad coverage in the ultraviolet- 4. RA 6506 was repealed by RA 11131; the Professional Regulatory
visible-infrared region. Board for Criminologist shall compose of?
C. Magnifying glass A. Chairman and two members
D. Electro-microscope B. Chairman and three members
C. Chairman and four members
94. Which of the following instruments is used in questioned documents D. Chairman and five members
which makes it possible to see physical evidence on documents which
would otherwise remain invisible? 5. Killing of two or more person in different locations with almost no time
A. Fingerprint live scanner break between murders.
B. Microscope A. Murder
C. Magnifying glass B. Serial Murder
D. Electrostatic detection apparatus C. Mass Murder
D. Spree Murder
95. Which provides forensic examiners with a non-destructive method to
examine indentation of a document and to discover physical marking 6. It is defined narrowly and usually means that the defendant was not
left on documents by printer and photocopier? fear of her life or safety at the time of the crime.
A. Electrostatic detector A. Actus Reus
B. Electro-photo detector B. Mens Rea
C. Video analysis C. Duress
D. Liquid chromatography D. Motive
96. What are widely used in business in our present time because of their 7. Those who become victims psychologically because they become
ability to create fast and the same documents? afraid of the effects of crime by watching television, newspaper listening
A. Printer to witness testimony.
A. Victim D. Quasi-Police Functions
B. Primary victim
C. Secondary victim 15. The document bearing the registration number, dates of issuance and
D. Remote Victim expiry, duly signed by the Commission Chairperson referred to
_________________.
8. According to him Criminology is not a science due to the variations of A. Professional Identification Card
behavior. (lack of proposition) B. Report of Rating
A. Rafaelle Garofalo C. Table of Specification
B. George Wilker D. Professional or Component Subjects on Criminology
C. Charles Goring
D. Enrico Ferri 16. The art and science in the practice of criminology discipline referred to
_______.
9. Republic Act 11131 is otherwise known as _______. A. Profession or Criminology Profession
A. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018 B. Public Safety
B. An Act Creating the Board of Examiners for Criminologists C. Temporary/Special Permit
in The Philippines and For Other Purposes D. Chaps Online Tutorial Services
C. Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016
D. Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of Republic Act 17. The following are considered Practice of Criminology Profession
No. 11131 entitled "The Philippine Criminology Profession EXCEPT.
Act of 2018". A. In line with the practice of profession or occupation as a law
enforcement administrator.
10. The following are the importance of criminology profession recognized B. In line with the practice of teaching profession such as those
by the state EXCEPT. performed by a professor.
A. In national security, public safety, peace, and order, and in C. As a technician, examiner/criminalist.
nation-building and development. D. As a correctional administrator, executive, supervisor, or
B. Hence, it shall develop and nurture competent, virtuous, officer in any rehabilitation, correctional, and penal
productive, and well-rounded criminologists whose institution, or facility, and in any community-based
standards of professional practice and service shall be corrections, and rehabilitation agencies and/or programs.
excellent, qualitative, world-class.
C. globally competitive through sacred, honest, effective, and 18. The Board, in consultation with the AIPO and the academe, may revise,
credible licensure examinations, coupled with programs and exclude from, or add to the above enumerated acts or activities as the
activities that would promote professional growth and need arises to conform with the latest trends in the practice of
development. criminology in the country shall have the approval of ___________.
D. Total elimination of crimes and criminal A. Commission on Higher Education (Commission)
B. Professional Regulatory Board of Criminology (Board)
11. The following objectives of The Philippine Criminology Profession Act C. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
of 2018 EXCEPT. D. College of Criminal Justice
A. The removal of unworthy and malatubang criminologists
B. The examination, registration, and licensure for 19. Who shall coordinate with government agencies involve in the national
criminologists and the supervision, control, and regulation of security, public safety, peace and order, and criminal justice to evaluate
the practice of criminology. and identify which positions in those agencies involve the practice of
C. The standardization and regulation of criminology criminology profession as identified in the PDF or job description.
education. A. Commission on Higher Education (Commission)
D. The development of the professional competence of B. Professional Regulatory Board of Criminology (Board)
criminologists through Continuing Professional C. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
Development (CPD). D. College of Criminal Justice
E. The integration of all criminology professional groups, and
membership of all registered criminologists to the accredited 20. A collegial body under the administrative supervision and control of the
professional organization. Commission, to be composed of a chairperson and four (4) members.
A. Commission on Higher Education (Commission)
12. The one and only recognized and accredited integrated national B. Professional Regulatory Board of Criminology (Board)
organization of criminologists, as endorsed by the Professional C. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
Regulatory Board subject to the approval of the Professional D. College of Criminal Justice
Regulation Commission (PRC). For purposes of implementing RA No.
11131, AIPO shall be referred ___________. 21. Who shall appoint the Chairman and the Members of the Board?
A. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization A. President of the Philippines from a list of three (3)
B. Professional Regulatory Board of Criminology recommendees for each position, chosen and ranked by the
C. Professional Regulation Commission Commission from a list of three (3) nominees for every
D. Continuing Professional Development position endorsed by the AIPO.
E. Commission on Higher Education B. Senate President of the Philippines from a list of three (3)
recommendees for each position, chosen and ranked by the
13. The scientific study of crimes, criminals, victims, and criminal behavior. Commission from a list of three (3) nominees for every
It also deals with the prevention, and solution of crimes refers to position endorsed by the AIPO.
__________. C. Vice-President of the Philippines from a list of three (3)
A. Code of Ethics recommendees for each position, chosen and ranked by the
B. Certificate of Registration Commission from a list of three (3) nominees for every
C. Code of Good Governance for the Practice of Criminology position endorsed by the AIPO.
D. Criminology D. CEO/Review Director of Chaps Online Tutorial Services
E. Foreign Reciprocity from a list of three (3) recommendees for each position,
chosen and ranked by the Commission from a list of three
14. A natural person who holds a valid Certificate of Registration (COR) (3) nominees for every position endorsed by the AIPO.
and an updated Professional Identification Card (PIC) as criminologist
issued by the Board and the Commission pursuant to RA No. 11131 22. The chairperson and each member shall, at the time of their
____________. appointment, possess all these Qualifications EXCEPT.
A. Law Enforcement A. Must be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the
B. National Security Philippines and must be of good moral character, good
C. Registered Criminologist reputation and of sound mind and body.
B. Not convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction of any D. Child
offense involving moral Turpitude and must be a graduate
of Bachelor of Science in Criminology, and a holder of a 29. A 24-hour child-caring institution established, funded, and managed by
Post-Graduate Degree in Criminology from any reputable local government units (LGUs) and licensed and/or accredited
school recognized by the CHED or a criminologist-lawyer in nongovernment organizations (NGOs) providing short-term residential
good standing before the Supreme Court and the Integrated care for children in conflict with the law who are above fifteen (15) but
Bar of the Philippines (IBP). below eighteen (18) years of age who are awaiting court disposition of
C. Must be a registered criminologist with a valid certificate of their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
registration and a valid professional identification card, A. Youth Detention center
having at least ten (10) years of practice in the profession B. Bahay Pag asa
prior to the appointment including no less than two (2) years C. New Bilibid Prison
teaching experience of criminology or law subjects in full- D. Camp Sampaguita
time or part-time capacity in any college of criminology,
college of law or law enforcement training institutions 30. The minimum age for children committed to a youth care facility or
recognized by relevant government agency and must be a ‘Bahay Pag-asa’ shall be ______________?
member in good standing of the AIPO but not an officer or A. Twelve (12) years old.
trustee thereof; and must not be a member of the faculty of B. Fifteen (15) years old
any school, college or university where a regular class or C. Below Fifteen old
review course in criminology is offered, nor a member of the D. Below Twelve years old
staff of reviewers in a review school or center for
criminologists, and must not have any direct or indirect 31. A child who is above twelve (12) years of age up to fifteen (15) years of
pecuniary interest in any such institution. age and who commits parricide, murder, infanticide, kidnapping and
D. All of these serious illegal detention where the victim is killed or raped, robbery, with
homicide or rape, destructive arson, rape, or carnapping where the
23. Any member of the Board has at least how many years of experience driver or occupant is killed or raped or offenses under Republic Act No.
before the appointment? 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002) punishable by
A. 3 years more than twelve (12) years of imprisonment, shall be deemed a
B. 5 years neglected child under Presidential Decree No. 603, as amended, and
C. 8 years shall be mandatorily placed in a special facility within the youth care
D. 10 years faculty or ‘Bahay Pag-asa’.
A. The Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center
24. The chairperson and members of the Board shall hold office for a term (IJISC).
of ________. B. The Intensive Juvenile Diversion and Support Center
A. three (3) years from the date of appointment or until their (IJDSC).
successors shall have been qualified and appointed. C. The Intensive Juvenile Delinquent Intervention and Support
B. five (5) years from the date of appointment or until their Center (IJDISC).
successors shall have been qualified and appointed. D. The Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (JISC).
C. ten (10) years from the date of appointment or until their
successors shall have been qualified and appointed. 32. A family type home which provides temporary shelter from ten to twenty
D. Co-terminus or on the pleasure of the President days for children who shall during this period be under observation and
study for eventually placement by the Dept. of Social Welfare.
25. May the members and the chairman be reappointed? A. Shelter care
A. Yes. They may be reappointed to the same office for another B. Receiving homes
term of three (3) years immediately after the expiry of their C. Detention home
term. D. Child caring institution
B. Provided, That the holding of such position shall not be more
than two (2) terms nor more than six (6) years, whichever is 33. According to the right if the CICL, every child in conflict with the law
longer. shall have the following rights, Except:
C. Provided, further, That the first Board under this Act shall A. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
hold these terms of office: the chairperson for three (3) inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
years, the first two (2) members for two (2) years, and the B. The right be imposed a sentence of capital. punishment or
second (2) members for one (1) year. life imprisonment, without the possibility of release.
D. Provided, finally, that any appointee to a vacancy with an C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of
unexpired period shall only serve such period. The his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a disposition
chairperson and the members shall duly take their oath of of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest appropriate
office. period.
D. The right to be treated with humanity and respect, for the
26. The appointees to the Board shall be equitably distributed from the inherent dignity of the person, and in a manner which
following EXCEPT. considers the needs of a person of his/her age. A child
A. Academe deprived of liberty should always be separated from adult
B. Practice offenders. No child shall be detained together with adult
C. Legal offenders. He/She shall be conveyed separately to or from
D. Chaps Online Tutorial Services court. He/She shall await hearing of his/her own case in a
separate holding area. A child in conflict with the law shall
27. This theory, however, does not give any distinction between an adult have the right to maintain contact with his/her family through
and a minor or a mentally handicapped in as far as free will is correspondence and visits, save in exceptional
concerned. circumstances.
A. Cesare Bonesara Marchese de Beccaria
B. On Crimes and Punishment 34. According to RA 9344 any person contesting the age of the child in
C. Classical Theory conflict with the law prior to the filing of the information in any
D. Crime appropriate court may file a case in a summary proceeding for the
28. This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals determination of age before the Family Court which shall decide the
have free will, there are other factors that affect the exercise of their case - ___________from receipt of the appropriate pleadings of all
free will, which cause them commit crimes: interested parties.
A. Neo-classical A. Before 24 hours
B. Insane B. After 24 hours
C. Exempting C. Within 24 hours
D. 24 hours C. The basis of criminal liability is due to external pressures beyond
the control of man
35. The local social welfare and development officer shall supervise the D. Criminal liability depends upon the minimum age of criminal
implementation of the diversion program. The diversion proceedings responsibility
shall be completed _________________.
A. within forty-five (45) hours 44. The police or law enforcers, in the process of investigating crime, collect
B. Within forty-five (45) days. evidence, prosecute the suspects in court. The following are sources
C. After forty-five (45) hours. for collecting evidence criminal prosecution and conviction, EXCEPT
D. After forty-five (45) days. ___
A. statements of witnesses
36. Take the child immediately to the proper medical and health officer for B. modus operandi
a thorough physical and mental examination. The examination results C. objects or physical evidences
shall be kept confidential unless otherwise ordered by D. testimony of the victim
the____________________. Whenever medical treatment is required,
steps shall be immediately undertaken to provide the same. 45. Which of the following are TRUE?
A. MTC I. The Philippine Judiciary is a four-tiered court system consisting of
B. RTC the Supreme Court as the highest court of the land.
C. Supreme Court II. The intermediate courts consist of the Court of Appeals and
D. Family Court Sandiganbayan.
III. The second level courts, which consist of Regional Trial Courts,
37. The prosecutor shall conduct a preliminary investigation in the following Court of Tax Appeal and Shari’a District Courts.
instances: IV. The first level courts consist of Metropolitan Trial Courts,
A. when the child in conflict with the law does not qualify for Municipal Trial Court, Municipal Trial Courts, Municipal Circuit
diversion Trial Courts, and Shari'a Circuit Courts.
B. When the child, his/her parents or guardian does not agree
to diversion. A. I, III and IV
C. When considering the assessment and recommendation of B. I, II, III and IV
the social worker, the prosecutor determines that diversion C. I, II and III
is not appropriate for the child in conflict with the law. D. I, II, and IV
D. All of the above
46. If the Punong Barangay is unable to achieve a settlement, the case is
38. Upon determination of probable cause by the prosecutor, the mediation or arbitration to the ______.
information against the child shall be filed before the Family Court within A. Pangkat ng Tagapagkasundo
how many days from the start of the preliminary investigation? B. Elder group
A. Fifteen (15) days C. Lupong Tagapamayapa
B. Forty-five (45) days D. Police
C. Twenty-four (24) days
D. Five (5) days 47. In which of the following penalty where a preliminary investigation is
require before the filing of a complaint or information for an offense?
39. As a matter of legal process, a person arrested without a warrant shall A. At least six (6) years, two (2) months and one (1) day without
be subjected following procedures. regard to the fine
A. Inquest B. At least five (5) years, two (2) months and one (1) day without
B. administrative regard to the fine
C. dismissal C. At least three (3) years, two (2) months and one (1) day without
D. summary regard to the fine
D. At least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day without
40. As a process, the US Criminal Justice System is composed of the regard to the fine
following.
A. police, court, and community 48. Which refers to a feature that can be focused on separately but that
B. legislative, executive, and judiciary cannot be useful without also considering other features?
C. police, prosecution, and court A. Limitation
D. police or law enforcement, courts, and corrections B. Dimension
C. Variable
41. Which of the following sub-systems or pillars of the criminal justice D. Parameter
system as the prime mover or the initiator of the criminal justice
process? 49. Select an internal force of the psychoanalytic theory which states that
A. Court all form the psychodynamic approach that views humans as biologically
B. prosecution driven when they want it unless they are held in check by internal and
C. police external force.
D. community A. Behavior
B. Heredity
42. Which refers to capacities enabling adjudication of decisions, C. Conscience
enforcement accountability of the process through civil society and D. Personality
parliamentary oversight?
A. Demand for remedies 50. What internal processes are used to explain human behavior which
B. Normative protect social learn great emphasis on cognitive processes?
C. Supply of remedies A. Creating and thinking
D. Customary protection B. Understanding and remembering
C. Analyzing and understanding
43. Which of the following is correct in so far as our criminal law and D. Thinking and remember
criminal concerned where the provisions of our criminal law are
anchored on the classical also the positivist view or approach? 51. Which refers to self-focused attention toward one’s thoughts and feel
A. The purpose of retribution is to punish the guilty as deterrence to A. Depression
criminal B. Aggression
B. The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose C. Rumination
of penalty is retribution D. Frustration

52. Which are the manifestations of overt aggression? 62. Which system refers to legislation, norms, and standards, procedures,
A. Direct confrontation with victims, generally decreases with age mechanisms, institutions, and bodies specifically applicable to juvenile
B. A hostile act displayed in response to a perceived threat or offenders?
provocation A. Criminal justice
C. Is unprovoked, deliberate, goal-directed behavior used to B. Barangay justice
influence of coerce C. Retributive justice
D. Concealment dishonesty, sneaky behavior increases with age. D. Restorative justice
(Covert)
63. Which is NOT a physically neglected child?
53. Which refers to a condition when psychopaths demonstrate normal A. Ill-clad without proper shelter
appraisal and situations in the abstract (like verbal discussion), but they B. When a child is malnourished
are deficient in using guide their judgments and behavior in the process C. Mentally subnormal
of living? D. Child who is unattended when left by himself without provision of
A. Hemisphere asymmetry his need and/or proper supervision.
B. Brain imbalance
C. Cerebral asymmetry 64. Which characteristic of research deals with facts and not with mere
D. Emotional paradox opinions arising, assumptions, generalizations, predictions, or
conclusions?
54. Which Of the following became the model institution for all American A. Accuracy
juvenile offenders? B. Clarity
A. House of ill refute C. Relevance
B. Bridewell Palace D. Objectivity
C. Reformatory school
D. House of refuge 65. Patrolman Dan de la Cruz is assigned with the PNP Human Resource
and Doctrine Development and He was tasked to determine the
55. In what year was the New York House of Refuge, the first to segregate schooling of choice of newly graduated recruits using collegiate course
juvenile offenders and adult criminals established? and gender. For this purpose, he used explanatory research because.
A. 1845 A. it shows relationships or connectedness between two variables.
B. 1824 B. it analyzes data collected by others
A. 1899 ➔ The first juvenile court was established in Chicago, C. it focuses on the reasons behind the occurrence of something and
Illinois, in 1899 on the pre-effects of such happening
C. 1812 D. it aims to define or give verbal portrayal or picture of a person, a
thing, and situation (Descriptive Research)
56. Which of the following is characterized by emotional disturbances that
may lead to many illnesses? 66. Select the statistical methodology where the researcher calculates the
A. Abnormal mean, median and mode.
B. Environmental A. Inferential Statistics
C. Psychiatric B. Survey
D. Emotionally maladjusted C. Descriptive Statistics
D. Arithmetic
57. Which statement exemplifies that without the very source of strength
and courage of individual, man may develop fear and inferiority? 67. Which of the following is the importance of timely reporting of crime
A. It is through companionship that warmth is felt by a child. statistics?
B. Security is the state of being secure, specifically freedom from A. It deters people from committing crimes.
danger, risk, care, and apprehension. B. It is easy to process and store in digital format.
C. This is one thing needed in a family for a child. C. It determines whether the increases in crime volume were unique
D. Children's accomplishments and resourcefulness deserve to their own areas, or they are part of a broader national pattern
appreciation and reward. and trend.
D. It will improve the image of the locality.
58. Identify the child who has no proper parental love or guardianship or
whose parents have deserted him for a period of at least three 68. Which is the part of a research consisting of a short phrase or sentence
continuous months. that gives information a description of the things which are the focus of
A. Neglected the study?
B. Independent A. Introduction
C. Dependent B. Methodology
D. Abandoned C. Abstract
D. Title
59. Which refers to the cult or instant gratification?
A. Non-Utilitarian 69. A criminologist studied the types of inmates in prison and how they
B. Short-run Hedonism interact with each other to understand why some inmates adapt to
C. Negativism incarceration more easily than others. The objective of the study is to
D. Group Autonomy propose a general theory of inmate behavior that extends to all similar
inmate populations. The researcher utilized ethnography as his
60. Which of the following is NOT a part of the working definition of research design. How is ethnography suitable for the purpose of the
restorative justice? study?
A. Isolation A. It studies certain groups to gain clear understanding of its internal
B. Diversion operations or lifestyle.
C. Protection B. It studies how people find their experiences meaningful.
D. Prevention C. It involves a lengthy study of a person, group, or situation.
D. It prevents the discrimination of ethnic groups.
61. Which child as determined by the LSWDO to have been maltreated,
whether habitual? 70. It is a type of research that is crucial to do, research to guide lawmakers
A. Dependent in crafting laws that address the question of crime and how law
B. Abused enforcers respond to crime.
C. Abandoned A. Descriptive Research
D. Neglected B. Criminological Research
C. Correlation Research
D. Criminology Research 82. What Is the Title of Chapter One?
A. The problem and Introduction
71. It is Scientific and systematic search for pertinent information on a B. A problem and its settings
specific topic. C. The Problem and Its Settings
A. Data D. The Introduction and Its Problem
B. Research
C. Search 83. It is a Contribution of the result of the study to the individuals,
D. Data Gathering institutions, administrators, society, etc
A. Recommendation
72. It is done for the development of theories and principles. B. Significance of the study
A. Pure Research C. Hypothesis
B. Applied Research D. Conceptual Framework
C. Basic Research
D. Both A and C 84. Weaknesses of the study beyond the control of the researcher.
A. Scope
73. According to the level of Investigation, the researcher studies the B. Scope and Limitation
relationship of variables. C. Limitation
A. Exploratory Research D. Locality
B. Descriptive Research
C. Experimental Research 85. Chapter 2 means?
D. Research Investigation A. The problem and Its setting
B. Review and other studies like literature
74. According to the time of Element, this Research describe what is? C. Review of Related Literature and studies
A. Historical Research D. Literature and other studies
B. Inferential Research
C. Descriptive Research 86. It is called a Foreign unpublished article.
D. Experimental Research A. Foreign Literature
B. Local Literature
75. It Is the Foundation of the Study C. Foreign Studies
A. Theoretical Framework D. Local Studies
B. Conceptual Framework
C. Assumption 87. It is a relevance of literature and studies to the present research.
D. Hypothesis A. Local Studies
B. Synthesis
76. A device designed or adopted by researchers for data gathering. C. Significance of the study
A. Initial Contact with a Child D. Recommendation
B. Survey
C. Research Instrument 88. What chapter contains the answer to all the subproblems of the study?
D. Subject Instrument A. Chapter One
B. Chapter Two
77. An illustration of how research problems are generated from the C. Chapter Three
theoretical framework of the study. D. Chapter Four
A. Table of Content
B. Conceptual Framework 89. An appeal to people or institutions concerned to solve the problems
C. Theoretical Framework discovered in the study.
D. Hypothesis A. Significance of the study
B. Assumption
78. A self-evident truth which is based upon known fact or phenomenon, is C. Recommendation
not usually answered or proven because it is assumed true or correct D. Conclusions
which are beyond the control of the researcher.
A. Data 90. In dealing with the media during hostage situation, one must always
B. Data Gathering remember that…
C. Assumption A. Media people are nuisance and may get in the way of
D. Hypothesis operating people.
B. Media has a right and responsibility to report events during
79. It a type of Instrument that the information is collected directly from the an incident.
respondents. C. Conflict between management and the media is always
A. Research Instrument bound to happen in a hostage situation.
B. Subject Instrument D. Control over media people should be aimed to restrict their
C. Researcher Instrument movement within the inner perimeter.
D. Informant Instrument
91. If an assault is necessary in a hostage situation, it should be initiated
80. A science which deals with the systematic process of collecting, by…
organizing, classifying, presenting, interpreting, and analyzing data. A. The negotiator as the first option
A. Social Science B. A sizeable group of regular PNP
B. Statistic C. By one or two specially trained teams
C. Research D. By anybody after giving due warning to hostage taker
D. Data
92. Reason why not commander as negotiator.
81. An act or instance of interpreting an explanation. This is done to give A. As a cardinal rule, commander doesn’t negotiate, negotiator
meaning to data generated from the instrument to answer the problems doesn’t command.
raised in the study. B. He may make impossible demand
A. Data Gathering C. He will have a sense of importance
B. Interpretation of data D. All of these
C. Hypothesis
D. Assumption 93. The following are guidelines for police negotiators, except one.

A. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage C. Violent extremist offender
takers D. Terrorist group
B. Give in to all of the terrorist’s demands
C. Conserve your concession 4. A device, contrivance, tool, or instrument used to hold back, keep in,
D. Make sure you get something in return for a concession check, or control inmates.
A. Instrument of restraint
94. The highest-ranking field commander should not also be the chief B. Iron leg lock
negotiator because… C. Handcuffs
A. Hostage takers will be afraid D. Metallic chains
B. He is not authorized to grant concession
C. Of conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker 5. The inmate’s ___ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.
D. Hostage taker will not trust him A. Senior citizens inmates, pregnant and infirmed-sick pdl
B. 56 years old
95. Which of the following does not apply to the principle of hostage C. Jail aide
negotiation and recovery? D. Colonist
A. Hostage situation, not to go violent, is to the interest of the
hostage taker, as to authorities 6. The presiding judge shall place the witness stand _______. When the
B. Recovery of properties should be done at all cost prisoners are on the witness stand, the custodian shall stand between
C. The hostage has no value to the hostage taker the judge and the prisoner.
D. To successfully negotiate, there must be a need to live on A. At least 1.5 meters
the part of hostage taker. B. At least forty meters
C. Not less than 20 meters
96. Which of the following is not an answer to the demands of the hostage D. At least one meter and sixty-two centimeters
takers?
A. Confirm that his demand will be granted immediately. 7. It is an act of leaving from jail of an inmate through unofficial and illegal
B. Don’t give concession at once, subject to interpretation that ways or without any legal order from the authorities.
you could get easily. A. Jail break
C. Delay, impress hostage taker even simple demand are hard B. Jail escape
to get; that you need to talk with commander or other people C. Noise barrage
etc. D. Jail incident
D. Get something in return for every concession granted, like
aged, sick and youngster hostages. 8. The minimum requirements in the professionalization and upgrading of
qualification standards in the appointment of uniform personnel to the
97. The following are short range terrorist goal, except… BJMP applicant must have ____________ educational qualification?
A. Obtain money, weapons, or equipment. A. Baccalaureate degree
B. Cause dramatic change in the government. B. Master’s degree
C. Satisfy vengeance. C. At least 72 academic units in college
D. Free prisoners D. Doctorate degree
98. Which of the following is not a terrorist tactic? 9. It refers to a document containing the names of all officers in the active
A. Noise barrage corrections service, arranged by grade and in accordance with their
B. Bombing relative seniority for each regular component and by service to which
C. Assassination they are appointed.
D. Kidnapping A. 201 files
B. Blacklist
99. The most important consideration in a hostage taking situation. C. Access list
A. Protection of life D. Seniority and lineal list
B. Media coverage
C. Protection of property 10. Which of the following should be done before the offender is released?
D. Capture of the hostage taker. A. Prisoner is properly identified.
B. Prisoners are fitted to a despidida party.
100. In hostage situation, this is non-negotiable. C. A prisoner is adequately served his food.
A. Food
B. Telephone 11. What institution conducts training programs for uniformed personnel of
C. Media access the bureau of jail management and penology?
D. Firearm A. National fire training institute
B. National jail management and penology training institute
Part VI: Correctional Administration Area C. Corrections training school
1. A Dormitory with one hundred one (101) to five hundred (500) inmate
capacity and lot area of 1.5 hectares is classified as 12. What is the most usual form of sexual perversion in prison and jail
A. Type B facilities?
B. Type C A. Sodomy
C. Type A B. Homosexuality
D. Type D C. Masturbation
D. Chapopoy
2. When the offender is in transit, in case of _______that demands extra
precaution additional guards shall be employed. 13. One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an unforgiving society
A. High profile inmate against criminals is____.
B. High-risk inmate A. Worked out good relationship with the community.
C. Bisexual inmate B. Respond to a rehabilitation program.
D. Either of these C. Difficulties in securing employment
D. Fostered friendship with co prisoner.
3. An enemy combatant, high ranking official or a civilian in danger of
capture or death, typically in possession of critical intelligence, data, or 14. What prison system is considered as the rival of auburn system during
authority marked as an objective for a mission. the 18th century?
A. High value target A. Northern
B. Security threat group B. Walnut
C. Pennsylvania D. Deterrence
D. Eastern
25. What perspective (view) implies that the threat of punishment will
15. In the mid-nineteenth century most, offenders were sentence to flat or prevent people from committing crime and reduce the probability and/or
determinate sentences in prison where offender received a specific level of offending in society?
amount of time to serve in prison for a specific crime. This practice A. Atonement
resulted to ___. B. Retribution
A. Unfair treatment C. Incarceration
B. Release of offenders D. Deterrence
C. Inhumane treatment
D. Overcrowding of prisons 26. Which is not a form of punishment during the primitive times?
A. Corporal punishment
16. Which ancient form of punishment is also known as “fusillading”? B. Death penalty
A. Electric chair C. Reformation
B. Whipping D. Incarceration
C. Guillotine (France)
D. Firing squad 27. What is the focus of the reintegration model of correctional
administration?
17. In the execution by electrocution, the sentenced person is strapped to A. Incapacitation, deterrence, and retribution
a specially built chair and electrocuted by electrodes set on the B. Obedience, work, and education.
__________. C. Resumption of a normal life
A. Head and legs D. Separation and congregation
B. Hands and legs
C. Chest and fingers 28. A global perspective on correctional administration considered every
D. Head and chest prison as a place of ______ where those who violated the social
standards are made to atone their acts.
18. What conference should be undertaken after all the test, interviews and A. Punishment
examination has been conducted to plan for the inmate program for B. Discipline
treatment and training? C. Repentance
A. Admission D. Solitude (isolation)
B. Inmate
C. Treatment 29. Corrections is considered as the weakest pillar of the criminal justice
D. Staff system because of its _____.
A. Failure to address congestion of prisoners.
19. What is the main purpose of placing an inmate in the Directorate for B. Purpose to rehabilitate offenders.
Reception and Diagnostic for 60 days? C. Physical inability to accommodate offender.
A. Evaluation and classification D. Failure to deter people to commits crimes.
B. Registration and fingerprinting
C. Checking of contrabands. 30. What is the best description of correction as pillar of the criminal justice
D. Issuance of uniforms system?
A. It orients the offender about criminal proceedings.
20. Bureau of Corrections Act of 2013 (RA 10575), those personnel who B. It limits the power of the police over the accused.
fails to qualify with the civil service commission rule on qualification C. It takes over only when the accused is convicted.
standards will be given ____ years to have eligibility otherwise will be D. It gives opportunity to the offender find new connections.
subjected to attrition system.
A. 10 31. What rehabilitation program contributes to physical and mental health
B. 5 of inmate?
C. 3 A. Religion
D. 7 B. Cultural
C. Recreation
21. Republic Act 6975 ____ the BJMP being the lead agency in managing D. Livelihood
the jails in the country.
A. Modernized 32. What Justification of punishment implies a social defense wherein the
B. Professionalized society is protected from criminals being incarcerated? —
C. Created A. Reformation
D. Enacted B. Retribution
C. Deterrence
22. Which best describes the role of contemporary prisons? D. Protection
A. Impose the necessary punishment suited to the inmate.
B. Prepare inmate to become useful member of the society. 33. Penology falls under the broader field of study known as
C. Impose extreme cruelty to those who committed crimes. A. criminology
D. Get even with the offender for his non-conformity with the B. sociology
laws. C. criminalistics
23. The Fort William Mc Kinley in Fort Bonifacio, which was converted on 34. What justification of punishment allows retaliation on the part of the
June 30, 1968, to a prison was intended to _____. victim?
A. Incarcerate political prisoners and incorrigibles. A. Expiation
B. House women prisoners who violated criminal law. B. Retribution
C. Separate political offenders from other criminal offenders. C. Protection
D. Incarcerate offenders who violated military laws and D. Deterrence
ordinances.
35. What program will you implement to Justify the concept of corrections?
24. The justification of punishment in correctional administration in the A. Safekeeping, rehabilitation, and education
recent period is based on ____. B. Final Adjudication, warrant and custodial.
A. Atonement C. Preliminary Investigation and rehabilitation
B. Reformation and rehabilitation D. Detection, apprehension, and safekeeping
C. Protection
36. Correctional treatment programs are formulated for the purpose of A. Politicians
rehabilitating the prisoners MAINLY by ___. B. Female
A. Changing their attitudes and improving their philosophy of C. Drug user
life. D. Mentally ill
B. converting them to be a God-fearing member of the
community. 47. During the admission of inmates, weapon and other items classified as
C. preparing them to become a model citizen in the society. contraband are confiscated and deposited too the __________
D. instilling the importance of abiding the laws of the land. A. record unit
B. gater
37. Which procedure involves the formulation of a tentative treatment C. health unit
program best suited to the needs of the individual prisoner based on D. property custodian
the findings?
A. Execution of the treatment program 48. What admission procedures is performed when the receiving officer
B. Treatment planning examine the commitment papers if they are in order?
C. Diagnostic analysis A. Identification
D. Re-classification program B. Checking of commitment papers
C. Receiving of the inmate
38. Which is a contemporary concept of penology? D. Searching
A. Inflicts pain and suffering to offender.
B. Incarcerate offender to get justice. 49. In dealing with unusual or special offenders they should not be held in
C. Change the attitude of the offender. jails or prison with the common jail/prison population but instead they
D. Provide offender a happy life. should be ______________.
A. detained under the care of the Department of Social Work
39. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is headed by a Chief B. release to the custody of the Local Government Executives
with the rank of ______________. C. advised to avail of the privilege of probation from the court.
A. General D. segregated with other institutions as their temporary
B. Director General detention.
C. Lieutenant General Director
D. Director 50. Which stage in the classification procedures where the prisoners case
history is taken, and his personality studied?
40. District Jails are under the supervision of_______ A. Execution planning
A. Provincial Jail B. Treatment planning
B. Department of Interior and Local Government C. Diagnosis
C. Bureau of Corrections D. Reclassification
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
51. During the admission process, who checks the credentials of the
41. In the event that an inmate from provincial jail escape from his person bringing the inmate/the committing officer to determine his/her
detention, the provincial warden should immediately inform the identity and authority?
___________________. A. Jail Desk Officer
A. DG, Bureau of Correction B. Custodian
B. RD, BJMP C. Recorder
C. Provincial Governor D. Health Officer
D. Chief, BJMP
52. Who shall be responsible for the consolidation of all the results and
42. What shall be done if a BJMP personnel is found positive of illegal drugs shall make the proper decision as to the classification of the inmates
after confirmatory test? and the identification development programs for each inmate?
A. The disciplining authority shall formally charge the A. Jail Desk Officer
personnel immediately after the initial investigation. B. Health Officer
B. The disciplining authority shall immediately order the arrest C. Case manager
and safekeeping of the personnel. D. Recorder
C. The Investigating Officer shall bring the personnel before
the prosecutor for inquest proceedings. 53. CHAPS the movie actor was arrested by virtue of a warrant issued by
D. The disciplining authority shall immediately relieve the a Judge for a crime of rape inmate's classification according to security
personnel from his assignment. risk you are going to give him.
A. High Value
43. Which disciplinary sanctions can be imposed on inmates? B. Security Threat
A. Forfeiture of salaries and wages earned. C. High Risk
B. Cancellation of telephone calls D. High Profile
C. Payment of fees to the Office of the Warden
D. Cancellation of some or all recreational privileges. 54. In addition to implementing measures to protect the senior citizen PDL
from discrimination and establishing functional priority lanes for them,
44. Whenever the riot or escape alarm is sounded either by siren, bell or the primary policy is to _______________.
gunfire, all prisoners shall be ordered to __________. A. link them to the Office of the Local Chief Executives
A. sit down with both hands placed at the back of the neck. B. link them to the local Office of Senior Citizen Affairs Office
B. lie flat on the ground, face down and with arms and legs (OSCA) and Person with Disability Affairs Office (PDAO)
spread out of the body. C. refer them to the Malasakit Center in the locality.
C. kneel down with both hands raised in the air. D. coordinate to the Social Security System Office
D. stop their movements and maintain their positions until
being told otherwise. 55. As per guideline, which inmate can be given a special treatment in
terms of work assignment?
45. Which act is categorized as a less grave offense? A. Aged and Infirm
A. Making untruthful statements in any official communication B. Sex deviates
B. Rendering personal service to fellow inmate (s) C. Foreigners
C. Failure to report for work detail without sufficient justification. D. Escape-prone inmates
D. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail.
46. Who is NOT considered a special inmate?

56. Which will you recommend to special offenders that includes women B. if the inmates involved are high profile
offenders, drug addicts, alcoholics, mentally ill persons, and sex C. if the use of improvised explosive device failed
deviates? D. If the use of negotiation and non-deadly force failed.
A. They should be integrated with their fellow inmates to 66. The advantages of a probation sentence over incarceration include
develop their camaraderie and belongingness. allowing the offender to work in the community, earn money to support
B. They should be provided with an opportunity to learn the his or her family, and to ___.
rigors of life and adjust to the difficult situation inside prison. A. Decongest the growing population of prisoners inside jails
C. They should be provided with work programs suitable to and prisons.
their degree of security and risk. B. Enlightened him about the value of liberty and freedom.
D. They should be segregated with other institutions as their C. Conform with the concept of institutional treatment of
temporary detention houses and special methods of offender.
treatment shall be given. D. Have the support of friends and family while attending
counseling sessions.
57. What is the act of taking away of an inmate or inmates from the custody
of jail officers through the use of force, threat or intimidation while said 67. A community-based treatment underlines the goal of re-integrating the
inmate is inside the jail facility or while on transit? probationer into the ____.
A. Rescue A. Mainstream of society
B. Kidnapping B. Correctional system
C. Lock up C. Criminal justice system
D. Abduction D. Institutional reforms
58. What is the LAST level in the use of force continuum that can be used 68. When clarifying discrepancies between the information received from
by jail personnel in case of riot, noise barrage and hostage taking? the applicant and those secured from other sources, the investigating
A. deadly force probation officer may conduct ____.
B. brutal force A. Further interviews on the applicant and other persons
C. no force B. Undercover investigation in the residence of the applicant
D. Non-deadly force.. C. Tactical interrogation to the applicant and other sources
D. Stake out from the immediate neighborhood.
59. Which shall be non-negotiable during hostage taking incident?
A. Weapons 69. From the date of conviction and sentence, when may an applicant for
B. Beverages probation file the application for probation?
Media coverage A. Before 15 days
Food B. Within 15 days
C. After 15 days
60. Which should be done by jail officers to detect tampering or destroying D. On appeal
security facilities?
A. Conduct regular inmate head count. 70. The application for probation shall be in the form approved by secretary
B. Supervise proper use of tools. of justice and it may be obtained from any _____.
C. Conduct frequent meetings. A. City or provincial prosecutor’s office
D. Maintain a system of key control. B. City or provincial parole and probation office
C. City or regional office
61. A listing of mail for inmates should properly posted in a _____ place. D. Municipal and regional trial court
A. Inconspicuous
B. warden's 71. What is the attribute of post sentence investigation on the part of the
C. clandestine court in giving a decision whether to deny or grant probation?
D. conspicuous A. Mandatory
B. Optional
62. When dining rooms are provided, the inmates should march in a column C. Special
of _____________ along designated routes under the supervision of D. Supplemental
one or two jail personnel.
A. Two 72. What is the nature of interview and information gathering to an applicant
B. Four of probation?
C. One A. It shall be confidential in nature and applicant does not a
D. Three counsel.
B. It is overt in nature and applicant does not need a counsel.
63. Which alarm should be sounded if the riot and disturbance has reached C. it shall be confidential, and applicant does not require a
full scale? counsel.
A. Second Alarm E. It shall be confidential, and applicant need a counsel.
B. Third Alarm
C. Fourth Alarm 73. Which probationers may be recommended for the early termination of
D. First Alarm probation?
A. Those recommended for further supervision.
64. During lunch time, a group of inmates started to have a noise barrage B. Those who are cooperative and participative probationer in
due to the condition of food being serve to them. As a Warden, what the programs. (take board exam., appointment in
should you do? government)
A. Use a water canon to disperse the group of inmates creating C. Those convicted for offenses involving moral turpitude.
the noise barrage. D. Those physically and mentally fit for travel
B. Alert the special reaction team and instruct them to use non-
deadly weapon to the PDL. 74. What will happen if the probation is revoked by the court?
C. Request for back-up from the nearest police station because A. The probationer shall be ordered to serve the original
the situation may escalate to riot. sentence imposed.
D. Lock up the inmates to ensure perimeter security and B. The judge will give his decision on the case filed against the
conduct dialogue and negotiation with them. probationer.
C. The court will advise the prosecutor to review the case for
65. Determine when you are going to use a deadly force in a riot or hostage reference.
taking incident inside the jail. D. The chief of police will issue warrant for the arrest of the
A. If the inmates are complying with the instructions. probationer.
D. Place the probationer on a watch list in coordination with the
75. From the receipt of the order of the court to conduct the investigation, probation office to prevent him from leaning the country or
the probation officer must submit the post-sentence investigation report evade his sentence.
not later than ____ days.
A. 15 84. Parole is different from probation in that the former is an administrative
B. 30 function while the latter is _____.
C. 45 A. Administrative function
D. 60 B. Judicial function
C. Operational function
76. Who shall assign the conduct of post-sentence investigation to an D. Executive function
investigating probation officer?
A. The Chief Probation and Parole Office 85. Who is the ex officio member of the Board of Pardon and Parole
B. The prosecutor A. The administrator of parole and probation administration
C. The trial court B. The secretary of department of interior and local
D. The supervising probation and parole officer government
C. The secretary of department of justice
77. The supervision activity of the probation officer to a probationer granted D. The director of the bureau of corrections
with probation is basically considered as ____.
A. Judicial function 86. Who serves as the chairman of the board of pardon and parole?
B. Administrative process A. Parole administrator
C. Legal process B. Executive officer
D. Police function C. Secretary of justice
D. Secretary of interior and local government
78. What kind of report is intended to assist the court in determining
whether or not the ends of justice and the best interest of the public as 87. What system was developed by Sir Walter Crofton that permitted
well as the applicant will be served by the grant or denial of probation? convicts to earn marks to move from solitary confinement and return to
A. Pre-sentence investigation the community on a conditional pardon?
B. Full blown investigation A. Mark system
C. Post-sentence investigation B. Crofton system
D. Probation investigation C. Parole system
D. Indeterminate system
79. When does the probation officer submit the termination report?
A. At least 30 days after the expiration of the period of 88. What system was introduced by Sir Walter Crofton that allowed
probation convicts to earn marks to move from solitary confinement to their
B. At least 10 days before the expiration of the period of respective communities on a conditional pardon?
probation A. Ticket
C. At least 15 days before the expiration of the period of B. English
probation C. Irish
D. At least 30 days before the expiration of the period of D. Passes
probation
89. What government agency is responsible for the formulation of
80. CHAPS, a probationer wanted to travel outside his area of territorial conditions of probation?
jurisdiction for a period of ten (10) days but not exceeding thirty days, A. Prosecutor
the authority to allow CHAPS to travel may come from ___. B. Probation
A. The Trial Court Judge C. Court
B. The Probation Officer D. Police
C. The Chief Probation Officer
D. The Supervising Probation Officer 90. What office should conduct the post-sentence investigation?
A. City/Provincial Prosecutor Office
81. Who shall assess and recommend the appropriate treatment and B. City/Provincial Parole and Probation Office
supervision program upon the applicant if granted probation? C. Police Case Investigation Team
A. The supervising probation officer or the chief probation D. Post-sentence Investigation Team
officer
B. The investigating probation officer or the chief probation 91. How would you call a convicted defendant whose application for
officer probation has been given due course by the court but fails to report to
C. The trial court judge or the chief probation officer the probation office or his location is unknown and cannot be located?
D. The trial court judge or the prosecuting officer A. Absconding petitioner
B. Absconding probationer
82. Who shall represent the state if there is a serious violation of probation C. Absconding offender
condition (s) D. Fugitive from Law
A. During a hearing or proceeding?
B. Chief state prosecutor 92. CHAPS applied for probation and waiting for the decision of the court
C. Prosecuting officer whether to approve or deny his application. Can CHAPS be temporarily
D. Secretary of justice released from custody?
A. No, he may not be released until the result of his post
83. Once a serious violation of a probation condition has been established sentence investigation is received by the court.
in the hearing, the trial court may ____. B. Yes, he may be temporarily released under bail or be
A. Revoke the probation and shall order the probation officer released on recognizance of a responsible member of the
on case to submit the probation administrative file to the community.
court within 72 hours for safekeeping. C. No, he may not be released until the result of his preliminary
B. Order the conduct of full-blown investigation to determine investigation is completed by the
the surrounding circumstances of the violation of probation D. Yes, he may be permanently released under bail upon the
and impose the necessary sanction to the probationer. instruction of the court especially he is incapable of posting
C. Order the continuance of the probationer’s probation or the same.
modification of the probation condition or revoke his
probation whichever is proper and just under judicial 93. Probation is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and
discretion. sentence is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and to
the supervision of a probation officer who may NOT be qualified for “Therefore, all things whatsoever ye
probation?
A. CHAPS who are a first-time offender and sentence to six
that men would do to you, do ye even
years imprisonment so to them; for this is the law and the
B. CHAPOPOY who is convicted of a crime against national prophets” - Matthew 7:12
security.
C. CHUPAPI who violated city ordinances in his place of
residence.
D. CHUP-CHUP who is caught stealing a kilo of mango fruit “SA CHAPS REVIEW CENTER IKAW
from her neighbor.
ANG BIDA
94. When may the court order the final discharge of the probationer? AT SUSUNOD NA REGISTERED
A. After the probationer show that he is already a "change CRIMINOLOGIST!!!”
man" or rehabilitated
B. After the probationer complied with the instruction of the
supervising probation officer
C. Upon finding that he has fulfilled the terms and conditions of
his probation
D. Upon determination of the readiness of the probationer to
submit himself for supervision
95. Can all sentenced offenders apply for probation?

A. Yes, provided they are qualified.
B. Yes, it is their privilege to apply.
C. Yes, because it is their right to apply.
D. Yes, provided they are disqualified
96. Pedro's application for probation was denied by the court. The decision
of the court is _____________.
A. Appealable
B. amendable
C. not amendable
D. not appealable
97. As a Criminologist, how would you describe probation?

A. A right granted by the court to a person convicted of a
criminal offense to remain in the community instead of
actually going to prison/jail.
B. A disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and
sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the
community and to the supervision of a probation officer.
C. Both right and privilege granted by the court to a person
convicted of a criminal offense to remain in the community
instead of actually going to prison/jail.
D. A privilege granted by the court to a person convicted of a
criminal offense to remain in the community instead of
actually going to prison/jail.
98. CHAPS, a probationer, intended to reside in another province and was

permitted by the Trial Court What will happen to the control and
supervision of her probation program?
A. It will be transferred to the Warden of that place.
B. It will be transferred to the Executive Judge of that place.
C. It will be transferred to the Chief of Police of that Place.
D. It will be transferred to the Prosecutor of that Place.
99. Who serves as the Chairman of the Board of Pardon and Parole?
A. Executive Officer
B. Parole Administrator
C. Secretary of Interior and Local Government
D. Secretary of Justice
100. What is the effect of the application for probation by the convicted
person to his case under the probation law?
A. It is an automatic waiver of his right to appeal.
B. It will prevent the court from rendering decision.
C. The trail court will refer his case to the supreme court.
D. He could still file an appeal to the next level court.
“But seek first his kingdom and his

righteousness, and all these things will
be given to you as well.” - Matthew
6:33

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CHAPS ONLINE/ONSITE TUTORIAL SERVICES

CRIMINOLOGY ● PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAMINATION ● FIRE OFFICER EXAMINATION ● NAPOLCOM

Page 1 of 32: CHAPS Online Tutorial Services

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46. Who is NOT considered a special inmate?

95. Can all sentenced offenders apply for probation?

97. As a Criminologist, how would you describe probation?

98. CHAPS, a probationer, intended to reside in another province and was

“But seek first his kingdom and his

Page 32 of 32: CHAPS Online Tutorial Services

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