PMT

Mark Scheme (Results)

January 2020

Pearson International Advanced Level

In Chemistry (WCH12)
Paper 01 Energetics, Group Chemistry,
Halogenoalkanes and Alcohols
 PMT

Edexcel and BTEC Qualifications

Edexcel and BTEC qualifications come from Pearson, the world’s leading learning company.
We provide a wide range of qualifications including academic, vocational, occupational and
specific programmes for employers. For further information, please visit our website at
www.edexcel.com.

Our website subject pages hold useful resources, support material and live feeds from our
subject advisors giving you access to a portal of information. If you have any subject specific
questions about this specification that require the help of a subject specialist, you may find
our Ask The Expert email service helpful.

www.edexcel.com/contactus

Pearson: helping people progress, everywhere

Our aim is to help everyone progress in their lives through education. We believe in every
kind of learning, for all kinds of people, wherever they are in the world. We’ve been
involved in education for over 150 years, and by working across 70 countries, in 100
languages, we have built an international reputation for our commitment to high
standards and raising achievement through innovation in education. Find out more about
how we can help you and your students at: www.pearson.com/uk

January 2020
Publications Code WCH12_01_2001_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2020
 PMT

General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must mark the first
candidate in exactly the same way as they mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be rewarded for what
they have shown they can do rather than penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not according to their
perception of where the grade boundaries may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark scheme should be used
appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded. Examiners should
always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark scheme.
Examiners should also be prepared to award zero marks if the candidate’s response is
not worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide the principles by
which marks will be awarded and exemplification may be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark scheme to a
candidate’s response, the team leader must be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has replaced it with an
alternative response.
• Mark schemes will indicate within the table where, and which strands of QWC, are
being assessed. The strands are as follows:

- ensure that text is legible, and that spelling, punctuation and grammar are accurate
so that meaning is clear
- select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to complex
subject matter
- organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when
appropriate
 PMT

Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. This does NOT
mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but it does mean allowing
candidates to be rewarded for answers showing correct application of principles and
knowledge. Examiners should therefore read carefully and consider every response: even
if it is not what is expected it may be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

• an idea of the types of response expected
• how individual marks are to be awarded
• the total mark for each question
• examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive full
credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but helps the
examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual word is
essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an earlier part of
a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark. Make
sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct words/phrases which
are put together in a meaningless manner. Answers must be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates to:
• write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in order
to make the meaning clear
• select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to
complex subject matter
• organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary when
appropriate.
• Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above
abilities.
• Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated (QWC)
in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
 PMT

Section A (multiple choice)

Question Answer Mark

Number
1 The only correct answer is D (½H2(g) + ½I2(s) HI(g)) 1

A is incorrect because neither element is in its molecular form

B is incorrect because 2 mol of hydrogen iodide is formed

C is incorrect because iodine is not in its standard state

Question Answer Mark

Number
2 The only correct answer is C (8.7 oC) 1

A is incorrect because the ratio of 3:4 rather than 4:3 has been used

B is incorrect because the change in volume of the final solution has been ignored

D is incorrect because the change in moles and the change in volume of HCl has been ignored
 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
3 The only correct answer is D (391 kJ mol−1) 1

A is incorrect because only 1 mol of hydrogen has been used

B is incorrect because the enthalpy of the reaction has been subtracted in the calculation

C is incorrect because the enthalpy of the reaction has been ignored in the calculation

Question Answer Mark

Number
4 The only correct answer is C (6.0) 1

A is incorrect because a 1:1 ratio has been used

B is incorrect because that is the moles produced in the stoichiometric equation

D is incorrect because oxygen is in excess and has not been taken into account
 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
5 The only correct answer is B (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 > (CH3)2CHCH2CH2CH3 > (CH3)3CCH2CH3) 1

A is incorrect because as the chain length of alkanes increases the boiling temperature increases

C is incorrect because as the number of hydroxyl groups increases so the amount of hydrogen bonding will increase

and the boiling temperature will increase

D is incorrect because as the number of electrons increases so the boiling temperature increases

Question Answer Mark

Number
6(a) The only correct answer is B (iodide ions reduce chlorine) 1

A is incorrect because the chlorine is reduced

C is incorrect because the iodide ions are oxidised

D is incorrect because iodide ions are oxidised and chlorine is reduced

 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
6(b) The only correct answer is A (the upper layer is purple) 1

B is incorrect because cyclohexane is less dense than water

C is incorrect because iodine forms a purple (molecular)solution in cyclohexane

D is incorrect because iodine is considerably more soluble in cyclohexane than in water

Question Answer Mark

Number
7 The only correct answer is B (first ionisation energy decreases) 1

A is incorrect because ionic radius increases with increasing atomic number

C is incorrect because metallic bonding becomes weaker with increasing atomic number

D is incorrect because the reactivity with water increases as the atomic number increases
 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
8 The only correct answer is C (thermal stability of Group 2 nitrates increases) 1

A is incorrect because solubility of sulfates decreases going down Group 2

B is incorrect because solubility of hydroxides increases going down Group 2

D is incorrect because the thermal stability of carbonates increases going down Group 2

Question Answer Mark

Number
9 The only correct answer is D (6, 3, 5, 1, 3) 1

A is incorrect as the oxygen atoms do not balance

B is incorrect as the oxygen atoms do not balance

C is incorrect as the iodine atoms do not balance

 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
10(a) 1
The only correct answer is A (is yellow in colour and is insoluble in concentrated aqueous ammonia)

B is incorrect because silver iodide is insoluble in concentrated aqueous ammonia

C is incorrect because silver iodide is not cream

D is incorrect because silver iodide is not cream and is insoluble in concentrated aqueous ammonia

Question Answer Mark

Number
10(b) The only correct answer is D (73%) 1

A is incorrect because only the numbers of atoms are used in the calculation

B is incorrect because the sum of the reactants and products are used in the calculation

C is incorrect because only the numbers of products are used in the calculation
 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
11 (a) The only correct answer is D (substitution) 1

A is incorrect because a chlorine atom has been replaced

B is incorrect because a hydroxyl group has been added to the reactant molecule

C is incorrect because the reaction is not redox

Question Answer Mark

Number
11(b) The only correct answer is A (higher because ethanol molecules can hydrogen bond) 1

B is incorrect because the number of atoms is irrelevant

C is incorrect because the boiling temperature of ethanol is higher

D is incorrect because the boiling temperature of ethanol is higher

 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
11(c) The only correct answeris B (faster because the C-Br bond is weaker than the C-Cl bond) 1

A is incorrect because the rate of the reaction depends on the bond strength rather than polarity

C is incorrect because the rate is faster

D is incorrect because the rate is faster

 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
12 (a) The only correct answer is B (11.2 ) 1

A is incorrect because the volume of unreacted oxygen has been ignored

C is incorrect because the volume of unreacted oxygen has been ignored and the water produced has been treated
as steam

D is incorrect because the water produced has been treated as steam

Question Answer Mark

Number
12(b) The only correct answer is B (1600) 1

A is incorrect because the volume of unreacted oxygen has been ignored

C is incorrect because the reaction of carbon dioxide with sodium hydroxide has been ignored and the volume of
unreacted oxygen has also been ignored

D is incorrect because the volume of unreacted oxygen has been ignored and the water produced has been treated
as steam
 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
13 The only correct answeris D (2-chloro-2-methylpropane) 1

A is incorrect because because 1-chlorobutane is a primary halogenoalkane and would not react immediately

B is incorrect because 2-chlorobutane is a secondary halogenoalkane and would not react immediately

C is incorrect because 1-chloro-2-methylpropane is a primary halogenoalkane and would not react

immediately

Question Answer Mark

Number
14(a) The only correct answer is B (29) 1

A is incorrect because propanone would be expected to have a fragment peak at m / z 15

C is incorrect because propanone would be expected to have a fragment peak at m / z 43

D is incorrect because propanone would be expected to have a molecular ion peak at m / z 58

 PMT

Question Answer Mark

Number
14(b) The only correct answer is C (warm with acidified potassium dichromate(VI), turns green, no change) 1

A is incorrect because propanone does not give a positive result with Fehling’s solution

B is incorrect because neither propanal nor propanone contains an OH group

D is incorrect because neither propanal nor propanone contains a -COOH group

 PMT

Section B

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15(a)(i) • the hydrated crystals already have a certain amount/ 4.5 g / 5 2
moles of /(more) water Allow: anhydrous crystals have no
or water
4.5 g is the difference in mass between the hydrated and Do not award: less water
anhydrous salt (1)

• so that the total amount/mass/ volume of water is kept the

same/ 50 cm3/ 58 g (1) Ignore references to differences in
solubility
Do not award: 58 cm3
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15 a(ii) Example of calculation: 3

• calculation of energy transferred 50 x 4.2 x 16.0 = 3360 (J) / 3.360 kJ

= mass x 4.2 x ΔT (1)

• calculation of moles 8 / 159.6 = 0.050125

= mass ÷ Mr (1) Allow 8 / 159.5 = 0.050157

3.36 ÷ 0.0501
• calculation of ΔsolnH = −67.03242 /−66.98965 (kJ mol −1)
= − Energy in kJ÷ moles (1)
(−67.066 /−66.932/ from rounded values)

Ignore SF except 1 SF
Do not award M3 for a positive answer or no sign

TE throughout

Comment:
If mass of salt has been added i.e. 58 g then
M1 is lost but value for heat energy produced
will be 3.8976 kJ
M2 can be scored and also M3 for
−77.758 kJ mol-1

If value of moles has been rounded to 0.05 value

for M3 is -67.2 kJ mol-1
Accept answer in J mol-1 if units given
Do not penalise mol-
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15(a)(iii) • two arrowheads both pointing down Ignore: 1
additional arrows(working)

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15 a (iv) Example of calculation: 2

• use of correct Hess cycle

ΔrH = ΔsolnH(anhydrous) − ΔsolnH(hydrated)
i.e. correct application of Hess cycle (1) -67.0 –12.6 =

−79.6(kJ mol-1)
• correct evaluation including sign (1)
TE from (a)(ii) but not from
(a)(iii)

Ignore SF
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15(b) An answer that make reference to one reason for each direction. Ignore references to ∆H 2
measurements in both forward
Forward and reverse
• adding water to the anhydrous salt will produce a solution
and does not form a solid
• some of the water may turn to steam/be lost (because the
forward reaction is exothermic)
• difficult to determine when exactly 5 mol water to 1 mol Ignore “heat loss ( tothe
CuSO4 has been added to form a solid surroundings)”
• the temperature of a solid is difficult to measure
(1)
Reverse
• the hydrated salt has to be heated/ the energy from the
Bunsen burner is difficult to take into account/ hard to
measure the temperature when heating

• the temperature of a solid is difficult to measure Do not award if same reason

given for “forward”
• the salt may decompose further
(1)
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15(c) An description that makes reference to the following points: 2

• (water molecules) break the (ionic) lattice/solid (1) Accept

Dissociate the ions

Do not award references to

atoms/molecules of coppersulfate

• (water molecules) can hydrate/surround the ions / ion-

dipole interactions form (1) Do not award references to
hydrogen bonding of Cu2+/ reactions
between copper sulfate and water

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15(d)(i) Example of calculation: 2

25.60 x 0.0900 ÷ 1000

• calculation of moles HCl in mean titre (1)
= 0.002304 / 2.304 x 10−3 (mol)

0.002304 ÷ 2
3
• calculation of moles sodium carbonate in 25 cm and 250 = 0.001152 / 1.152 x 10−3 (mol)
cm3 (1)
0.001152 x 250/25
= 0.01152 /1.152 x 10−2 (mol)
Ignore SF except 1 SF/ units

TE at each stage
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
15 d(ii) Examples of calculation: 4
Method 1
M1 calculation of mass sodium carbonate in solution (1) 0.01152 × 106 =1.22112

M2 calculation of mass of water of crystallisation (1) 3.29 – 1.22112 =2.06888

M3 calculations of moles of water (1) 2.06888 ÷ 18 =0.114938

M4 calculation of water : Na2CO3 mole ratio and value 0.114938 ÷ 0.01152 = 9.98
of x to a whole number (1) = 10

Method 2
M1 calculation of mass of 1 mole (1) 3.29 ÷ 0.01152 = 285.59

M2 calculation of mass of water in sample (1) 285.59 – 106 = 179.59

M3 calculation of moles of water (1) 179.59 ÷ 18 = 9.977

M4 value of x to a whole number (1) = 10

TE at each step and from (i)
Correct answer scores M4
only
Comment: if candidate has
used 25 cm3 answer in (i)
might be 1.125 x 10-2 and TE
in (ii) could give 10.35
rounded to 10 4 marks
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
*16 (a) This question assesses a student’s ability to show a coherent and logically structured Guidance on how the mark scheme should be 6
answer with linkages and fully-sustained reasoning. applied:
The mark for indicative content should be
Marks are awarded for indicative content and for how the answer is structured and added to the mark for lines of reasoning. For
shows lines of reasoning. example, an answer with five indicative
marking points that is partially structured
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for indicative content. with some linkages and lines of reasoning
scores 4 marks (3 marks for indicative
content and 1 mark for partial structure and
some linkages and lines of reasoning).
If there are no linkages between points, the
same five indicative marking points would
Number of Number of marks yield an overall score of 3 marks (3 marks for
indicative awarded for indicative content and no marks for linkages).
marking points indicative marking In general, it would be expected that 5 or 6
seen in answer points
indicative points would get 2 reasoning marks
6 4
5–4 3 and 3 or 4 indicative points would get 1 mark
3–2 2 for reasoning, and 0,1 or 2 indicative points
1 1 The would score zero marks for reasoning.
0 0 If there is any incorrect chemistry, deduct
mark(s) from the reasoning. If no reasoning
mark(s) awarded, do not deduct mark(s).
Number of marks awarded
for structure of answer and
sustained line of reasoning
Answer shows a coherent and logical
structure with linkages and fully 2
sustained lines of reasoning
demonstrated throughout.
Answer is partially structured with 1
some linkages and lines of reasoning.
Answer table
following has no linkages
shows between
how the marks points 0
should be awarded for structure and lines of
and is unstructured.
reasoning
 PMT

Any mention of breaking covalent

Indicative content
bonds or a different number of
electrons negates 1 reasoning mark

Allow van der Waals’ forces

• IP1 methane has (only) London forces / dispersion forces /
instantaneous dipole - induced dipole forces
Allow reverse
• IP2 London forces are weaker than hydrogen bonds
Do not award ammonia having
IP3 NH3/ H2O / HF have hydrogen bonds dipole-dipole bonds ratherthan
•
hydrogen bonds

• IP4 the hydrogen bond is stronger in HF than H2O / NH3 or

London forces are same/similar as they have the same

number of electrons

• IP5 Fluorine has higher electronegativity than N or O / is the

most electronegative element/ H-F bond is the most polar

• IP6 Water has more hydrogen bonds (than ammonia/ HF)

Allow ratio of 2:1 in H2O with

NH3/HF
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
16b An answer that makes reference to the following points: Both similarities and differences can be 4
shown in equations or with observations
Similarities
• both produce hydrogen halides (1) Accept KX + H2SO4 → HX + KHSO4
Allow 2KX + H2SO4 → 2HX + K2SO4

• formation of hydrogen halideis protonation (1)

Do not award white smoke/fumes

• both give off misty/steamy fumes (1)

Differences
• only the reaction of potassium bromide is
redox/bromide ions are stronger reducing agents than
chloride ions (1)

• (red)-brown fumes/liquid produced with potassium

bromide (1)
Accept 2HBr + H2SO4 → Br2 + SO2 +2H2O
Do not award rotten egg smell/references to
• sulfur dioxide/bromine given off with potassium
yellow solid
bromide (1)
Comment:
This can be awarded from an
incorrect/unbalanced equation
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(a) Allow –OH 1

Ignore connectivity of OH unless

horizontal

Ignore skeletal andstructural

formulae

Ignore length of bonds

Do not award CH3/C2H5 or missing H

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(b)(i) 1
• (concentrated) phosphoric((V)) acid / H3PO4 Accept (concentrated) sulfuric acid
/ H2SO4
Do not award dilute sulfuric acid If
formula and name are given, both
must be correct

Allow aluminium oxide / Al2O3

 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17 b (ii) 1
Allow skeletal or structural
formulae, CH2C(CH3)C2H5, or any
combination

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(b)(iii) An explanation that makes reference to the following points: 2
Comment
• (in both cases) there are two identical (functional) Allow “on ends/ sides of the double
groups/atoms on one carbon (of the double bond) (1) bond”
Ignore reference to restricted
rotation about the doublebond
Do not award molecules for
groups/atoms

• neither display geometric isomerism (1) M2 dependent on M1

Comment: M2 can be awarded for
e.g.
“both have two methyl groups on
one carbon (of the double bond)”
Allow Max (1) for correct
description of 2-methylbut-2-ene
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(c) • CH3CH2CCl(CH3)2 (1) Allow displayed or skeletal formulae 2
Do not award C5H11Cl or bromoalkane

• tertiary carbocations are more stable (than secondary Ignore references to product
carbocations)/have more electron donating groups (1) stability Do not award just a
comparison with primary
carbocation stability

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(d)(i) • (C5H11OH + PCl5) C5H11Cl + POCl3 + HCl Ignore state symbols even if 1
incorrect
Accept PCl3O

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(d)(ii) 2
• this reaction is one step / the other method is a Ignore higher atom
two-step process (1) economy,(non)reversible
References to temperature and
• yield is higher because in the 2 step process both steps give pressure
2 isomers/this reaction has no isomers /no organic by-
products /no minor product (1)
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(d)(iii) O-H (stretch) and 3750-3200 (cm−1) Allow OH 1
Do not award —OH

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
17(e) • 2-methylbutan-2-ol is a tertiary alcohol cannot be oxidised (in the 2
liver so is excreted unchanged) (1)

• 2-methylbutan-1-ol (is a primary alcohol and) would be oxidised to Ignore any reference to further
a aldehyde (which is toxic) (1) oxidation
 PMT

Section C

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18 (a) Example of calculation: 2

• calculation of Mr (1) (14 x 2)+(1x2) +12 +16

(=60)

• calculation of % nitrogen (1) % = (28/60) x 100 =

46.667%
TE on incorrect Mr
Ignore SF except 1SF

Correct answer with no

working scores (2)

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(b) Suggestions that make reference to the following points: 2
Ignore references to
• (It is used for crops such as rice because) the ammonia produced will eutrophication, global warming
dissolve/react in the water/form ammonium ions (and not be lost) (1)

• (In areas of unpredictable rainfall the urea will Do not award references
breakdown/decompose and) to acid rain ammonia is
ammonia willescape/vapourise absorbed by crops
or
farmers don’t know when to apply the urea as it may be wasted
(1)
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(c)(i) Example of graph 3
• the curve should be asymmetric and
should start at the origin (1)

• and be asymptotic to the x axis and must

not end horizontally (1)

• the Activation Energies should both lie to

the right of the maximum and should be
in the order shown i.e.Ea no catalyst
should lie at higher energy
(1)

Do not award M3 if two curves are drawn, only award

M1,M2 if both curves fulfil the marking criteria Comment:
Penalise M1 if peak maximum is to the right of the word
”Energy” on the x axis
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(c)(ii) 2
• larger proportion / larger number / more molecules have energy May be shown on labelled
greater than or equal to Ea so there are more successful collisions diagram
/ rate increases. (1)

• (because) the area (under the curve) to the right of/at a greater
energy than Ea is larger (1)

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(c)(iii) • Higher pressure moves position of equilibrium forward/ to the right/ If position of equilibrium 2
increases yield/ makesmore ammonia (1) moves to the left score (0)

• 4 (gaseous) moles/molecules on LHS and 2 (gaseous) moles /

Allow more (gaseous)
molecules on RHS (1)
moles/molecules on LHS

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(d)(i) No changes in oxidation number If oxidation numbers are 1
given they must becorrect
May be shown on the
equation
Ignore no element is oxidised
or reduced
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(d)(ii) 2
• a high temperature increases the rate of the reaction
(1)
• so the ammonia formed reacts quickly with the exhaust
gases (1) Comment
Allow alternative approach
• the forward reaction / formation of
ammonia is endothermic (1)

• (so) a high temperature increases

yield of ammonia/moves position of
equilibrium to the right/cooling
would move position of equilibrium
to the left/cooling would reduce the
yield of
ammonia (1)
 PMT

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(d)(iii) • N in NH3 is oxidised from −3 to 0 (1) May be shown in the equation 3
Max 1 from M1 and M2 if
• N in NO is reduced from (+)2 to 0 / “oxidised/reduced” are missing
O in O2 is reduced from 0 to −2 (1) or reversed

• no (element in a) single compound / molecule /species

is ( simultaneously) oxidisedand reduced (1)

Question Answer Additional Guidance Mark

Number
18(d)(iv) Any two from 2

• oxides of nitrogen dissolve in water to form acid rain/nitric acid IGNORE: NO is apollutant/is
toxic
• oxides of nitrogen cause breathing problems / asthma

• depletion of the ozone layer

Do not award global
• formation of (photochemical) smog warming/greenhouse gas
 PMT

Pearson Education Limited. Registered company number 872828

with its registered office at 80 Strand, London, WC2R 0RL, United Kingdom