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Chapter 4 Problems

The document discusses several topics in quantum mechanics including: 1) Canonical commutation relations for position-momentum and momentum-momentum operators. It shows that they commute (equal to 0). 2) Applying Ehrenfest's theorem to the position operator x, it derives equations for how the average position, momentum, and velocity change with time. 3) Deriving the position-momentum uncertainty principle from the canonical commutation relations. It shows the uncertainty product is greater than or equal to ħ/2.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views

Chapter 4 Problems

The document discusses several topics in quantum mechanics including: 1) Canonical commutation relations for position-momentum and momentum-momentum operators. It shows that they commute (equal to 0). 2) Applying Ehrenfest's theorem to the position operator x, it derives equations for how the average position, momentum, and velocity change with time. 3) Deriving the position-momentum uncertainty principle from the canonical commutation relations. It shows the uncertainty product is greater than or equal to ħ/2.

Uploaded by

arsovamaya1
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 57

Problem 1

Solutions:
a)

The canonical commutation relation of [ x , y ] is:

[ x , y ] ψ=xy (ψ )− yx (ψ )
¿ xy− yx
¿0
Since y ( ψ )= y and x (ψ )=x .

Thus, the generalization gives [ x , y ] is 0 .

The canonical commutation relation of [ p y , p z ] is:

[ py , pz ] f = [ ℏ ∂ ℏ ∂
,
i ∂ y i ∂z
f
]
¿
ℏ ∂ ℏ ∂f
i ∂ y i ∂z
− (
ℏ ∂ ℏ ∂f
i ∂z i ∂ y ) ( )
( )
2 2 2
ℏ ∂ f ∂ f
¿ −
i ∂ y∂z ∂z∂y

( )
2 2
∂ f ∂ f
Since = .
∂ x∂ y ∂ y ∂x
¿0
Thus, the generalization gives [ pi , p j ] is 0 .

Thus, from the equations 1 and 2 the generalize to:

[ r i , r j ]= [ p i , p j ]=0
The canonical commutation relation of [ x , P y ] is:

[ x , P y ]= [ x,
ℏ ∂
i ∂y
f
]
¿ (
ℏ ∂f
i
x −

∂ y ∂y )
( xf )

¿ (x
∂ y)
ℏ ∂f ∂f ∂x
−x −y
i ∂y ∂y

¿(
i ∂y )
−ℏ ∂
x f

¿−[ P y , x ] f
Thus, the generalization gives [ x , P y ] is −[ P y , x ].

The canonical commutation relation of [ x , p x ] is:

[ x , px ] f = [ x,
ℏ ∂
i ∂x ]
f

¿ x ( ℏ ∂
i ∂x
(f )−)ℏ ∂
i ∂x
( xf )

¿ ( x −x
∂x)
ℏ ∂f ∂f ∂x
−f
i ∂x ∂x

¿ (−f )
i
[ x , px ] f =if

¿i
Thus, the generalization gives [ x , p x ] is i .

Thus, from the equations 3 and 4 this generalizes to:

[ r i , p j ]− [ pi , r j ]=iδ ij
b)
Ehrenfest’s theorem for the x−¿ component is:

i
d < x > ¿ = < [ H , x ] >¿ ¿
dt ℏ
And:

[ ]
2
[ H , x ] = p +V , x
2m
1
¿ [ p 2 + p2 + p2 , x ] +[ V , x ]
2m x y z
1
¿
2m
[ p x + p y + p z , x ] +0
2 2 2

Since V is V (r ).

1
¿
2m
{[ p x , x ] + [ p y , x ]+ [ p z , x ] }
2 2 2

1
¿ [ p2 , x ]
2m x
From (a ), the remaining terms are zero:

1
[ H , x ]= { p [ p , x ]+ [ p x , x ] p x }
2m x x
From (a ), we got [ r i , p i ] =i:

[ pi , r i ]=−i
Thus:

[ H , x ] = 1 [ p x (−i )+ (−i ) p x ]
2m
−2i p x
¿
2m
−i p x
¿
m
Thus:
i
d<x> ¿ = ¿¿
dt ℏ
1
¿ < p >¿
m x
Similarly:
d
< y >¿ ¿ p y > ¿ ¿
dt m
d
< z >¿ ¿ p z> ¿ ¿
dt m
Combining these 3 results, we get:
d 1
<r > ¿ < p> ¿
dt m
d
We need to prove < p>¿ (−∇ V ).
dt
For p x:

d i
< p x > ¿ < [ H , p x ] >¿
dt ℏ

[ ]
2
p
[ H , p x ]= 2 m +V , px

[ ]
2
p
¿ , p x +[ V , p x ]
2m
1
¿
2m
{[ p x , p x ] + [ p y , p y ] + [ p z , p z ] }+ [V , p x ]
2 2 2

¿ 0+ [ V , p x ]
[
¿ V ,−i

∂x ]
∂V
¿i
∂x
Using this, equation 5 becomes:

d
dt
i ∂V
< p x> ¿ i
ℏ ∂x ( )
∂V
¿−i
∂x
Similarly, for y and z , this gives:

d ∂V
< p y >¿−
dt ∂y
d ∂V
< p z >¿−
dt ∂z
d
These 3 equations together give < p>¿ (−∇ V ).
dt
c)
The generalized uncertainty principle:
2 2
σ A σB ≥ ¿ ¿
From this, we get:
σ A σB ≥ ¿

1
σx σp ≥ < [ x , p x ]> ¿
x
2i
1
≥ (i)
2i
From part (a ).


σx σp ≥ x
2
The same follows for the other 2 components:

σ yσ p ≥ y
2
And:

σzσp ≥ z
2
This can be generalized in the following equation:

σr σp ≥
i j
2
There is no restriction on σ x σ p because [ x , p y ] =0.
y


Thus, from the above equations this generalizes to σ r σ p ≥ s .
i j
2 ij

Problem 2
Solutions:
a)
The time-independent Schrödinger equation is:
2
−ℏ 2
∇ ψ +Vψ=Eψ
2m
For the particle in a box, it is given that:
0 , if x , y , z are all between 0∧a
V ( x , y , z ) ={
∞ , otherwise
For x , y , z, between 0 and a , equation 1 becomes:
2
−ℏ 2
∇ ψ =Eψ
2m

( )
2 2 2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ ∂ ψ ∂ ψ
+ + =Eψ
2 m ∂ x 2 ∂ y 2 ∂ z2

Take the wave function in the form:

ψ ( x , y , z ) =X ( x ) Y ( y ) Z (z)
Substituting into equation 2 and dividing by ψ ( x , y , z ) gives:
2 2 2
1 d X 1 d Y 1 d Z −2 mE
+ + =
X d x2 Y d y2 Z d z2 ℏ
2

The 3 terms on the left-hand side of the above equation are functions of x , y and z , respectively. So,
each must be a constant.
Thus, they can be separated as:
2
1 d X 2
2
+ K x =0
X dx
2
1 d Y 2
2
+ K y =0
Y dy
2
1d Z 2
+ K z =0
Z d z2

2 2 2 2m
Where K x + K y + K z = 2
E.

Equations 4,5, and 6 are the standard differential equations.
The solutions are as follows:

X ( x )= A x sin K x x + B x cos K x x

Y ( y )= A y sin K y y + B y cos K y y

Z ( z )= A z sin K z z + Bz cos K z z

Applying the boundary conditions at x=0 gives:

Bx =0, B y =0 , and Bz =0.


So, the above equations become:

X ( x )= A x sin K x x

Y ( y )= A y sin K y y

Z ( z )= A z sin K z z

At x=a , we have:

X ( a )=0
sin ( K x a )=0

nx π
K x= (n x =1 , 2, 3 , …)
a
The same thing follows for Y and Z . This makes the above equations:

X ( x )= A x sin( naπ x)x

Y ( y )= A sin (
a )
n π y
y x

Z ( z )= A sin (
a )
n π z
z z

Substituting these expression into equation 3 gives:

ψ ( x , y , z ) =X ( x ) Y ( y ) Z (z)

ψ ( x , y , z ) =A x A y A z sin ( naπ x) sin ( naπ y ) sin ( naπ z )


x y z
Where A x, A y, and A z are normalization constants.

Applying the normalization condition for X :

∫ ψ ¿ ( x ) ψ ( x ) dx=1
We get:

A x=
√ 2
a
Doing the for Y and Z , gives:

A y =A z=
√ 2
a
Hence:

() ( ) ( ) ( )
2 32 n π n π n π
ψ ( x , y , z )= sin x x sin y y sin z z
a a a a
Energy eigenvalues are given by:

E=
2m
( K x + K y + K z)
2 2 2

2 2
π ℏ 2 2 2
2( x
¿ n + n y +n z ) (n x , n y , n z=1 , 2 ,3 , …)
2m a
b)

Possible values of n x , n y , n z, and their corresponding degeneracy is tabulated as follows:

c)

The combinations for the energy eigenvalues after E6 are:


E7 ( 3 22 ) , E8 ( 4 11 ) , E9 ( 33 1 ) , E10 ( 4 2 1 ) , E 11 ( 3 3 2 ) , E 12 ( 4 22 ) , E13 ( 4 3 1 ) , and E13 ¿ and 5 11 ¿

With E14 (333) we get one level and with E14 (5 1 1) we get 3. They are (511), (151), and (115).

All have the same energy eigenvalue and is given by:


2 2
27 π ℏ
E14 = 2
2 ma
Thus, degeneracy of E14 level is 4 .

This interesting thing in the case of E14 , is there is a numerical “accident” (matching), because:
2 2 2
3 +3 +3 =27
2 2 2
5 +1 +1 =27
Thus, the degeneracy is greater than combinational reasoning alone would suggest.

Problem 3
Solutions:
s
Problem 4
Solutions:

Problem 5
Solutions:

Problem 6
Solutions:

Problem 7
Solutions:
Define the associated Legendre function as follows:
|m|

( )
|m|
d
P ( x )=( 1−x )
m 2 2
l Pl (x)
dx
Given l=m , thus write the following:
l

( )
l
d
Pl ( x )=( 1−x ) ∙
l 2 2
P (x )
dx l
Here, the Legendre polynomial Pl (x ) is given by the following:

( )
l
1 d ( 2 )l
Pl ( x )= '
x −1
2 l! dx
Thus:
l

( ) ( x −1)
2l
1
( 1−x2 ) 2 d
l
Pll ( x )= 2
l
2 l! dx
l
Now consider ( x 2−1 ) :
l
( x 2−1 ) =x2 l +…
Thus:
l

( ) ( x + …)
2l
1 d
P ( x )= l ( 1−x2 ) 2
l
l
2l

2 l! dx

In the above equation, differentiate the term (x 2 l+ …) for 2 l times.

Thus, all other terms whose powers are less than 2 l will vanish. Thus:
l
1
Pll ( x )= l
( 1−x2 ) 2 ( 2l ) !
2 l!
l
( 2l ) !
¿ l
( 1−x 2 ) 2
2 l!
l
We substitute this in equation Y l to get the following:

Y ll= (−1 )
l

√ ( 2l+1 ) ilφ l
4 π ( 2l ) !
e pl ¿


l
( 2 l+ 1 ) ilφ ( 2 l ) !
¿ (−1 )
l
e l
( 1−cos 2 θ ) 2
4 π (2 l)! 2 l!

¿ (−1 )
l

√ ( 2 l+ 1 ) ilφ ( 2 l ) !
4 π (2 l)!
e
2l l!
¿


1 ( 2l+1 ) −1 ilφ
( )
l
Y ll= e sin θ
l! 4π 2
2
Similarly, construct Y 3 (θ , φ). Here l=3 , m=2 :

Y 23= (−1 )
2

√ 7 1 2iφ 2
∙ e P3 ¿
4 π 5!
2
From equation 2, write the associated Legendre function P3 (x ) as follows:
( )
2
d
P3 ( x )=( 1−x )
2 2
P3 ( x)
dx

Write the legendre polynomial P3 (x ), form the equation 3 as follows:

( )
3
1 d ( 2 )3
P 3= 3 x −1
2 ∙3 ! dx
d 2 3
( x −1 ) =¿
dx
2
u=x −1
3
y=u
dy dy du
Chain rule: = ∙
dx du dx
dy 2 du
Using power rule =3 u and =2 x . So:
du dx
dy 2
=3 u ∙ 2 x
dx
2
¿ 3 ( x −1 ) ∙2 x
2

2
¿ 6 x ( x −1 )
2

Thus:

( ) [6 x ( x −1) ]
2
1 d 2 2
¿
8 ∙3 ∙ 2 dx
1 d
¿
8 dx
[ ( x 2−1 ) + 4 x 2 ( x 2−1 ) ]
2

1
¿
8
[ 4 x ( x −1 )+ 8 x ( x −1 ) + 4 x ∙ 2 x ]
2 2 2

1
¿ ( 5 x −3 x )
3
2

Problem 8
Solutions:

Problem 9
Solutions:

Problem 10
Solutions:

Problem 11
Solutions:

Problem 12
Solutions:

Problem 13
Solutions:

Problem 14
Solutions:

Problem 15
Solutions:
The ground state wavefunction of an hydrogen atom is given by the following expression:
−r
1 a
ψ 100 ( r , θ , φ )= e
√ π a3
Where a is Bohr radius.

a)

The expectation value ¿ r n >¿ for wavefunction ψ 100 ( r , θ , φ ) is given by following expression:

¿ r n >¿ ∫ ψ 100 ( r , θ , φ ) ( r n ) ψ ¿100 ( r , θ , φ ) ( r 2 sin θdrdθdφ )


−r −r
1 1
¿∫ e (r )
a n
e ( r 2 sin θdrdθdφ )
a

√π a 3
√πa 3

−2r
1
3∫
¿ rn e a
( r 2 sin θdrdθdφ )
πa
−2 r
1
¿ 3 ∫ r n+ 2 e a
sin θdrdθdφ
πa
Separate the above integration with respect to variables r , θ , φ:
∞ −2 r π 2π
1
3∫
dr ∫ sin θdθ ∫ dφ
n n +2 a
¿ r >¿ r e
πa 0 0 0

∞ −2 r
1
3∫
n+ 2 a π 2π
¿ r e dr (−cos θ )0 ( φ )0
πa 0
∞ −2 r
1
¿ 3∫ r e
n+ 2 a
dr (−cos π +cos 0 ° ) ( 2 π −0 )
πa 0
∞ −2 r
1
¿ 3∫ r e dr (−(−1 ) +1 ) ( 2 π )
n+ 2 a

πa 0
∞ −2 r
1
3∫
n+ 2 a
¿ r e dr ( 1+ 1 )( 2 π )
πa 0
∞ −2 r
1
¿ 3∫ r e
n+ 2 a
dr 2 ( 2 π )
πa 0
∞ −2 r
4
¿ 3 ∫r e
n+2 a
dr
a 0
Substitute 1 for n in the above expression to solve for ¿ r >¿ :
∞ −2r
4
3∫
1+2 a
¿ r >¿ r e dr
a 0
∞ −2 r
4
¿ 3 ∫r e
3 a
dr
a 0

n!
Now using integral formula ∫ x e
n −ax
dx= n+1
to solve the above integration:
0 a
∞ −2 r
4
3∫
3 a
¿ r >¿ r e dr
a 0

(( ) )
4 3!
¿
a3 2 3 +1
a

( )
4
4 6a
¿ 3 4
a 2
24
¿ a
16
3
¿ a
2
3
Thus, the expectation value ¿ r >¿ is a.
2
Hence:
∞ −2 r
4
¿ r >¿ 3 ∫ r e
2 2+2 a
dr
a 0
∞ −2r
4
3∫
4 a
¿ r e dr
a 0
Now using the integral formula to solve the above integration:
∞ −2 r
4
3∫
4 a
¿ r >¿ r e dr
a 0

(( ) )
4 4!
¿
a3 2 4+1
a

( )
5
4 24 a
¿ 3 5
a 2
96 2
¿ a
32
2
¿3a
Thus, the expectation value ¿ r 2 >¿ is 3 a2 .

b)
Calculate the expectation value ¿ x >¿ as follows:

¿ x >¿∫ ψ 100 ( r ,θ , φ ) ( x ) ψ 100 ( r ,θ , φ)(r sin θ drdθdφ)


¿ 2

−r −r
1 1
¿∫ e a (x) e a ( r 2 sin θ drdθdφ )
√π a 3
√π a 3

−2 r
1
3∫
¿ xe a
( r 2 sin θ drdθdφ )
πa
−2 r
1
3∫
¿ x r2 e a
sinθ drdθdφ
πa
Substitute x=r sin θ cos φ in the above equation:
−2r
1
3∫
¿ x >¿ ( r sin θ cos φ ) r 2 e a
sin θ drdθdφ
πa
−2 r
1
3∫
¿ ( r 3 sin θ2 cos φ ) e a
drdθdφ
πa
Separate the above integration with respect to variables r , θ , φ.
∞ −2 r π 2π
1
3∫
dr ∫ sin θ dθ ∫ cos φdφ
3 a 2
¿ x >¿ r e
πa 0 0 0


Take the integral ∫ cos φ dφ and solve as follows:
0

∫ cos φ dφ=( sin φ )20 π


0

¿ ( sin 2 π −sin 0 )
¿0
Substitute the integral in the above equation:
∞ −2 r π
1
3∫
dr ∫ sin θ dθ(0)
a 2
¿ x >¿ re
πa 0 0

¿0
Thus, the expectation value ¿ x >¿ is 0 .

Calculate the expectation value ¿ x 2> ¿ as follows:

¿ x 2> ¿∫ ψ 100 ( r ,θ , φ ) ( x 2 ) ψ ¿100 (r ,θ , φ)(r 2 sin θdrdθdφ)


−r −r
1 1
¿∫ e a ( x2 ) e a ( r 2 sin θdrdθdφ )
√π a 3
√π a3

−2 r
1
¿ ∫r 4
e a
sin3 θ cos 2 φ drdθdφ
√π a 3

Separate the above integration with respect to variables r , θ , φ:


∞ −2r π 2π
1
3∫
dr ∫ sin θ dθ ∫ cos φdφ
2 4 a 3 2
¿ x >¿ r e
πa 0 0 0

The above integral value is:


π

∫ sin 3 θ dθ=¿
0

Rewrite using trigonometric identity:


π
¿ ∫ ( 1−cos ( θ ) sin θ ) dθ
2

Apply u-substitution:
−1

∫ −1+u2 du
1
1
¿−∫ −1+u du
2

−1

Apply the sum rule:

( )
1 1
¿− −∫ 1 du+∫ u du
2

−1 −1

∫ 1 du=2
−1

∫ u2 du= 23
−1

¿− −2+ ( 2
3 )
4
¿
3
Thus:
π

∫ sin 3 θ dθ= 43
0

And the above integral is:


∫ cos 2 φdφ=¿
0

Rewrite using trigonometric identity:



1+ cos(2 φ)
¿∫ dφ
0 2

1
¿ ∙∫ 1+cos ( 2 φ ) dφ
2 0

(∫ )
2π 2π
1
¿ 1 dφ+ ∫ cos ( 2 φ ) dφ
2 0 0

∫ 1 dφ=2 π
0

∫ cos ( 2 φ ) dφ=0
0

(Because cosine is even function and integrating it to 2 π gives 0. But if you integrate from 0 to π ,
you’re only considering positive part of cosine curve and the result will be nonzero.)
So, remember!
- Everytime you integrate cosine or sine function over one full period from 0 to 2 π , you will
get zero as result! This is because positive and negative areas under cosine curve cancel each
other out due to function’s symmetry.
1
¿ ( 2 π + 0)
2
¿π
Thus:

∫ cos 2 φdφ=π
0

Hence:
∞ −2r π 2π
1
¿ x >¿ 3 ∫r e dr ∫ sin θ dθ ∫ cos φdφ
2 4 a 3 2

πa 0 0 0

∞ −2r
2
¿ x >¿
1
3∫
πa 0
4
r e a
dr ( 43 ) ( π )
∞ −2 r
4
3∫
4 a
¿ r e dr
2a 0

( )
∞ −2 r
1 4
¿ ∫ r4 e
3 a3 0
a
dr

Thus:

2 1 2
¿ x > ¿ <r >¿
3
1
¿ (3 a )
2
3
2
¿a
Thus, the expectation value ¿ x 2> ¿ is a 2.

c)
The wavefunction of a hydrogen atom for n=2, l=1, m=1 is given by the following expression:
−r
1 1
ψ 211= r e 2 a sin θ e iφ
√ πa 8 a2

Calculate the expectation value ¿ x 2> ¿ as follows:

¿ x 2> ¿∫ ψ 211 x 2 ψ ¿211 ( r 2 sin θ drdθdφ )

( ) ( )
−r −r
1 1 1 1
¿∫ r e 2 a sin θ e ( x ) r e 2 a sin θ e ( r sin θ drdθdφ )
iφ 2 −iφ 2

√ 8a
πa 2
√ 8a
πa 2
−r
1 1
4∫
¿ r 4 e a sin3 θ ( x 2) drdθdφ
πa 64 a
Substitute x=r sin θ cos φ in the above equation:
−r
1 1
4∫
2
¿ x >¿ r 4 e a sin3 θ ( r sin θ cos φ )2 drdθdφ
πa 64 a
−r
1
5∫
¿ r 6 e a sin5 θ cos2 φ drdθdφ
64 π a
Now separate the above integral for the variables r , θ , φ and solve as follows:
∞ −r π 2π
1
5∫
r e a dr ∫ sin θ dθ ∫ cos φ dφ
2 6 5 2
¿ x >¿
64 π a 0 0 0

Thus:
∞ −r
(6 ! )
∫r 6 a
e dr =
0
()
1 6 +1
a
7
¿ ( 720 ) a
The integral value is:
π

∫ sin 5 θ dθ=2 ( 12∙3∙ 4∙ 5 )


0

16
¿
15
Thus:

2 1
¿ x >¿ 5
¿
64 π a
( 720 ) (16 ) 2
¿ a
(64)(15)
2
¿ 12 a
Thus, the expectation value ¿ x 2> ¿ is 12 a2.

Problem 16
Solutions:
The ground state wave function of the hydrogen atom is:
−r
1 a
ψ= e
√ π a3
The probability that the electron would be found between r and r + dr is given by:
2
P=|ψ| 4 π r 2 dr
Thus:

(√ )(
−r
1
4 π r ) dr
a 2
P= 3
e
πa
−2 r

¿ e a
r 2 dr
π a3
−2 r
4
¿ e a
r 2 dr
a3
The probability to find the electron between r and r + dr is given by:

P= p ( r ) dr
Compare equations as follows:
−2 r
4 2 a
p ( r )= r e
a3
Differentiate the equation as follows:

[ ( )]
−2 r −2r
dp 4 a 2 −2 a
= 2r e +r e
dr a3 a

Equate the equation to zero in order to get the most probable value for r as follows:

dp
=0
dr

[ ( )]
−2 r −2 r
4 a −2 2 a
3
2r e +r e =0
a a

( )
−2r −2 r
2
2r e a
=r 2 e a
a

r =a
Thus, the most probable value of r in the ground state of hydrogen atom is r =a.
Problem 17
Solutions:

Problem 18
Solutions:

Problem 19
Solutions:

Problem 20
Solutions:

Problem 21
Solutions:
The raising operator is given by:
L
+¿=ℏ e

(∂∂θ +i cot θ ∂∂φ )¿
The lowering operator is given by:
L
−¿=−ℏe

( ∂∂θ −i cot θ ∂∂φ )¿
Take the complex conjugate of L x operator as follows:

¿¿

(( ) ( ))
† †
−iφ ∂ † ∂
¿ℏe + ( i ) cotθ
∂θ ∂φ

The complex conjugate of the differential operator is given by:

( )

∂ −∂
=
∂θ ∂θ
And:

( )

∂ −∂
=
∂φ ∂φ
Hence:
¿¿
¿¿

¿−ℏ e
−iφ
( ∂
∂θ
−i cotθ( ))
−∂
∂φ

¿−ℏ e−iφ ( ∂∂θ −i cotθ ∂∂φ )


Hence:
¿¿
¿¿
The equation 4.112 is given by:
2
L =L x L−¿+ L −ℏ L ¿ 2
z z

2
L =L+¿ ( ( L ) )+ L −ℏ L ¿
x
† 2
z z

† −2
¿ ( L x ) + Lz −ℏ L z

Rearrange it as follows:
2
L =¿ ¿
¿¿
m
Apply the wave function f l to above equation as follows:

¿¿
The eigenvalue equation for the L2 operator is given by:

L2 ( f lm )=L2 ( f ml ) −L2z ( f ml ) + ℏ L z ( f ml )

The eigenvalue equation for the L2 operator is given by:

L2 ( f lm )=ℏl ( l+1 ) ( f ml )

The eigenvalue equation for L z operator is:

L z ( f ml ) =m ℏ ( f ml )

Hence:
¿¿

¿ ℏ2 ( l (l+1 ) −m ( m−1 ) ) ( f ml )

From the above equation, the eigenvalue equation for the raising operator is:
L+¿ f =ℏ √ l ( l +1) −m (m −1 )¿
m
l
( f ml )
L+¿ f =ℏ √ l ( l +1) −m (m +1)¿
m
l
( f ml )
m+1
Here, f l is in the next highest state.

The eigenvalue equation for the raising operator is given by:


L+¿ f = Al (f l
m m m+ 1
)¿
l

Compare the equations as follows:

Al =ℏ √ l ( l+1 )−m(m+1)¿ ¿
m

Al =ℏ √ ( l +l−m −m+ ml−ml )


m 2 2

¿ ℏ √ ( l−m ) (l+ m+1 )


Take the complex conjugate of L−¿ ¿ operator as follows:

¿¿

(( ) ( ))
† †
−iφ ∂ † ∂
¿−ℏ e −( i ) cot θ
∂θ ∂φ

The complex conjugate of the differential operator is given by:

( )

∂ −∂
=
∂θ ∂θ
And:

( )

∂ −∂
=
∂φ ∂φ
Hence:
¿¿
¿¿

¿−ℏ e
−iφ
( ∂
∂θ
−(−i) cot θ
−∂
∂φ ( ))
¿ ℏ e−iφ ( ∂∂θ +icot θ ∂∂φ )
Hence:
¿¿
¿¿
The equation 4.112 is given by:
2
L =L−¿ L 2
+¿+ Lz −ℏL z ¿
¿

¿¿¿
Rearrange it as follows:
2
L =¿ ¿
¿¿
m
Apply the wave function f l to above equation as follows:

¿¿

¿ L2 ( f lm )=ℏ 2 l ( l+1 ) ( f ml ) −( m ℏ ) ( f ml ) −ℏ ( m ℏ ) ( f ml )
2

¿ ℏ2 ( l (l+1 ) −m ( m+1 ) ) ( f ml )

From the above equation, the eigenvalue equation for the lowering operator is:

L−¿ f m
l =ℏ √l ( l+1 )− m (m+1)¿ ( f ml )
L−¿ f m
=ℏ √( l ( l+ 1) − ( m )( m−1) )( f l
m−1
)¿
l

m−1
Here, f l is in the lowest state.

The eigenvalue equation for the lowering operator is given by:


L−¿ f m
=Bl ( f l
m m −1
)¿
l

m
Here, Bl is the eigenvalue of the lowering operator.

Comparing the equations:

Bml =ℏ √ ( l ( l+ 1 )−m ( m−1 ) )


Rewrite it:

Bl =ℏ √ ( l +l−m +m−ml +ml )


m 2 2

¿ ℏ √ ( l+ m )( l−m+1 )
Thus, the eigenvalue of the raising and the lowering operators are:

Al =ℏ √ (l+1 ) −m ( m+1 ) and Bl =ℏ √( l+1 )−m ( m−1 )


m m

And:

Al =ℏ √ (l−1 )( l+m+1 ) and Bl =ℏ √ ( l+m ) (l−m+ 1 )


m m

t −t
When the raising operator is operated on f l and when the lowering operator operated on f l then the
m m
coefficients Al and Bl becomes zero.

Problem 22
Solutions:
Problem 23
Solutions:
a)

Consider the energy time uncertainty principle for the case of L x:

d i +∂
( Lx ) = < [ H , Lx ] > < L x >¿
dt ℏ ∂t
i
¿ < [ H , L x ]>+ 0

i
¿ < [ H , L x ]>¿

The Hermitian function is:

[ ]
2
p
[ H , Lx ] = 2m
+V , Lx

[ ]
2
p
¿ , L x +[ V , L ]
2m
1
¿
2m
[ p , Lx ] + [ V , y p z −z p y ]
2

1
¿ ( 0 ) + [ V , y p z ] −[ V , z p y ]
2m

[ H , Lx ]= y [ V , p z ] + [ V , y ] pz −z [ V , p y ]− [ V , z ] p y
¿ y [ V , p z ]−z [ V , p y ]

[
¿ y V ,−iℏ

∂z ] [
−z V ,−iℏ

∂y ]
∂V ∂V
¿ yiℏ −ziℏ
∂z ∂y

[ H , Lx ]=iℏ [ y
∂V
∂z
−z
∂V
∂y ]
The Hermitian function is:

[ H , Lx ]=iℏ ( r ∙ ∇ V )x
Substituting into equation 1, we get:
d i
< L x >¿ < iℏ ( r ∙ ∇ V ) x > ¿
dt ℏ
¿−¿ ( r ∙ ∇ V )x >¿
d d
We get similar results for < L y >¿ and < L z >¿. Using these we can infer that:
dt dt
d
< L>¿−¿ r ∙ ∇ V >¿
dt
¿ r ∙ (−∇ V )
¿< N > ¿
b)
For spherically symmetric potential:

V ( r )=V (r )
∂V
∇V = r^ (in spherical coordinates)
∂r
d
And from < L>¿−r ∙ ∇ V :
dt
d ∂V
< L>¿−r ∙ (^r )
dt ∂r
∂V
¿− ( r ∙ r^ )
∂r
¿0
d
Thus, the value < L> ¿ is 0 .
dr

Problem 24
Solutions:

Problem 25
Solutions:

The eigenvalue of an eigenfunction L+¿Y m


l
¿ can be calculated using the following formula:

Eigenvalue=ℏ √ l ( l+1 )−m(m+1)


Where m=−l , l+ 1, … 0 , …+l−1 ,+l .

a)

The first part of the question is to find L+¿Y ¿. This is equal to its eigenvalue multiplied by Y l . In this
l
m
l

case, the maximum value of m is l . Here the raising operator L+¿¿ is operating at the top of the ladder
giving a zero eigenvalue by using the expression from above that is:
Eigenvalue=ℏ √ l ( l+1 )−m(m+1)
L+¿Y =0 ¿ l
l

b)

The given expression for L z Y ll is:


l l
L z Y l =ℏl Y l
ℏ ∂
Rearrange by using operator L z= as follows:
i ∂φ
ℏ ∂ l l
Y = ℏl Y l
i ∂φ l
l
∂Yl l
=il Y l
∂φ
m m
From the property of Y l , the value of Y l can be written as the product of 2 functions one of θ , and
another of φ :
m imφ
Y l =f ( θ ) e
The expression for raising operator L+¿¿ is given as follows:

L
+¿=ℏ e

(∂∂θ +i cot θ ∂∂φ )¿
Substitute L x in the above equation L+¿Y =0 ¿: l
l

ℏ e iφ ( ∂∂θ + icot θ ∂∂φ )=0


m imφ l
from the expression Y l =f ( θ ) e , the expression for Y l is given as follows:
l ilφ
Y l=f ( θ ) e
Hence:

ℏ e iφ( ∂∂θ + icot θ ∂∂φ )(f ( θ ) e )=0 ilφ

( ∂∂θ + icot θ ∂∂φ ) ( f (θ ) e )=0 ilφ

∂ f (θ )
e iφ +if (θ ) cotθ ( il eilφ ) =0
∂θ
∂ f (θ ) 2
e iφ +i f ( θ ) cot θ ( l eilφ ) =0
∂θ
∂ f (θ )
e iφ −f ( θ ) l cotθ ( eilφ ) =0
∂θ
∂ f (θ)
=f (θ ) l cot θ
∂θ
Integrate the above equation as follows:

∂ f (θ )
∫ ∂θ
=∫ f ( θ ) lcot θ

∂ f (θ ) cos θ
∫ ∂θ
=l ∫
sin θ

ln f (θ )=( l ) ln ( sin θ ) + K
ln f (θ )=ln ¿ ¿ ¿

ln ( )
f (θ)
sin l θ
=K

f (θ)
Assume that =A :
sinl θ
l
f ( θ )= A sin θ
Thus:
l l ilφ
Y l= A sin θ e
l
¿ A ( e sin θ )

Here, A is the normalization constant.


l
Thus, the value of Y ll ( θ , φ ) is A ( e iφ sin θ ) .

c)
m
The orthonormality condition for Y l is given by following expression:
2π π
¿
∫∫ [ Y ml ( θ , φ ) ] [ Y ml ( θ , φ ) ] sinθ dθdφ=δ l l δ m m
' '

0 0

2π π
¿
∫∫ [ Y ml ( θ , φ ) ] [ Y ml ( θ , φ ) ] sinθ dθdφ=1
0 0

Hence:
2π π
A
2
∫∫ sin2 l θ sin θ dθdφ=1
0 0

π
A ( 2 π )∫ sin θ sinθ dθdφ=1
2 2l

π
2π A
2
∫ ( sin θ )2 l+1 dθ=1
0
We use the formula:
π π
−cos ( x ) sinn−1 ( x ) n+1
∫ ( sin θ ) dθ= n

n
+
n 0
∫ sinn−2 ( θ ) dθ
0

The integration becomes as follows:


π

∫ ( sin θ )2l +1 dθ= 1∙2∙3 ∙54 ∙6 …2 l


… ( 2 l+1 )
0

Thus:
π
2π A
2
∫ ( sin θ )2 l+1 dθ=1
0

π
1=2 π A
2
∫ ( sin θ )2l +1 dθ
0

1=2 π A 2 2
[ 2∙ 4 ∙6 …2 l
1∙ 3 ∙5 … ( 2 l+1 ) ]
1=2 π A 2
[ 2 ∙ 4 ∙ 6 … 2l
][
2∙4∙6…2l
1 ∙3 ∙ 5 … ( 2l+1 ) 2 ∙ 4 ∙ 6 … 2 l ]
1=2 π A 2
[ ( 2∙ 4 ∙6 … 2 l )2
1 ∙3 ∙ 5 … ( 2l+1 ) ]
[ ]
2
2 ( 2l l ! )
1=2 π A
( 2 l+1 ) !

Rearrange:

A=
( 2l+1 ) !
l +1
2 l!
1
π √
Thus, the normalization constant is
1
l+1
2 l! √
( 2 l+ 1 ) !
π
.

Problem 26
Solutions:
The expression for the generalized spherical harmonics is as follows:

Y l ( θ , φ ) =∈ √ (2 l+1)¿ ¿ ¿
m

m
Here, Pl ¿ is the Legendre function, ∈=(−1 )m , and l and m are quantum numbers.
1
From the problem 4.3, the spherical harmonic Y 2 ( θ , φ ) is as follows:
Y 12 ( θ , φ )=−
√ 15

sin θ cos θ e iφ

The raising operator will increase the value of m by one unit, that is:

L+¿ f m
l
= A ml f ml + 1¿

The normalization constant is given by:

Al =ℏ √ (l+1 ) −m ( m+1 )
m

From the equation 4.130 in textbook, the expression for the raising operator is as follows:
L
+¿=ℏ e

(∂∂θ +i cot ∂∂φ )¿
2
From the concept of raising operator the value of Y 2 ( θ , φ ) is as follows:

L+¿Y 1
( θ , φ ) = A12 Y 22 ( θ ,φ ) ¿
2

L+¿Y 1
(θ , φ )
Y 22 ( θ , φ )= 2

1
¿
A 2

1
From the equation 4.121 in the textbook, the normalization constant A2 is calculated as follows:

A2=ℏ √ 2 ( 2+1 )−1 ( 1+1 )


1

¿ ℏ √ 6−2
¿4 ℏ

Apply raising operator to equation Y 12 ( θ , φ )=−


√ 15

sin θ cos θ e iφ as follows:

L
+¿Y 2 ( θ , φ ) =ℏe
1 iφ
( ∂θ∂ +i cot θ ∂∂φ )(−√ 815π sin θ cosθ e ) ¿

¿−
√ 15

ℏ e iφ
∂ (
∂θ (
sinθ cos θ e iφ ) +icot θ
∂ (
∂φ
sin θ cos θ e iφ ) )
¿−
√ 15

ℏ e iφ eiφ

∂θ (
( sin θ cos θ eiφ ) +i cot θ sin θ cos θ ∂ ( eiφ )
∂φ )
¿−
√ 15

ℏ e iφ ( e iφ ( cos 2 θ−sin2 θ ) +i cotθ sinθ cos θ ( ie iφ ) )

L
+¿Y 12 ( θ , φ ) =−
√ 15

ℏ eiφ ( eiφ ( cos2θ −sin2 θ) +i 2 eiφ cos2 θ) ¿

¿−
√ 15

ℏ e iφ ( e iφ ( cos 2 θ−sin2 θ−cos 2 θ ) )

¿
√ 15

ℏ ( eiφ sin θ )
2
2
Calculate the spherical harmonic Y 2 ( θ , φ ) as follows:

L+¿Y 1
(θ , φ )
Y 22 ( θ , φ )= 2

1
¿
A 2

2
Y 2 ( θ , φ )=
15
8π √
ℏ ( eiφ sin θ )
4ℏ
2

¿

1 15 iφ
4 8π
( e sin θ )
2

Thus, the spherical harmonic Y 22 ( θ , φ ) is Y 22 ( θ , φ )=


1
4 √ 15 iφ

2
( e sin θ ) .

Problem 27
Solutions:

Problem 28
Solutions:
Assume that the electron is a classical solid sphere with its radius given as:
2
e
rc= 2
4 π ε 0 mc
Thus:
2
( 1.6 ∙10−19 C )
rc=
( ) ( )
2 2
C 8m
∙ m ( 9.1 ∙10 kg ) 3 ∙ 10
−12 2 −31
4 π 8.85 ∙10
N s
−15
¿ 2.81 ∙10 m
The relationship between the angular momentum of an electron, moment of inertia and angular
velocity is:
L=lω
The moment of inertia of solid sphere is:
2 2
I= m r
5
The relationship between angular velocity, linear velocity, and radius is:
v=rω
Thus:
L= ( 25 m r )( vr )
2

2
¿ mvr
5
The angular momentum is given by the equation:

L=
2
From the 2 equations of angular momentum:
ℏ 2
= mrv
2 5
Rearrange for v :

5ℏ
v=
4 mr
Thus:
−34
5 (1.055 ∙10 J ∙ s)
v=
4 ( 9.1∙ 10 kg ) ( 2.81 ∙10 m)
−31 −15

10
¿ 5.15 ∙10 m/s
This result is absurd because this value is 100 times greater than the speed of light.

Thus, this model will not work for the spin.

Problem 29
Solutions:

Problem 30
Solutions:

Problem 31
Solutions:
The most generalized spinor is:

χ= (ba)
Compute the value of ¿ s x > ¿:

¿ sx> ¿ χ sx χ
¿
¿ (a b )
¿ ℏ
2
σx()
a
b

¿
2 ( )( )
ℏ ¿ ¿ 0 1 a
(a b )
1 0 b

¿ (a b )( )
ℏ a¿ ¿
2 b
ℏ ¿
¿ ( a b+b ¿ a )
2
¿ ℏ ℜ ( a b ¿)
¿
Thus, the value of ¿ s x > ¿ is ℏ ℜ ( a b ) .

Compute the value of ¿ s y >¿ :



¿ s y >¿ χ s y χ

¿
¿ (a b )
¿ ℏ
2
σy()
a
b

¿
2 ( )( )
ℏ ¿ ¿ 0 −i a
(a b )
i 0 b

¿ (a b )(
ia )
ℏ −ib
¿ ¿
2

¿ (−a¿ b+iab ¿ )
2
¿−ℏ ℑ ( a b ¿ )
¿
Thus, the value of ¿ s y >¿ is −ℏ ℑ ( a b ).

The value of ¿ s z >¿ is:



¿ s z >¿ χ s z χ

¿
¿ (a b )
¿ ℏ
σ ()
a
2 z b

¿
2 ( )( )
ℏ ¿ ¿ 1 0 a
(a b )
0 −1 b

¿ (a b )( )
ℏ a
¿ ¿
2 −b
ℏ ¿
¿ ( a a−b¿ b )
2
ℏ ¿
¿ ( a a−b¿ b )
2
ℏ ¿
Thus, the value of ¿ s z >¿ is ( a a−b¿ b ).
2
Then:
ℏ 2 2
¿ s z >¿ <|a| −|b| >¿
2
Now:

2
sx= ( ) ( )
ℏ 0 1 ℏ 0 1
2 1 0 2 1 0

( )( )
2
ℏ 0 1 0 1
¿
4 1 0 1 0

( )
2
ℏ 1 0
¿
4 0 1
2
2 ℏ
sx=
4
Similarly:
2 2
s y =s z
2

¿
4
Now:
2 †
¿ sx> ¿ χ sx χ

Here, χ † χ =1, The above becomes as follows:

()
2
¿ ¿ ℏ a
¿ sx> ¿( a b )
2
4 b

()
2
ℏ ( ¿ ¿) a
¿ a b
4 b
2

¿
4
2
2 2 2 3ℏ
¿ s x >+ ¿ s y > +¿ s z >¿
4
From:
2 2
¿ s >¿ s( s+1) ℏ

¿
1 1
2 2 ( )
+ 1 ℏ2
3 2
¿ ℏ
4
Thus:
2 2 2 2
¿ s >¿< s x >+¿ s y >+¿ s z >¿

Problem 32
Solutions:
The eigenvalue equation for an operation A is given by the following expression:

| A−λI |=0
a)

The operator S y is given by following expression:

S y= (
ℏ 0 −i
2 i 0 )
The eigenvalue equation for the operator S y is given by the following expression:

|S y −λI|=0
Now determine the eigenvalues for the operator S y as follows:

| ( ) ( )|
ℏ 0 −i
2 i 0
−λ
1 0
0 1
=0

| |
−iℏ
−λ
2 =0
iℏ
−λ
2

λ 2−
iℏ −iℏ
2 2
=0( )
2 2
2 i ℏ
λ+ =0
4
2
2 (−1)ℏ
λ+ =0
4
2
2 ℏ
λ − =0
4
2
2 ℏ
λ=
4

λ=±
2

Thus, the eigenvalues of S y are ± .
2
The eigenvalue equation to find the eigenspinors is given as follows:

Sy ( αβ)=λ (αβ )
(2 i 0 )( β )=± ℏ2 ( αβ)
ℏ 0 −i α

(0i −i0 )( αβ)=± (αβ)


(iα−0
0−iβ
)=± ( αβ )
(−iβ
iα ) ( β )

α

From the above expression, −iβ =± α and iα=± β . Squaring on both sides of the equation −iβ =± α
:

(−i β )2= ( ± α )2
2 2 2
i β =± α
2 2
−β =± α
2 2
|β| =|α|
Applying the normalization condition ( χ † χ =1), we have the following relation:
2 2
|α| +|β| =1
Thus:
2 2
|α| +|α| =1
2
2 α =1
1
α=
√2
Hence:
1
−iβ=±
√2
2 i
−i β=±
√2
i
−(−1 ) β=±
√2
i
β=±
√2
The eigenspinors for S y are given as follows:

χ ( y)
+¿ = (αβ ) ¿
χ ( y)
−¿ = (−αβ) ¿
χ

()
1
+¿( y)= √2 ¿
i
√2

()
1
−¿( y)= √2 ¿
−i
√2

χ ( y)
+¿ =
1 1
√2 i ( )¿
χ ( y)
−¿ =
1
√ 2 −i ( 1 )¿
χ χ
Thus, the eigenspinors for S y are +¿ ( y)
=
1 1
( ) ¿, ( y)
−¿ =
1
( 1 ) ¿.
√2 i √ 2 −i

b)
The general state χ is given as follows:

χ= (ba)
Calculate the measured values for S y on a particle in the general state χ as follows:

The measured values for the eigen spinor χ +¿ ¿, on a particle in the general state χ is:
( y)

c +¿=¿ ¿
Thus:
¿¿
c
+¿= ( √12 ( 1 −i ))(ba)¿
1
¿ ( a −ib )
√2
The measured values for eigenspinor χ −¿ ¿ , on a particle in the general state χ is:
( y)

c−¿=¿¿
Thus:
¿¿
c
−¿= ( √12 (1 i ))(ba)¿
1
¿ ( a + ib )
√2
1 1
Thus, the measurd values for S y on a particle in the general state χ are ( a −ib ) and ( a + ib )
√2 √2
.

+ℏ −ℏ c c
Calculate the probability for each and by using +¿= 1 (a −ib ) ¿ and −¿=
1
( a +ib ) ¿ as follows:
2 2 √2 √2

p+¿=¿¿¿ ¿
2
1 (
¿∨ a −ib ) |
√2
1 2
¿ |a−ib|
2
+ℏ 1 2
Thus, the probability for is |a−ib| .
2 2
−ℏ
The probability for is given as follows:
2
p−¿=¿¿¿ ¿
2
1 (
¿∨ a +ib ) |
√2
1 2
¿ |a+ ib|
2
−ℏ 1 2
Thus, the probability for is |a+ ib| .
2 2
c)

Calculate the square of the operator S y as follows:

S y=
2
(
ℏ 0 −i ℏ 0 −i
2 i 0 2 i 0 ) ( )
( )( )
2
ℏ 0 −i 0 −i
¿
4 i 0 i 0

( )
2 2
ℏ −i 0
¿ 2
4 0 −i
( )
2
ℏ −(−1) 0
¿
4 0 −(−1)

( )
2
ℏ 1 0
¿
4 0 1
2
2 ℏ
Thus, the measured value for S y is .
4
2

Since there is only 1 measured value for S2y , the probability must be equal to 1.
4
Thus, the probability is 1.

Problem 33
Solutions:

Problem 34
Solutions:

Problem 35
Solutions:

Problem 36
Solutions:

Problem 37
Solutions:
b)

The value of s+¿∨0 0>¿¿ is:

s+¿∨0 0>¿¿ ¿

1
¿ ¿
√2
1
¿ ¿
√2
1
¿ [ 0+ℏ ↑↑−ℏ ↑↑−0 ]
√2
s 1
+¿∨0 0>¿ [0 ]¿
√2

¿0
The value of s−¿∨0 0>¿ ¿ is:

s−¿∨0 0>¿ ¿¿

1
¿ ¿
√2
1
¿ ¿
√2
1
¿ [ ℏ ↓ ↓+0+0−ℏ ↓↓ ]
√2
s 1
−¿∨0 0>¿ [0 ] ¿
√2

¿0
c)
Problem 38
Solutions:
a)
The quarks are in a zero orbital angular momentum state Baryons are composed of 3 quarks.
1
The spin of the quark ¿ .
2

The spin of the 2 quarks: ¿ ( ) (


1 1 1 1
+ to −
2 2 2 2 )
¿ 1 or 0 .
1 1 1 1
The spin of 3 quarks ¿ 1+ ∨¿ to ¿ 1− ∨¿ or ¿ 0+ ∨¿ to ¿ 0− ∨¿
2 2 2 2
3 1
¿ or .
2 2
3 1
Thus, the spin of 3 quarks together is or .
2 2
b)
Mesons consist of a quark-antiquark pair.
1 1 1 1
The spin of the quark and anti-quark together is ¿∨ + ∨¿ or ¿ − ∨¿
2 2 2 2
¿ 1 or 0 .
Thus, the possible value for mesons is 0 , 1.

Problem 39
Solutions:

Problem 40
Solutions:
The probabilities of the output are given by the Clebsch-Gordan coefficients, which are given by the
equation:
¿s ¿
The square of the coefficients C is the probability where ¿ s m>¿ is the composite state, and
¿ s1 m1 >¿ and ¿ s2 m2>¿ are the contributing states.
a)
When the particles of spin-2 and another of spin-1 are at rest, the total spin is given by:

s=|s 1 +s 2| ,|s 1+ s 2−1|, …∨s 1−s 2∨¿

It is given that, s=3 and m=1. So ¿ 3 1>¿ in the given state. Here m=m1 +m 2. So, the possible
combinations for m=m1 +m 2 are:

m=2−1=1
m=1+0=1
m=0+ 1=1
The possible combination with the m=m1 +m 2 condition is:

|3 1>¿ A|2 2>|1−1>+ B|2 1>|1 0>+C|2 0>¿ 11> ¿


From the 2 ×1 Clebsch-Gordan table:

A=
√ 1,
15
B=
8,
15√C=
6
15 √
Thus:

| √ | |
3 1>¿
1
15
2 2> 1−1>+
√| | √|
8
15
2 1> 1 0>+
6
15
2 0> ¿1 1>¿

1 1 6
The possible outcomes are (for the spin-2 particle) 2 ℏ, ℏ, 0 with probabilities , , and .
15 15 15
b)

The given state is ψ 510. So, l=1 and m l=0 . For an electron with spin down:

1 1
¿ s , m> ¿∨ ,− >¿
2 2
Now:

j=( l+ s ) ,… ( l−s )
For spin down electron:
1 1 3 1 1 1
¿ 1 0>¿ ,− > ¿ A∨ ,− >+ B∨ ,− >¿
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 2 1
Using the 1 × table, the probabilities are and .
2 3 3

1 1
2 2
2 3 1
3 2 2 √
1 1 1
¿ 1 0>¿ ,− > ¿ ∨ ,− >+ ∨ ,− > ¿
3 2 2 √
The output is ℏ2 ( l+ 1 ) l .

15 2 2
For ℏ , probability is .
4 3
3 2 1
For ℏ , probability is .
4 3

Problem 41
Solutions:

Problem 42
Solutions:

Problem 43
Solutions:

Problem 44
Solutions:

Problem 45
Solutions:
Problem 46
Solutions:
The Schrödinger equation for the given potential is:
2
−ℏ 2 1 2 2
∇ ψ + m ω r ψ=Eψ
2m 2
a)
In Cartesian coordinates:
2 2 2 2
r =x + y + z
And:
2 2 2
2 ∂ ∂ ∂
∇= 2
+ 2+ 2
∂ x ∂ y ∂z
So, equation 1 becomes:

( )
2 2 2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ ∂ ψ ∂ ψ 1 2 2 2 2
2
+ 2 + 2 + m ω (x + y + z )ψ =Eψ
2m ∂x ∂ y ∂ z 2

Let ψ ( x , y , z ) =X ( x ) Y ( y ) Z (z) . Then the above equation becomes:

( )
2 2 2
−ℏ2 d ( XYZ) d ( XYZ ) d ( XYZ) 1
2
+ 2
+ 2
+ m ω2 (x 2 + y 2 + z 2)ψ=E
2m dx dy dz 2

( )
2 2 2 2
−ℏ d X d Y d Z 1 2 2 2 2
YZ 2
+ XZ 2
+ XY 2
+ m ω (x + y + z )ψ=E
2m dx dy dz 2

Dividing both sides of the equation by XYZ , we get:

( )( )( )
2 2 2 2 2 2
−ℏ 1 d X 1 2 2 −ℏ 1 d Y 1 2 2 −ℏ 1 d Z 1 2 2
2
+ mω x + 2
+ mω y + 2
+ m ω z =E
2m X d x 2 2m Y d y 2 2m Z d z 2

The first term in brackets is the function of only x , the second term is a function of only y , and the
third is a function of only z .

So, each term should be equal to some constant:


2 2
−ℏ 1 d X 1 2 2
2
+ mω x =E x
2m X d x 2
2 2
−ℏ 1 d Y 1 2 2
+ m ω y =E y
2 m Y d y2 2
2 2
−ℏ 1 d Z 1 2 2
+ mω z =E z
2 m Z d z2 2

Such that E=E x + E y + Ez .


Hence:
2 2
−ℏ d X 1 2 2
2
+ m ω x X =E x X
2m d x 2
2 2
−ℏ d Y 1 2 2
2
+ m ω y Y =E y Y
2m d y 2
2 2
−ℏ d Z 1 2 2
+ m ω z Z=E z Z
2 m d z2 2
These equations are simple differential equations for a 1D harmonic oscillator.
From the knowledge of a 1D harmonic oscillator, the energy eigenvalues are given by:

E x= n x+ ( 1
2 ) and n x =0 , 1 ,2 , 3 , …

Similarly, for y and z equations:

( 12 ) and n =0 , 1, 2 , 3 , …
E y= n y + y

E =(n + ) and n =0 ,1 , 2 ,3 , …
1
z z z
2

As E=E x + E y + Ez :

(
E= nx +n y + nz +
3
2 )
ℏω

For n=n x + n y +n z:

E= n+ ( 32 )ℏω
Thus, the allowed energy levels are n+ ( 32 )ℏω.
b)

The degeneracy of En is d (n) . That is, the number of ways in which n x, n y, n z can be added to give n
. The energy spectrum En has significant degeneracy because there are multiple combinations of n x,
n y, and n z add to the same n . Each combination has n+1 original pairs.

Consider 2 numbers n x and n y that add to n say:

n=n x + n y

Now add third number to n then:

n=n x + n y +n z
For 3 numbers, the degeneracy is written as follows:
n +1
d ( n )=∑ i
i=1

Each combination has n+1 terms then it also contains n terms, so:
n +1

∑ i+( n+ 1−i )=n ( n+1 )


i=1

n +1
n ( n+1 )
∑ i= 2
i=1

In our problem there are (n+1) terms, the degeneracy is written as:

( n+1 )( n+ 2 )
d ( n )=
2
( n+1 ) ( n+2 )
Thus, the degeneracy is .
2

Problem 47
Solutions:

Problem 48
Solutions:
a)
We have to prove that 2<T >¿<r ∙ ∇ V >¿

Consider:

d ^ i ^
< Q >¿ < [ ^ ^ ] >+ ¿ ∂ Q > ¿
H ,Q
dt ℏ ∂t
^ here, we take r ∙ p :
In place of Q

d i ^ ∂ ( r ∙ p)
<r ∙ p >¿ < [ H , r ∙ p ] >+¿ >¿
dt ℏ ∂t
The second term of the right-hand side of the above equation is:

∂ (r ∙ p)
¿ >¿0
∂t
Thus:
d i ^
<r ∙ p >¿ < [ H , r ∙ p ] >¿
dt ℏ
Let us evaluate:
3
H , r ∙ p ] =∑ [ H
[^ ^ ,r ∙ p]
i=1

3
¿ ∑ { [ H , r i ] p i+ r i [ H , pi ] }
i=1

{[ ] [ ]}
3 2 2
p p
¿∑ +V ,r i pi +r i +V , p i
i=1 2m 2m

∑ {[ ] [ ] }
3 2 2
p p
¿ +r i p i+ [ V ,r i ] pi +r i + p +r [V , pi ]
i=1 2m 2m i i

The second and third terms in the above equation vanish:

{21m [ p , r ] p + r [ V , p ] }
3
¿∑ 2
i i i i
i=1

Consider:
3
[ p2 , r i ]=∑ [ p j p j r i ]
i=1

3
¿ ∑ { p j [ p j , r j ] +[ p j , ri ] p j }
i=1

3
¿ ∑ { p j [ −iℏδ ij ] + [ −iℏ δ ij ] p j }
i=1

¿−2iℏ p i
And:

[V , p j] f = V [ (−i ℏ ∂r∂ )−( iℏ ∂∂r )V ] f


i i

[(
¿ V −iℏ

∂ ri )(
− iℏ

∂ ri
(Vf )
) ]
[
¿ −V ∙ iℏ
∂f
∂ ri
+f i ℏ
∂V
(
∂ ri
+V ∙ iℏ
)
∂f
∂ ri ]
∂V
¿ fiℏ
∂ ri
Hence:

[ )]
3
H , r ∙ p ] =∑
[^
i=1
1
2m
(−2 iℏ pi ) pi +r i iℏ
∂V
∂ ri (
( )
2
[^ −p
H , r ∙ p ] =i ℏ +r∙∇V
m

{( )}
2
d i −p
<r ∙ p >¿ < iℏ +r ∙ ∇ V > ¿
dt ℏ m
2
p
¿< −r ∙ ∇ V >¿
m
¿ 2<T >−¿ r ∙ ∇ V >¿
For stationary states:
d
<r ∙ ∇ V >¿ 0
dt
Thus:
2<T >−¿ r ∙ ∇ V >¿ 0
2<T >¿<r ∙ ∇ V >¿
b)
The potential function of the hydrogen atom is:
2
−e 1
V ( r )=
4 π ϵ0 r
2
e 1^
∇V = r
4 π ϵ 0 r2
2
e 1
¿r ∙∇V=
4 π ϵ0 r
r ∙ ∇ V =−V
From the viral theorem, we have:
2<T >¿ r ∙ ∇ V
2<T >¿−¿V > ¿
However:
¿ T > +¿ V >¿ En

¿ T >−2<T > ¿ En
Or:
¿ T > ¿−E n

¿ V >¿−2<T > ¿
¿ 2 En
c)
The potential function of the 3D harmonic oscillator is:
1 2 2
V = mω r
2
1 2
∇ V = m ω ( 2r ) r^
2
2 2
r ∙ ∇ V =mω r
¿2V
Applying the viral theorem, we get:
2<T >¿ r ∙ ∇ V
2<T >¿ 2<V >¿
Thus:
¿ T > ¿<V >¿
However, we know that:
¿ T > +¿ V >¿ En

¿ T > +¿ T >¿ E n

2<T >¿ En

En
¿T>¿
2
Thus:
1
¿ T > ¿<V >¿ En
2

Problem 49
Solutions:
a)
We are given the probability current:
iℏ
J= ( ψ ∇ ψ ¿ −ψ ¿ ∇ ψ )
2m
We need to show that J satisfies the continuity equation:

iℏ
∇ ∙ J=
2m
[ ∇ ψ ∙ ∇ ψ + ψ ( ∇ ψ ) −∇ ψ ∙ ∇ ψ−ψ ( ∇ ψ ) ]
¿ 2 ¿ ¿ ¿ 2
iℏ
¿
2m
[ ψ ( ∇ ψ )−ψ ( ∇ ψ ) ]
2 ¿ ¿ 2

From the Schrödinger equation, we have:


Type equation here .

Problem 50
Solutions:
a)
The generalized momentum space wave function is given:
1 3
φ ( p) = 3
∫ ⅇ− ⅈ( p ⋅r ) ψ ( r ) ⅆ r
(2 π ) 2

The ground state-wave function of a hydrogen atom in coordinate space is given by:
−r
1
ψ ( r )= ⅇa
√π a 3

In momentum space, we have:


−r
1 1
φ ( p) = ∫ ⅇ− ⅈ( p ⋅r ) ⅇ a ⅆ3 r
(2 π )
3
2 √π a 3

−r
1
¿ 3
∫ ⅇ−ⅈ ( p ⋅ r ) ⅇ a r 2 sin θ dθ dφ dr
(2 π ) 2
√ π a3
Since the integral of d φ is 2 π hence:
∞ π −r

φ ( p) = 3 ∫∫ ⅇ −ipr cosθ a 2
e r dr sin θ dθ
(2 π ) 2
√ π a3 0 0

[ ]
∞ −r π

φ ( p) = 3 ∫ e r a 2
∫ ⅇ−iprcos θ sin θ dθ dr
(2 π ) 2
√π a 3 0 0

π
The integration ∫ ⅇ
−ipr cos θ
sin θ dθ can be calculated by substituting t=−ipr cos θand
0
Type equation here .

Problem 51
Solutions:

Problem 52
Solutions:
The general form of the hydrogen wavefunction is as follows:
m
ψ nlm ( r , θ , φ ) =R nl γ l ( θ , φ )
m
Here, γ l is the spherical harmonic wavefunction and Rnl is the radial function.

The radial wavefunction is written as follows:


−r

Rnl = A
( )
2 r l n a 2 l+1 2 r
n a0
e Ln−l−1 0

n a0 ( )
a)
The radial wavefunction is rewritten as follows:
m
ψ nlm =Rnl ( r ) γ l ( θ , φ )
1
ψ 321 =R32 ( r ) γ 2 ( θ ,φ )
Thus:
1
ψ 321 =R32 ( r ) γ 2 ( θ ,φ )
Now:
1 l +1 − ρ
Rnl ( r )= ρ e v ( ρ )
r
1 2+1 − ρ
R32 ( r )= ρ e v ( ρ )
r
1 3 −3
¿ ρ e v(ρ)
r
Thus:
1 3 −3
R32 ( r )= ρ e v ( ρ )
r
Here:
r
ρ=
an
r
¿
3a
Now, series expansion of v ( ρ ) is as follows:
2 ( j+l+1−n )
C j+ 1= C
( j+ 1 )( j+ 2l+2 ) j
Thus:

v ( ρ ) =C0 +C 1 ρ +C 2 ρ 2

And the highest coefficient of C j is j max =n−l−1.

Thus:
j max =3−2−1

¿0
Thus:

v ( ρ ) =C0

r
Now, in equation 2 substitute C 0 for v (ρ) and for ρ :
3a

( )
3
1 r −3
R32 ( r )= e C0
r 3a
−r
C0 2 3a
¿ 3
r e
(3 a)

Now, determine value of C 0 using the identity ∫|u ( r )| dr=1. Here:
2

u ( r )=rR(r )
Thus:
2 ∞ −r

( )∫ C
( 3 a )3 0
2
r e dr=1 3a

( ) C0
( ) Γ 7
=1
( )
3 7
27 a 2
3a

( )
2 7
C06 ! (3 a )
6 7
=1
729 a 2
Solving further:
4
¿
3 √ 30 a
?
Thus:
−r
4
R32= 3
r2 e 3 a
3 √ 30 a ( 3 a )
¿
…………..
b)
−r
−1 1
Now, check the normalization of the wavefunction ψ 321 = r r e e iφ sinθ cos θ as follows:
2 2 3a

√π 7
2
81 a

∫|ψ|2 d 3 r=1
Thus:

( )
−2 r
1
2 7∫
¿ r4 e 3a
sin2 θ cos 2 θ r 2 sin θ dr dθ dφ
π ( 81 ) a
∞ −2r π
1
2 π ∫ r e 3 a dr ∫ ( 1−cos θ ) cos θ sin θ dθ
6 2 2
¿ 2 7
π ( 81 ) a 0 0

1 ❑
¿
π ( 81 ) a ❑
2 7

Problem 53
Solutions:
a)
From Tables 4.3 and 4.7 :

() ( √ )
−r
3 1 1 r 3 4a 35
ψ 433 =R 43 Y = e − sin3 θ e 3iφ
768 √ 35 2 a
3 3
64 π
a
−r
1
¿− 9
r 3 e 4 a sin 3 θ e 3 iφ
6144 √ π a 2
b)
The expectation value of r is given by:

¿ r >¿ ∫ r |ψ| d 3 r
2

Expressing it in spherical coordinates:


1
9∫
r (r e sin θ ) r sin θ dr dθ dφ
6 −r /2 a 6 2
¿ 2
( 6144 ) π a
∞ π 2π
1
9∫
dr ∫ r sin θ dθ ∫ dφ
9 −r /2 a 6
¿ 2
r e
( 6144 ) π a 0 0 0

∞ π 2π
1
9∫
dr ∫ sin θ dθ ∫ dφ
9 −r /2 a 7
¿ 2
r e
( 6144 ) π a 0 0 0

∫ r 9 e−r / 2 a dr=¿ ¿
0

We can use the fact that the integral:


∫ x n e−ax = ann+1!
0

Thus:

9!
∫ r 9 e−r / 2 a dr=¿ ( 10
¿
0 2 a)
And:
π

∫ sin 7 θ dθ=¿ ¿
0

¿
And:

∫ dφ=2 π
0

Thus:

¿
1
2
( 6144 ) π a9
[ 9 ! ( 2 a )10 ] 2 2∙
3 (
4 ∙6
∙5 ∙7 )
(2 π )

¿ 18 a
c)
Using Eq. 4.133 :
2 2 2 2
L x + L y =L −Lz
2 2
¿ l (l+1 ) ℏ − ( 3ℏ )
Where l=3 and m=3 :

¿ 3 ( 3+1 ) ℏ2−9 ℏ 2
2 2
¿ 12 ℏ −9 ℏ
2
¿3ℏ
With probability 1.

Problem 54
Solutions:
a)

P=∫|ψ| d3 r
2

The ground state of hydrogen atom is given by:


1 −r / a
ψ 100 ( r , θ , φ )= e
√πa 3

2a π b
1
3 ∫∫∫
−2 r /a 2
¿ e r sinθ dr dθ dφ
πa 0 0 0
b

3∫
−2 r /a 2
¿ e r dr
πa 0

[ )]
−2 r −2 r
a3
(
b
A −a 2 −2 r
¿ r e a
+ e a
−1
a a r a
3
0

b −2 r

3∫
a 2
¿ e r dr
πa 0
4
¿ 3
[]
a

Problem 55
Solutions
Given radial wave function:
n−1 −r / na
Rn (n−1 )=N n r e
However:
1 n −p
Rn (n−1 )= p e v ( ρ )( Eq. 4.75i Griffiths)
r
Where:
r
ρ=
na
2(n−n)
c 1= c =0 ( Eq . 4.76 i Griffiths )
(1 )( 2 n ) 0
So:

v ( ρ ) =c 0
Hence:
n−1 −r / na
Rn (n−1 )=N n r e
Where:
c0
N n=
( na )n
Thus:

1=∫|R| r dr
2 2


¿ ( Nn)
2
∫ r 2 n e−2r / na dr
0


The integral ∫ u e
2n −u
du is known as Gamma function, denoted Γ ( 2 n+1 ), and its value is 2 n !.
0
Thus:

( )
2 n +1
2 na
¿ ( N n) ( 2 n) !
2

( ) √ na( 22 n ) !
n
2
N n=
na
b)
s

Problem 56
Solutions:
Problem 57
Solutions:

Problem 58
Solutions:

Problem 59
Solutions:

Problem 60
Solutions:

Problem 61
Solutions:

Problem 62
Solutions:

Problem 63
Solutions:

Problem 64
Solutions:

Problem 65
Solutions:

Problem 66
Solutions:

Problem 67
Solutions:

Problem 68
Solutions:

Problem 69
Solutions:

Problem 70
Solutions:

Problem 71
Solutions:

Problem 72
Solutions:

Problem 73
Solutions:

Problem 74
Solutions:

Problem 75
Solutions:

Problem 76
Solutions:

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