MCQ ON WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

Question 1) The work done depend on:

a) Applied force & displacement
b)acceleration & displacement
c) Applied force & energy
d) Applied force & mass

Ans-(a)

Question 2) When displacement is normal to applied

force then work done is:
a) infinite
b) zero
c) positive
(d) negative
Ans-(b)
W = F x S cos theta
Theta = 90 : cos9 0 = 0
W=0

Question 3) A force of 20 N displace a body by distance of

3 m at angle of 60° to its own direction. find amount of
work done:
a) 30J
b) 75 J
c) 35 J
d)20J

Ans-(a)
W=F ×S × cos theta
= 20×3×1\2=30J

Question 4) The work done by machine to load luggage in

60s is 1800J. calculate the power spent by machine.
a) 50 w
b) 30 W
c) 80W
d) 70W

Ans- option (b)

Power= work done/time
= 1800/60
= 30 W

Question 5) A man exerts force of 600N in pushing a car

at speed of 12 m/s. calculate the power.
a) 7200 W
b) 8200 W
c) 7300W
d)8300W

Ans- option (a)

Power = force x velocity = 600×12=7200 W
Question 6) The total mechanical energy is sum of:
a)Kinetic energy and gravitational energy
b) Potential energy and heat energy
c) Potential energy and kinetic energy
d) kinetic energy and nuclear energy

Ans Option (c)

Question 7) When gravitation P.E of body is zero when it

is:
a) At finite
b) At nearest
c) At infinity
d) both

Ans- option (c)

Question 8) When an object is thrown upward then P.E:
a) decrease
b) zero
c) negative
d) increase

Ans- option (d)

Question 9) If mass of body is doubled than kinetic

energy:
a) gets double
b) become half
c) become 4
d) does not change

Ans- option (a)

Question 10) Solar cells convert:
a) heat energy to mechanical energy
b) electrical energy to light energy
c) chemical energy to heat energy
d)solar energy to electrical energy

Ans- option(d)

Question 11) Loudspeaker converts:

a) electrical energy to sound energy.
b) chemical energy to heat energy
c) Light energy to electrical energy
d) heat energy to mechanical energy

Ans-option (a)
Question 12) when coal is burnt, chemical energy is
converted into:
a) mechanical energy
b) solar energy
c)heat energy
d) sound energy

Ans- option (c)

Question 13) which energy released heat in interior of

earth:
a) Geothermal energy
b) magnetic energy
c) chemical energy
d) wind energy

Ans- option (a).

Question 14) Calculate Kinetic energy of body of mass 0.2
kg & velocity 300m/s.
a) 80 J
b) 65 J
c) 70 J
d) 30 J

Ans- option (d)

E = 1/2 mv²
= 1/2 x 0.2 x 300 = 30 J

Question 15) The sum of all forms of energy in universe

remain:
a) finite
b) constant
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans- Option (b)

Question 16) As body falls its potential energy……. &

kinetic energy………:
a) decrease, increase
b) increase, increase
c) increase, decrease
d) decrease, decrease

Ans-option (a)

Question 17) On reaching the ground, body possess:

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Electrical energy
d) mechanical energy
Ans-option (b)

Question 18) A body of mass 2kg fall from height of 5m.

how much energy does it posses? (g = 9.8 m/s²)
a) 98 J
b) 90J
c) 95J
d)43J

Ans-Option (a)
energy possesed by body =initial P.E of the body
=m×g×h=2×5×9.8=98J

Question 19) Electromagnet is an example of:

a) Mechanical energy
b) hydro energy
(c) Magnetic energy
(d) wind energy
Ans-option (c)

Question 20) The rate of doing work is known as:

a) force
b) motion
c) energy
d) Power

Ans-option (d)

MCQ ON REFRACTION OF LIGHT THROUGH PLANE

SURFACE
Question 1: When a ray of light from air enters a denser
medium, it:
(a) Bends away from the normal
(b) Bends towards the normal
(c) Goes undeviated
(d) Is reflected back

Answer (b) Bends towards the normal

Question 2: A light ray does not bend at the boundary in

passing from one medium to the other medium if the
angle of incidence is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Answer (a) 0°

Question 3: The highest refractive index is of:

(a) Glass
(b) Water
(c) Diamond
(d) Ruby

Answer (c) Diamond

Question 4: The speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m s-1.

Calculate the speed of light in glass. The refractive index
of glass is 1.5.
(a) v = 2 x 1012 m/s
(b) v = 24 x 1024 m/s
(c) v = 2 x 108 m/s
(d) v = 4 x 1016 m/s
Answer (c) v = 2 x 108 m/s

Question 5: In refraction of light through a prism, the

light ray:
(a) Suffers refraction only at one face of the prism
(b) Emerges out from the prism in a direction parallel to
the incident ray
(c) Bends at both the surfaces of prism towards its base
(d) Bends at both the surfaces of prism opposite to its
base

Answer (c) Bends at both the surfaces of prism towards

its base

Question 6: A ray of light suffers refraction through an

equilateral prism. The deviation produced by the prism
does not depend on the:
(a) Angle of incidence
(b) Colour of light
(c) Material of prism
(d) Size of prism

Answer (d) Size of prism

Question 7: A ray of light incident at an angle 48o on a

prism of refracting angle 60o suffers minimum deviation.
Calculate the angle of minimum deviation.
(a) 𝛿min = 120
(b) 𝛿min = 240
(c) 𝛿min = 480
(d) 𝛿min = 360

Answer (d) 𝛿min = 360

Question 8: A small air bubble in a glass block when seen

from above appears to be raised because of:
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Reflection of light
(c) Reflection and refraction of light
(d) None of the above

Answer (a) Refraction of light

Question 9: An object in a denser medium when viewed

from a rarer medium appears to be raised. The shift is
maximum for:
(a) Red light
(b) Violet light
(c) Yellow light
(d) Green light

Answer (b) Violet light

Question 10: A water pond appears to be 2.7 m deep. If
the refractive index of water is 4/3, find the actual depth
of the pond.
(a) 3.6 m
(b) 3 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 3.9 m

Answer (a) 3.6 m

Question 11: A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker

containing water (refractive index = 4/3) to a depth of 12
cm. By what height the coin appears to be raised when
seen from vertically above?
(a) 2 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 1.5 cm
Answer (c) 3 cm

Question 12: A postage stamp kept below a rectangular

glass block or refractive index 1.5 when viewed from
vertically above it, appears to be raised by 7.0 mm.
Calculate the thickness of the glass block.
(a) 3.1 cm
(b) 2.1 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 4.2 cm

Answer (b) 2.1 cm

Question 13: The critical angle for glass-air interface is :

(a) 24°
(b) 48°
(c) 42°
(d) 45°
Answer (c) 42°

Question 14: A total reflecting right angled isosceles

prism can be used to deviate a ray of light through
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 75°
(d) 90°

Answer (d) 90°

Question 15: A total reflecting equilateral prism can be

used to deviate a ray of light through:
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 75°
(d) 90°
Answer (b) 60°

Question 16: The refractive index of water with respect to

air is 4/3. What is the refractive index of air with respect
to water?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 1.5
(d) 0.70

Answer(b) 0.75

Question 17: A ray of light of wavelength 5400 Â suffers

refraction from air to glass. Taking μ=3/2, find the
wavelength of light in glass.
(a) 1200 Â
(b) 4200 Â
(c) 4800 Â
(d) 3600 Â

Answer (d) 3600 Â

Question 18: When a beam of light strikes a glass slab a

part of it is :
(a) reflected
(b) absorbed
(c) transmitted
(d) all of these

Answer: (a) reflected

Question 19: The phenomenon due to which a ray of light

deviates from its path while travelling from one optical
medium to another optical medium is called :
(a) dispersion
(b) refraction
(c) reflection
(d) diffraction

Answer: (b) refraction

Question 20: When a ray of light travelling in an

optically denser medium, emerges into an optically less
denser medium it :
(a) deviates towards the normal
(b) deviates away from normal
(c) does not deviate
(d) gets reflected

Answer: (b) deviates away from normal

MCQ ON REFRACTION THROUGH A LENS

Question 1: A beam of light converges in
a) convex lens
b) concave lens
c) Prism
d) equiconcave lens

Ans-option (a)

Question 2: Which lens is diverging

a) convexo-concave lens
b) equi- concave lens
c) equi -convex lens
d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans- Option (d)

Question 3: The medium on both side of a lens is same

then
a) first and second focal length is not equal
b) First and second focal length are equal
c) first focal length is greater than second focal length
d) first focal length is less than second focal length

Ans-option (b)

Question 4: The lens is placed in water its focal length

a) decrease
b) equal
c) increase
d)None of these
Ans-option (c)

Question 5: The focal length do not depend on

a) refractive index
b) radii of curvature
c) Direction of light
d) Both (a) & (b)

Ans- option (c)

Question 6: The image of an object formed by concave

lens is
a) virtual
b) real
c) erect
d) Both (a) & (c)
Ans-option(d)

Question 7: For the object is placed between the optical

centre & focus of a convex lens the image is
a) virtual & magnified
b) virtual & diminshed
c) real & magnified
d) real & diminished

Ans-option (a)

Question 8: For the object placed at a very large distance

of a concave lens, the image is
a) real & diminished
b) real & enlarged
c) virtual & diminished
d) virtual & enlarged
Ans-option (c)

Question 9: A patient of hypermetropia is given

spectacles of
a)concave lens
b) convex lens
c) compound lens
d)lens of zero capacity

Ans-option (b)

Question 10: Which one of following can be used to

formed virtual & magnified image of an object
a) convex lens
b) concave lens
c) Compound lens
d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans-option (a)

Question 11: According to sign convention, the focal

length of concave lens is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) one

Ans-option (b)

Question 12: When magnification is positive then image

is
a) Virtual
b) real
c) inverted
d) Both (b) & (c)

Ans-option (a)

Question 13: When a ray deviates toward the centre, the

power is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) large

Ans- option (a)

Question 14: An object is placed at distance of 20cm in

front of concave lens of focal length 20cm .find position
of image:
a) -20cm
b) 20 cm
c) -10cm
d) 10cm

Ans- option(c)

Question 15: The distance of object in front of lens is

always:
a) positive
b) virtual
c) zero
d) negative

Ans-option (d)
Question 16: A convex lens has focal length of 50 cm. find
it’s power is:
a) 2D
b) 4D
c) 5D
d) 9D

Ans-option (a)

Question 17: Which of following is used as magnifying

glass:
a) diverging lens
b) concave lens
c) plane mirror
d) converging lens

Ans- Option (d)

Question 18: The correct magnifying power formula is
a) 1+f/D.
b) 1+D/f
c) 1-D/f
d) 1-f/D

Ans-option (b)

Question 19: A simple microscope forms

a) virtual image
b) inverted image
c) real image
d) no image

Ans-option (a)
Question 20: when lens is thick in middle and thin at
edges then lens is
a) concave
b) convex
c) simple microscope
d) Both (a) & (b)

Ans- option (b)

MCQ ON SOUND

Question 1: The minimum distance between the source

and the reflector in air, so that an echo is heard is
approximately equal to:
(a) 10 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 34 m
(d) 50 m
Answer (b) 17 m

Question 2: To detect the obstacles in their path, bats

produce:
(a) Infrasonic waves
(b) Ultrasonic waves
(c) Electromagnetic waves
(d) Radio waves

Answer (b) Ultrasonic waves

Question 3: The wavelength of waves produced on the

surface of water is 20cm. If the wave velocity is 24m s-1,
calculate (i) the number of waves produced in one
second.
(a) 60
(b) 125
(c) 120
(d) 140

Answer (c) 120

Question 4: Calculate the minimum distance in air

required between the source of sound and the obstacle to
hear an echo. Take the speed of sound in air = 350m s-1
(a) 16.5 m
(b) 34.5 m
(c) 17.5 m
(d) none of these

Answer (c) 17.5 m

Question 5: What should be the minimum distance

between the source and reflector in water so that echo is
heard distinctly? (The speed of sound in water =
1400m/s)
(a) 70 m
(b) 80 m
(c) 50 m
(d) none of these

Answer (a) 70 m

Question 6: A man standing 25 m away from a wall

produces a sound and receives the reflected sound.
Calculate the time after which he receives the reflected
sound if the speed of sound in air is 350m/s-1.
(a) 1.143 seconds
(b) 0.143 seconds
(c) 0.15 seconds
(d) none of these
Answer (b) 0.143 seconds

Question 7: A man standing 48 m away from a wall fires

a gun. Calculate the time after which an echo is heard.
(The speed of sound in air is 320m/s-1).
(a) 0.3 seconds
(b) 0.5 seconds
(c) 1.3 seconds
(d) none of these

Answer (a) 0.3 seconds

Question 8: A pendulum has a frequency of 5 vibrations

per second. An observer starts the pendulum and fires a
gun simultaneously. He hears an echo from the cliff after
8 vibrations of the pendulum. If the velocity of sound in
air is 340m/s-1 , find the distance between the cliff and the
observer.
(a) 372 m
(b) 275 m
(c) 350 m
(d) 272 m
Answer (d) 272 m

Question 9: A person standing between two vertical cliffs

produces the sound. Two successive echoes are heard at
4s and 6s. Calculate the distance between the cliffs.
(Speed of sound in air = 320m/s)
(a) 3200 m
(b) 800 m
(c) 1600 m
(d) 1900 m

Answer (c) 1600 m

Question 10: SONAR is a technique used to ………………

(a) detect the submarine inside sea
(b) determine the size of blue whale
(c) detect the impurities present in sea water
(d) detect the depth of sea bed

Answer (d) detect the depth of sea bed

Question 11: Bats can catch their prey by using the

principle of ……….
(a) reflection of sound
(b) refraction of sound
(c) concept of echo
(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer (d) both (a) and (c)

Question 12: Modern super sonicC war planes use the

principle of ……………. while detecting their targets.
(a) echo
(b) SONAR
(c) reverberation
(d) none of these

Answer (a) echo

Question 13: The ice berg or a glacier in the artic region

can be judged by a submarine by using the principle of :
(a) repetition of sound
(b) reflection of sound
(c) refraction of sound
(d) none of the above

Answer (b) reflection of sound

Question 14: The repetition of sound heard in a cave or

empty room is a case of …………….
(a) echo
(b) superposition
(c) interpolation
(d) reverberation

Answer (d) reverberation

Question 15: On sending an ultrasonic wave from a ship

towards the bottom of a sea, the time interval between
sending the wave and receiving it back is found to be 1.5s.
If the velocity of wave in sea water is 1400m/s, find the
depth of sea.
(a) 1000 m
(b) 1050 m
(c) 1150 m
(d) none of the these

Answer (b) 1050 m

Question 16: The practical application based on the
reflection of sound is:
(a) megaphone
(b) sounding board
(c) sonometer
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

Question 17: Which is the condition for the formation of

echoes ?
(a) Minimum distance between the source of sound and
reflecting body should be 17 m.
(b) The temperature of air should be above 20°C.
(c) The wavelength of sound should be less than the
height of the reflecting body.
(d) The intensity of sound should be sufficient so that it
could be heard after reflection.
Answer: (a) Minimum distance between the source of
sound and reflecting body should be 17 m.

Question 18: For hearing an echo, the minimum distance

between the source of sound and reflecting body should
be
(a) 12 m
(b) 24 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 51 m

Answer: (c) 17m

Question 19: To locate its prey in the darkness the owl or

the bat emits:
(a) infrasonic waves
(b) ultrasonic waves
(c) sonic waves
(d) infrared waves
Answer: (b) ultrasonic waves

Question 20: Velocity of sound is constant in ……

(a) all mediums
(b) homogeneous medium
(c) hetrogeneous medium
(d) vacuum

Answer: (b) homogeneous medium

MCQ ON ELECTRICITY

Question 1: The substance which do not allow electricity to

pass through them is
a) insulator
b) conductor
c) semi-conductor
d) charge

Ans- Option (a)

Question 2: The formula of current is

a) Q = I/t
b)I = t/ Q
c) I = Q/t
d) t=IQ

Ans- Option (c)

Question 3: One coulomb is equals to

a) change in 6.25×10^18 proton
b) change in 6.25×10^18 electrons
c)6.25X10^18 alpha ray
d) 6.25×10^18 beta ray

Ans- Option (b)

Question 4: To measure potential difference volmeter is

always connected in
a) parallel.
b) Series
c) both (a) & (b)
d) None of these

Ans- Option (a)

Question 5: A charge of 5C flows through the copper wire

for 4s connected across the cell of potential difference
30V the work done is
a)100J
b) 250J
c)200J
d) 150 J

Ans- Option (d)

Question 6: Ohm’s law is obeyed only when temperature

of conductor remains
a) constant
b) decrease
c) increase
d) Both (b) & (c)

Ans- Option (a)

Question 7: The resistance of conductor do not depend on
a) material of conductor
b) temperature of conductor
c) humidity of conductor
d) Length of conductor

Ans- option (c).

Question 8: The specific resistance is very high for:

a) metal
b) insulator
c) semiconductor
d) alloys

Ans-option (b)
Question 9: A fuse wire do not have:
a) low melting
b) low resistivity
c) high conductivity
d) low specific resistance

Ans- Option (d)

Question 10: A substance of zero resistance at a very low

temperature is:
a) Superconductor
b) conductor
c) Insulates
d) resistance
Ans- Option (a)

Question 11: E.m.f of a cell is independent of:

a) The shape of electrodes
b) The material of electrodes
c) The distance between the electrodes
d) Both (a) & (c)

Ans- Option(d)

Question 17: The unit shown in meter of household is

a) Watt
b) Kilowatt
c) Kilowatt hour
d) volt
Ans- Option (c)

Question 18: The amount of heat produced in wire is

directly
a)proportional to resistance & time
b) inversely proportional to resistance & time
c) proportional to power & time.
d) inversely proportional to power & time

Ans-option (a)

Question 19: A current of 2A is passed through a coil of

resistance 75 ohm for 2 minute. The potential difference is
a) 120V
b)150V
c) 170V
d) 130 V
Ans- Option (b)

Question 20: Which is incorrect formula of electrical

power
a) I²R
b) V2/R
c) V^2 × I.
d) W/t

Ans- Option (c)

MCQ ON MAGNETISM
Question 1. What is the nature of the lines of force of the
magnetic field due to straight current carrying wire?

(a) concentric circles centred on the wire

(b) line parallel to wire
(c) helical
(d) none of these
Ans- (a) concentric circles centred on the wire
Question 2. When number of turns in the solenoid
increases, magnetic field:

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) may decrease or increase
(d) can not be determined

Ans- (b) increases

Question 3. When radius of coil increases, strength of the

magnetic field at the centre of current carrying coil:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) can not be determined

Ans- (b) decreases

Question 4. Which rule is used to determine the direction

of force on a current carrying conductor?

(a) Fleming's right hand rule

(b) Fleming's left hand rule
(c) Right hand thumb rule
(d) Any of the above

Ans- (b) Fleming's left hand rule

Question 5. To find the direction of induced current in a
conductor, rule used is:

(a) Right hand palm Rule No. 1

(b) Left hand thumb rule
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Right hand palm Rule No. 2

Ans- (c) Fleming's right hand rule

Question 6. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. A magnet may exert force on a charged particle
2. A charged particle may move undeflected in a
magnetic field
3. Moving charges are the source of magnetic field
4. All are correct
Ans- All are correct

Question 7. A magnetic field may:

1. Change the velocity of a charged particle
2. Change the speed of a charged particle
3. Change the KE of a charged particle
4. Stop a moving charged particle

Ans- Change the velocity of a charged particle

Question 8. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of

conservation of:
1. Energy
2. Momentum
3. Angular momentum
4. Charge and mass

Ans- Energy

Question 9. The induced emf produced when a magnet is

inserted into a coil does not depend upon:
1. The number of turns of coil
2. The resistance of coil
3. The magnetic moment of the magnet
4. The speed of approach of the magnet

Ans- The resistance of coil

Question 10. Lenz’s law

1. Is the same as the right hand palm rule
2. Determines the magnitude of an induced emf
3. Bears no relation to the law of conservation of energy
4. Is useful in deciding about the direction of an induced
emf

Ans- 4. Is useful in deciding about the direction of an

induced emf

Question 11. A.C. used in our domestic consumption has a

frequency
1. 60Hz
2. 50Hz
3. 30Hz
4. 100Hz
Ans- 50Hz

Question 12. A solenoid having an iron core has its

terminals connected across an ideal D.C source. If the iron
core is removed the current flowing through solenoid is:
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
4. NOT

Ans- Increases

Question 13. Direction of force acting on a current

carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field is given by
1. Fleming’s right-hand rule
2. Fleming’s left-hand rule
3. Lens’s rule
4. Faraday’s rule
Ans- Fleming’s left-hand rule

Question 14. The unit of induced emf is:

1. Ampere
2. Volt
3. Joule
4. Electron volt

Ans- Volt

Question 15. At the generating station, the AC voltage is:

(a) stepped down
(b) remains constant
(c) stepped up
(d) none of above

Ans: (c) stepped up

Question 16. An ideal transformer dissipates by itself

(a) low power
(b) high power
(c) no power
(d) none of above

Answer: (c) no power

Question 17. The strength of magnetic field inside a long

current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other

Answer: (c) same at all points

Question 18. The most important safety method used for

protecting home appliances from short circuiting or
overloading is by:
(a) earthing
(b) use of fuse
(c) use of stabilizers
(d) use of electric meter

Answer: (b) use of fuse

Question 19. Select the incorrect statement:
(а) Magnetic field lines are closed curves
(b) No two field lines can cross each other
(c) Field lines can cross each other
(d) The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by
degree of closness of the field lines

Answer: (c) Field lines can cross each other

Question 20. Magnetic field lines around a straight

conductor forms a pattern of
(a) concentric circles
(b) concentric ellipse
(c) straight line
(d) square shape
Answer: (a) concentric circles

MCQ ON CALORIMETRY

Question 1: The total internal energy of all molecules of a

substance is called:
(a) Temperature
(b) Heat energy
(c) Latent heat
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Heat energy

Question 2: Between a cold and a hot body which body has

higher energy?
(a) Hot body
(b) Cold body
(c) Both have same internal energy
(d) Cannot predict anything

Answer: (a) Hot body

Question 3: What will be happen when a cold body and hot

body keeps in contact?
(a) Heat will flow from hot body to cold body
(b) Heat will flow from cold body to Hot body
(c) No heat exchanges
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Heat will flow from hot body to cold body
Question 4:
(i)The measurement of heat is called calorimetry.
(ii) degree of hotness or coldness is calorimetry
(a) the option (i) is true but (ii) is false
(b) the option (ii) is true but (i) is false
(c) both true
(d) both false

Answer- (a) the option (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5: What is the S.I unit of heat?

(a) Calorie
(b) Kelvin
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Joule
Answer: (d) Joule

Question 6: What is the C.G.S. unit of heat?

(a) Calorie
(b) Kelvin
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Joule

Answer: (a) Calorie

Question 7: Find the required heat energy to raise the

temperature of 1 g of water through 1?
(a) Joule
(b) Kelvin
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Calorie
Answer: (d) Calorie

Question 8: One calorie is the heat energy required to

raise the temperature of 1 g of water from ______ to
_____
(a) 12.5 5 to 13.5
(b) 4 to 5
(c) 14.5 to 15.5
(d) 3 to 4

Answer: (c) 14.5 to 15.5

Question 9: 1 calorie = _________ joule

(a) 4.2
(b) 4.1
(c) 4.0
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) 4.2

Question 10: Which determines the direction of flow of

heat?
(a) Temperature
(b) Latent heat
(c) Internal energy
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Temperature

Question 11: Consider you contact two bodies (A, B) but
after that you observe that there is no flow of heat between
two bodies. From this incident you can say that:
(a) The temperature Body A is higher than B
(b) The temperature Body B is higher than A
(c) Two bodies have same temperature
(d) You cannot say anything about the temperature

Answer: (c) Two bodies have same temperature

Question 12: The amount of heat energy contained in a

body depends on:
(a) Mass
(b) Temperature
(c) Nature of the body
(d) All of above
Answer-(d) All of above

Question 13: What is the S.I unit of Temperature?

(a) Degree Celsius
(b) Kelvin
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Joule

Answer: (b) Kelvin

Question 15: What is the relation between the kelvin (T k)

scale and degree Celsius is:
(a) K+273 =T
(b) T+273 = K
(c) T-273 =K
(d) None of above
Answer- (b) T+273 = K

Question 16: At which temperature molecular motion

ceases?
(a) -273 K
(b) 273 K
(c) 0 K
(d) 0 C

Answer: (c) 0 K

Question 17: What is the relation between amount of heat

energy absorbed by a body and rise in temperature?
(a) They are directly proportional to each other
(b) They are inversely proportional to each other
(c) There is no relation between them
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) They are directly proportional to each other

Question 18: The_____________ of a body is the amount

of heat energy required to raise its temperature by 1 k
(a) Heat
(b) Temperature
(c) Heat capacity
(d) Latent heat

Answer: (c) Heat capacity

Question 19: What is the unit of heat capacity?

(a) J / K
(b) J / C
(c) Both
(d) None of the above

Answer- (a) J / K

Question 20: Heat capacity per unit mass of a body is

called
(a) Latent heat
(b) Specific heat
(c) Heat energy
(d) None of these

Answer: (b) Specific heat

 MCQ ON RADIOACTIVITY

Question 1: The neutral atoms of all isotopes of the same

element contain the same number of __________.
a. neutrons only.
b. Electrons
c. Mass numbers
d. Masses

Answer: (b) Electrons

Question 2: The atomic number is not changed by which

type of radioactive decay?
a. Beta
b. Gamma
c. Alpha
d. The atomic number is affected by all forms of
radioactive decay
Answer: (b) Gamma

Question 3: Isotopes of an element have a different

number of
a. Proton
b. Neutron
c. Electron
d. Atom
Answer: (b) Neutron

Question 4: Three types of radioactive elements are

emitted when unstable nuclei undergo radioactive
decay. Which of the following is not one of them
a. Beta
b. Gamma
c. Alpha
d. Delta

Answer: (d) delta

Question 5: A nuclear fission reaction becoming self-

sustaining depends on
a. electrons
b. Neutrons
c. Energy
d. Protons
Answer: (b) Neutrons

Question 6: Helium nuclei particles are called

a. Gamma particles
b. Beta particles
c. Alpha particles
d. No particles that are helium nuclei

Answer: (c) alpha particles

Question 7: When two atomic nuclei combine it is called as

a. Chain reaction
b. Nuclear fusion
c. Nuclear decay
d. Nuclear fission

Answer: (b) Nuclear fusion

Question 8: The number of protons or atomic number is

reduced to 2 by which form of radioactive decay?
a. Beta-decay
b. Gamma decay
c. Alpha decay
d. None of the above
Answer: (c) Alpha decay

Question 9: Which statement is true for all three types of

radioactive emission?
a. They are deflected by electric fields
b. They ionise gases
c. They are completely absorbed by a thin aluminium
sheet
d. They emit light

Answer: (b) They ionise gases

Question 10: A nuclide of the element plutonium 94 Pu 242.

What is the number of neutrons in its nucleus?
a. 242
b. 336
c. 148
d. 94

Answer: (c) 148

Question 11: The sum of proton and neutron present in an

atom of an element is called :
a) Atomic weight
b) Atomic number
c) Mass number
d) Both (b) & (c)
Ans- Option (c)

Question 12: Same number of nucleons but different

number of proton is
a) Isotopes
b) Isotones
c) Isobars
d) None of these

Ans- Option (c)

Question 13: An alpha particle consists of

a) Two proton & neutron
b) One proton & neutron
c)Three proton & neutron
d) four proton & neutron

Ans- Option (a)

Question 14: Which is incorrect about alpha particles

a) These are positively charged
b) They have large kinetic energy
c) The speed of alpha particles is 108 m/s
d) alpha particles affect a photographic plate

Ans- Option (c)

Question 15: The ionising power of gamma radiation is

a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of these

Ans-Option (b)

Question 16: In emission of gamma radiation there is

a) Change in number of proton
b) Change in number of neutron
c) Change in number of protons and neutron
d) Change in energy of nucleus
Ans-option (d)

Question 17: Which is incorrect about beta particles

a) the speed of beta particle is 10^8 m/s.
b) The number of neutron is increased by one.
c) The number of proton is increased by one
d) They are negatively charged

Ans-option (b)

Question 18: Which is used in cure of cancer & detecting

brain tumour
a) sodium -24
b) Iron-59
c) cobalt-60
d) None of these
Ans- Option (c).

Question 19: Alpha particles have kinetic energy

a) large
b)small
c) no change
d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans- Option (a)

Question 20: The process in which two lighter nuclei

combined together to form a heavy nucleus is :
a) Nuclear fission
b) Radioactivity
c) Nuclear fusion
d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans- option (c)

MCQ ON FORCE
Question 1:
The centre of gravity of a uniform ball is:
(a) at its geometrical centre
(b) at its bottom
(c) at its topmost point
(d) at any point on its surface

Ans - (a) at its geometrical centre

Question 2:
Force = ?

(a) Mass × velocity

(b) Mass × acceleration
(c) Mass × time
(d) Velocity × acceleration
Ans – (b) Mass × acceleration

Question 3:
When a force acts on a stationary rigid body which is free
to move, moves in a straight line is called ___________ .

(a) Linear motion

(b) Rotational motion
(c) Angular motion
(d) None of these

Ans – (a) Linear motion

Question 4:
Rotation around a fixed axis is a special case of ________
motion.

(a) Linear motion

(b) Rotational motion
(c) Both of (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Ans – (b) Rotational motion

Question 5:
The turning effect on the body about an axis due
to_______ applied on the body .

(a) Moment of Force

(b) Force
(c) Velocity
(d) Acceleration
Ans – (b) Force

Question 6:
Torque is depending on :

(a) The magnitude of force applied(F)

(b) The perpendicular distance of line of action of the
force from the axis of rotation
(c) Pressure on the substance
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans – (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 7:
What is the S.I unit of force?

(a) Newton
(b) Dyne
(c) Joule
(d) Arg

Ans – (a) Newton

Question 8:
What is the C.G.S unit of moment of force ?

(a) Newton metre

(b) Dyne centimetre
(c) Joule Kg
(d) Arg
Ans – (b) Dyne centimetre

Question 9.
A free body is acted upon by two unequal forces in
opposite directions, but not in one line. The effect is that:

A) The body will have only the rotational motion

B) The body will have rotational as well as translational
motion
C) The body will have neither the rotational motion nor
the translational motion
D) The body will have only the translational motion.

Ans – A) The body will have only the rotational motion

Question 10:
If a man jumps out of the boat in the forward direction
then in which direction will the boat move?

A) Can move either ways

B) In the forward direction
C) The boat will not move at all
D) In the backward direction.

Ans – D) In the backward direction.

Question 11:
1 Kgf = ________ newton .

(a) 9.8
(b) 980
(c) 0.98
(d) None of these

Ans – (a) 9.8

Question 12:
How the direction of rotation of a body can be changed?

(a) By changing the direction of force

(b) By changing the point of application of a force
(c) By changing the magnitude of force
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans – (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13:
What is needed to open a shut door?

(a) Normal force

(b) Pressure
(c) Angular velocity
(d) Moment of force
Ans – (d) Moment of force

Question 14:
How many types of equilibrium you know?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One

Ans – (a) Two

Question 15:
What should be the value of algebraic sum of moment of
all forces of a body about the point of Rotation?
(a) One
(b) No fixed value
(c) Zero
(d) None of these

Ans – (c) Zero

Question 16.
A piece of stone tied at the end of a thread is whirled in a
horizontal circle. Name the force which provides the
centripetal force.

A) Force of tension in the thread.

B) Radial force on thread
C) Force of stone on the thread
D) Force exerted at the end of the thread
Ans – A) Force of tension in the thread.

Question 17.
A ball is suspended from a wall by a string of 3 m length.
The Moment of Force on the ball due to a force of 5 N will
be ________.

A) 8 Nm
B) 15 Nm
C) 12 Nm
D) zero
Ans – B) 15 Nm

Question 18.
A book kept on the table is an example of :

A) dynamic equilibrium
B) static equilibrium
C) neutral equilibrium
D) none of the above

Ans – B) static equilibrium

Question 19.
A force cannot change the :

A) mass of a body
B) shape of a body
C) state of motion of a body
D) state of rest of a body

Ans – A) mass of a body

Question 20.
In the uniform circular motion, the velocity is constant
and acceleration is:

A) variable
B) zero
C) constant
D) negative
Ans – C) constant

MCQ ON MACHINES
Question 1. A woman draws water from a well using a
fixed pulley. The mass of the bucket and the water
together is 10 kg. The force applied by the woman is 200
N. The mechanical advantage is (g=10~ms^{-2}):

(a) 2
(b) 20
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.5

Ans. (d) 0.5

Question 2. A single fixed pulley is used because:

(a) It changes the direction of applied effort conveniently.

(b) It multiplies speed.
(c) It multiplies effort.
(d) Its efficiency is 100%.
Ans. (a) It changes the direction of applied effort
conveniently.

Question 3. In the
diagram shown below,
the velocity ratio of the
arrangement is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0

Ans. (b) 2
Question 4. Mechanical advantage (M.A.), load (L), and
effort (E) are related as:

(a) M.A.= L x E
(b) M.A.= E \ L
(c) M.A. x E = L
(d) M.A. x L = E

Ans. (c) M.A. x E = L

Question 5. Which one of the following statement(s) is

correct?

(a) A machine is used to have more output energy as

compared to input energy.
(b) Mechanical advantage of a machine can never be
greater than 1.
(c) If a machine gives convenience of direction, then its
mechanical advantage should be greater than 1.
(d) For a given design of a machine, even if the mechanical
advantage increases, the velocity ratio remains the same.
Ans. (d) For a given design of a machine, even if the
mechanical advantage increases, the velocity ratio
remains the same.

Question 6. If a block and tackle system with convenient

direction has 3 movable pulleys then its velocity ratio:

(a) is either 6 or 7
(b) should be 6
(c) should by 7
(d) is 3

Ans. (d) is 3
Question 7. Mechanical advantage is ratio of:

(a) effort to load

(b) load to effort
(c) load arm to effort arm
(d) none

Ans. (b) Load to effort

Question 8. Velocity ratio is the ratio of:

(a) velocity of effort to velocity of load

(b) velocity of load to velocity of effort
(c) load to effort
(d) None
Answer: (a) velocity of effort to velocity of load

Question 9. A pulley system has velocity ratio 5 and is used

to lift a load of 100 kgf through a verti- cal height of 15 m.
Find the distance through which effort is moved:

(a) 15 m
(b) 75 m
(c) 3 m
(d) None

Ans. (b) 75 m

Question 10. A pulley system consists of 5 pulleys having

efficiency of 80%. The mechanical advantage of the system
is:
(a) 300
(b) 40
(c) 4
(d) 0.4

Ans. (c) 4

Question 11. When we want to use a machine as a force

multiplier then,

(a) Effort > load

(b) Effort < load
(c) Effort = load
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Effort < load

Question 12. Mechanical advantage of a machine is given

by

(a) Effort/ Load

(b) Load /Effort
(c) Effort × load
(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Load /Effort

Question 13. For an ideal machine

(a) Output energy = Input energy
(b) Output energy > Input energy
(c) Output energy < Input energy
(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Output energy = Input energy

Question 14. Machine makes a job easier.

(A) True
(B) false
(C) both of the Above
(D) None of the above

Ans. (A) True

Question 15. Assertion (A): Scissors used for cutting
metals have short blade and long handles.
Reason (R): Resistance offered by metals is very small.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Ans. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Question 16. Assertion (A): There is no mechanical benefit

of a single fixed pulley.
Reason (R): Effort exerted on single pulley is greater than
that of the load.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
Question 17. A pulley is one of
the original simple machines.
The pulley was possibly
created by Archimedes in B.C.
times. Its original use was to
lift buckets of water. The term
sheave can also be used to
refer to a pulley. Pulleys can
be found everywhere to help
make tasks easier. In addition
to lifting things, pulleys can be
used singly or with many
pulleys working together in
order to transport people or
things. They can also be used
to provide power from one
shaft to another.

(A) Mechanical advantage is

ratio of.

(a) Load and efficiency

(b) Effort and force
(c) Load and effort
(d) Load and displacement
Ans. (A) (c) Load and effort

(B) The resistive force to be overcome by a machine is:

(a) Effort
(b) Load
(c) Efficiency
(d) Work

Ans. (b) Load

(C) Mechanical advantage greater than 1, a machine act as:

(a) gain in speed
(b) force multiplier
(c) no force multiplier
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (b) force multiplier

(D) An external force applied to a simple machine to

overcome the load is:

(a) Effort
(b) Load
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) Effort

(E) When effort arm is 80 cm and load arm is 5 cm the

ideal mechanical advantage of a lever will be:

(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 17
(d) 18

Ans. (a) 16
 MCQ ON SPECTRUM
Question 1. The colour of white light which is deviated
least by a prism is:

(a) Green
(b) Yellow
(c) Red
(d) Violet

Ans. (c) Red

Question 2. The wavelength range of visible lights is:

(a) 40 nm to 80 nm
(b) 4000 nm to 8000 nm
(c) 4 nm to 8 nm
(d) 400 nm to 800 nm
Ans. (d) 400 nm to 800 nm

Question 3. Which of the following rays , produce vitamin

D in human body?

(a) Infrared
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Visible light
(d) All of these

Ans. (b) Ultraviolet

Question 4. Which of the following rays is used for night
photography?

(a) Infrared
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Visible light
(d) X rays

Ans. (a) Infrared

Question 5. The phenomenon due to which polychromatic

light split into its component colours when passed
through a prism is called _____________.

(a) refraction
(b) dispersion
(c) reflection
(d) interference
Ans. (b) dispersion

Question 6. The band of colour obtained on the screen

when polychromatic light splits into colour is called

(a) bright band

(b) dispersion
(c) spectrum
(d) diffraction

Ans. (c) spectrum

Question 7. The region of spectrum which extends beyond
violet and of visible spectrum is called ______ spectrum.

(a) ultraviolet
(b) infrared
(c) electromagnetic
(d) none of these

Ans. (a) ultraviolet

Question 8. ___________ rays produce heating effect on

being absorbed by material objects.

(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Infrared
(c) X-rays
(d) Gamma rays
Ans. (b) Infrared

Question 9. The most energetic electromagnetic radiations

are:

(a) microwaves
(b) ultraviolet waves
(c) x-rays
(d) gamma rays

Ans. (d) gamma rays

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Microwaves are better carrier of signals
than optical waves.
Reason (R): Microwaves move faster than optical waves.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Ans. (d) Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 11. Assertion (A): Infrared radiation plays an

important role in maintaining the average temperature of
earth.
Reason (R): Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to
as heat waves.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
Question 12. The atmosphere is transparent to visible
radiations but most
infrared radiations are not
allowed to pass through.
The energy from the sun
heats the earth which then
emits radiations like any
other hot body. However,
since the earth is much
colder than sun its
radiations are mainly in
infrared region. Some low
lying clouds reflect back
infrared radiations
keeping earth's surface
cold at night. This phenomenon is known as greenhouse
effect.

(A) Which of the following remains same for all EM

waves?

(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Velocity

(B) Clouds are white in colour because:

(a) High scattering

(b) Low scattering
(c) Produce their own light
(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Low scattering

(C) The range of white light:

(a) 4000 nm – 8000 nm

(b) 40 nm - 80 nm
(c) 400 nm - 800 nm
(d) 4 nm - 8 nm

Ans. (a) 4000 nm – 8000 nm

(D) The condition under which a microwave over heats up

a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is:

(a) The frequency of the microwaves must match the

resonant frequency of the water molecules.
(b) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with
natural frequency of the water molecules.
(c) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating.
(d) Infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
Ans. (a) The frequency of the microwaves must match the
resonant frequency of the water molecules.

(E) Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequency

in the range of:

(a) Micro hertz (Hz)

(b) Giga Hertz (GHz)
(c) Mega Hertz (MHz)
(d) Hertz (Hz)

Ans. (b) Giga Hertz (GHz)

 MCQ ON HOUSEHOLD CIRCUITS
Question 1. A main switch in the main distribution board
is present in:

(a) a live wire

(b) a neutral wire
(c) a live as well as neutral wire
(d) an each wire.

Ans. (c) a live as well as neutral wire

Question 2. Which one of the following statements is

correct?

(a) Live wire has zero potential.

(b) Fuse is connected in a neutral wire.
(c) Potential of live and earth wire is always the same.
(d) Earth wire is used to prevent electric shock.
Ans. (d) Earth wire is used to prevent electric shock.

Question 3. The MCB must be connected in the:

(a) live wire

(b) neutral wire
(c) earth wire
(d) earth wire or neutral wire

Ans. (a) live wire

Question 4. According to new sign convention which
colour code is used for earth wire:

(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue
(d) any colour

Ans. (b) green

Question 5. Two fuse wires are rated 5 A and 15 A. Which

one is thicker?

(a) 15 A fuse wire

(b) 5 A fuse wire
(c) Same thickness
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a) 15 A fuse wire

Question 6. Fuse wire is always fitted in a porcelain casing

because porcelain is:

(a) insulator
(b) conductor
(c) looks bright
(d) flexible

Ans. (a) insulator

Question 7. Name the device which is used to protect the
electric circuits from overloading and short circuit.

(a) Rheostat
(b) Voltmeter
(c) MCB
(d) Ammeter

Ans. (c) MCB

Question 8. Top pin of a three pin plug is connected to:

(a) live wire

(b) earth wire
(c) neutral wire
(d) any of the above
Ans. (b) earth wire

Question 9. In household circuits all electrical appliances

are connected in:

(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series or parallel any
(d) mixed grouping

Ans. (b) parallel

Question 10. The rise in temperature of fuse wire depends
on:

(a) time for which current flows

(b) resistance of wire
(c) current flowing
(d) All of above

Ans. (d) All of above

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Fuse wires should have high melting point
to withstand high current.
Reason (R): A thick fuse wire is used for low current
rating.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false

Ans. (d) Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 12. A newer type of fuse called an Edison-base

has a specially shaped base that prevents the wrong-sized
fuse from being inserted into the socket. Once the bases
are fitted into the fuse sockets, only fuses of the proper
size can be fitted into them. If your fuse panel does not
have Edison bases, it is a good idea to install them.
(A) Which supply line has highest current rating?

(a) Metre line

(b) Pole line
(c) Sub-circuit line
(d) Main circuit line
Ans. (b) Pole line

(B) The value of pole fuse is:

(a) around 50 A
(b) around 10 A
(c) around 100 A
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a) around 50 A

(C) Which of the following is not an advantage of two-ring

system?

(a) Wiring is longer than tree system

(b) Different plugs and sockets can be used
(c) All appliances can have common fuse system
(d) None of the above

Ans. (d) None of the above

(D) A fuse is a short piece of wire of high

(a) melting point

(b) resistance
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) resistance

(E) Which of the following statement is correct of three-

pin plug?

(a) All pins are of same size

(b) No spring action is provided in a plug
(c) Wires can be connected in any of the pin in a plug
(d) Earth pin is intentionally thicker than others

Ans. (d) Earth pin is intentionally thicker than others