Chemistry

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1st year chemistry notes
Chapter No. 1
BASIC CONCEPTS
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MCQs
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Q.1 Smallest particle of an element which may or may not have independent
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existence
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(a) a molecule (b) an atom
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(c) an ion (d) an electron
Q.2 Swedish chemist J. Berzelius determined the
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(a) atomic no. (b) atomic volume
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(c) atomic mass (d) atomic density
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Q.3 The number of atoms present in a molecule determine its
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(a) molecularity (b) basicity
(c) acidity (d) atomicity
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Q.4 When an electron is added to a unipositive ion we get
(a) anion (b) e
cation
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(c) neutral atom (d) molecule
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Q.5 CO+ is an example of:

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(a) free radical (b) cationic molecular ion

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(c) an ionic molecular ion

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(d) stable molecule

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Q.6 Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of an element as compared to

the mass of
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(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen

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(c) nitrogen (d) carbon

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Q.7 Isotopes are the sister atoms of the same element with similar chemical
properties and different
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(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

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(c) atomic volume (d) atomic structure

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Q.8 The instrument which is used to measure the exact masses of different
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isotopes of an element called

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(a) I.R. Spectrophotometer (b) U.V. Spectrophotometer

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(c) Mass Spectrometer (d) Colourimeter

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Q.9 Mass spectrometer separates different positive isotopic ions on the basis
of their
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(a) mass value (b) m/e value

(c) e/m value (d) change value
Q.10 Simplest formula that gives us information about the simple ratio of
atoms in a compound is called
(a) structural formula (b) molecular formula
(c) empirical formula (d) molar ratio
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Q.11 Percentage of oxygen in H2O is
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(a) 80% (b) 88.8%
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(c) 8.8% (d) 9.8%
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Q.12 More abundant isotope of an element is one with
(a) even atomic no. (b) odd atomic no.
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(c) Even mass no. (d) odd mass no.
Q.13 Large no. of isotopes are known for the elements whose masses are
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multiple of
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(a) two (b) four
or
(c) six (d) eight
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Q.14 When 0.01 kg of CaCO3 is decomposed the CO2 produced occupies a
volume at S.T.P.
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(a) 2.2414 dm3 (b) 22.414 dm3
(c) 22414 dm3 (d) es224014 dm3
Q.15 The no. of covalent bond in 10gm of NH3 are
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(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 1.062 x 1023

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(c) 10.62 x 1024 (d) 1.062 x 1024

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Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of water are

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(a) 3.37 x 1023 (b) 33.7 x 1023

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(c) 3.37 x 1024 (d) 3.037 x 1024

Q.17 The no. of covalent bonds present in 10gm of water are
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(a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023

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(c) 6.074 x 1024 (d) 6.74 x 1024

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Q.18 The least no. of molecules present in 30 gm of

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(a) N2O (b) NO

(c) NO2 (d) N2O3
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Q.19 Which of the following has highest percentage of nitrogen

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(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) NH4H2PO4

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(c) (NH4)2HPO4 (d) (NH4)3PO4

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Q.20 0.1 mole of Na3PO4 completely dissociates in water to produce Na+

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(a) 6.02 x 1022 (b) 6.02 x 1023

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(c) 1.806 x 1023 (d) 1.806 x 1022

Q.21 Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating
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(a) amount of limiting reactant

(b) amount of the reactant in excess
(c) amount of the product formed
(d) amount of the reactant unused

Q.22 A limiting reactant is one
(a) which is present in least amount
(b) which produces minimum no. of moles of product
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(c) which produces maximum no. of moles of product
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(d) does not effect the amount of product
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Q.23 Stoichiometry is the branch of chemistry which deals with the study of
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quantitative relationship among the various
(a) reactants (b) products
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(c) Reactants and products (d) all of above
Q.24 500 cm3 of H2 gas at STP contradictions of hydrogen
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(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 3.01 x 1022
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(c) 2.68 x 1022 (d) 1.34 x 1022
or
Q.25 Largest number of H+ ions are produced by complete ionization of
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(a) 0.01 mole of HCl (b) 0.0050 mole of H2SO4
(c) 0.000334 moles of H3PO4
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(d) all above
Q.26 The Avogadro’s number is es
(a) 6.02 x 1024 (b) 6.02 x 10–24
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(c) 6.02 x 10–23 (d) 6.02 x 1023

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Q.27 The largest number of H+ are produced by complete ionization of

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(a) 0.100 2 moles of HCl (b) 0.051 moles of H2SO4

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(c) 0.0334 moles of H3PO4 (d) All of the above

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Q.28 A sample of pure matter is

(a) element (b) compound
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(c) substance (d) mixture

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Q.29 nm stands for

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(a) Newton meter (b) Nanometer

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(c) Newton square meter (d) none of the above

Q.30 One calorie is equal to
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(a) 4.184 J (b) 41.84 J

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(c) 0.4184 J (d) 0.04184 J

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Q.31 The number of moles of CO2 which contains 8.0 gm of oxygen

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(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50

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(c) 1.0 (d) 1.50

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Q.32 27 grams of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to

produce Al2O3
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(a) 8 gm of oxygen (b) 16 gm of oxygen

(c) 32 gm of oxygen (d) 24 gm of oxygen
Q.33 Mole of SO2 contains
(a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of oxygen

(b) 18.1 x 1023 molecules of SO2
(c) 6.023 x 1023 atom of sulphur
(d) 4 gram of SO2
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Q.34 The largest number of molecules are presenting
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(a) 3.6 gram of H2O (b) 4.8 gram of C2H5OH
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(c) 2.8 gm of CO (d) 5.4 gms of N2O5
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Q.35 The mass of one mole of electron is
(a) 1.008 mg (b) 0.184 mg
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(c) 1.673 mg (d) 0.55 mg
Q.36 Isotopes differ in
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(a) properties which depend on mass
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(b) arrangements of electrons in orbital
or
(c) chemical properties
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(d) the extent to which they may be affected in electromagnetic field
Q.37 The volume occupied by 1.4 gm of N2 at STP is
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(a) 224 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
(c) 1.12 dm3 e
(d)
s 112 cm3
Q.38 Many elements have fractional atomic mass. This is because
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(a) the mass atom is itself fractional

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(b) atomic masses are average masses of isobars

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(c) atomic masses are averages masses of isotopes

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(d) atomic masses are average masses of isotopes

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proportional to relative abundance

Q.39 A limiting reactant is one which
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(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other

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reactants
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(b) is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to the

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other
(c) gives the maximum amount of the product which is required
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(d) gives the minimum amount of the product under

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consideration
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Q.40 Isotopes when even atomic masses are a comparatively abundant

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(a) demper’s spectrograph is superior to that of Aston’s

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(b) 0.1 mg of H2O has greater number of molecules then 0.1 mg of

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CH4
(c) the number of H+ and PO–3 ions are not equal but the number of
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positive and negative charges

(d) are equal when 100 molecules of H3PO4 are thrown in excess of
water
Q.41 A molecule having two atoms is called

(a) monoatomic molecules (b) diatomic molecules
(c) Polyatomic molecules (d) homoatomic molecule
Q.42 An ordinary misoscope is used to measure the object of size
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(a) upto 500 nm (b) upto 850 nm
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(c) upto 1000 nm (d) upto 1200 nm
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Q.43 1 atomic masses unit (amu) is equation
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(a) 1.66 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.56 x 10–27 kg
(c) 1.76 x 10–21 kg (d) 1.8 x 10–27 kg
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Q.44 Nickel has isotopes
(a) 1 (b) 3
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(c) 5 (d) 7
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Q.45 Cadmium has isotopes
or
(a) 3 (b) 5
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(c) 7 (d) 9
Q.46 The pressure of vapours in the separating isotopes by mass spectrometry
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is kept at
(a) 10–6 torr (b) e
10–4 torr
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(c) 10–3 torr (d) 10–5 torr
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Q.47 Number of gram atoms in 0.1 gm of Na is

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(a) 0.0043 (b) 0.0403

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(c) 0.403 (d) None of these

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Q.48 Molecule of haemoglobin contains atoms

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(a) 15,000 (b) 12,000

(c) 10,000 (d) 8,000
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Q.49 Haemoglobin is heavier than a hydrogen atom

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(a) 65,000 (b) 68,000

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(c) 62,000 (d) 60,000

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Answers
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Questions 1 2 3 4 5
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Answers b C d c b
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Questions 6 7 8 9 10
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Answers d b c b c
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Questions 11 12 13 14 15
Answers b c b a d
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers a b d d c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers c b d c d
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
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Answers d d a b a
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Questions 31 32 33 34 35
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Answers a d c a d
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Questions 36 37 38 39 40
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Answers a c d d c
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Questions 41 42 43 44
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Answers c a a c
Questions 45 46 47 48 49
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Answers d a a c b
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1st year n0tes chemistry new
Chapter No. 2
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EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES IN CHEMISTRY
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MCQs
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Q.1 Science of the chemical characterization is stand under the heading of
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(a) industrial chemistry (b) experimental chemistry
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(c) analytical chemistry (d) physical chemistry
Q.2 Several types of filter media are used for filtration depending on
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(a) nature of reaction (b) nature of reactants
(c) nature of precipitate
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(d) nature of filter paper
Q.3 Filtration by a glass funnel and filter paper is very
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(a) time consuming (b) difficult

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(c) fast (d) accurate

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Q.4 Date of filtration through conical funnel can be considerably

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increased by using
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(a) fine filter paper (b) ordinary filter paper

(c) fluted filter (d) under suction crucible
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Q.5 Gooch crucible is used to filter the solution of

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(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) KMnO4

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(c) KOH (d) under suction crucible

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Q.6 Basic principles of crystallization is that solute should be soluble in a

suitable solution at
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(a) freezing temperature (b) room temperature

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(c) high temperature (d) low temperature

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Q.7 Premature crystallization of solution of filter paper or in funnel can

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be avoided
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(a) filtering hot saturated solution using hot funnel

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(b) filling warm solution

(c) quick filtration
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(d) filtering cold solution

Q.8 Safe and reliable method of drying crystal in through
(a) pressing it between folds of filter paper
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(b) drying it in oven

(c) evaporation of solution
(d) vacuum desiccator
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Q.9 In solvent extraction solute can be separated from solution by shaking the
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solution with solvent which the solute is
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(a) more soluble (b) partially soluble
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(c) insoluble (d) soluble at high
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temperature
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Q.10 Repeated extraction using small portions of solvent are more
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(a) accurate (b) efficient
(c) slow (d) rapid
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Q.11 To achieve a good separation the two liquids are gently shaken to
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increase their area of
(a) miscibility (b) separation
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(c) contact (d) solubility
Q.12 Chromatography in which stationary phase is solid is called
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(a) partition chromatography
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(b) paper chromatography

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(c) high pressure

(d) adsorption chromatography
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Q.13 Chromatography involves these distribution of a solution between

(a) two stationary phase
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(b) two mobile phase

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(c) a stationary phase and a mobile phase

(d) two stationary and two mobile phase
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Q.14 Chromatography in which the stationary phase is liquid is called

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(a) partition chromatography

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(b) descending chromatography

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(c) column chromatography

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(d) Adsorption chromatography

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Q.15 In paper chromatography the rate at which solutes move depends on

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(a) distribution law (b) distribution coefficients

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(c) law of partial pressure (d) law of specific proportion

Q.16 Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by
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(a) law of mass action (b) the amount of solvent

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used
(c) distribution law (d) the amount of solute
Q.17 The comparative rates at which the solutes move in paper

chromatography depend on
(a) the size of paper used
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(b) Rf values of solutes
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(c) temperature of the experiment
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(d) size of the chromatographic tank used
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Q.18 A filtration process could be very time consuming if it were not aided by
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the gentle suction, which is developed
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(a) if the paper covers the funnel up to its circumference
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(b) if the paper has got small sized pores in it
(c) if the stem of the funnel is large so that it dips into the filtrate
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or
(d) if the paper fits tightly
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Q.19 Solvent extraction method is particularly useful technique for separation,
when product to be separated is
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(a) non–volatile or thermally unstable
(b) volatile or thermally stable
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(c) non volatile or thermally stable
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(d) non–volatile or thermally unstable

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Q.20 During the process of crystallization, the hot saturated solution

(a) is cooled very slowly to get large sized crystals
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(b) is cooled at a moderate rate to get medium sized crystals

(c) is evaporated to get the pure crystals of the product
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(d) is mixed with an immiscible liquid, to get the pure

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crystals of the product

Q.21 Aqueous solution of iodine is prepared first by dissolving which
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compound in water
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(a) KBr (b) KI

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(c) KCl (d) NaCl

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Q.22 The meaning of chromatos

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(a) colour writing (b) colour writing

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(c) colour forming (d) colour spreading

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Q.23 Which is not common way of carrying chromatography

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(a) ascending (b) descending

(c) radial/circular (d) spreading irregularly
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Q.24 In paper chromatography the stationary phase is

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(a) water (b) organic liquid

(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
Q.25 In paper chromatography the mobile phase is
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(a) organic liquid (b) water

(c) inorganic liquid (d) none of the above
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ANSWERS
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Questions 1 2 3 4 5
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Answers c c a c b
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Answers c a d a b
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Questions 11 12 13 14 15
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Answers c d c a b
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Questions 16 17 18 19 20
Answers c b d d b
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Questions 21 22 23 24 25
Answers b a
s e
d a a
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Chapter 3rd
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GASES
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MCQs
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Q.1 The order of the rate of diffusion of gases NH3, SO2, Cl2 and
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CO2 is:
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(a) NH3 > SO2 > Cl2 > CO2
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(b) NH3 > CO2 > SO2 > Cl2
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(c) Cl2> SO2 > CO2 > NH3
(d) None of these
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Q.2 Pressure remaining constant at which temperature the volume of

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gas will become twice of what it is at 0C.

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(a) 546 oC (b) 200 oC

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(c) 546 K (d) 273 K

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Q.3 Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty

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container at 25oC. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by the

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oxygen is:
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(a) (b)
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(c) (d)
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Q.4 Which of the following of will have the same number of

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molecules at STP?
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(a) 280 cm3 of CO2 and 280 cm3 of N2O

(b) 11.2 dm3 of O2 and 32 g of O2
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(c) 44g of CO2 and 11.2 dm3 of CO

(d) 28g of N2 and 5.6 dm3 of oxygen
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Q.5 Number of molecules in one dm3 of water is close to:

(a) x 1023 (b) x 1023
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(c) x 1023 (d) 55.6 x 6.02 x 1023
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Q.6 If absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is
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reduced to one half the volume of gas
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will.
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(a) remain unchanged (b) increases four times
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(c) reduce to (d) be double
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Q.7 How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume of
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a given mass of gas from expanding when its mass is increased
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(a) temperature is lowered and pressure is increased
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(b) temperature is increased and the pressure is lowered
(c) temperature and pressure both are lowered
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(d) temperature and pressure both are increased
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Q.8 The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at

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(a) STP
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(b) 127 oC and 1 atm

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(c) 0 oC and 2 atm

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(d) 273 oC and 2 atm

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Q.9 Gases deviate from ideal behaviour at high pressure. Which of

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the following is correct for non–ideality?

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(a) At high pressure, the gas molecules move in one direction only
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(b) At high pressure, the collisions between, the gas molecules are
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increased manifold
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(c) At high pressure, the volume of gas becomes insignificant

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(d) AT high pressure, the intermolecular attractions, become

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significant
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Q.10 The deviation of a gas from ideal behaviour is maximum at,

(a) – 10 oC and 5.0 atm (b) – 10 oC and 2.0 atm
(c) 100 oC and 2.0 atm (d) 0 oC and 2.0 atm
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Q.11 At high temperature isotherm moves away from both the axis
because of increase in,
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(a) pressure (b) volume
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(c) no. of moles (d) all above
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Q.12 Values of Charle’s law constant K depends upon.
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(a) mass of gas (b) pressure gas
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(c) no. of moles of gas (d) all above
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Q.13 Equal volumes of H2 and He are inserted in the same vessel. The
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pressure exerted by H2 and He are in the ratio:
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(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
or
(c) 1:2 (d) all above
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Q.14 Which of the following have same no. of molecules at STP
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(a) 1000 cm3 of N2H4 and O2
(b) 200 cm3 of CO2 and N2O s e
(c) 50 cm3 each of CO and N2
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(d) all above

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Q.15 If absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure is increased 4

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times. The volume is

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(a) half (b) double

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(c) four times (d) remains the changed

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Q.16 Density of a gas is usually expressed in

(a) kg m3 (b) kg dm3
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(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3

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Q.17 Units of gas constant R in SI system is:

(a) 0.0821 dm3 atm k–1 mol–1
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(b) 82.1 cm3 atm k–1

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(c) 8.31 Nm k–1 mol–1

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(d) 1.987 cal k–1 mol–1

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Q.18 Concept of distribution of velocities among the gas molecules

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was developed by
(a) Claudius (b) Maxwell
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(c) Boltzman (d) Vanderwaal

Q.19 Absolute temperature of gas is proportional to
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(a) translational kinetic energy

(b) rotational kinetic energy
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(c) vibrational kinetic energy
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(d) potential energy
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Q.20 Deviation a gas from ideal behaviour is maximum at
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(a) low temperature, low pressure
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(b) low temperature, high pressure
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(c) high temperature, low pressure
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(d) high temperature high pressure
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Q.21 Most ideal gas at room temperature is:
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(a) CO2 (b) NH3
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(c) SO2 (d) N2
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Q.22 22.414 dm3 of various ideal gases at STP will have Avogadro’s
number of molecules s e
(a) 6.02 x 1023 (b) 6.02 x 1024
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(c) 0.602 x 1023 (d) 6.02 x 1022

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Q.23 Gases are ideal at

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(a) low pressure and high temperature

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(b) low temperature and high pressure

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(c) high pressure and high temperature

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(d) low pressure and low temperature

Q.24 The value of compressibility factor for an ideal gas is equal to:
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(a) 1 (b) 1.5

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(c) 2 (d) 2.5

Q.25 An ideal gas obeys
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(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law

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(c) Avogadro’s law (d) all above

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Q.26 A real gas obeying Vander Waal’s equation will resemble ideal
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gas if:
both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are large
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(a)
(b) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are small
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(c) ‘a’ is small and ‘b’ is large

(d) ‘a’ is large and ‘b’ is small
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Q.27 Deep sea divers breath mixture of nitrogen and oxygen in a ratio
of:
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(a) 96% N2 and 4% O2 (b) 4% and N2 and 96% O2
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(c) 80% N2 and 20% O2 (d) 20% N2 and 80% O2
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Q.28 One mole of any gas at STP occupies volume
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(a) 2.24 dm3 (b) 22.4 dm3
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(c) 44.4 dm3 (d) 48.4 dm3
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Q.29 K.E. of gas molecules is equal to:
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(a) (b) m v2
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(c) (d)
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Q.30 All gases solidify before reaching at
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(a) 373 oK (b) 273 oC
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(c) – 473 oC (d) 0 oK
Q.31 Kinetic equation is equal to s e
(a) PV=nRT (b) PV=RT
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(c) PV = m n c2 (d) PV = m n c2
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Q.32 Root mean square velocity is equal to

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(a) (b)
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(c) (d)
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Q.33 Kinetic energy associated with one molecule of a gas due to

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translational motion is given by

(a) EK = (b) Ek = m v2
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(c) Ek = m n c2 (d) Ek =
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Q.34 Density of gas is usually expressed as

(a) kg m–3 (b) kg dm–3
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(c) g dm–3 (d) g cm–3

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Q.35 Weight of one dm3 of O2 at STP is

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(a) 1.4384 gm (b) 1.4394 gm

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(c) 1.6384 gm (d) 1.3384 gm

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ANSWERS
Question 1 2 3 4 5
6
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Answers b c a a a
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Question 6 7 8 9 10
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Answers b a b d a
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Question 11 12 13 14 15
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Answers b d a d a
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Question 16 17 18 19 20
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Answers c c b a b
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Question 21 22 23 24 25
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Answers d a s a e a d
Question 26 27 28 29 30
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Answers b a b d d
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Question 31 32 33 34 35
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Answers c a a c a
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Chapter 4rth
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LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
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MCQs
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Q.1 Ionic solids are characterized by
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(a) low melting points
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(b) good conductivity in solid state
(c) high vapour pressure s e
(d) solubility in polar solvents
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Q.2 Amorphous solids.

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(a) have sharp melting points

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(b) undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife

(c) have perfect arrangements of atoms
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(d) can presses small regions of orderly arrangements of atoms

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Q.3 The force of attraction between the atoms of helium is

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(a) hydrogen bonding

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(b) coordinate covalent bond

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(c) covalent bond

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(d) london dispersion force

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Q.4 Which of the following is a pseudo-solid

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(a) CaF2 (b) Glass

tp
(c) NaCl (d) All

ht
Q.5 Diamond is a bad conductor because

ke
(a) It has a tight structure (b) It has a high density

Li
(c) There is no free electron present in the crystal of diamond to

conduct electricity
(d) None of the above
1
Q.6 The weakest intermolecular for a

(a) dipole–dipole force
l
(b) electrostatic force between ions
ia
er
(c) ion–dipole force
at
(d) dipole–induced dipole force
M
Q.7 In liquids intermolecular forces are
y
(a) very weak (b) very strong
ud
(c) reasonably strong (d) ion–dipole force
St
Q.8 Values of heat of vaporization for liquids, with strong dipole–
e
dipole forces will be
or
(a) very high (b) very low
rM
(c) reasonably high (d) negligible
Fo
Q.9 Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole force is also called
(a) dipole force (b) s london dispersion
e
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) none of the above
ea
Q.10 Down the group polarizability generally

ith
(a) increases (b) decreases

w
(c) remains constant (d) do not follow a regular trend

ch
Q.11 Trend of boiling points of halogens from fluorine to iodine is

/te
that it.
om
(a) decreases (b) increases

(c) remains constant (d) negligible
.c
ok
Q.12 Molecules of hydro carbons with large chain lengths experience

bo
(a) repulsive forces (b) strong attractive force

(c) weaker attractive forces
ce
(d) no attractive force

fa
Q.13 Hydrocarbons which generally have high molecular masses exist

://
tp
is.
ht
(a) solid form (b) liquid form

ke
(c) vapour form (d) gaseous form

Q.14 Exceptionally low acidic strength of HF is due to
Li
(a) strong polar bond (b) small size of fluorine

(c) strong hydrogen bonding (d) Vander Waal’s forces
2
Q.15 Long chain of amino acids are coiled about one another into
spiral by.
l
(a) covalent bond (b) ionic bond
ia
Vander Waal’s forces
er
(c) hydrogen bond (d)
at
Q.16 Evaporation of water is possible at
M
(a) 100oC (b) 0oC
y
(c) at all temperatures (d) above 100oC
ud
Q.17 Boiling point is low for liquid with
St
(a) high vapour pressure at given temperature
e
(b) low vapour pressure at a given temperature
or
(c) very high vapour pressure
rM
(d) very low vapour pressure
Fo
Q.18 At equilibrium rate of evaporation and rate of condensation
(a) become very high (b) s ebecome very low
(c) can never be equal (d) become equal
ea
Q.19 In an open system vapour pressure of water at 100oC at sea level

ith
is
w
(a) 700 mm of Hg (b) 760 mm of Hg

ch
(c) 670 mm of Hg (d) 1000 mm of Hg

/te
Q.20 Molar heat of vaporization of water is

om
(a) 140.6 kJ/mol (b) 14.06 kJ/mol

(c) 18 kJ/mol (d) 40.6 kJ/mol
.c
ok
Q.21 When external pressure is 23.7 torr boiling point of water is

bo
(a) 100oC (b) 200oC

(c) 98oC (d) 25oC
ce
Q.22 Distillation under very reduced pressure is called

fa
(a) fractional distillation (b) distillation

://
tp
(c) vacuum destructive distillation

ht
(d) destructive distillation

ke
Q.23 Water may boil at 120oC when external pressure is

(a) 760 torr (b) 100 torr
Li
(c) 1489 torr (d) 700 torr
Q.24 Amount of heat absorbed when one mole of solid melts into
liquid form at its melting point is called
l
(a) molar heat of sublimation
ia
er
(b) heat of vaporization
at
(c) latent heat of fusion
M
(d) molar heat of fusion
y
Q.25 Ethanol is much more soluble in water than ethyl ethanuate
ud
which one of the following statement correctly account for this
St
(a) ethanol is polar molecule but ethyl ethanoate is non–polar
e
(b) ethanol is non polar molecule but ethyl ethanoate is polar
or
(c) a hydrogen bond is formed between H–atom of the OH group in
rM
ethanol and O–atom of water molecule
Fo
(d) a hydrogen bond is formed between the H–atom of the OH
group in ethanol and hydrogen of the water molecule
s e
Q.26 The boiling point of a liquid will be
ea
(a) lower at high altitude

ith
(b) higher at high altitude

w
(c) same at sea level and high altitudes

ch
(d) equal to atmospheric pressure

/te
Q.27 The process in which liquids can be made to boil at low

om
temperature is called
(a) vacuum distillation
.c
ok
(b) destructive distillation

bo
(c) distillation
(d) vacuum destructive distillation
ce
Q.28 Why is the boiling point of methane greater than that of neon
fa
(a) a molecule of methane has a greater mass

://
tp
(b) a molecule of methane has more electrons than a molecule of

ht
neon
ke
(c) the molecules of methane have stronger intermolecular forces

than those of neon
Li
(d) the molecule of methane is polar but that of neon is not
Q.29 The amount of heat required to vaporize one mole of a liquid at

its boiling point is called
l
(a) molar heat of vaporization
ia
er
(b) molar heat of fusion
at
(c) latent heat of fusion
M
(d) molar heat of sublimation
y
Q.30 Which of the elements in its crystalline form will have the lowest
ud
enthalpy change of vaporizations
St
(a) chlorine (b) argon
e
(c) phosphorous (d) silicon
or
Q.31 Crystals show variation in physical properties depending upon
rM
the direction. The property is called
Fo
(a) isomorphism (b) polymorphism
(c) anisotropy (d) s isotropy
e
Q.32 Certain melt to a turbid liquid phase with properties of liquids as
ea
well as some degree of order like solid. Such turbid liquids are called
ith
(a) anorphous solid (b) vitreous solid

w
(c) crystalline solid (d) liquid crystal

ch
Q.33 Isomorphous crystals show

/te
(a) same chemical properties

om
(b) same physical properties

(c) same crystalline form
.c
ok
(d) same melting point

bo
Q.34 Existence of an element in more than form is known as

(a) allotropy (b) isomorphism
ce
(c) isotropy (d) none of these

fa
Q.35 Crystalline forms of the same, substance can coexist in

://
tp
equilibrium with each other at its

ht
(a) melting point (b) transition temperature

ke
(c) boiling point (d) none of these

Q.36 Crystal lattice of substance can be catagorised into
Li
(a) five types (b) seven types

(c) six types (d) none of these
5
Q.37 Covalent solids are composed of

(a) ions (b) different molecules
l
(c) neutral atoms (d) any of the above
ia
er
Q.38 Carbon atoms of diamond are
at
(a) sp hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized
M
(c) sp3 hybridized (d) unhybridized
y
Q.39 Molecular crystals are generally
ud
(a) hard (b) soft
St
(c) unstable (d) stable
e
Q.40 Ionic crystals are
or
(a) hard (b) soft
rM
(c) brittle (d) amorphous
Fo
ANSWER
Questions 1 2 3 4 s e 5
Answers d d d b c
ea
ith
Answers d c c b a
w
Questions 11 12 13 14 15
ch
Answers b b a c c
/te
Questions 16 17 18 19 20
om
Answers a c d b d
.c
Questions 21 22 23 24 25
ok
Answers d c c d c
bo
Questions 26 27 28 29 30
ce
Answers a a c a b
fa
Questions 31 32 33 34 35
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Answers c d c a b
tp
Questions 36 37 38 39 40
ht
Answers b c c b a
ke
Li
CHAPTER 5
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
l
ia
MCQs
er
at
M
Q.1 Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong
electric field is called
y
ud
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
St
(c) Photoelectric effect (d) Compton effect
e
Q.2 The velocity of photon is
or
(a) independent of its wavelength
rM
(b) depends on its wavelength
Fo
(c) equal to square of its amplitude
(d) depends on its source
Q.3 e
The nature of positive rays depend on
s
ea
(a) the nature of electrode

ith
(b) the nature of discharge tube

w
(c) the nature of residual gas

ch
(d) all of the above

/te
Q.4 The wave number of the light emitted by a certain source is 2 x

om
106 m. The wavelength of this light is

(a) 500 nm (b) 500 m
.c
(c) 200 nm (d) 5 x 10–1 m

ok
Q.5 Rutherford’s model of atom failed because

bo
(a) the atom did not have a nucleus and electrons

ce
(b) it did not account for the attraction between protons and
fa
neutrons
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(c) it did account for the stability of the atom

tp
(d) there is actually no space between the nucleus and the

ht
electrons
ke
Q.6 Bohr’s model of atom is contradicted by

Li
(a) Planck’s quantum theory

(b) Pauli exclusion principle
(c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
1
(d) All of the above

Q.7 Quantum number value for 2p orbitals are
l
(a) n = 2, l = 1 (b) n = 1, l = 2
ia
er
(c) n = 1, l = 0 (d) n = 2, l = 0
at
Q.8 In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present
M
(a) in the nucleus (b) in the second shell
y
(c) nearest to the nucleus (d) farthest from the nucleus
ud
Q.9 When the 6d orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
St
(a) 7f (b) 7s
e
(c) 7p (d) 7d
or
Q.10 Orbitals having same energy are called
rM
(a) hybrid orbitals (b) valence orbitals
Fo
(c) degenerate orbitals (d) d–orbitals
Q.11 The e/m value for the positive rays is maximum for
s e
(a) hydrogen (b) helium
ea
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen

ith
Q.12 Neutron was discovered by Chadwick in

w
(a) 1935 (b) 1930

ch
(c) 1932 (d) 1934

/te
Q.13 The velocity of photon is

om
(a) equal to square of its amplitude

(b) independent of its wavelength
.c
ok
(c) Equal to its wave number

bo
(d) equal to the velocity of light

Q.14 Quantum number values for 3p orbitals are
ce
(a) n = 0, l = 3 (b) n = 3, l = 1
fa
(c) n = 2, l = 1 (d) n = 1, l = 3
://
tp
Q.15 The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom

ht
(a) 0.329 Ao (b) 0.429 Ao

ke
(c) 0.529 Ao (d) 0.229 Ao

Q.16 All atoms are principally composed of few fundamental particles
Li
which are in number

(a) 2 (b) 3
2
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q.17 Which scientist gave the name of electron to the cathode rays
l
(a) Planck (b) Einstein
ia
er
(c) Stoney (d) Bohr
at
Q.18 The divisibility of atom was showed by
M
(a) Stoney (b) J.J. Thomson
y
(c) Millikan (d) Rutherford
ud
Q.19 The nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the
St
material used for
e
(a) gas (b) cathode
or
(c) glass (d) electrode
rM
Q.20 Mass of electron is
Fo
(a) 9.1 x 10–31 kg (b) 9.109 x 10–32 gm
(c) 8.1 x 10–31 g s(d)
e 9.1 x 10–31 mg
Q.21 The charge on an electron is
ea
(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) 1.602 x 10–18 c

ith
(c) 1.602 x 10–19 c (d) 1.602 x 10–21 c

w
Q.22 The charge on the proton is

ch
(a) + 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero

/te
(c) – 1.602 x 1019 c (d) 1.602 x 10–19 c

om
Q.23 The charge on the neutron is

(a) 1.602 x 10–19 c (b) zero
.c
– 1.602 x 10–19 c
ok
(c) (d) + 1.602 x 10–19 c

bo
Q.24 The calculated e/m value of electron is

(a) 1.602 x 1019 c kg–1 (b) 1.7588 x 10–11 c kg–1
ce
(c) 1.7588 x 10–13 c kg–1 (d) 1.759 x 109 c kg

fa
Q.25 The mass of proton is

://
tp
(a) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (b) 1.676 x 10–27 kg

ht
(c) 1.60 x 10–19 kg (d) 1.675 x 10–27 kg

ke
Q.26 The mass of neutron is

(a) 1.675 x 10–27 kg (b) 1.675 x 10–25 kg
Li
(c) 9.11 x 10–31 kg (d) 1.60 x 10–19 kg

Q.27 The charge on electron was determined by
3
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan

(c) Rutherford (d) Bohr
l
Q.28 Alpha particles are identical to
ia
er
(a) hydrogen atoms (b) helium atoms
at
(c) helium nuclei (d) fast moving electrons
M
Q.29 Bombardment of Beryllium with alpha particles generates
y
(a) proton (b) neutron
ud
(c) electron (d) positron
St
Q.30 The colour of the glow produced in the discharge tube depends
e
upon
or
(a) gas (b) electrodes
rM
(c) composition of gas (d) pressure
Fo
Q.31 When the pressure of the gas in discharge tube is reduced, which
of the following becomes more prominent
s e
(a) gas glows (b) gas ionizes
ea
(c) a discharge takes place (d) gas conducts

ith
electricity
w
Q.32 Goldstein discovered that besides the cathode rays, another type
ch
of rays are produced in the discharge tube which are called

/te
(a) alpha rays (b) beta rays

om
(c) positive rays (d) gamma rays

Q.33 The e/m value for the positive rays in the discharge tube depends
.c
ok
upon
bo
(a) nature of electrode use

(b) nature of gas used
ce
(c) composition of the gas

fa
(d) pressure
://
tp
Q.34 The distance between the two adjacent crests or troughs is called
ht
(a) wave number (b) frequency

ke
(c) wavelength (d) amplitude

Q.35 The value of Planck’s constant “h” is
Li
(a) 6.625 x 10–34 cal (b) 6.625 x 10–34 J sec

(c) 6.625 x 10–34 kJ (d) 6.625 x 10–34 k cal
4
Q.36 In the Bohr’s model of atom the electron in an energy level emits
or absorbs energy only when it
l
(a) remains in the same energy level
ia
er
(b) dies out
at
(c) changes its energy level
M
(d) jumps away
y
Q.37 The energy associated with an electron resolving in first orbit is
ud
(a) – 2.178 x 10–18 k J/mol
St
(b) – 1313.31 k J/mol
e
(c) – 328.32 k J/mol
or
(d) – 82.08 k J/mol
rM
Q.38 The regions of spectrum are
Fo
(a) three (b) seven
(c) eight s (d)
e five
Q.39 The dispersion of the components of white light when it is passed
ea
through prism is called

ith
(a) rainbow (b) light pattern

w
(c) refraction (d) spectrum

ch
Q.40 Which of the following colours has the shortest wavelength in

/te
the visible spectrum of light

om
(a) red (b) blue

(c) violet (d) green
.c
ok
Q.41 Which of the following colours has the longest wavelength in the
bo
visible spectrum of light

(a) red (b) blue
ce
(c) violet (d) green

fa
Q.42 A spectrum containing wavelength of all wavelengths is called

://
tp
(a) continuous (b) discontinuous

ht
(c) line (d) atomic

ke
Q.43 A spectrum showing only certain colours of light is called

(a) continuous (b) line
Li
(c) discontinuous (d) band

Q.44 The wavelength range of visible spectrum is
5
(a) 400–750 nm (b) 300–400 nm

(c) 350–600 nm (d) 200–400 nm
l
Q.45 The spectral lines of Lyman series (uv region) are produced
ia
er
when electron jumps from higher orbit to
at
(a) 1st orbit (b) 2nd orbit
M
(c) 3rd orbit (d) 4th orbit
y
Q.46 The spectral lines of Balmer series (visible region) are produced
ud
St
e
or
Q.47 The spectral lines of Paschen series (visible region) are produced
rM
Fo
(c) 3rd orbit (d)
s e 4th orbit
Q.48 The spectral lines of Bracket series (visible region) are produced
ea

ith

w

ch
Q.49 A dual character of matter particles in motion was postulated by

/te
(a) De–Broglie (b) Planck

om
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger

Q.50 If an electron is moving with a velocity of 2.188 x 106 m/s then
.c
ok
its wavelength will be

bo
(a) 0.33 x 106 nm (b) 0.33 x 10–2 nm

(c) 0.33 nm (d) 0.22 nm
ce
Q.51 If a stone of 1gm is many with a velocity of 10m/s then its

fa
wavelength will be
://
tp
(a) 6.65 x 10–30 m (b) 6.65 x 10–25 m

ht
(c) 6.65 x 10–28 m (d) 6.65 x 10–12 m

ke
Q.52 The space around the nucleus where the probability of finding
the electron is maximum is called
Li
(a) an orbital (b) an orbit

(c) energy level (d) a shell
6
Q.53 Which orbital has dumb–bell shape

(a) s–orbital (b) p–orbital
l
(c) d–orbital (d) f–orbital
ia
er
Q.54 Which of the following quantum numbers describes energy of an
at
electron in an atom
M
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
y
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
ud
Q.55 Which of the following quantum numbers describes shape of an
St
electron in an atom
e
(a) principal quantum (b) azimuthal quantum
or
(c) magnetic quantum (d) spin quantum
rM
Q.56 The degenerate orbital in p–subshell is
Fo
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d)
s e 7
Q.57 When 4p orbital is complete the entering electron goes into
ea
(a) 4d (b) 4f
ith
(c) 5s (d) 5p
w
Q.58 x + l value for 3d will be

ch
(a) 3 (b) 4
/te
(c) 5 (d) 6
om
Q.59 Maximum number of electrons in 3f orbitals is

(a) 2 (b) zero
.c
ok
(c) 6 (d) 14
bo
Q.60 Maximum number of electrons in M–shell is

(a) 2 (b) 8
ce
(c) 18 (d) 32
fa
Q.61 An orbital can have maximum electrons

://
tp
(a) 2 (b) 8
ht
(c) 18 (d) 6
ke
Q.62 n + l value for 4f will

(a) 2 (b) 5
Li
(c) 7 (d) 9
Q.63 When a spectrum of light is formed by the radiation given off by

a substance it is called
l
(a) line spectrum (b) continuous spectrum
ia
er
(c) emission spectrum (d) absorption spectrum
at
Q.64 Neutron was discovered by
M
(a) Chadwick (b) Bohr
y
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Einstein
ud
Q.65 Cathode rays can drive a small paddle wheel which shows that
St
they
e
(a) are positively charged
or
(b) possess momentum
rM
(c) do not possess momentum
Fo
(d) none of these
Q.66 Slow neutrons are generally more effective than fastness for the
s e
purpose of
ea
(a) effusion (b) fission

ith
(c) penetration (d) absorption

w
Q.67 The wavelength associated with the moving stone

ch
(a) can be measured by many methods

/te
(b) cannot be measured by any method

om
(c) can be measure by some method

(d) none of these
.c
ok
Q.68 Radius of orbit of an electron and velocity of electron are

bo
(a) directly proportional to each other

(b) inversely proportional to each other
ce
(c) independent to each other

fa
(d) none of these

://
tp
Q.69 The values of magnetic quantum number give us information

ht
about the number of orbitals in a

ke
(a) small shell (b) orbit

(c) subshell (d) none of these
Li
Q.70 Which of the following terms are used for the number of positive
charges on the nucleus of an atom
8
(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

(c) nuclear charge (d) atomic charge
l
Q.71 The uncertainty principle was stated by
ia
er
(a) de Broglie (b) Heinsenberg
at
(c) Einstein (d) Schrodinger
M
Q.72 When a pressure in a discharge tube is reduced, which of the
y
following phenomenon becomes very prominent
ud
(a) gas conducts electricity
St
(b) a discharge takes place
e
(c) gas ionizes
or
(d) gas glows
rM
Q.73 Atom bomb is based on the principle of
Fo
(a) nuclear fusion
(b) nuclear fission s e
(c) fusion and fission both
ea
(d) radioactivity
ith
Q.74 A spinning electron creates

w
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field

ch
(c) quantum field (d) none of these

/te
Q.75 The volume of space in which there is 95% chance of finding an

om
electron is
(a) orbit (b) atomic orbital
.c
ok
(c) degenerate orbital (d) quantized orbital

Q.76 Planck’s equation is
bo
(a) E = mc2 (b) E = hv

ce
(c) E = hv2 (d) E = mc

fa
Q.77 In an atom, the electrons

://
tp
(a) are stationary in various energy levels

ht
(b) are distributed in three dimensional charge cloud around

ke
the nucleus
(c) embedded in space around the nucleus
Li
(d) revolve around the nucleus at random

Q.78 The mass number of an element is equal to
9
(a) number of electrons in an atom

(b) number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
l
(c) number of protons in the nucleus
ia
er
(d) number of neutrons in the nucleus
at
Q.79 The energy of bounded electron in H atom is
M
(a) positive (b) negative
y
(c) zero (d) none of these
ud
Q.80 Quantum number which has symbol “n” is called
St
(a) principal quantum (b) Azimuthal quantum
e
(c) Spin quantum (d) Magnetic quantum
or
rM
ANSWERS
Fo
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s s e
Answers b a c a c
ea
Question 6 7 8 9 10
ith
s
w
Answers c a c c c
ch
Question 11 12 13 14 15
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s
om
Answers a c d b c
.c
Question 16 17 18 19 20
ok
s
bo
Answers b c b d a
ce
Question 21 22 23 24 25
fa
s
://
Answers c a b b b
tp
Question 26 27 28 29 30
ht
s
ke
Answers a b c b c
Li
Question 31 32 33 34 35
s
Answers c c b c b
10
www.allonlinefree.com
Question 36 37 38 39 40
s
l
ia
Answers c b c d c
er
Question 41 42 43 44 45
at
s
M
Answers a a b a a
y
Question 46 47 48 49 50
ud
s
St
Answers b c d a c
e
Question 51 52 53 54 55
or
s
rM
Answers a a b a b
Fo
Question 56 57 58 59 60
s s e
Answers b c c b c
ea
Question 61 62 63 64 65
ith
s
w
Answers a c c a b
ch
Question 66 67 68 69 70
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s
om
Answers b b b c a
.c
Question 71 72 73 74 75
ok
s
bo
Answers b b b a b
ce
Question 76 77 78 79 80
fa
s
://
Answers b b b b a
tp
ht
ke
Li
11
CHAPTER 6
CHEMICAL BONDING
l
ia
MCQs
er
at
Q.1 An ionic compound A+ B– is most likely to be formed when
M
(a) The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity
y
of B is low
ud
(b) The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of
St
B is high
e
(c) Both the ionization energy and electron affinity of B are
or
high
rM
(d) Both the ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B
Fo
are low
Q.2 The number of bonds in nitrogen molecules
e
one  and one 
s
(a)
ea
(b) one  and two 

ith
(c) three sigma only

w
(d) two  and one 

ch
Q.3 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding

/te
bonding molecular orbitals?

om
(a) bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than

.c
atomic orbitals from which they are formed

ok
(b) bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density

bo
between the two nuclei

ce
(c) every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals

contributes to the attraction between atoms
fa
://
(d) bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron

tp
waves undergo constructive interference

ht
Q.4 Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

ke
(a) NH3 (b) CHCl3

Li
(c) H2O (d) BF3

Q.5 Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of
ionic character
1
(a) HF (b) HBr

(c) HCl (d) HI
l
Q.6 Which of the following molecules has unpaired electrons in anti–
ia
er
bonding molecular orbitals
at
(a) O2 (b) N2
M
(c) Br2 (d) F2
y
Q.7 Which of the following involve ionic bonding only?
ud
(a) Li3N (b) NaCl
St
(c) NCl3 (d) O2
e
Q.8 Which of the following involve covalent bonding only?
or
(a) KF (b) KCl
rM
(c) CH4 (d) MgCl2
Fo
Q.9 Which of the following molecules has a net dipole moment?
(a) CO2 (b) CS2
(c) SO2
s e
(d) CCl4
ea
Q.10 H2S has a net dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole
ith
moment, because
w
(a) H2S molecule is linear while BeF2 is angular

ch
(b) H2S molecule is angular, while BeF2 molecule is linear

/te
(c) Fluorine has more electronegativity than S

om
(d) Be is more electronegative than S

Q.11 Which of the following ions has larger ionic radius?
.c
(a) Na+ (b) K+

ok
(c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+

bo
Q.12 Which of the following bonds is least polar?

ce
(a) H–Se (b) P–Cl

fa
(c) H–Cl (d) N–Cl

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Q.13 Which one has the least bond angle?

tp
(a) NH3 (b) CH4

ht
(c) H2O (d) BF3

ke
Q.14 Coordinate covalent bonds are formed by

Li
(a) sharing of electrons

(b) donation of electrons
(c) transference of electrons

(d) none of these
l
Q.15 Which of the following molecules would be expected to have
ia
er
zero dipole moment?
at
(a) H2S (b) PF3
M
(c) TeF6 (d) H2O
y
Q.16 The bond formed between the elements of low ionization energy
ud
and elements of high electron affinity is
St
(a) ionic (b) covalent
e
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
or
Q.17 The side ways overlap of two–p orbitals to form a bond is called
rM
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond
Fo
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond
Q.18 The head overlap of p–orbitals of two atoms give rise to bond
s e
called
ea
(a) sigma bond (b) pi () bond

ith
(c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond

w
Q.19 Which element would be the most electronegative element with

ch
(a) high ionization energy (IE) and low electron affinity

/te
(EA)
om
(b) low ionization energy (IE) and high electron affinity

.c
(EA)
ok
(c) low ionization energy and low electron affinity

bo
(d) high ionization energy and high electron affinity

ce
Q.20 Which element would be the least electronegative element with

(a) high I.E. and low E.A. (b) low I.E. and high E.A.
fa
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(c) low I.E. and low E.A. (d) high I.E. and low E.A.
tp
Q.21 Which of the following substances has the least ionic character in
ht
its bond?
ke
(a) CCl4 (b) KCl

Li
(c) BeCl2 (d) MgCl2

Q.22 Which of the following best describes ionization energy?
(a) energy needed to remove the most loosely bound electron

from its ground state
l
(b) it decreases from left to right across a period
ia
er
(c) it increases down the periodic table
at
(d) it is represented by x + e–  x– + energy
M
Q.23 Which one of the following characteristics is not usually
y
attributed to ionic substances
ud
(a) high melting point (b) deform when struck
St
(c) crystalline in solid state
e
(d) well defined three dimensional structure
or
Q.24 Which of the following bond is less polar?
rM
(a) B–Cl (b) C–Cl
Fo
(c) H–I (d) C–I
Q.25 Which type of the orbital hybridization and geometry is used by
s e
the central atom of NH2–?
ea
(a) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar

ith
(b) sp hybridization and tetrahedral geometry

w
(c) sp2 hybridization and trigonal planar

ch
(d) sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry

/te
Q.26 Which of the following compounds has most likely been formed
om
by covalent bonding of atoms

.c
(a) CaF2 (b) MgO

ok
(c) SiH4 (d) NaCl

bo
Q.27 Identify the compound below which has bonds formed by an

overlap of sp and p–orbitals
ce
(a) BF3 (b) BeCl2

fa
(c) NH3 (d) H2O

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tp
Q.28 The most electronegative of these group I element is

ht
(a) Na (b) K
ke
(c) Li (d) Cs
Q.29 The type of bonding in HBr is
Li
(a) ionic (b) polar covalent

(c) non–polar covalent (d) coordinate covalent
4
Q.30 Which of the following statement is not correct

(a) sigma bond is weaker than a pi bond
l
(b) sigma bond is stronger than a pi bond
ia
er
(c) double bond is stronger than a single bond
at
(d) double bond is shorter than a single bond
M
Q.31 Which of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure?
y
(a) CH4 (b) NH3
ud
(c) H2O (d) C2H4
St
Q.32 The bond angle in water is
e
(a) 109–5o (b) 104.5o
or
(c) 107.0o (d) 120o
rM
Q.33 During the formation of chemical bond, the potential energy of
Fo
the system
(a) decreases (b)
s e increases
(c) does not change (d) none of these
ea
Q.34 H2O molecule has

ith
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair

w
(c) two lone pairs (d) none of these

ch
Q.35 NH3 molecule has

/te
(a) no lone pair (b) one lone pair

om
(c) two lone pairs (d) three lone pairs

Q.36 In NH3 the covalent bond formed are due to
.c
ok
(a) s–sp overlap (b) s–sp2 overlap

bo
(c) s–sp3 overlap (d) sp2–sp2 overlap

Q.37 Which of the following is largest atom
ce
(a) Mg (b) Be
fa
(c) Sr (d) Ca
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Q.38 As compared to covalent compounds, ionic compounds generally

ht
have
ke
(a) low melting points and low boiling points

(b) low melting points and high boiling points
Li
(c) high melting points and high boiling points

(d) high melting points and low boiling points
5
www.allonlinefree.com
Q.39 The attractive force that holds atoms together in a molecule is

called
l
(a) force of attraction (b) electrostatic force
ia
er
(c) bond (d) chemical bond
at
Q.40 Which of the following bonds will be formed between alkali
M
metals and halogens
y
(a) ionic (b) covalent bond
ud
(c) metallic bond (d) coordinate covalent bond
St
Q.41 The bond formed between the atoms by mutual sharing of
e
electrons is
or
(a) ionic (b) coordinate covalent bond
rM
(c) covalent (d) metallic
Fo
Q.42 A chemical bond formed between two similar atoms is purely
(a) ionic (b)
s e covalent
(c) metallic (d) coordinate
ea
Q.43 On the basis of VSEPR model the geometry of BeCl2 is

ith
(a) linear (b) trigonal

w
(c) tetrahedral (d) angular

ch
Q.44 On the basis of VSEPR theory, a molecule with three bond pair
/te
and no lone pair of electrons will have a structure

om
(a) linear (b) trigonal planar

(c) tetrahedral (d) trigonal pyramidal
.c
ok
Q.45 The geometry of NH3 on the basis of VSEPR model is

bo
(a) trigonal planar (b) trigonal pyramidal

(c) tetrahedral (d) linear
ce
Q.46 In which of the following theories the hybridization is considered

fa
(a) VSEPR (b) Lewis

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(c) molecular orbital (d) valence bond

ht
Q.47 The angle between 3 sp2 hybrid orbital is

ke
(a) 90o (b) 120o

(c) 130o (d) 180o
Li
Q.48 The unhybridized “p” orbital in sp2 hybridization is

(a) parallel to sp2 (b) in the same plane
6
1st
(c) perpendicular to sp2 orbitals

(d) out of plane
l
Q.49 Which of the following theories gives the idea of delocalization
ia
er
of electrons
at
(a) Lewis theory (b) VSEPR theory
M
(c) valence bond theory (d) molecular orbital theory
y
Q.50 The tandency of an atom to attract, a shared electron pair towards
ud
itself is called
St
(a) electron affinity (b) electronegativity
e
(c) dipole moment (d) ionization potential
or
Q.51 Energy needed to remove an electron from its gaseous atom is
rM
called
Fo
(a) electron affinity (b) ionization energy
(c) lattice energy s(d)e electronegativity
Q.52 A bond having partial positive and negative charges is
ea
(a) ionic (b) covalent

ith
(c) polar covalent (d) non–polar covalent

w
Q.53 A bond formed by the linear overlap of atomic orbitals is called

ch
(a) sigma (b) ionic

/te
(c) pi (d) polar

om
Q.54 Which of the following elements is the most electronegative

(a) Li (b) F
.c
ok
(c) O (d) Cl
bo
Q.55 Some covalent compounds dissolve in water due to

(a) hydrolysis (b) hydration
ce
(c) hydrogen bonding (d) metallic bonding

fa
Q.56 Which of the following compounds will have the lowest boiling
://
tp
point?
ht
(a) PH3 (b) ASH3

ke
(c) NH3 (d) SbH3

Q.57 Which of the following molecules has a coordinate bond?
Li
(a) NH4Cl (b) NaCl

(c) HCl (d) AlCl3
7
Q.58 The half of the difference between the number of electrons in

bonding MO and antibonding MO is called
l
(a) molecule order (b) bond order
ia
er
(c) proton order (d) electron order
at
Q.59 The bond order for He2 molecule is
M
(a) zero (b)
y
(c) 1 (d) 2
ud
Q.60 The bond order for H2 is
St
(a) zero (b)
e
(c) 1 (d) 1.5
or
Q.61 The bond order in N2 molecule is
rM
(a) zero (b) 1
Fo
(c) 2 (d) 3
Q.62 The bond order in O2 molecule iss e
(a) 1 (b) 2
ea
(c) 3 (d) zero

ith
Q.63 Which one of the following is diamagnetic

w
(a) B2 (b) C2
ch
(c) N2 (d) O2–

/te
Q.64 Which one of the following molecule is paramagnetic

om
(a) B2 (b) C2
(c) N2 (d) F2
.c
ok
Q.65 Which of the following ions is diamagnetic

bo
(a) O (b) O
(c) O (d) N
ce
Q.66 Pi bond consists of two regions of electron cloud density

fa
(a) along the bond axis

://
tp
(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis

ht
(c) above and below the bond axis

ke
(d) none of these

Q.67 Sigma bond consists of one region of electron density
Li
(a) along the bond axis

(b) along and perpendicular to bond axis
8
(c) above and below the bond axis

(d) none of these
l
Q.68 The electron cloud density is symmetrical along the bond axis in
ia
er
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
at
(c) both sigma and pi bond
M
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
y
Q.69 The electron cloud density is not symmetrical along the bond
ud
axis in
St
(a) sigma bond (b) pi bond
e
(c) both sigma and pi bond
or
(d) neither sigma nor pi bond
rM
Q.70 Covalent bonds are
Fo
(a) rigid and directional
(b) rigid and non–directional s e
(c) neither rigid nor directional
ea
(d) non–rigid and directional

ith
Q.71 Ionic bonds are

w
(a) rigid and directional

ch
(b) rigid and non–directional

/te
(c) non rigid non directional

om
(d) non–rigid and directional

Q.72 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the
.c
ok
covalent compounds
bo
(a) covalent compounds do not exhibit isomerism

(b) covalent compounds exhibit isomerism
ce
(c) covalent compounds are soluble in water

fa
(d) covalent compounds are insoluble in non–polar solvents

://
tp
Q.73 The C–C bond length in ethane (C2H6) is

ht
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm

(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
ke
Q.74 The C–C bond length in ethene (C2H4) is

Li
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm

(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
Q.75 The C–C bond length in ethyne is
9
(a) 154 pm (b) 133 pm

(c) 120 pm (d) 105 pm
l
Q.76 The atomic radii of the elements have a general trend of
ia
er
fluctuating periodically throughout the
at
(a) group (b) period
M
(c) periodic table (d) series
y
Q.77 Which of the following atom has the shortest atomic radius
ud
(a) N (b) F
St
(c) O (d) B
e
Q.78 The half of the single bond length between two atoms in a
or
molecule is called
rM
(a) ionic radius of an element
Fo
(b) covalent radius of an element
(c) both ionic and covalent
s e
(d) none of these
ea
Q.79 Octet rule is not followed in the formation of

ith
(a) CH4 (b) NF3

w
(c) BCl3 (d) H2O

ch
Q.80 Select the atom with the largest ionization energy in the
/te
following atoms
om
(a) N (b) P
(c) AS (d) Sb
.c
ok
Q.81 Select the largest atom in the following atoms

(a) O (b) S
bo
(c) Se (d) Te
ce
Q.82 Which of the following group of elements on the average has the
fa
highest ionization energies

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(a) IA (b) IIIA

ht
(c) IVA (d) VIIIA

Q.83 Molecular orbital theory has
ke
(a) the superiority over the VB theory

Li
(b) the inferiority over the VB theory

(c) neither superiority nor inferiority over VB theory
10
(d) none of these

Q.84 The bond between H–H is
l
(a) stronger than the bond between H–Cl
ia
er
(b) weaker than the bond between H–Cl
at
(c) neither stronger nor weaker than the bond between H–Cl
M
(d) none of these
y
Q.85 In which of the following molecules, the value of bond order in
ud
maximum
St
(a) H2 (b) O2
e
(c) N2 (d) Cl2
or
Q.86 When the S–character of hybridized orbital decreases the bond
rM
angle
Fo
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) does not change s e (d) becomes zero
Q.87 One of the causes of reactions is that the systems attains the
ea
energy state which is of

ith
(a) higher in energy (b) lower in energy

w
(c) balanced in energy (d) equal in energy

ch
Q.88 The increase in the bond energy of a covalent bond is due to

/te
(a) electronegativity (b) ionization energy

om
(c) polarity (d) symmetry

Q.89 The polarity of a molecule is expressed by
.c
ok
(a) bond strength (b) dipole moment

bo
(c) bond length (d) shape

Q.90 Dipole moment of H2O is
ce
(a) 1.85 (b) 1.82

fa
(c) 1.87 (d) 1.83

://
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ht
ANSWERS
ke
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
Li
Answers b b b d a
Question 6 7 8 9 10
11
s
Answers a a c c b
l
ia
Question 11 12 13 14 15
er
s
at
Answers b d c b c
M
Question 16 17 18 19 20
y
s
ud
Answers a b a d c
St
Question 21 22 23 24 25
e
s
or
Answers a a b d d
rM
Question 26 27 28 29 30
Fo
s
Answers c b c b s e
b
Question 31 32 33 34 35
ea
s
ith
Answers b b a c b
w
Question 36 37 38 39 40
ch
s
/te
Answers c b c d a
om
Question 41 42 43 44 45
.c
s
ok
Answers c b a b b
bo
Question 46 47 48 49 50
ce
s
fa
Answers d b d d b
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Question 51 52 53 54 55
tp
s
ht
Answers b b a b c
ke
Question 56 57 58 59 60
Li
s
Answers c a b a b
Question 61 62 63 64 65
12
s
Answers d b d a c
l
ia
Question 66 67 68 69 70
er
s
at
Answers c a a b a
M
Question 71 72 73 74 75
y
s
ud
Answers c d b b c
St
Question 76 77 78 79 80
e
s
or
Answers c b b c a
rM
Question 81 82 83 84 85
Fo
s
Answers d d a b s ec
Question 86 87 88 89 90
ea
s
ith
Answers a b c b a
w
ch
/te
om
.c
ok
bo
ce
fa
://
tp
ht
ke
Li
13
CHAPTER 7
THERMOCHEMISTRY
l
ia
MCQs
er
at
M
Q.1 Which of the following statements is contrary to the first law of
y
ud
thermodynamics?
St
(a) energy can neither be created nor destroyed
e
(b) one form of energy can be transferred into an equivalent
or
amount of other kinds of energy
rM
(c) in an adiabatic process, the work done is independent of
Fo
its path
(d) continuous production of mechanical work with out
equivalent amount of heat is possible
s e
ea
Q.2 The change in heat energy of a chemical reaction at constant

ith
temperature and pressure is called

w
(a) enthalpy change (b) bond

ch
energy
/te
(c) heat of sublimation (d) internal energy

om
change
Q.3 For the reaction NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O, the change in
.c
enthalpy is called as:

ok
(a) heat of reaction (b) heat of

bo
formation
ce
(c) heat of neutralization (d) heat of combustion

fa
Q.4 Calorie is equivalent to

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(a) 0.4184 J (b) 41.84 J

tp
ht
(c) 4.184 J (d) 418.4 J

Q.5 For a given process, the heat change at pressure (qp) and constant
ke
volume (qv) are related to each other as

Li
(a) qp = qv (b) qp < qv

(c) qp > qv (d) qp =
Q.6 The net heat change in a chemical reaction is same whether. It is

brought about in two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is
l
known as
ia
Henry’s law Joule’s principle
er
(a) (b)
at
(c) Hess’s law (d) Law of conservation of
M
energy
y
Q.7 Enthalpy of neutralisation of all the strong acids and strong bases
ud
has the same value because
St
(a) neutralisation leads to the formation of salt and H2O
e
(b) strong acid and bases are ionic substances
or
(c) acids always give rise to H+ ions and bases always
rM
furnish OH– ions
Fo
(d) the net chemical change involve the combination of H+
and OH– ions to form water s e
Q.8 If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly
ea
in the air. The temperature of the surrounding air

ith
(a) remains constant (b) increase

w
(c) decrease (d) remain unchanged

ch
Q.9 In endothermic reactions, the heat content of the

/te
(a) products is more than that of reactants

om
(b) reactants is more than that of products

(c) both (a) and (b)
.c
Q.10 Hess’s law is also called

ok
bo
(a) first law of thermodynamics

(b) second law of thermodynamics
ce
(c) first law of thermochemistry

fa
(d) second law of thermochemistry

://
Q.11 Pressure – volume work is

tp
ht
(a) PDv (b) Fxd

hv
ke
(c) (d) H+pv

Q.12 Kinetic energy of molecules is due to
Li
(a) rotational energy (b)

vibrational energy
2
(c) translational energy (d) all of these

Q.13 The condition for standard enthalpy change is
l
(a) 1 atm 30oC (b) 1 atm 0oC
ia
er
(c) 1 atm 25oC (d) 760 atm 25oC
at
Q.14 The unit of enthalpy change is
M
(a) calorie (b) joule
y
(c) volt (d) coulomb
ud
Q.15 The sum of all kinds of a system is ions or molecules of a system
St
is
e
(a) vibrational energy (b) potential energy
or
(c) kinetic energy (d) internal energy
rM
Q.16 An endothermic reaction is one is which
Fo
(a) enthalpy of reactants and products are same
(b) enthalpy of products is greater than reactant
s e
(c) enthalpy of products is lesser than reactants
ea
(d) heat is evolved from system

ith
Q.17 Bomb calorimeter is used to determine

w
(a) enthalpy of solution

ch
(b) enthalpy of atomization

/te
(c) enthalpy of combustion

om
(d) enthalpy of neutralization

Q.18 Glass calorimeter is used to determine
.c
ok
(a) enthalpy of combustion

bo
(b) enthalpy of reaction

(c) pressure–volume work
ce
(d) none of above

fa
Q.19 Born–Haber cycle is used to calculate

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tp
(a) enthalpy of combustion

ht
(b) lattice energy of ionic camps

ke
(c) both a and b

(d) none of above
Li
Q.20 Born–Haber cycle is an application of

(a) first law of thermodynamics
3
(b) second law of thermodynamics

(c) first law of thermochemistry
l
(d) Hess’s law
ia
er
Q.21 An exothermic reaction is one in which
at
(a) enthalpy of reactants and products are same
M
(b) heat is absorbed by system
y
(c) enthalpy of products is greater than reactants
ud
(d) enthalpy of reactants is lesser than products
St
Q.22 A substance under observation during an experiment
e
(a) surrounding (b) system
or
(c) state function (d) universe
rM
Q.23 Enthalpy of neutralization is merely
Fo
(a) heat of solution (b) heat of atomization
(c) heat of combustion s e
(d) heat of formation of H2O
ea
Q.24 Lattice energy of NaCl is

ith
(a) + 500 kJ (b) – 344 kJ

w
(c) – 776 kJ (d) – 411 kJ

ch
Q.25 Standard enthalpy of Al2O3 cannot be measured because

/te
(a) it does not catch fire

om
(b) it reacts with CO2

(c) protective layer of oxide cover the surface
.c
ok
(d) none of above

bo
Q.26 Ammonium chloride dissolve in water this process is

(a) endothermic process (b) exothermic process
ce
(c) simple hydration (d) none of above

fa
Q.27 First law of thermodynamics is represented as

://
tp
(a) DE = q+RT (b) DE = q+DP

E = q+P E = q+w
ht
(c) (d)
ke
Q.28 Pumping of water uphill is

(a) spontaneous reaction (b) exothermic reaction
Li
(c) non–spontaneous reaction

(d) endothermic
4
Q.29 In exothermic reaction D H is

(a) positive (b) negative
l
(c) zero (d) none of above
ia
er
at
ANSWERS
M
Question 1 2 3 4 5
y
s
ud
Answers D a c c C
St
Question 6 7 8 9 10
e
s
or
Answers c d c c D
rM
Question 11 12 13 14 15
Fo
s
Answers a d s c
e a d
Question 16 17 18 19 20
ea
s
ith
Answers b c b b d
w
Question 21 22 23 24 25
ch
s
/te
Answers c b d c c
om
Question 26 27 28 29
.c
s
ok
Answers a d b b
bo
ce
fa
://
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ht
ke
Li
1st year chemistry n0tes new
CHAPTER 8
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
l
ia
MCQs
er
at
M
Q.1 A reaction is reversible because
(a) reactants are reactive (b) products are reactive
y
ud
(c) products are stable (d) reactants are stable
St
Q.2 A large value of Kc means that at equilibrium
e
(a) less reactants and more products
or
(b) more reactants and less product
rM
(c) same amount
Fo
(d) none
Q.3 Extent to H2 + I2  2HI can be increased by
(a) increasing pressure
s
(b)
e increasing product
ea
(c) increasing temp (d) adding a catalyst

ith
Q.4 Strength of an acid can be determined by

w
(a) PKa (b) PKp

ch
(c) POH (d) PKw

/te
Q.5 In an exothermic reversible reaction increase in temp shifts the

om
equilibrium to
(a) reactant side (b) product side
.c
(c) remains unchanged (d) none

ok
Q.6 Units of Kw are

bo
(a) mole dm–3 (b) mole2 dm–3

ce
(c) mole2 dm–6 (d) mole2 dm–3

fa
Q.7 A basic Buffer solution can be prepared by mixing

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(a) weak acid and its salt with strong base

tp
ht
(b) strong acid and its salt with weak base

(c) weak base and its salt with strong acid
ke
(d) strong base and its salt with weak acid

Li
Q.8 Buffer action can be explained by

(a) common ion effect (b) law of mass action
(c) Le–Chatlier’s principle (d) all above

Q.9 Ionization of weak acid is expressed in term of following
l
constant
ia
er
(a) Kw (b) Kn
at
(c) Ka (d) Kb
M
Q.10 Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is exothermic. If solubility will increase
y
(a) at high temp (b) at low temp
ud
(c) temp independent (d) none
St
Q.11 For which system does the equilibrium constant, Kc has units of
e
concentration
or
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (b) H2 + I2 2 HI
rM
(c) 2NO2 N2O4 (d) 2HF H2 + F2
Fo
Q.12 Which statement about the following equilibrium is correct
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)  H = – 188.3 kJ mol–1
s e
(a) the value of Kp falls with a rise in temp
ea
(b) the value of Kp falls with increasing pressure

ith
(c) adding V2O5 catalyst increase the equilibrium yield of

w
sulphur trioxide
ch
(d) the value of Kp is equal to Kc

/te
Q.13 The PH of 10–3 mole dm–3 of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is

om
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.7

.c
(c) 2.0 (d) 1.5

ok
Q.14 The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10–10 mole2 dm–6. The
bo
max concentration of Ag+ ions in the solution is

(a) 2.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (b) 1.41 x 10–5 mol dm–3
ce
(c) 1.0 x 10–10 mol dm–3 (d) 4.0 x 10–20 mol dm–3
fa
Q.15 An excess of aqueous silver nitrate to added to aqueous barium

://
tp
chloride and precipitate is removed by filtration what are the main ions
ht
in the filtrate
ke
(a) Ag+ and NO only (b) Ag+ and Ba2+ and NO3
(c) Ba2+ and NO only (d) Ba+2 and NO and Cl–
Li
Q.16 For N2 + 3H2 2NH3

(a) Kc = Kp (b) Kp = Kc RT
2
(c) Kp = Kc (RT)–2 (d) Kp = Kc (RT)–1

Q.17 H2 + I2 2HI
l
In the above equilibrium system, if the conc. of reactants of 25oC
ia
er
is increased, the value of Kc will
at
(a) increase (b) decrease
M
(c) remains constant
y
(d) depends upon nature of reactants
ud
Q.18 In a chemical reaction, equilibrium is said to have established
St
when
e
(a) opposing reactions stops
or
(b) concentrations of reactants and products are equal
rM
(c) rate constants of opposing reactions are equal
Fo
Q.19 The relation between Kc and Kp is
(a) Kc = Kp (RT) n s (b)
e Kp = Kc (RT) n
(c) Kp = Kc (RT) n (d) Kp = Kc
ea
Q.20 The precipitation occurs if the ionic concentration is

ith
(a) less than Ksp (b) more than Ksp

w
(c) equal to Ksp (d) is present at any moment

ch
Q.21 The PH of oranges is

/te
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.1

om
(c) 4.6 (d) 4.2

.c
Q.22 Which one of following solution have zero PH

ok
(a) 1M HCl (b) 0.5 MH2SO4

bo
(c) 0.1 M HNO3 (d) 1M CH3COOH

ce
Q.23 The solubility product expression for BaF2 can be written as

(a) [Ba2+] [F–] (b) [Ba2+] [2F]
fa
://
(c) [Ba2+] [F–]2 (d) [Ba+] [F–]2

tp
Q.24 To prepare a buffer with PH close to 9.0, you could use a mixture
ht
of
ke
(a) NH4OH and NH4Cl

Li
(b) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

(c) HNO2 + NaNO2
(d) NaHCO3 + H2CO3
3
Q.25 For which reaction the numerical value of Kc and Kp are same
(a) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (b) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
l
(c) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (d) N2O4 2NO2
ia
er
Q.26 For which system does the equilibrium constant Kc have units
at
(mole dm–3)–1
M
(a) H2 + I2 2HI (b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
y
(c) 2NO2 N2O4
ud
(d) CH3COOH + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
St
Q.27 What can affect the magnitude of equilibrium constant Kp of a
e
reversible gaseous reaction
or
(a) temperature (b) pressure
rM
(c) catalyst (d) none of above
Fo
Q.28 Which gas can change the PH towards acidic
s e
(a) argon (b) carbon dioxide
ea
(c) nitrogen (d) oxygen

ith
Q.29 The solution having zero PH will be

w
(a) basic (b) high basic

ch
(c) neutral (d) highly acidic

/te
Q.30 A solution have H+ ions concentration 1 x 10–7 its PH will be

om
(a) acid (b) basic

(c) neutral (d) zero
.c
ok
Q.31 Which one of the following has highest PH

bo
(a) 0.1 M HCl (b) 1.0 M HCl

(c) gastric juice (d) lemons
ce
Q.32 Which PH is considered as basic

fa
(a) 1 (b) 7
://
tp
(c) 2 (d) 11
ht
Q.33 The sum of PH and POH is

ke
(a) 2 (b) 7
(c) 14 (d) 13.5
Li
Q.34 A buffer solution can be prepared by mixing

(a) a strong acid and weak base
4
(b) a weak acid and weak base

(c) a strong acid and its salt
l
(d) a weak base and its salt with strong acid
ia
er
Q.35 Law of mass action was presented by
at
(a) Henderson (b) Lewis
M
(c) Guldberg and Waage (d) Arrehenius
y
Q.36 The unit of Kc for reaction
ud
N2 + O2 2NO
St
(a) mol dm–3 (b) mol–1 dm3
e
(c) mol–2 dm6 (d) no units
or
Q.37 PH of pure water is
rM
(a) 3.2 (b) 4.2
Fo
(c) 7.0 (d) 0
Q.38 Which of following change will favour the formation of more
s e
SO3 at equilibrium
ea
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 + heat

ith
(a) by adding SO3 at equilibrium

w
(b) by increasing temp

ch
(c) by decreasing temp

/te
(d) by decreasing pressure

om
Q.39 When pressure is applied to the given equilibrium

ice water which of the following will happen
.c
ok
(a) more ice will be formed

bo
(b) more water will be formed

(c) equilibrium will not be disturbed
ce
(d) water will formed

fa
Q.40 Which of following change will favour the formation of more HI

://
tp
in the given reaction

ht
H2 + I2 2HI
ke
(a) increasing pressure

(b) decreasing pressure
Li
(c) by adding more HI
(d) by adding more H2 and I2
l
ANSWERS
ia
er
Question 1 2 3 4 5
at
s
M
Answers b a c a A
y
Question 6 7 8 9 10
ud
s
St
Answers a a d c b
e
Question 11 12 13 14 15
or
s
rM
Answers a a b b c
Fo
Question 16 17 18 19 20
s s e
Answers c a c b b
ea
Question 21 22 23 24 25
ith
s
w
Answers a a c a c
ch
Question 26 27 28 29 30
/te
s
om
Answers b b b d c
.c
Question 31 32 33 34 35
ok
s
bo
Answers d d c d c
ce
Question 36 37 38 39 40
fa
s
://
Answers d c c d d
tp
ht
ke
Li
CHAPTER 9
SOLUTIONS
l
ia
MCQs
er
at
M
Q.1 Which of the following solutions has the highest boiling point?
(a) 5.85% solution of NaCl
y
ud
(b) 18.0% solution of glucose
St
(c) 6.0% solution of urea
e
(d) all have same boiling point
or
Q.2 Two solutions of NaCl and KCl are prepared separately by
rM
dissolving same amount of the solute in water. Which of the following
Fo
statements is true for these solutions
(a) KCl solution will have higher boiling point than NaCl
solution
s e
ea
(b) both the solutions have same boiling point

ith
(c) KCl and NaCl solutions possess same vapour pressure

w
Q.3 Molarity of pure water is

ch
(a) 1 (b) 18
/te
(c) 55.5 (d) 6

om
Q.4 18 gm glucose is dissolved in 90 gm of water. The relative

lowering of vapour pressure is equal to
.c
(a) (b) 5.1

ok
(c) (d) 6
bo
Q.5 The molar boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in
ce
boiling point to
fa
(a) molarity (b) molality

://
(c) mole fraction of solvent (d) less than that of

tp
water
ht
Q.6 An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure

ke
(a) equal to that of water (b) equation to that of

Li
methanol
(c) more than that of water (d) less than that of
water
1
Q.7 An ozeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a lower temperature

than either of them when
l
(a) it is saturated
ia
it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
er
(b)
at
(c) it shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law
M
(d) it is metastable
y
Q.8 In azeotropic mixture showing positive deviation from Raoult’s
ud
law, the volume of mixture is
St
(a) slightly more than the total volume of components
e
(b) slightly less than the total volume of the component
or
(c) equal to the total volume of the components
rM
(d) none of these
Fo
Q.9 A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1 gm mole of
it is dissolved will be s e
(a) 1 dm3 (b) 1.8 dm3
ea
(c) 200 cm3 (d) 900 cm3

ith
Q.10 Colligative properties are the properties of

w
(a) dilute solutions which behave as nearly ideal solutions

ch
(b) concentrated solutions which behave as nearly non–ideal

/te
solutions
om
(c) both (i) and (ii) (d) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.11 The freezing mixture used in ice cream machine consists of ice
.c
ok
and
bo
(a) NaCl (b) CaCl2

(c) KNO3 (d) both a & c
ce
Q.12 1 kg of sea water contains 4.96 x 10–3 gm of dissolved oxygen.

fa
The concentration of oxygen in sea water in ppm is

://
tp
(a) 4.96 x 10–2 (b) 0.496

ht
(c) 4.96 (d) 49.6

ke
Q.13 A solution of sucrose is 34.2%. The volume of solution

containing one mole of solute
Li
(a) 500 cm3 (b) 1000 cm3

(c) 342 cm3 (d) 3420 cm3
Q.14 Salt of a weak acid with strong base when dissolved in water
gives
l
(a) acidic solution (b) basic solution
ia
er
(c) neutral solution (d) none
at
Q.15 Mole fraction of 10% urea is
M
(a) 0.042 (b) 0.023
y
(c) 0.032 (d) 0.072
ud
Q.16 Which of the following mixtures of liquids show negative
St
deviation
e
(a) ethyl alcohol ether (b) HCl and water
or
(c) phenol – water
rM
(d) chlorobenzene – bromobenzene
Fo
Q.17 The term cryoscopy is used
(a) depression of freezing point
s e
(b) elevation in boiling point
ea
(c) lowering of vapour pressure

ith
(d) osmotic pressure

w
ch
Q.18 The term ebullioscopy is used

/te
(a) depression of freezing point

om
(b) elevation in boiling point

(c) lower of vapour pressure
.c
ok
(d) none of above

bo
Q.19 Azeotropic mixture

(a) obey Henry’s law
ce
(b) obey Raoult’s law

fa
(c) do not obey Raoult’s law

://
obey Dalton’s law

tp
(d)
ht
Q.20 Hydrolysis of potassium acetate produce

ke
(a) acidic solution (b) neutral solution

(c) basic solution (d) none of these
Li
Q.21 Which one of the following salts will not hydrolyse

(a) NaCl (b) AlCl3
3
(c) Na2CO3 (d) CH3COONa

Q.22 The sum of mole fractions (X) of components of a solution is
l
equal to
ia
er
(a) 100 (b) 200
at
(c) one (d) zero
M
Q.23 Which pair of mixture is called idea solution
y
(a) nicotine–water
ud
(b) chlorobenzene & bromobenzene
St
(c) water–ether
e
(d) water–alcohol
or
Q.24 The vapour pressure of aqueous solution of sugar solution is
rM
(a) equal to vapour pressure of water
Fo
(b) more than vapour pressure of pure water
(c) less than vapour pressure of pure water
s e
(d) none of above
ea
Q.25 When NaCl is dissolved in water

ith
(a) melting point decrease

w
(b) boiling point decrease

ch
(c) both melting and boiling point decrease

/te
(d) none of above

om
Q.26 The solution which distils without change in composition is

called
.c
ok
(a) unsaturated solution (b) saturated solution

bo
(c) zeotropic mixture (d) azeotropic mixture

Q.27 Solubility curve of Na2SO4 10 . H2O shows
ce
(a) constant increase of solubility

fa
(b) constant decrease of solubility

://
tp
(c) discontinuous solubility with temp

ht
(d) none of above

ke
Q.28 Use of glycol as antifreeze in the automobile is an important

application of
Li
(a) colligative property

(b) Roault’s law
4
(c) fractional crystallization

(d) hydrolysis
l
Q.29 Use of NaCl in ice cream making is an important application of
ia
er
(a) constitutive property
at
(b) additive property
M
(c) colligative property
y
(d) Roault’s law
ud
Q.30 Which one of the following solutions will have higher vapour
St
pressure than that of water
e
(a) aqueous solution of CH3OH
or
(b) aqueous solution of H2SO4
rM
(c) aqueous solution of sugar
Fo
(d) aqueous solution of urea
Q.31 Ethylene glycol is mixed with water as anti freeze in radiator
s e
because
ea
(a) it has low vapour pressure

ith
(b) it raises the boiling point of water

w
(c) it lowers the freezing point of water

ch
(d) it changes osmotic pressure

/te
(e) it has all characters

om
Q.32 Which one of following is not soluble in alcohol

(a) KCl (b) urea
.c
ok
(c) acetone (d) ether

bo
Q.33 Mixture of alcohol and water can be separated by

(a) solvent extraction (b) crystallization
ce
(c) filtration (d) fractional distillation

fa
Q.34 Which one of following is not a conjugate solution

://
tp
(a) ether + water (b) phenol + water

ht
(c) nicotine + water (d) ethanol + water

ke
Q.35 Which one of the following has discontinuous solubility curve

(a) NaCl (b) KCl
Li
(c) NaNO3 (d) CaCl2 . 6H2O

Q.36 Which one of following has continuous solubility curve
5
(a) NaCl (b) NaNO3

(c) Na2SO4 . 10H2O (d) both a and b
l
Q.37 Solubility of following decrease with increase in temp
ia
er
(a) Ce2(SO4)3 (b) CaCl2 . 6H2O
at
(c) Pb(NO3)2 (d) K2Cr2O7
M
y
Q.38 According to Roault’s law
ud
(a) relative lowering of V.P. is equal to mole fraction of
St
solute
e
(b) the lowering of V.P. is directly proportional to the mole
or
fraction of solute
rM
(c) V.P. of a solvent above a solution is equal to product of
Fo
V.P. of pure solvent and mole fraction of solvent in solution
(d) all the above s e
Q.39 The solution of KCl
ea
(a) acidic (b) basic

ith
(c) neutral (d) none of above

w
Q.40 Na2SO4 solution is

ch

/te

om
Q.41 The solution of CuSO4 is

.c
ok

bo
Q.42 The solution of AlCl3 is

ce

fa
Q.43 The solution of CH3COONa

://
tp

ht

ke
Q.44 The no. of water of crystallization of MgCl2

(a) 12 (b) 6
Li
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.45 The no. of water of crystallization of MgSO4
6
(a) 12 (b) 7
(c) 5 (d) 3
l
Q.46 Freezing point depression is measured by
ia
Beckmann’s apparatus
er
(a)
at
(b) Land’s Berger’s
M
(c) Antifreeze apparatus
y
(d) all the above
ud
Q.47 Elevation of boiling is measured by
St
(a) Beckmann’s apparatus
e
(b) Lands berger’s method
or
(c) Antifreeze apparatus
rM
(d) none of above
Fo
Q.48 Colligative properties are the properties of solution that depends
upon s e
(a) nature of molecules (b) quality
ea
(c) physical property (d) no. of molecules

ith
Q.49 Aqueous solution of glucose boils at 100.52oC. The solution

w
contains
ch
(a) 180 gm glucose in 1 litre water

/te
(b) 90 gm glucose in 1 litre water

om
(c) 18 gm glucose in 1 litre water

(d) 3.6 gm glucose in 1 litre water
.c
ok
Q.50 Aqueous solution of methanol is zeotropic mixture because

it does not obey the Roalt’s law
bo
(a)
(b) mixture cannot be separated by sublimate
ce
(c) mixture can be separated by distillation

fa
(d) greater volume than the volume of component

://
tp
Q.51 When equal volumes of ether and water are shaken, then two
ht
layers are formed the ether layer contains water

ke
(a) 5.3% (b) 6.3%

(c) 1.2% (d) 2.1%
Li
ANSWERS
7
Question 1 2 3 4 5
s
l
ia
er
Answers d b c c B
at
Question 6 7 8 9 10
M
y
s
ud
St
Answers c b a b a
e
Question 11 12 13 14 15
or
rM
s
Fo
Answers d c b b c
Question 16 17
s
18 e 19 20
ea
s
ith
w
Answers b a b c c
ch
Question 21 22 23 24 25
/te
om
s
.c
Answers a c b e a
ok
Question 26 27 28 29 30
bo
ce
s
fa
Answers d c a c d
://
tp
Question 31 32 33 34 35
ht
s
ke
Li
Answers e a d d d
Question 36 37 38 39 40
8
s
Answers d a d c c
l
ia
er
Question 41 42 43 44 45
at
s
M
y
Answers a a b b b
ud
St
Question 46 47 48 49 50
e
s
or
rM
Answers a b d a c
Fo
Question 51
s
s e
ea
Answers c
ith
w
ch
/te
om
.c
ok
bo
ce
fa
://
tp
ht
ke
Li
CHAPTER 10
l
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
ia
er
MCQS
at
M
y
ud
Q.1 Electrolysis is the process in which a chemical reaction takes
St
place at the expense of
(a) chemical energy (b) electrical energy
e
or
(c) heat energy (d) none of these
rM
Q.2 Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential
Fo
(a) 0.00 volt (b) 1.00 volt
(c) 0.10 volt (d) none of these s e
ea
Q.3 The oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is
ith
(a) 14 (b) 12
w
(c) 6 (d) none of these

ch
Q.4 In the reaction 2 Fe + Cl2 ( 2FeCl3

/te
(a) Fe is reduced (b) Fe is oxidized

om
(c) Cl2 is oxidized (d) none of these

.c
Q.5 When fused PbBr2 is electrolyzed

ok
(a) bromine appears at cathode

bo
(b) lead is deposited at the cathode

ce
(c) lead appears at the anode

fa
(d) none of these happens

://
tp
Q.6 When aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed

ht
(a) Cl2 is evolved at the cathode

ke
(b) H2 is evolved at cathode

Li
(c) Na is deposited at the cathode

(d) Na appears at the anode
Q.7 During electrolysis of KNO3, H2 is evolved at
1
(a) anode (b) cathode

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
l
ia
Q.8 During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq) using Cu electrodes Cu is
er
deposited at
at
M
y
ud
Q.9 During electrolysis of fused NaCl, which of the following
St
reaction occurs at anode
e
(a) Cl– ions oxidized (b) Cl– ions reduced
or
rM
(c) Na+ ions oxidized (d) Na+ ions reduced
Q.10 An electrochemical cell is based upon
Fo
(a) acid–base reaction (b) redox reaction
e
(c) nuclear reaction (d) none of the above
s
ea
Q.11 Which one of the following will be good conductor of electricity

ith
(a) pure distilled water (b) molten NaCl

w
(c) dilute solution of glucose

ch
(d) chloroform
/te
Q.12 Which one of the following represents the same net reaction as
om
the electrolysis of aqueous H2SO4

.c
(a) electrolysis of water

ok
bo
(b) electrolysis of molten NaCl

ce
(c) electrolysis of aqueous HCl

fa
(d) electrolysis of aqueous NaCl

://
Q.13 In a galvanic cell, the reaction occurs

tp
2H2O ( O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e– It occurs at the

ht
(a) cathode (b) anode

ke
(c) cathode and anode (d) none of the above

Li
Q.14 Which statement below is not true for the reaction

Fe3+ + e– ( Fe2+
2
(a) Fe3+ is reduced

(b) oxidation state of Fe has changed
l
ia
(c) Fe3+ can act as an oxidizing agent
er
(d) both Fe2+ and Fe3+ are called anions
at
Q.15 During a redox reaction, an oxidizing agent
M
(a) gains electrons (b) is oxidized
y
ud
(c) loses electrons (d) is hydrolysed
St
Q.16 In a salt bridge KCl is used because
e
(a) it is an electrolyte
or
rM
(b) K+ and Cl– transfer easily
(c) agar–agar forms a good jelly with it
Fo
(d) KCl is also present in the calomel electrode
e
Q.17 A oxidizing agent is a substance which brings about
s
ea
(a) electron donation (b) oxidation

ith
(c) reduction (d) hydrolysis

w
Q.18 In the electrolysis the process of oxidation occurs at

ch

/te
(c) both cathode and anode

om
(d) in electrolytic solution

.c
Q.19 In an oxidation process the oxidation number of the element

ok
bo

ce
(c) does not change (d)

fa
Q.20 In the reduction process the oxidation number of the element

://

tp
(c) does not change (d)

ht
Q.21 Oxidation number of oxygen in OF2 is

ke
(a) + 1 (b) – 1
Li
(c) + 2 (d) – 2
Q.22 The e.m.f. of Zn – Cu cell is
3
(a) 1.10 v (b) 1.5 v

(c) 2.0 v (d) 2.5 v
l
ia
Q.23 The standard reduction potential of a standard hydrogen
er
electrode
at
(a) 0.0 v (b) 1.1 v
M
(c) 1.5 v (d) 2.0 v
y
ud
Q.24 The oxidation number of Mn is K2 MnO4 is
St
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
e
(c) + 6 (d) + 7
or
rM
Q.25 Which of the following is the definition of oxidation
(a) gain of electrons (b) loss of electrons
Fo
(c) addition of H2 (d) removal of O2
e
Q.26 During electrolysis of H2SO4 (aq) O2 is evolved at
s
ea

ith
(c) both a and b (d) none of these

w
Q.27 The e.m.f. produced by a voltage cell is

ch
(a) electrode potential (b) reduction potential

/te
(c) cell potential (d) oxidation potential

om
Q.28 Which of the following is not a redox reaction

.c
(a) CaCO3 ( CaO + CO2

ok
bo
(b) Cu + 4HNO3 ( Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + H2O

ce
(c) 2H2 + O2 ( 2H2O

fa
(d) MnO2 + 4HCl ( MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

://
Q.29 Which element acts as a reducing agent in the reaction

tp
Zn + H2SO4 ( ZnSO4 + H2
ht
(a) Zn (b) H
ke
(c) S (d) O
Li
Q.30 Which element acts as a oxidizing agent in the reaction

MnO2 + 4HCl ( MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
4
(a) Mn (b) O
(c) H (d) Cl
l
ia
Q.31 When the current is passed through an electrolytic solution,
er
which of the following process will occur
at
(a) anions move towards anode and cations move towards cathode
M
(b) cations and anions both move towards anode
y
ud
(c) cations and anions both move towards anode
St
(d) no movement of the ions occur
e
Q.32 Electric current passes through both molten and solution form of
or
rM
NaCl because of
(a) ionic bonding (b) Na+ and Cl– ions
Fo
(c) ions of water (d) hydration of ions
e
Q.33 A cell which produces electric current by redox reaction is called
s
ea
(a) standard cell (b) voltaic cell

ith
(c) reversible cell (d) concentration cell

w
Q.34 Which of the following conduct electricity due to the migration

ch
of electrons only
/te
(a) copper metal (b) NaCl molten

om
(c) NaCl (d) NaCl solution

.c
Q.35 Oxidation number of sulphur in S2O eq \a\co1(2–,3 ) is

ok
(a) + 6 (b) – 2
bo
ce
(c) + 2 (d) + 4
fa
Q.36 Substances through which electric current can pass are called
://
(a) insulators (b) conductors

tp
(c) cathode (d) anode

ht
Q.37 Substances through which electric current cannot pass are called
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(a) insulators (b) conductors

Li
(c) anode (d) cathode

Q.38 Metallic conduction is due to the
5
(a) movement of electrons

(b) movement of ions
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(d) none of these
at
Q.39 Metallic conductors conduct electricity
M
(a) with chemical change
y
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(b) without any chemical change
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e
(d) none of these
or
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Q.40 The flow of electrons is called
(a) electrolyte (b) electric current
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(c) cathode (d) anode
e
Q.41 A substance which in molten state or in solution form allows
s
ea
electric current to pass through it is called

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(a) electrolyte (b) insulator

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(c) conduction (d) none of these

ch
Q.42 The process in which electric current is used to carry out a non–
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spontaneous redox reaction is called

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(a) electrolyte (b) electrolysis

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(c) metallic conductor (d) electrodes

ok
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Q.43 In electrochemical cells, the electrode at which the reduction

ce
occurs is called
fa

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(c) electrolyte (d) electrolysis

tp
Q.44 The process of producing a chemical change in an electrolytic

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cell is called
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(a) electrolyte (b) electrolysis

Li
(c) electrodes (d) conductor

Q.45 The process in which ionic compound when fused or dissolved
6
in water split up into charged particles is called

(a) electrolysis (b) hydration
l
ia
(c) ionization (d) conduction
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Q.46 An apparatus in which chemical energy in converted to electrical
at
energy is called
M
(a) electrolytic cell (b) galvanic cell
y
ud
(c) fuel cell (d) down cell
St
Q.47 The metallic conductors in contact with the solution are called
e
(a) insulator (b) electrodes
or
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(c) electrolyte (d) down cell
Q.48 The reaction in a galvanic cell is
Fo
(a) spontaneous (b) non–spontaneous
(c) acid–base (d) none of these
s e
ea
Q.49 Caustic soda is obtained by electrolysis of conc. aqueous

ith
solution of NaCl in a cell called

w
(a) Daniell’s cell (b) Nelson’s cell

ch
(c) Down’s cell (d) Voltaic cell

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Q.50 Sodium metal is obtained by the electrolysis of fused NaCl in a

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cell is called
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(a) Nelson’s cell (b) Down’s cell

ok
bo
(c) Daniell cell (d) Voltaic cell

ce
Q.51 The e.m.f. of Daniell cell can be increased by

fa
(a) increasing the area of electrode

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(b) increasing the concentration of oxidising ion in the solution

tp
(c) increasing the concentration of reducing ion in the solution

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(d) adding the dil H2SO4

ke
Q.52 Metal and their ionic salts both conduct electricity. Which of the
Li
following statement is not correct both

(a) are good conductors normally
7
(b) are ionic in nature

(c) decompose on passing current
l
ia
(d) are normally solid
er
Q.53 The branch of chemistry which deals with the relationships
at
between electricity and chemical reaction is called
M
(a) chemical kinetics (b) electrochemistry
y
ud
(c) stiochiometry (d) thermochemistry
St
Q.54 A system containing of electrodes that dips into an electrolyte in
e
which a chemical reaction either uses or generates an electric current
or
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is called
(a) voltaic cell (b) electrochemical cell
Fo
(c) voltaic or galvanic cell (d) fuel cell
e
Q.55 A cell in which spontaneous redox reaction generates an electric
s
ea
current is called
ith
(a) electrolytic cell

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(b) electrochemical cell

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(c) voltaic orgalvanic cell

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(d) biological cell

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Q.56 A cell in which an electric current drives a non–spontaneous

.c
reaction is called
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bo
(a) electrolytic cell (b) voltaic cell

ce
(c) biological cell (d) electrochemical cell

fa
Q.57 A process for converting one metal with a thin layer of another
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metal is called
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(a) electrolysis (b) electroplating

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(c) electrode potential (d) standard electrode

ke
Q.58 In an electrical connection between cathode and anode of a

Li
voltaic cell, electrons flow from the

(a) anode to the cathode (b) cathode to the anode
8

Q.59 Greater the value of standard reduction potential of a species
l
ia
indicates
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(a) greater its tendency to accepted electrons
at
(b) lesser tendency to accept electrons
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(c) greater tendency to lose electrons
y
ud
(d) none of these
St
Q.60 In lead accumulator the electrolyte H2SO4 solution is
e
(a) 30 % (b) 60% H2SO4
or
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(c) 80% (d) 90%
Q.61 In alkaline battery, the electrolyte contains
Fo
(a) MnO2 (b) KOH
(c) NaCl (d) NaNO3
s e
ea
Q.62 Alkali metals have

ith
(a) lower value of reduction potential than coinage metals

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(b) higher value of reduction potential than coinage metals

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(c) equal values of reduction potential to coinage metals

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(d) none of these

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.c
ok
bo
Q.63 Strong reducing agents have

ce
(a) greater positive value of standard reduction potential

fa
(b) greater negative value of standard reduction potential

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(c) lesser positive value of standard reduction potential

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(d) none of these

ht
Q.64 Strong oxidizing agents have

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(a) greater positive value of standard reduction potential

Li
(b) lesser positive value of standard reduction potential

(c) greater negative value of standard reduction potential
9
(d) none of these

Q.65 The electrode with more negative value of reduction potential
l
ia
acts as
er
at
(c) electrode (d) none of these
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Q.66 Metals which are above SHE in electrochemical series
y
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(a) can liberate H2 from acid
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(b) cannot liberate H2 from acid
e
(c) cannot always liberate H2 from acid
or
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(c) none of these
Q.67 Corrosion reactions are
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(a) spontaneous redox reactions
(b) non–spontaneous redox reactions
s e
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(c) spontaneous acid–base reactions

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(d) none of these

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Q.68 Voltaic cell can be changed into

ch
(a) electrochemical cell (b) electrolytic cell

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(c) reversible cell (d) primary cell

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Q.69 Strongest oxidizing agent in the electrochemical series is

.c
(a) Li (b) F
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(c) H2 (d) I2
ce
Q.70 Strongest reducing agent in the electrochemical series is

fa
(a) Li (b) F
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(c) H2 (d) I2
tp
Q.71 Fuel cells are the means by which chemical energy may be
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converted into
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(a) heat energy (b) electrical energy

Li
(c) mechanical energy (d) sound energy
10
ANSWERS
l
ia
er
Questions 1 2 3 4 5 Answers b a c b b Questions 6 7 8 9 10 Answers b
at
b b a b Questions 11 12 13 14 15 Answers b a b d a Questions 16 17
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18 19 20 Answers b c a a b Questions 21 22 23 24 25 Answers c a a c
y
ud
b Questions 26 27 28 29 30 Answers b c a a a Questions 31 32 33 34
St
35 Answers a b b a c Questions 36 37 38 39 40 Answers b a a b b
Questions 41 42 43 44 45 Answers a b b b c Questions 46 47 48 49 50
e
or
Answers b b a b b Questions 51 52 53 54 55 Answers c b b b c
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Questions 56 57 58 59 60 Answers a b a a a Questions 61 62 63 64 65
Answers b a b a b Questions 66 67 68 69 70 Answers a a c b a
Fo
Questions 71 Answers b s e
ea
ith
w
ch
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om
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ok
bo
ce
fa
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tp
ht
ke
Li
11
CHAPTER 11
REACTION KINETICS
l
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MCQS
er
at
Q.1 In zero order reaction, the rate is independent of
M
(a) temperature of reaction
y
(b) concentration of reactants
ud
(c) concentration of products
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(d) none of above
e
Q.2 If the rate equation of a reaction 2A + B ® Product, Rate = k
or
[A]2 [B] and A is present in large excess then order of reaction is:
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(a) 1 (b) 2
Fo
(c) 3 (d) none of these
Q.3 The rate of reaction s e
(a) increases as the reaction proceeds
ea
(b) decreases as the reaction proceeds

ith
(c) remains the same as the reaction proceeds

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(d) may decrease or increase as the reaction proceeds

ch
Q.4 With increases of 10 oC temperature the rate of reaction

/te
doubles. This increase in the rate of reaction is due to

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(a) decrease in activation energy of reaction

(b) decrease in the number of collisions b/w reactants
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molecules
bo
(c) increase in activation energy of reactants

(d) increase in number of effective collisions
ce
Q.5 The unit of the rate constant is the same as that of the rate of
fa
reaction in
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tp
(a) first order reaction (b) second order reaction

ht
(c) zero order reaction (d) third order reaction

ke
Li
Q.6 The unit of reaction is

(a) mole/dm3 (b) mole/pound
l
(c) mole/dm3 sec (d) mole/cm3
ia
er
Q.7 In the rate equation, when the conc. of reactants is unity then rate
at
is equal to
M
(a) specific rate constant (b) average rate constant
y
(c) instantaneous rate constant
ud
(d) none of above
St
Q.8 The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called
e
(a) instantaneous rate (b) average rate
or
(c) specific rate (d) ordinary rate
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Q.9 Instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction is
Fo
(a) rate of reaction in the beginning
(b) rate of reaction at the end
s e
(c) rate of reaction at a given instant
ea
(d) rate of reaction b/w two specific time intervals

ith
Q.10 At the beginning the decrease in the conc. of reactants is

w
(a) slow (b) moderate

ch
(c) rapid (d) none of above

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Q.11 The sum of exponents of the conc. terms in the rate equation is
om
called
(a) rate of reaction (b) order of reaction
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ok
(c) specific rate constant (d) average rate

bo
Q.12 The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are equal
(a) at the start (b) at the end
ce
(c) in the middle

fa
(d) when two rate have time interval equal to zero

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tp
Q.13 The equation 2N2O5 ® 2N2 has order

ht
(a) first order (b) second order

ke
(c) negative order (d) fractional order

Q.14 The hydrolysis of tertiary butyl has order
Li
(a) first order (b) pseudo first order

(c) fractional order (d) zero order
2
Q.15 Photochemical reactions usually have order

(a) one (b) zero
l
(c) two (d) three
ia
er
Q.16 The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and the
at
concentration of reactants is called
M
(a) order of reaction (b) specific rate
y
(c) law of mass action (d) rate law
ud
Q.17 When the rate of reaction is entirely independent of the conc. of
St
reactants molecule then order of reaction is
e
(a) zero (b) first
or
(c) second (d) third
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Q.18 Half life of U is
Fo
(a) 7.1 x 108 years (b) 6.1 x 108 years
(c) 8.1 x 107 years s e (d) 7.1 x 1010 years
Q.19 Half life period for decomposition of N2O5 at 45 oC is
ea
(a) 24 minutes (b) 34 minutes

ith
(c) 44 minutes (d) 54 minutes

w
Q.20 The decomposition of ozone has order

ch
(a) first (b) negative

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(c) second (d) pseudo first order

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Q.21 The equation CHCl3 + Cl2 ® CCl4 + HCl has order

(a) first (b) negative
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(c) fractional (d) second

bo
Q.22 When a reaction occurs in many steps then the slowest step is the
(a) main step
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(b) enthalpy determining step

fa
(c) mechanism determining step

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tp
(d) rate determining step

ht
Q.23 Spectrometry applied for rate determination when

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(a) reactants or product absorb U.V., I.R. light

(b) reaction involve ion
Li
(c) reaction involve change in volume

(d) none of above
3
Q.24 Electrical conductivity method is applied for rate determination

when
l
(a) reactants and products involve absorption of U.V. or I.R.
ia
er
radiation
at
(b) reaction involving ions
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(c) reaction which involve change in refractive indices
y
(d) reactions which involve small volume change
ud
Q.25 Dilatometric method is used for rate determination when
St
(a) reactions involving ions
e
(b) reactions involving change of optical activity
or
(c) reaction involving small volume change
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(d) none of above
Fo
Q.26 Refractrometric method is used when
(a) reactions involving absorption of I.R. or U.V.
s e
(b) reactions involving change of refractive index
ea
(c) reactions involving ions

ith
(d) change of optical activity

w
ch
/te
om
.c
ok
bo
ce
fa
://
tp
ht
ke
Li
Q.27 Optical rotation method is used when

(a) reaction involve ions
l
(b) change of refractive indices
ia
er
(c) reactions involving change of optical activity
at
(d) none of above
M
Q.28 The substance which retard the rate of chemical reaction
y
(a) catalyst (b) inhibitor
ud
(c) auto catalyst (d) enzyme
St
Q.29 The enzyme used in the hydrolysis of urea is
e
(a) urease (b) amylase
or
(c) oxidase (d) reductase
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Q.30 In the hydrolysis of CH3COO2H5 the acid produce act as
Fo
(a) inhibitor (b) catalyst
(c) auto catalyst s(d)
e none of above
Q.31 The order of reaction can be determined by
ea
(a) graphical method (b) method of hit and trial

ith
(c) differential method (d) all of above

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Q.32 The factors which affect rate of reaction

ch
(a) nature of reactants (b) surface area

/te
(c) light (d) all of above

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Q.33 When temp of reacting gases is raised to 10 K, the reaction rate

becomes
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(a) remain same (b) double

bo
(c) triple (d) increase four times

Q.34 Arrhenius equation describe the effect of
ce
(a) temp on rate of reaction

fa
(b) volume on rate of reaction

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(c) pressure on rate of reaction

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(d) all the above

ke
Q.35 A substance which alters the rate of reaction

(a) inhibitor (b) catalyst
Li
(c) promoter (d) auto catalyst

Q.36 Homogeneous catalysis when
5
(a) reactants and catalyst have same phase

(b) products and catalyst have same phase
l
(c) reactant and products have same phase
ia
er
(d) none of above
at
Q.37 The heterogenous catalysis
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(a) reactants and products have different phases
y
(b) reactants and catalyst have different phases
ud
(c) products and catalyst have different phases
St
(d) all the above
e
or
Q.38 Tetra ethyl lead when added to petrol, acts as
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(a) negative catalyst (b) auto catalyst
Fo
(c) promoter (d) catalyst
Q.39 Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis by an enzyme
s e
(a) invertase (b) urease
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(c) zymase (d) glucase

ith
Q.40 Glucose is converted into ethanol by an enzyme

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(a) urease (b) invertase

ch
(c) zymase (d) glucose

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ANSWERS
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Question 1 2 3 4 5
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s
ce
Answers b a b d c
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Question 6 7 8 9 10
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ht
s
ke
Answers c a b c c
Li
Question 11 12 13 14 15
s
Answers b d a b b
l
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Question 16 17 18 19 20
at
s
M
y
Answers d a a a b
ud
St
Question 21 22 23 24 25
e
s
or
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Answers c d a b c
Fo
Question 26 27 28 29 30
s
s e
ea
Answers b c b a c
ith
w
Question 31 32 33 34 35
ch
s
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Answers d d b a b
.c
Question 36 37 38 39 40
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s
bo
ce
Answers a b a a c
fa
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ht
ke
Li
Chapter 1
Fundamental Concepts in Chemistry
Q. 1. The soul of chemistry is its dealing with
a. Internal structural changes in matter

b. Composition of matter
c. Properties of matter
d. Composition and properties of matter
(d)
Q. 2. All of the following statements are incorrect for 20 mol of hydrogen peroxide
except
a. it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms

b. it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms
c. it has 80 mol of atoms
d. 30 mol of hydrogen atoms
(c)
Q. 3. If proton number of two atoms is same then it can be concluded that
a. they are isotopes

b. compounds of both with CI2 will be similar in reactivity towards other
compounds
c. both have same colors
d. both have same melting points
(b)
Q. 4. A chemist poured lemon juice on soil, the idea that he may have in his mind is
that
a. there may be a possibility of a chemical reaction

b. lemon juice is dangerous to health
c. lemon juice is dangerous to health
d. water should be preferred over lemon juice for drinking
(a)
Q. 5. Dr. Khan has discovered two isotopes of an element with atomic number 119.
The relative abundance of isotopes 119Uue300 and 119Uue305 is 70% and 30%
respectively. The average atomic weight of Uue is
www.educatedzone.com
a. 301.5 a.m.u
b. 302.5 a.m.u
c. 303.5 a.m.u
d. 304.5 a.m.u
(a)
Q. 6. Which of the following is not related to a.m.u
a. gram
b. kilogram
c. microgram
d. gram/lit
(d)
Q. 7. The number of significant figures in 0.00200 is
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. one
(b)
Q. 8. All of the following statements are incorrect except
a. precision and accuracy should go side by side in a scientific work

b. scientific work must be precise, accuracy is not essential
c. scientific work must be accurate, precision is not essential
d. +calculations must be made before any experiment
(a)
Q. 9. Empirical formula and formula unit of an ionic compound
a. are always similar

b. are always different
c. may be similar or different
d. ionic compounds don’t’ have any empirical formula
(c)
Q. 10. Copper (II) oxide is mixed with organic compound during combustion analysis.
The purpose is
a. to carry out complete combustion

b. to reduce the economy of the process
c. to reduce the time for completion of the reaction
d. all of the above
(a)
Q. 11. Bismark brown is a dye. Its molar mass is 228.3 g/mol. When the dye was
analyzed by a scientist, it was found that it contains 30.68% nitrogen. How many
nitrogen atoms are there in each Bismark brown molecule?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
(b)
Q.12. The mass of 2 mole of sodium hydroxide will be
a. 2g
b. 20 g
c. 40 g
d. 80 g
(d)
Q. 13. “A” compound is always consists of the same elements combined in the same
fixed ratio”. The statement is
a. a hypothesis
b. a fact
c. a law
d. an observation
(c)
Q. 14. Compound having highest boiling point among the following is
a. HF(I)
b. HCI(I)
c. HBR(I)
d. HI(I)
(d)
Q. 15. Islamian genius investigated that the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 11 gram of water form 30oC to 31oC is
a. one calorie
b. little bit greater than on calorie
c. little bit less than one calorie
d. never equal to one calorie
(c)
Q. 16. An atom is
a. smallest indivisible particle in an element

b. smallest particle of an element which can undergo a chemical reaction
c. building block of an element
d. always smaller than molecule
(b)
Q. 17. 10 moles of H2O contains
a. 100 moles of bonds

b. 100 moles of electrons
c. 30 atoms
d. 25 moles of hydrogen bonds
(b)
Q. 18. The volume of one kilogram of water at 4oC is equal to one litre. The temperature
of water is kept at 4oC because water
a. has no dissolved gasses at this temperature

b. has maximum density at this temperature
c. polarity of water molecule is least at this temperature
d. dipole moment has maximum value at this temperature
(b)
Q. 19. A compound contains two elements X and Y percentage of X is 20% (At.wt = 40)
and that of Y is 80% (At.wt =80). The empirical formula of the compound is
a. XY2
b. X2 Y
c. X 3Y
d. XY
(A)
Q. 20. A piece of paper is burnt in air, the gas produced is passed through distilled
water. The PH of water solution will be
a. 1
b. 7
c. 2.1
d. 6.8
(d)
Q. 21. Which of the following is a substance?
a. sea water
b. brass
c. tape water
d. graphite
(d)
Q. 22. Freezing point of a substance is a temperature at which a liquid substance is

converted to solid, it is
a. always lower than its melting point

b. usually a little lower than its melting point
c. always higher than its melting point
d. exactly the same as its melting point
(d)
Q. 23. Number of covalent bonds in 10 mol of carbon tetrachloride is
a. 2.4 x 1025
b. 40
c. 4 x 1024
d. 6.4 x 1021
(a)
Q. 24. A student subtracted 0.00055 from 10.2345678 and reported the result as
10.23401. But his friend told him that the result was wrong. What is the correct
result?
a. 10.234017
b. 10.2340178
c. 10.234
d. 10.23
(d)
Q. 25. The following statement contained in a student’s laboratory report is a

conclusion.
a. a gas is liberated
b. colour of the gas is greenish yellow
c. oxide of the gas is strongly acidic
d. the gas is chlorine
(d)
Q. 26. If 10g each of uranium and hydrogen are converted into energy according to
equation E = mc2
a. energy obtained from uranium will be too much greater than that of
hydrogen
b. energy obtained from hydrogen will be a little bit less than that of uranium
c. energy obtained from hydrogen and uranium will always be exactly equal
d. diamond
(c)
Q. 27. A student analyzed a sample of sea water and found that it contained 2.3g of
NaCi, 0.005g of MgSo4, 0.234g of CaCI2 and 60.12g of H2O. Total mass of the
sample is
a. 62.659
b. 62.65
c. 62.70
d. 65.7
(d)
Q. 28. A 50.00 mL sample of a cough mixture prepared by a pharmacist was found to

have a mass of 46.0g. what is the density (in g/mL) of this mixture. Stated to the
correct number of significant figures?
a. 0.92
b. 0.920
c. 0.9200
d. 1.087
(b)
Q. 29. Ozone (O3) filters the cosmic rays of sunlight. How many oxygen atoms are there
in 0.2 mole of ozone (O3, molar mass 48.0 g/mol)?
a. 6.02 x 1022
b. 6.02 x 1023
c. 3.61 x 1023
d. 6 x 1023
(c)
Q. 30. On heating, the hydrated salt CaSO4, xH2O loses its water of crystallization. In an
experiment it was found that when 0.2 mol of the hydrated salt was heated 0.10
mol of water was lost. What is the molecular formula of the hydrated compound?
a. CaSO4
b. CaSO3. ½ H2O
c. CaSO4.H2O
d. CaSO4.2H2O
(b)
Q. 31. Zirconium chloride reacts with magnesium to produce Zirconium. The process is
called Knoll process.
ZrCI4 + 2Mg Zr + 2MgCI2
How many moles Zr would be produced if 0.2 mol of Mg metal is used in the
reaction?
a. 0.1
b. 0.01
c. 0.20
d. 0.05
(a)
Q. 32. Tobacco contains a poisonous alkaloid called Nicotine. The molecular formula of
nicotine is C10H14N2 (molar mass = 162.23g). The mass percentage of nitrogen in
nicotine, is?
a. 4.32%
b. 8.23%
c. 12.4%
d. 17.3%
(d)
Q. 33. A sample of an ionic compound contains 2.82 g Na, 4.35 g CI, and 7.83 g O. The
empirical formula of this compound is:
a. NaCIO2
b. NaCIO3
c. NaCIO
d. NaCIO4
(d)
CHAPTER 2
GASES
Q. 1. Professor Qawwi told his students that air is a mixture because: suddenly a
student raised his hand and said
a. it is colourless
b. oxygen can be removed from it
c. its composition is different at different altitudes
d. it has different properties from its constituents
(c)
Q. 2. Imagine Dr. Khan is sitting in a room. The room is closed from all sides, no entry,
no exit of any gas. If the room expands suddenly then
a. he will be frightened
b. his blood pressure will decrease
c. he will feel cool
d. he will feel warmth
(c)
Q. 3. which of the following elements will have strongest Van Der Waal force of
attraction between its molecules
a. hydrogen
b. oxygen
c. chlorine
d. nitrogen
(c)
Q. 4. The beaker shown in the figure contains slurry of ice and water, the three
thermometers Fahrenheit, Kelvin and Centigrade placed in it. The thermometers
are represented by A, B and C respectively. The lowest reading will be on
thermometer.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. Both A and C
(c)
Q. 5. Which thermometer will have its reading 273 degrees greater than that of
thermometer C?
a. A
b. B
c. C has greater reading than all other thermometer
d. B has 273 degrees greater reading than A
(b)
Q. 6. The temperature recorded by Kelvin scale is
a. 0K
b. 273K
c. 373K
d. Absolute scale is unable to record this temperature
(b)
Q. 7. If three birds called O2, CI2 and H2 were flying in the garden of Islamia College
Peshawar then,
I. Fastest birds are O2 and CI2

II. Slowest bird is CI2
III. Bird called O2 is in the middle.
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. I and III only
d. III only
(b)
Q. 8. One liter of an unknown gas weighs 1.25 grams at S.T.P, one possible formula
for the gas is
a. CO2
b. CO
c. O2
d. SO2
(b)
Q. 9. If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm to 4 atm than its volume will
decrease from
a. 6L to 4L
b. 8L to 2L
c. 3L to 1L
d. 4L to 2L
(d)
Q. 10. An unknown gas has a density of 2.45 g/L at 1.5 atmospheric pressure and 25
oC. The gas is
a. Kr
b. CI2
c. SO2
d. Ar
(d)
Q. 11. This is a known fact that the molar volumes of different gases at S.T.P are
a. little bit greater than the molar volumes of liquids

b. little bit less than the molar volumes of solids
c. about the same as the molar volumes of liquids
d. much larger than the molar volumes of liquids and solids
(d)
Q. 12. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at
a. lo2w temperature and low pressure

b. high temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. low temperature and high pressure
(d)
Q. 13. Ammonium Perchlorate is used as solid fuel in rockets. During the process it
decomposes according to the reaction given below
4NH4CIO4(g) 2CI2(g) +8H2O(g) +2N2O(g) +3O2(g)
The total volume of all the gases produced at S.T.P by the decomposition of 8
moles of Ammonium Perchlorate will be
a. 30 L
b. 672 L
c. 179.0 L
d. 60 L
(b)
Q. 14. Compressed natural gas (CNG) contains mainly methane CH4. Methane gas
burns in air according to the following reaction.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
If 8 g of methane is burnt, what volume of CO2 measured at S.T.P. will be

produced?
a. 0.5 L
b. 22 L
c. 22.4 L
d. 11.2 L
(d)
Q. 15. A kid has a helium filled balloon which deflates at the rate of 1.00 liter/day by He
gas leaking through the relatively porous skin of the balloon. How fast would
carbon dioxide (CO2) leak from a balloon made of the same material?
a. 3.0 L/day
b. 0.3 L/day
c. 1.33 L/day
d. 3.33 L/day
(b)
Q. 16. All of the following statements are false except
a. gas molecules do not attract each other at very low temperature

b. all of the gases cannot be liquefied
c. increase in pressure will not decrease the intermolecular distance in a gas
d. actual volume of a gas is not negligible at very high pressure
(d)
Q. 17. At the same temperature and pressure helium is more ideal than hydrogen due
to
a. greater molar mass
b. less molar mass
c. greater molecular size
d. less molecular size
(d)
Q. 18. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of
these gases will take maximum time in getting out of the container?
a. H2
b. He
c. N2
d. O2
(d)
PV
Q. 19. The value of " nT for an unknown gas is equal to
a. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K
b. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K-1
c. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K-1
d. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K
(b)
Q. 20. If the temperature of the atmosphere is 30oC then which of the following will have
highest average speed
a. O2
b. H2
c. Ne
d. N2
(b)
CHAPTER 3
LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
Q.1. I heard Islamian genius saying that glass must be a super cooled liquid. The
reason that he might have in his mind is that glass has
a. definite volume
b. definite shape
c. crystalline structure
d. no crystalline structure
(d)
Q. 2. Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid
states. These substances are generally
a. ionic substances
b. metallic substances
c. molecular solids
d. covalent network solids
(b)
Q. 3. Air can be distilled fractionally because the constituents of the air
a. can be liquefied
b. have different boiling points
c. are gases at room temperature
d. have different densities
(b)
Q. 4. There are three different substances, Argon, Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic
acid. The correct sequence in which the boiling point increases is
a. Ar < HCI < HI

b. HI > HCI > Ar
c. HCI < HI < Ar
d. HI > Ar > HCI
(a)
Q. 5. A student put two eggs A and B in HCI solution. After 5 minutes he took them out
for weighing but egg dropped in water accidentally. The student was able to take
it out after 30 minutes. He weighed it. Its weight was 40.33 grams. Weight of egg
“B” was also 40.33 grams. Islamian genius told him that if both eggs have been
dropped in water, the weight of egg “B” would have been
a. greater than that of egg “A”

b. less than that of egg “A”
c. equal to that of egg “A”
d. unaffected instead
(a)
Q. 6. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the melting point of a substance,
the compound having highest melting point among the following is
a. NaCI
b. RbCI
c. LiCI
d. CsCI
(a)
Q. 7. Islamian genius told his follows that in a crystal the atoms are located at the
position of
a. zero potential energy

b. infinite potential energy
c. maximum potential energy
d. minimum potential energy
(A)
Q. 8. Keeping in mind the concept of charge density, compound having highest lattice
energy is
a. KCI
b. MgO
c. LiBr
d. NaF
(b)
Q. 9. Meniscus is the shape of the surface of a liquid in a cylindrical container. It may

be concave, convex or plane. For molten metals
a. meniscus is concave
b. meniscus is convex
c. meniscus is plane
d. meniscus may be concave or convex depending on the nature of the
metal
(b)
Q. 10. All of the following substances are crystalline except
a. Ice
b. Carbon (diamond)
c. Sucrose
d. Plastic
(d)
Q. 11. All of the following have cleavage planes except
a. ionic crystals
b. covalent crystals
c. molecular crystals
d. metallic crystals
(d)
Q. 12. Coordination number of Na+ in NaCI is
a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
(d)
Q. 13. For a crystal system a b c and the example for this crystal system is
a. CuSO4. 5H2O
b. Na2B4O7. 10H2O
c. ZnSO4. 7H2O
d. BaSO4. 4H2O
(a)
Q. 14. A student said I will preserve my father dead body in a time capsule for 1000
years. Islamian genius told him that the atmosphere of the capsule must contain
a. O2
b. SO2
c. CO2
d. Ar
(d)
Q. 15. All of the following have crystals except
a. diamond
b. NaCI
c. KBr
d. CdS
(d)
Q. 16. Kerosene is liquid at room temperature due to
a. hydrogen bonding
b. organic nature
c. dipole-dipole forces
d. molecular size
(d)
Q. 17. All of the following are network solids except
a. SiO2
b. Graphite
c. S8
d. Diamond
(c)
Q. 18. Honey contain glucose and fructose along with some other ingredients, it has
greater viscosity due to
a. hydrogen bonding
b. irregular shape of the molecules
c. irregular shape of the molecules and strong intermolecular forces
d. greater molecular size (c)
Q. 19. Boiling point of phosphine (PH3) is -87.8 oC while that of silane (SiH4) is
-111 oC. Phosphine has greater boiling point because
a. dipole moment of PH3 is greater than that of SiH4

b. PH3 has greater molecular size
c. Molecular weight of SiH4 is less than that of PH3
d. Actually the boiling of SiH4 is greater than that of PH3
(a)
Q. 20. Rate of evaporation of petrol is greater than that of water at room temperature
because
a. petrol molecules do not have any hydrogen bond

b. petrol is an organic compound
c. water molecules have small size
d. petrol molecules have greater size
(a)
Q. 21. Substance having highest boiling point among the following is
a. HF
b. HCI
c. Br2
d. HBr
(c)
Q. 22. Boiling points of different substances are given below
CH4 = - 161 oC
C2H6 = -89 oC
CI2 = -34.6 oC
F2 = -188 oC
The data shows that vapour pressure of
a. CI2 > C2H6 > CH4 > F2

b. CI2 > F2 > CH4 > C2H6
c. C2H6 > CH4 > F2 > CI2
d. F2 > CH4 > C2H6 > CI2
(d)
Q. 23. Which of the following statements is correct for the statement
“Vapour pressure of water at 0 oC is 5 mmHg”
a. boiling point of water will be 0 oC at 5 mmHg
b. boiling point of water will be 0 oC
c. if external pressure is 5 mmHg then water will boil at 0 oC
d. boiling point of water is 100 oC at 760 mmHg pressure
(c)
Q. 24. What is the typical range of the hydrogen bond
a. 5 – 25 kJ per mole of bonds

b. 5 – 25 kJ per molecule
c. 500 kJ per mole of bonds
d. 1 – 2 kJ per mole of bonds
(a)
Q. 25. Hydrogen bond is unimportant in
a. DNA structure
b. The liquid properties of water
c. Liquid HF
d. Liquid CH4
(d)
Q. 26. All of the following acids have hydrogen bond in liquid state except
a. sulfuric acid
b. nitric acid
c. hydrofluoric acid
d. hydrochloric acid
(d)
Q. 27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. dispersion force is the weakest type of intermolecular interactions

b. the strong intermolecular attractions in H2O result from hydrogen bonding
c. boiling point of H2S is less than H2O
d. boiling point of non-polar substances tends to decrease with increasing
molecular weight
(d)
Q. 28. A white substance melts with some decomposition at 730 oC. As a solid, it is non
conductor of electricity but it dissolves in water to from a conducting solution. The
white substance is
a. a covalent network solid
b. an ionic solid
c. a molecular solid
d. a metallic solid
(b)
Q. 29. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a substance,
element having highest boiling among the following is
a. He
b. F2
c. Ne
d. Br2
(d)
Q. 30. The increasing vapor pressure caused by heating a liquid is due to
a. increase intermolecular interactions

b. increasing potential energy of molecules
c. increasing kinetic energy of molecules
d. decreasing surface tension
(c)
Q. 31. Covalent network crystals have
a. higher melting point then molecular crystals

b. lower melting point then molecular crystals
c. discrete molecules linked by Van der waals forces
d. hydrogen bonding
(a)
Q. 32. Keeping in mind different factors which affect the boiling point of a liquid, element
having lowest boiling point among the following is
a. F2
b. CI2
c. Br2
d. I2
(a)
Q. 33. A chemist was able to measure the value of lattice energy of KCI to be 690 kJ/
mol. From this experiment he concluded that
a. lattice energy of KBr is 630 kJ/mol and that of KI is 665 kJ/mol
b. lattice energy of KBr is 665 kJ/mol and that of KI is 630 kJ/mol
c. lattice energy of KBr is 765 kJ/mol and that of KI is 730 kJ/mol
d. lattice energy of KBr is 730 kJ/mol and that of KI is 765 kJ/mol
(b)
CHAPTER 4
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Q.1. Color of the glow produced in the discharge tube
a. depends on the pressure in the discharge tube

b. depends on the metal used as cathode
c. depends on the gas used in the discharge tube
d. does not depend on the nature of the gas used in the discharge tube
(c)
Q. 2. Dr. Khan told his students that if charge on electrons in a chamber is 3.50 x 10 11
coulomb than mass of electrons must be
a. 9.1 x 10-31 kg
b. 8 kg
c. 4 kg
d. 2 kg
(d)
Q. 3. e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of cathode rays. The reason is
a. greater mass of canal ray particles

b. greater charge of the canal ray particles
c. greater mass and charge of the canal ray particles
d. actually e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than that of the cathode rays
(a)
Q. 4. Nuclear radiation is emitted by those elements whose
a. molecules are stable

b. molecules are unstable
c. nuclei are stable
d. nuclei are unstable
(d)
Q. 5. -rays are good ionizers of gases because they
a. have greater mass

b. have positive charge
c. have greater mass and positive charge
d. are helium nuclei
(c)
Q. 6. Consider the following reaction

9 4 12 1
Be + He C+n
4 2 6 8
This reaction is
a. a chemical reaction
b. a nuclear reaction
c. an example of artificial radioactivity
d. an exothermic reaction
(c)
Q. 7. Roentgen discovered X-rays and Mosley found that the frequency of the X-rays
emitted from anode increases with the
a. increase in the mass number of the metal used as anode

b. decrease in the mass number of the metal used as anode
c. decrease in the proton number of the metal used as anode
d. increase in the proton number of the metal used as anode
(d)
Q. 8. Radiation emitted by exited atoms is
a. in the form of continuous waves

b. in the form of quanta
c. nuclear radiations
d. ultraviolet radiation
(b)
Q. 9. If the electron of hydrogen atom jumps of “M” shell then the radius of this excited
hydrogen atom will be
a. 8.464 Ao
b. 4.761 Ao
c. 2.116 Ao
d. 0.529 Ao
(b)
Q. 10. If a particle of mass 0.1gram moves with a velocity of 10,000 m/s then the
wavelength of the wave associated with this particle is
a. 6.626 x 10-34 m
b. 2.145 x 10-39 m
c. 3.313 x 10-21 m
d. 1.325 x 10-18 m
(a)
Q. 11. Second ionization energy
a. is always less than first ionization energy

b. is always greater than first ionization energy
c. is equal to the first ionization energy
d. may be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the
nature of the element
(b)
Q. 12. “Ionization energies of the elements of the 5th group are greater than those of 6th
group”. It is because
a. 5th group elements have less electronegativity

b. 6th group of elements have greater shielding effect
c. 5th group element have greater shielding effect
d. 5th group elements have half filled atomic orbitals
(d)
Q. 13. A sodium lamp emits yellow light with a wavelength of 589 nm. What is the
energy of a single photon in this light?
a. 3.37 x 10-19 Joules

b. 1.12 x 10-25 Joules
c. 1.17 x 10-33 Joules
d. 5.09 x 1015 Joules
(a)
Q. 14. The energy associated with the transition of an electron from the n=1 state to the
n=3 state of H atoms is:
a. +1.74 x 10-17 Joules

b. +1.94 x 10-18 Joules
c. +1.94 x 10-18 Joules
d. -1.74 x 10-17 Joules
(b)
Q. 15. All of the following are electromagnetic radiations except
a. red light
b. sound waves
c. x-rays
d. photon
(b)
Q. 16. This shape of a 2s orbital resembles:
a. a hockey puck
b. an (American) football
c. an ellipse
d. a sphere
(d)
Q. 17. Which orbital of the following has a principal quantum number of 3 and an
angular momentum quantum number of 27
a. 3s
b. 3d
c. 4f
d. 3f (b)
Q. 18. Which of the following has the highest energy?
a. gamma rays
b. X-rays
c. Ultra-violet radiation
d. \radio waves
(a)
Q. 19. All of the following elements are correct for atomic orbitals except
a. p-sub energy level has 3 orbitals

b. s-orbital has spherical shape
c. energy of 4s is less than that of 4d
d. All d orbitals have 4 lobes
(d)
Q. 20. Various values of the quantum numbers (n, /, m, ms) are listed below. Which is a
possible set of values for one of the d electrons in an iron atom in its ground
state?
a. (1, 1, 0, ½)
b. (4, 0, 1, ½)
c. (4, 1, 0, -1/2)
d. (3, 2, 1, -1/2)
(d)
Q. 21. How many orbitals are allowed for principal quantum number (n) of 3?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 6
d. 4
(a)
Q. 22. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate in a multielectron atom?
a. 3d orbitals
b. 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals
c. 1s, 2s orbitals
d. 2d orbitals
(a)
Q. 23. The quantum number that specifies the way the orbital is oriented in space is:
a. the electron spin quantum number

b. the magnetic quantum number
c. the angular momentum quantum number
d. the principal quantum number
(b)
Q. 24. Which of the following has the largest wavelength?
a. visible light
b. x-rays
c. infrared light
d. ultraviolet radiation
(c)
Q. 25. Select the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest
energy and increases to greatest energy.
a. radio, visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet

b. microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet
c. visible, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays
d. X-radiation, visible, infrared, microwave
(b)
Q. 26. A radio station broadcasts music at 99.1 MHz. The wavelength of these waves is
a. 1.88 x 10-2 m
b. 0.330 m
c. 3.03 m
d. 5.33 x 102 m
(c)
Q. 27. Green light has a wavelength of 5200A. Calculate the energy of one photon of
green light.
a. 3.4 x 10-40 J
b. 3.4 x 10-30 J
c. 3.8 x 10-26 J
d. 3.8 x 10-19 J (d)
Q. 28. The size of an atomic orbital is associated with
a. principal quantum number (n)

b. angular momentum quantum number (I)
c. magnetic quantum number (mI)
d. spin quantum number (ms)
(a)
Q. 29. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 5f
orbital?
a. n = 5, I = 3, mI = +1
b. n = 5, I = 2, mI = +3
c. n = 4, I = 3, mI = 0
d. n = 4, I = 2, mI = +1
(a)
Q. 30. In the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the
following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowd?
a. 3, 1, -1
b. 3, 2, 2
c. 3, 2, -1
d. 3, 3, 2
(d)
Q. 31. “Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers” is
a statement of
a. Aufbau principle
b. Pauli exclusion principle
c. Hund’s rule
d. Periodic law
(b)
Q. 32. The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge
due to
a. Shielding
b. Penetration
c. Paramagnetism
d. Electron-pair repulsion
(a)
Q. 33. “Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the same energy will remain unpaired with
parallel spins until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a statement of
a. Aufbau principle
b. Pauli exclusion principle
c. Hund’s rule
d. Periodic law
(c)
Q. 34. All of the following statements are correct for atomic structure and quantum
numbers except
a. In a given atom, the maximum number of electrons having principal quantum

number n = 3, is 18
b. The number of orbitals in a given f subshell is 7
c. For n=4, the largest possible value of I is 3
d. For n=4, the largest possible value of mI is 2
(d)
Q. 35. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu (Z=29)
a. [Ar] 4s23d9
b. [Ar]4s13d10
c. [Ar]4s24p63d3
d. [Ar]4s14d9
(b)
Q. 36. Arrange potassium, rubidium, calcium and barium in order of increasing atomic
size.
a. K < Ca < Rb < Ba

b. Ca < K < Rb < Ba
c. Ca < K < Ba < Rb
d. K < Ca < Ba < Rb
(b)
Q. 37. Element having smallest atomic radius among the following is
a. Li
b. Ne
c. Rb
d. Sr
(b)
Q. 38. The arrangement of sodium, oxygen, fluorine and strontium on the basis of
increasing first ionization energy is
a. Na < Sr < O < F

b. Sr < Na < O < F
c. Sr < Na < F < O
d. Na < Sr < F < O
(b)
Q. 39. Elements with _____ first ionization energies and _______ electron affinities
generally form cations.
a. low, very negative
b. high, positive or slightly negative
c. low, positive or slightly negative
d. high, very negative
(c)
Q. 40. In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the charges on several different oil drops were
as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The units are arbitrary. What is the likely
value of the electronic charge in these arbitrary units?
a. -1.11
b. -1.48
c. -2.22
d. -2.96
(b)
CHAPTER 5
CHEMICAL BONDING
Q. 1. Which of the following compounds has maximum ionic character?
a. NaCI
b. CsF
c. KBr
d. MgCI2
(b)
Q. 2. Which of the following molecules or ions is nonplanar, i.e., has at least one atom
that is not in the same plane as the others?
a. BH3
b. NF3
c. SO3
d. CO32-
(b)
Q.3. Which of the following best describes the shape and polarity of the carbon
disulfide, CS2, molecule?
a. bent and polar

b. linear and non-polar
c. pyramidal and polar
d. bent and non-polar
(b)
Q. 4. Which of the following molecules has the smallest angle between adjacent
bonds?
a. CO2
b. CH4
c. H 2O
d. NH3
(c)
Q.5. The shape of hydronium ion H3O+ is:
a. planar
b. see-saw
c. trigonal planar
d. trigonal pyramidal
(d)
Q. 6. Which of the following pairs of atoms are least likely to form an ionic compound?
a. Ni, O
b. Na, F
c. Cu, CI
d. Li, Mg
(d)
Q. 7. Which of the following pairs of atoms are most likely to form a covalent
compound?
a. Na, F
b. Cu, CI
c. C, O
d. Li, F
(c)
Q. 8. Which molecule has one pair of nonbonding electrons on the central atom?
a. PCI3
b. CO2
c. SO3
d. BF3
(a)
Q. 9. Which of the following will have the largest dipole moment?
a. HF
b. HCI
c. HBr
d. F2 (a)
Q. 10. CO2 is a nonpolar molecular (µ=0) whereas SO2 is polar (µ=1.62D). This
difference is due to the fact that:
a. CO2 has an even number of double bonds whereas SO2 has an odd
number of double bonds
b. C and O are in different groups whereas S and O are in the same group
c. The C-O bond is nonpolar while the S-O bond is polar
d. CO2 is linear whereas SO2 is not linear
(d)
Q. 11. What is the state of hybridization of the carbon atoms in ethylene, C2H2?
a. sp2
b. sp
c. sp3
d. sp3d2
(a)
Q. 12. The type(s) of bonding present in a sample of sodium nitrated, NaNO3, are:
a. covalent bonds only

b. ionic bonds only
c. covalent and ionic bonds
d. ionic and metallic bonds
(c)
Q. 13. The C=C double bond in ethane C2H4, is consist of:
a. two П bonds
b. covalent bonds
c. two sigma bonds
d. one П bond + one sigma bond
(d)
a. The number of MO’s in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent

atomic orbitals
b. As bonding MO’s become equally less stable
c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of
antibonding electrons
d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron
(b)
a. The MO’s in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic

orbitals.
b. As bonding MO’s become more stable, antibonding MO’s become equally
less stable.
c. In MO’s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of
antibonding electrons.
d. Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron.
(b)
Q. 16. What is the hybridization of phosphorus in PCI3?

a. sp2
b. sp3
c. sp
d. sp3d2
(b)
Q. 17. Analysis of an unknown substance showed that it has a high boiling point and is
brittle. It is an insulator as a solid but conducts electricity when melted. Which of
the following substances would have those characteristics?
a. HCI
b. AI
c. KBr
d. SiF4
(c)
Q. 18. Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing bond strength.

C-F, C-Br, C-I, C-CI
a. C-F < C-CI < C-Br < C-I

b. C-I < C-Br < C-CI < C-F
c. C-Br < C-I < C-CI < C-F
d. C-I < C-Br < C-F < C-CI
(b)
Q. 19. Based on electronegativity trends in the periodic table, predict which of the
following compounds will have the greatest % ionic character in its bonds.
a. H 2O
b. LiI
c. RbF
d. HCI
(c)
Q. 20. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX3 will have a
_____ molecular shape.
a. linear
b. bent
c. trigonal planar
d. tetrahedral
(c)
Q. 21. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX3E will have
a ____ molecular shape.
a. bent
b. trigonal planar
c. trigonal pyramidal
d. tetrahedral
(c)
Q. 22. Predict the ideal bond angles around carbon in C2I2 using the molecular shape
given by the VSEPR theory.
a. 90o
b. 109o
c. 120 o
d. 180o
(d)
Q. 23. Predict the actual bond angles in BrF3 using the VSEPR theory.
a. more than 120o

b. between 109o and 120o
c. between 90o and 109o
d. less than 90o
(d)
Q. 24. Which of the following has no net dipole moment?
a. N2O
b. NF3
c. H2Se
d. TeO3
(d)
Q. 25. A molecule with the formula AX2 uses ………. To form its bonds.
a. sp hybrid orbitals
b. sp2 hybrid orbitals
c. sp3 hybrid orbitals
d. sp3d hybrid orbitals
(a)
Q. 26. Valence bond theory predicts that carbon will use -------- hybrid orbitals in the
carbonate anion, CO32-
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
(b)
Q. 27. Valence bond theory predicts that sulfur will use -------- hybrid orbitals in sulfur
dioxide, SO2.
a. sp
b. sp2
c. sp3
d. sp3d
(b)
Q. 28. Which one of the following statements about orbital hybridization is incorrect?
a. The carbon atom is CO2 is sp hybridized

b. The nitrogen atom in NH3 is sp3 hybridized.
c. sp2 hybrid orbitals are coplanar, and at 120o to each other.
d. sp hybrid orbitals lie at 180o to each other.
(b)
Q. 29. For which one of the following molecules is the indicated type of hybridization not
appropriate for the central atom?
a. BeCI2 sp2
b. SiH4 sp3
c. BF3 sp2
d. C 2H 2 sp
(a)
Q. 30. According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the twelve outermost electrons in the
O2 molecule are distributed as follows:
a. 12 in bonding MOS, O in antibonding MOs.

b. 10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding MOs.
c. 9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding MOs.
d. 8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding MOs.
(d)
Q. 31. According to molecular orbital theory, what is the bond order in the O2+ ion?
a. 5.5
b. 5
c. 4
d. 2.5
(d)
Q. 32. Which of the following statements relating to molecular orbital (MO) theory is
incorrect?
a. A bonding MO is lower in energy than the two atomic orbitals from which it
is formed.
b. Combination of two 2p orbitals may result in either Л MOs.
c. A species with a bond order of zero will be stable
d. In a stable molecule having an even number of electrons, all electrons
must be paired.
(d)
Q. 33. One can safely assume that the 3s- and sp- orbitals will form molecular orbitals
similar to those formed when 2s- and sp-orbitals interact. According to molecular
orbital theory, what will be the bond order for the CI2+ ion?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. 2
(c)
CHAPTER 6
ELECTRICS OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS
Q.1. All of the following are state functions except
a. P
b. V
c. q
d. H
(c)
Q. 2. Suppose you have a balloon of given volume, V1, containing a gas at
temperature, T1. When you place the balloon in a colder room at temperature, T2,
the balloon’s temperature starts to drop. What are the signs of the system’s q, w,
and E for this process?
a. +q, +w, + E
b. -q, -w, + E
c. +q, -w, - E
d. –q, +w, - E
(d)
Q. 3. The melting of ice at body temperature is an endothermic process:

H2O(s) H2O(I) ΔH= +6.0kJ / mol
Thus eating ice counteracts the exothermic processes of metabolizing food. How
much ice (in grams) would you have to eat to counteract the energy gained by
eating 28.3g of peanuts (13 kJ/g)?
a. 78 g
b. 110 g
c. 370 g
d. 1100 g
(d)
a. q = H at constant T; q = E at constant V
b. q = H at constant V; q = E at constant P
c. q = H at constant P; q = E at constant V
d. q = H = E at constant P or at constant V
(c)
Q. 5. Ho of which of the following reactions is equal to the standard enthalpy of

formation of NH3?
a. 3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)

b. 2NH3(g) 3H2(g) + N2(g)
3 1
c. 2 H2(g) + 2 N2(g) NH3(g)
3 1
d. NH3(g) 2 H2(g) + 2 N2(g)
(c)
Q. 6. Calculate the standards molar enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) in the reaction:

C(g) +O2(g) CO2(g)
Given the following standard enthalpy changes:

2C(s) +O2(g) 2CO(g), ΔHo = -221kJ
2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g), ΔHo = -566kJ
a. -393.5 kJ
b. +393.5 kJ
c. +787.0 kJ
d. -787.0 kJ
(a)
Q. 7. All of the following chemical reactions are endothermic except
a. H2O(s) H2O(I)
b. 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) +O2(g)
c. H2O(g) H2O(I)
d. AI2O3(I) + 2Fe(I) 2AI(s) + Fe2O3(s)
(c)
Q. 8. All of the followings are incorrect except
a. Hvaprizaiton < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hcondensation

b. Hfusion < Hcondensation < sublimation < Hvaporization
c. Hcondensation < Hfusion < Hvaporization < Hsublimation
d. Hcondensation < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hvaporization
(c)
Q. 9. An environmental chemist got an idea that two serious pollutants (CO and NO) of
the automobile exhaust can be converted to less harmful gases CO2 and N2. The
reaction is
1
CO(g) + NO(g) CO2(g) + 2 N2(g), ΔHo = ?
The enthalpy of this reaction as calculated from the following date is
1
CO(g) + 2 O2(g) CO2(g), ΔHo = -283kJ / mol
CO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g), ΔHo = 180.6kJ / mol
a. -102.4 kJ
b. -322.1 kJ
c. -373.3 kJ
d. -400.0 kJ
(c)
Q. 10. A chemist heated a balloon by supplying 600 J of heat. The balloon expands
doing 200 J of work against the atmospheric pressure. The change in internal
energy of
a. -800 J
b. -400 J
c. OJ
d. +400 J
(d)
Q. 11. Spontaneous reactions are those which
a. continue to occur once started

b. require activation energy
c. are endothermic
d. are exothermic
(a)
Q. 12. All of the following processes are spontaneous except
a. reaction of H2 with O2 to form H2O

b. combustion of natural gas
c. neutralization of HCI by NaOH
d. synthesis of glucose by plants
(d)
Q. 13. Every one knows about the importance of water. Though it is abundant in nature,
yet it can be produced in laboratory by the following reaction
2H2 + O2 2H2O
If Hf is the heat of formation of H2O and Hr is the heat of this reaction, then
a. H f = Hr
Hr
b. Hr = 2
Hr
c. Hr = 2
d. Hf = 2Hr
(b)
Q. 14. The following table provide different types of system and their examples but in irregular
manner.
System Example
I. Open a. water in cork fitted titration flask
II. Closed b. pigeon
III. isolated c. ice in thermos bottle
Which of the following is a best match of both columns?
a. (I, a), (II, b), (III, c)

b. (I, b), (II, a), (III, c)
c. (I, c), (II, a), (III, b)
d. (I, b), (II, c), (III, a)
(b)
Q. 15. Sublimation, vaporization, melting and photosynthesis all are examples of
a. chemical processes
b. physical processes
c. biochemical processes
d. endothermic processes
(d)
Q. 16. A mixture of ice and water contains 60g of ice and 60g of water. If 60J of heat energy is
removed from this mixture then some of the
a. water will vaporize

b. ice will sublime
c. ice will melt
d. water will freeze
(d)
Q. 17. Pieces of four different metals are present on a table. These metals are Na, AI, W and Ti.
Their melting points are 98, 660, 3410 and 1660 oC respectively. Metal having maximum
enthalpy of fusion is
a. Ti
b. AI
c. W
d. Na
(c)
Q. 18. If volume of a system is kept constant and heat is supplied to the system then
a. internal energy of the system increases and no work is done on the surrounding
b. internal energy of the system increases and work is done on the surrounding
c. no change in internal energy occurs
d. no work is done on the surrounding
(a)
Q. 19. Melting of ice at room temperature is
a. spontaneous exothermic process
b. spontaneous endothermic process
c. non-spontaneous exothermic process
d. non-spontaneous endothermic process
(b)
CHAPTER 7
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
Q. 1. At 1000 C, the equilibrium constant for the reaction of carbon monoxide and oxygen to
produce carbon dioxide is very large (Kc = 1.2 x 1022). When the reaction is at
equilibrium the:
a. concentration of carbon dioxide will be much larger than one or both reactants
b. concentration of carbon dioxide will be much smaller than concentrations of both
reactants
c. concentration of carbon monoxide will be much larger than the concentration of
carbon dioxide
d. concentrations of both reactants must be much smaller than the concentration of
carbon dioxide
(a)
Q. 2. A cylinder contains a unknown gas “X”. When the cylinder is heated a reddish brown
color develops. It means that the gas present in the cylinder was
a. NO2
b. N2O
c. N2O5
d. N2O4
(d)
Q. 3. A beaker contains a saturated solution of potassium Perchlorate. When potassium

chloride (KCI) is added to this solution, some of the potassium Perchlorate is
precipitated. It means that
a. KCIO4 is strong electrolyte that KCI

b. Solubility of KCIO4 is greater than that of KCI
c. Both KCIO4 and KCI are soluble in water to some extent
d. KCI is a strong electrolyte as compared with KCIO4
(d)
Q. 4. In salt analysis 3rd group basic radicals (Al3+, Fe3+ etc) are detected by adding NH4CI to
the salt solution and then NH4OH. 3rd group radicals are precipitated as hydroxide. In this
process
a. NH4CI will ionize to a lesser extent in presence of NH4CI
b. NH4CI will precipitate
c. NH4CI will react with NH4CI
d. AL3+ will precipitate as AICI3 (a)
CHAPTER 8
SOLUTIONS AND ELECTROLYTES
Q. 1. Islamian genius prepared a salt by the neutralization reaction of a weak acid and weak
base. If Pka value for acid is greater than the Pkb value for the base then salt prepared will
be
a. soluble in water
b. insoluble in water
c. acidic
d. basic
(d)
Q. 2. Equivalent weigh of sulfuric acid is 49, thus 1N solution of sulfuric acid will contain
a. 98g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solution

b. 49g of H2SO4 in 1kg of solvent
c. 49g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solvent
d. 49g of H2SO4 in 1lit of solution
(d)
Q. 3. 0.5 Molar solution of NaOH contains
a. 40g of NaOH in 1lit of solution

b. 20g of NaOH in 1lit of solution
c. 80g of NaOH in 1lit of solution
d. 10g of NaOH in 1kg of solvent
(b)
Q. 4. 05. molal solution
a. is less concentrated than 0.5 molar solution

b. has come concentration as that of 0.5 molar solution
c. is 0.5 times more concentrated than 0.5 molar solution
d. has concentration equal to 1 molar solution
(a)
Q. 5. Mole fraction of water in tap water will be
a. equal to 1
b. less than 1
c. greater than 1
d. will be somewhat equal to 2
(b)
Q. 6. Molality of pure water is

a. 36
b. 55.5
c. 18
d. 1
(b)
Q. 7. All of the following are postulates of Arrhenius theory of ionization except
a. electrolytes ionize in water to produce cations and anions

b. ionization is reversible processes
c. electrical conductivity of a solution of an electrolyte depends on the extent to
which the electrolyte ionize in the solution
d. strong electrolyte ionize to a greater extent in water
(d)
Q. 8. If “X” moles of Ag2Cr2O7 are dissolved in water to produce a saturated solution then Ksp
will be
a. 2X2
b. 2X3
c. 4X3
d. X3
(c)
Q. 9. A salt was dissolved in water. It was found that ionic product is greater than the solubility
product. It means that the
a. solution is unsaturated
b. solution is saturated
c. solution is supersaturated
d. we cannot predict the saturation or unsaturation of the solution for this data
(c)
Q. 10. Enough lead chloride PbCI2 was dissolved in water at 25o to produce a saturated solution.
Concentration of Pb2+ in the solution will be
3
Ksp
a. ! 4
Ksp
b. ! 4
3
Ksp
c. ! 2
3
Ksp
d. ! 3
(a)
Q. 11. Consider the following cell reaction
Pb + 2Ag+ Pb2+ + 2Ag
If a cell is made based on this equation then
a. lead will act as anode and silver as cathode

b. lead will act as cathode and silver as anode
c. silver will act as cathode because it has greater reduction potential
d. lead will act as anode because it has lesser reduction potential
(a)
Q. 12. Consider the following spontaneous reaction
Ni2+ + Mn Ni + Mn2+
If a voltaic cell is made based on this reaction then conventional representation of the cell
will be
a. Ni , Ni2+ ║ Mn2+ , Mn
b. Mn , Mn2+ ║ Ni2+ , Ni
c. Mn2+ , Ni ║ Ni , Ni2+
d. Ni , Ni ║ Mn , Mn2+
(b)
Q. 13. 0.05 molar H2SO4 solution was present in the laboratory of Islamia College. Islamian
genius told his friends that PH of this solution must be
a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 2
(c)
Q. 14. Buffer is a solution
a. whose PH is constant
b. which resists change in its PH
c. which is strong enough to maintain its PH
d. whose PH may or may not change during a chemical reaction
(b)
Consider the following list of indicators of the next two questions
I. Ferroin II. Methyl red

III. Diphenyl amine
IV. Allizarian yellow
V. Bromthymol blue
Q. 15. In this list acid base indicators are
a. I and II
b. II, III and V
c. III, IV and V
d. II, IV and V
(d)
Q. 16. In this list redox indicators are
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I and V
d. III and IV
(a)
Q. 17. Consider the following four acids.

H2SO4, HNO3, HCIO4 and HCI
The correct order in which the strength of these acids increases
a. H2SO4 < HNO3 < HCI < HCIO4

b. HCIO4 < HCI < HNO3 < H2SO4
c. HNO3 < H2SO4 < HCI < HCIO4
d. HCIO4 < HCI < H2SO4 < HNO3
(c)
Q. 18. An unknown acid is present in a container. If the acid is weak then
a. it will have low PH and low Pka value

b. it will have high Ph and high Pka value
c. it will have low PH but high Pka value
d. it will have high PH but low Pka value
(b)
Q. 19. Dr. Khan dissolved three salts Cu(NO3)2, NaHCO3 and (NH4)2SO4 in water to make a
saturated solution. Islamian genius told him that the result solution
a. must be neutral
b. must be basic
c. must be acidic
d. may be acidic, basic or neutral depending on the temperature
(c)
Q. 20. Four statements are given below. The correct statement is
a. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +5 and +2 respectively

b. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +1 and +5 respectively
c. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2 and +5 respectively
d. oxidation state of N in NO and N2O5 is +2 and +4 respectively
(c)
Q. 21. Islamian genius told his roommate that for pure water at room temperature
a. molarity is slightly greater then Molality

b. molarity is slightly less then Molality
c. molarity is equal to its Molality
d. concept of Molality and molarity does not applies
(b)
Q. 22. One of the following ways of expressing the concentration of a solution does not depend
on temperature. It is
a. molarity
b. Molality
c. Normality
d. Formality
(b)
Q. 23. Mole fraction of pure water is
a. slightly less then one
b. slightly greater then one
c. exactly equal to one
d. may be any one of the above depending on the temperature of water
(c)
Q. 24. A solution contains 3 moles of ethyl alcohol and 7 moles of water. The mole fraction of
ethyl alcohol and water will be
a. 0.7 and 0.3 respectively

b. 0.3 and 0.7 respectively
c. 0.6 and 0.4 respectively
d. 0.2 and 0.8 respectively
(b)
Q. 25. Which of the following statements is correct for the life period of a galvanic cell
a. it increases with increase in concentration of cathodic solution

b. it increases with increase in concentration of anodic solution
c. it increases with increase in the size of the cathode
d. it increases with decrease in the size of the anode
(a)
Q. 26. Consider the following spontaneous reaction

A + 2B+ A2+ + 2B
The standard reduction potentials are
A2+ /A -0.13V
B+ /B +0.80V
The voltage of this cell will be
a. 0.26V
b. 1.6V
c. 0.67V
d. 0.93V
(d)
Q. 27. A spontaneous reaction is for a galvanic cell as a non spontaneous reaction is for
a. Nelson’s cell
b. Down’s cell
c. Electrolytic cell
d. Daniel cell
(c)
Q. 28. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte. Its concentrated aqueous solution will contain
a. CH3COOH and H3O+

b. CH3COO-, OH- and H+
c. CH3COOH, CH3COO- and H+
d. CH3COOH, CH3COO- and H3O+
(d)
Q. 29. The strongest base among the following is
a. RbOH
b. KOH
c. NaOH
d. LiOH
(a)
Q. 30. Consider the following buffers
a. AI(OH)3 + AI2(SO4)3
b. Fe(OH)3 + FeCI3
c. NH4CI + Na2SO4
d. NaOH + Na2SO4
(b)
Q. 31. A solution contains two compounds AI(OH)3 and Zn (OH)2. Solubility products for these
compounds are 8.5x10-23 and 1.8 x 10-4 respectively. If NH4OH is added to this solution
then
a. both will precipitate at the same time

b. Zn(OH)2 will precipitate first
c. AI (OH)3 will precipitate first
d. Zn (OH)2 or AI (OH)3 will precipitate first depending on the temperature of the
solution
(c)
CHAPTER 9
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMICAL KINETICS
Q. 1. The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration determines the rate of a chemical
reaction is called the
a. molecularity of the reaction

b. order of the reaction
c. specific activity of the reaction
d. rate constant of the reaction
(b)
Q. 2. A scientist prepared a compound in laboratory. He found that it has two forms, one
amorphous form and another crystalline form C. Both A and C reacts with sulfuric acid.
One possible predication is that
a. increases with increase in concentration of the reactants

b. decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants
c. increases with increase in concentration of the products
d. decreases with increase in concentration of the products
(a)
Q. 3. The rate of an irreversible reaction
a. increase with increase in concentration of the reactants

b. decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants
c. increases with increase in concentration of the products
d. decreases with increase in concentration of the products
(a)
Q. 4. Consider the following equation
Ea
RT
K = A e-
In this equation
a. A is a molecule of the reactant

b. A is a molecule of the product
c. A is proportionality constant
d. A is Arrhenius constant
(d)
Q. 5. Consider the following reactions
1
I. N2O5 2NO2 + 2 O2
II. SO2CI2 SO2 + CI2
III. H2 + I2 2HI
The correct statement about these reactions is
a. I is a second order reaction

b. II and III are first order reactions
c. III is a first order reaction
d. I and II are first order reactions
(d)
Q. 6. A substance which increases the efficiency of a catalyst is termed as
a. Promoter
b. Activator
c. Retarder
d. Super catalyst
(a)
Q. 7. “Rancidity produced in butter can be decreased by adding quinoline to the butter”. This
statements shows that
a. nothing is impossible
b. quinoline is an inhibitor
c. quinoline is a catalyst
d. quinoline is an activator
(b)
Q. 8. Ammonia can be produce according to the following reaction
N2 + 3H2 Fe2O3 2NH3

A12O3, K2O
In this reaction
a. Fe2O3 and AI2O3 are catalysts while K2O is a promoter

b. Fe2O3 is catalyst while AL2O3 and K2O are promoters
c. AI2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3 is a promoter
d. Fe2O3 and K2O are catalysts while AI2O3 is a promoter
(b)
Q. 9. In specified conditions the rate of consumption of N2O5 in the reaction

2N2O5 4NO2 + O2
is 0.5 mol N2O5 L-1.S-1. The rate of formation of NO2 is
a. 0.5
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
(d)

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Q.5 CO+ is an example of:

(a) free radical (b) cationic molecular ion

(c) an ionic molecular ion

(d) stable molecule

Q.6 Relative atomic mass is the mass of an atom of an element as compared to

(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen

(c) nitrogen (d) carbon

(a) atomic number (b) atomic mass

(c) atomic volume (d) atomic structure

isotopes of an element called

(a) I.R. Spectrophotometer (b) U.V. Spectrophotometer

(c) Mass Spectrometer (d) Colourimeter

(a) mass value (b) m/e value

(a) 6.022 x 1023 (b) 1.062 x 1023

(c) 10.62 x 1024 (d) 1.062 x 1024

Q.16 No. of molecules present in 10gm of water are

(a) 3.37 x 1023 (b) 33.7 x 1023

(c) 3.37 x 1024 (d) 3.037 x 1024

(a) 6.074 x 1023 (b) 6.74 x 1023

(c) 6.074 x 1024 (d) 6.74 x 1024

Q.18 The least no. of molecules present in 30 gm of

(a) N2O (b) NO

Q.19 Which of the following has highest percentage of nitrogen

(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) NH4H2PO4

(c) (NH4)2HPO4 (d) (NH4)3PO4

Q.20 0.1 mole of Na3PO4 completely dissociates in water to produce Na+

(a) 6.02 x 1022 (b) 6.02 x 1023

(c) 1.806 x 1023 (d) 1.806 x 1022

(a) amount of limiting reactant

(d) amount of the reactant unused

(c) 6.02 x 10–23 (d) 6.02 x 1023

Q.27 The largest number of H+ are produced by complete ionization of

(a) 0.100 2 moles of HCl (b) 0.051 moles of H2SO4

(c) 0.0334 moles of H3PO4 (d) All of the above

Q.28 A sample of pure matter is

(c) substance (d) mixture

Q.29 nm stands for

(a) Newton meter (b) Nanometer

(c) Newton square meter (d) none of the above

(a) 4.184 J (b) 41.84 J

(c) 0.4184 J (d) 0.04184 J

Q.31 The number of moles of CO2 which contains 8.0 gm of oxygen

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50

(c) 1.0 (d) 1.50

Q.32 27 grams of Al will react completely with how much mass of O2 to

(a) 8 gm of oxygen (b) 16 gm of oxygen

(a) 6.02 x 1023 atoms of oxygen

(a) the mass atom is itself fractional

(b) atomic masses are average masses of isobars

(c) atomic masses are averages masses of isotopes

(d) atomic masses are average masses of isotopes

proportional to relative abundance

(a) is taken in lesser quantity in grams as compared to other

(b) is taken in lesser quantity in volume as compared to the

(d) gives the minimum amount of the product under

Q.40 Isotopes when even atomic masses are a comparatively abundant

(a) demper’s spectrograph is superior to that of Aston’s

(b) 0.1 mg of H2O has greater number of molecules then 0.1 mg of

positive and negative charges