All India Test Series - 13.03.

2023

(Take n i  1.5  1016 m 3 )

SECTION - A (1) 4.5  109 m 3 (2) 4.5 1015 m3

1. Semiconductor devices
(1) are small in size (3) 2.5  109 m 3 (4) 2.5  106 m 3
(2) consume low power
(3) operate at low voltage 7. Of the diodes shown in the following figures,
(4) all of these which one is reverse biased ?
2. At absolute zero, Si acts as a
(1) metal (2) semiconductor
(3) insulator (4) none of these (1) (2)
3. If the energy of a photon of sodium light
(  589nm ) equals the band gap of
semiconductor, the minimum energy required
to create electron hole pair
(1) 1.1 eV (2) 2.1 eV
(3) 3.2 eV (4) 1.5 eV
4. An intrinsic semiconductor has a resistivity of (3) (4)
0.50 m at room temperature. F ind the
intrinsic carrier concentration if the mobilities
of electron and holes are 0.39 m2V–1 s–1 and 0.11
8. The breakdown in a reverse biased p – n junction
m2 V–1 s–1 respectively.
diode is more likely to occur due to
(1) 1.2  1018 m 3 (2) 2.5  1019 m 3 (1) large velocity of the minority charge
carriers if the doping concentration is small
(3) 1.9  1020 m 3 (4) 3.1  1021 m 3 (2) large velocity of the minority charge carries
if the doping concentration is large
5. If a small amount of antimony is added to
germanium crystal (3) strong electric field in a depletion region
if the doping concentration is small
(1) its resistance is increased
(4) none of these
(2) it becomes a p – type semiconductor
9. When the voltage drop across a p – n junction
(3) there will be more free electrons than holes
diode is increased from 0.65 V to 0.70 V, the
in the semiconductor
change in the diode current is 5 mA. The
(4) none of these dynamic resistance of the diode is
6. A pure Si Cystal has 5 ×1022 atoms m–3. It is (1) 5  (2) 10 
dope by 1 ppm concentration of pentavalent
impurity. The number of holes is (n i2  nh n e ) (3) 20  (4) 25 

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
10. Assertion : When two semiconductors of p and wave. The epicentre of the earthquake is
n type are brought in contact, they form p – n located at a distance (in km) of about
junction which act like a rectifier. (1) 192 (2) 384
Reason : A rectifier is used to conv ert (3) 1920 (4) 3840
alternating current into direct current.
14. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and des cribed by
reason is the correct explanation of assertion  
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but y(x , t )  3sin  36t  0.018x   where x and y
 4
reason is not the correct explanation of are in cm and t is in s. Which of the following
assertion statements is incorrect ?
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (1) The wave is travelling in negative x –
(4) If both assertion and reason are false direction
11. In the given circuit, current through the (2) The amplitude of the wave is 3 cm
battery is _____ A. (3) The speed of the wave is 20 m s–1

9
(4) The frequecy of the wave is Hz

15. The transverse displacement of a str ing
clam ped at its both ends is given
 2 
by y(x , t )  0.06 sin  x  cos(120t ) where x and
 3 
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.8 y are in m and t in s. The length of the string
(3) 2.5 (4) 3.5 is 1.5 m and its mass is 3 ×10–2 kg. The tension
12. The equation of a progressive wave is given by in the string is
y  5 sin(100t  0.4x ) where y and x are in m (1) 324 N (2) 648 N
and t is in s. (3) 832 N (4) 972 N
(1) The amplitude of the wave is 5 m 16. According to Newton’s formula, the speed of
sound in air at STP (in m/s) is (Take the mass
(2) The wavelength of the wave is 5 m
1 mole of air is 29  10 3 kg )
(3) The frequency of the wave is 50 Hz.
(4) The velocity of the wave is 250 m s–1. (1) 250 (2) 260
Which of the following statements are correct (3) 270 (4) 280
(1) (1), (2) and (3) (2) (2) and (3) 17. Out of the following gases under similar
(3) (1) and (4) (4) All are correct condition of temperature and pressure, the
velocity of sound will be maximum in
13. An earthquake generates both transverse (S)
and longitudinal (P) sound wave in the earth. (1) hydrogen (2) nitrogen
The speed of S waves is about 4 km s–1 and that (3) oxygen (4) chlorine
of P waves is about 8 km s–1. A seismograph
records P and S waves from an earthquake. The
first P wave arrives 4 min before the first S
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
18. The stationary wave y  2a sin kx cos t in a 23. Assertion : Sound wave is an example of
longitudinal wave.
stretched string is the result of superposition
Reason : In longitudinal waves, the constituents
of y1  a sin(kx  t )
of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the
(1) y 2  a cos(kx  t ) (2) y2  a sin(kx  t ) direction of wave propagation.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(3) y 2  a cos(kx  t ) (4) y2  a sin(kx  t )
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
19. A man standing unsymmetrically between two (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
parallel hills, claps his hand and hears reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
successive echoes at regular intervals of 1s. If
velocity of sound in 340 m s–1, then the distance (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
between the hills (in m) is (Assume that he (4) If both assertion and reason are false
hears the first echo after 1 s)
24. Assertion : On reflection from a rigid boundary
(1) 100 (2) 170 there takes place a complete reversal of phase.
(3) 510 (4) 340 Reason : On reflection from a denser medium,
20. A string fixed at its both ends vibrates in 5 loops both the particle velocity and wave velocity are
as shown in the figure. reversed in sign.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
The total number of nodes and antinodes reason is not the correct explanation of
are respectively assertion
(1) 5, 6 (2) 6, 5 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(3) 7, 4 (4) 4, 7 (4) If both assertion and reason are false
21. A pipe 17 cm long is closed at one end. Which 25. A uniform rope of length 10 m and mass 6 kg
harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a 1.5 kHz hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block
source ? (Speed of sound in air =340 ms s–1 ) of mass 2 kg is attached at the lower end. A
(1) First (2) Third transverse wave of wavelength 2 cm is created
(3) Fifth (4) Seventh at the lower end A of the rope . What is the
wavelenght at the end B when the wave reaches
22. Two sitar strings A and B are slightly out of tune
the top ?
and produce beats of frequency 5 Hz. When the
tension in the string B is slightly inceased, the
beat frequence is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the
frequency of string A is 427 Hz, the original
frequency of string B is
(1) 422 Hz (2) 424 Hz
(3) 430 Hz (4) 432 Hz
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 6 cm (4) 10 cm

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
26. What is the appraximate ratio of volume of a 32. All the nucleons in an atom are held by
nucleus to the volume of an atom : (1) nuclear forces
(1) 1034 (2) 1020 (2) Van der Waal’s forces
(3) tensor forces
(3) 1015 (4) 1010
(4) Coulomb forces
27. An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into 33. Light energy emitted by star is due to
two nuclei which move away with velocities in (1) breaking of nuclei
the ratio of 8 : 27. The ratio of the radii of the
(2) joining of nuclei
nuclei (assumed to be spherical) is
(3) burning of nuclei
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(4) reflection of solar light
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 8 : 27 34. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is
28. For a light nuclei, which of the following relation 0.3 %, then energy released in fusion of 1 kg
between the atomic number (Z) and mass mass is
number (A) is valid (1) 27  1010 J (2) 27  1011 J
Z (3) 27  1012 J (4) 27  1013 J
(1) A  (2) Z = A
2 35. Assertion : Nuclear force between neutron –
neutron, proton – neutron and proton –proton
A is approximately the same.
(3) Z  (4) Z  A 2
2 Reason : The nuclear force does not depend on
29. Two nuclei have their mass number in the ratio the electric charge
of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
would be reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(1) (3)1/3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 assertion
30. If the nucleus of 27
Al has a nuclear radius of (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
13

125
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
about 3.6 fm, then 52 Te would have its radius
approximaly as
(1) 9.6 fm (2) 12 fm 36. The probability of electrons to be found in the
(3) 4.8 fm (4) 6 fm conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor
31. The nuclear force at a finite temperature
(1) is purely an electrostatic force (1) increases with increasing band gap
(2) obeys inverse square law of distance (2) decreases with increasing band gap
(3) is equal in strength to gravitational field (3) decreases with increasing temperature
(4) is short – range force (4) is independent of the temperaure & band gap

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
37. I n pure semiconductor, the number of
conduction electrons is 6  1018 per cubic metre.
How many holes are there in a sample of size
1 cm × 1 cm × 1 mm ?

(1) 3  1010 (2) 6  1011

(3) 3  1011 (4) 6  1010

38. A block of pure silicon at 300 K has a length (1) x (t )  r cos(t )
of 10 cm and an area of 1.0 cm 2. A battery of
emf 2 V is connected across it. The mobility of  
electrons is 0.14 m2 V–1 s–1 and their number (2) x (t )  r cos  t  
 6 
density is 1.5  1016 m 3 . The electron current is
  
(1) 6.72  104 A (2) 6.72  105 A (3) x (t )  r cos  t   
 6 

(3) 6.72  106 A (4) 6.72  107 A  

(4) x (t )  r sin  t  
 6 
39. The variation of kinetic energy (KE) of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion with the 41. The equation of a particle executing simple
displacement (x) starting from mean position  1
to extreme position (A) is given by : harmonic motion is given by x  sin   t   m .
 3
At t = 1s, the speed of particle will be (Given
:   3.14 )

(1) (2) (1) 0cm s 1 (2) 157 cm s 1

(3) 272cm s 1 (4) 314cm s 1

42. A t ransverse wave is represented by

y  2sin(t  kx )cm . The value of wavelength
(3) (4) (in cm) for which the wave velocity becomes
equal to the maximum particle velocity will be
(1) 4 (2) 2
40. For particle P revolving round the centre O with
radius of circular path r and angular velocity (3)  (4) 2
 as shown in below figure, the projection of OP 43. A st eel wi re wit h mass per unit length
on the x – axis at time t is
7.0  10 3 kg m 1 is under tension of 70 N. The
speed of transverse waves in the wire will be
(1) 10 m/s (2) 100m/s

(3) 200  m / s (4) 50 m/s

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
44. A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces 47. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus
resonance in a resonance column tube with are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015 u.
upper end open and lower end closed by water The binding energy of helium nucleus is
surface. Successive resonance are obeserved
(1) 14.2 MeV (2) 7.1 MeV
at length 9.75 cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The
speed of sound in air is (3) 56.8 MeV (4) 28.4 MeV
(1) 500 m s–1 (2) 156 m s–1 48. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X
(3) 344 m s–1 (4) 172 m s–1 is 11
22
Na  X  e   
45. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centre (1) 22
(2) 23
11 Na 10 Ne
are initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each
other as shown in the figure. The speed of each 22 22
(3) Ne (4) Mg
pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 second, the total energy 10 12

of the pulses will be 49. Given figure shows a plot of binding energy per
nucleon Eb against the nuclear mass M. A, B,
C, D, E, F, correspond to different nuclei.
Consider four reactions

(1) zero (2) purely kinetic

(3) purely potential
(4) partly kinetic and partly potential
46. If figure (A), mass ‘2m’ is fixed on mass ‘m’
which is attached to two spring of spring (i) A  B  C   (ii) C  A  B  
constant k. In figure (B), mass ‘m’ is attached
to two spring of spring constant ‘k’ and ‘2k’. If (iii) D  E  F   (iv) F  D  E  
mass ‘m’ in (A) and (B) are displaced by distance
‘x’ horozontally and then released, then time where  is the energy released. In which
period T1 and T2 corresponding to (A) and (B) reactions is  positive ?
respectively follow the relation (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iv)
(A) (B) 50. A pendulum of time period 2 s on earth is taken
to another planet whose mass and diameter are
twice that of earth. Then its period on the plante
T1 3 T1 3 is (in second)
(1) T  (2) 
2 2 T2 2
1
(1) (2) 2 2
T1 2 T1 2 2
(3)  (4) 
T2 3 T2 3
1
(3) (4) 2
2
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
56. Consider the equilibrium reactions,

K1
H 3 PO 4    
 H  H 2 PO 4
SECTION - A
51. I n which of the following reactions, the 
K2
H 2PO 4    2
 H  HPO 4
equilibrium remains unaffected on addition of

K3
HPO 42    3
 H  PO4
small amount of argon at constant volume

(1) H 2 (g )  I 2 (g )  The equilibrium constant K for the following
 2HI (g )

dissociation is H 3PO4  3
 3H  PO4 is :

(2) PCl5 (g )  PCl 3 (g )  Cl2 (g )

(3) N 2 (g )  3H 2 (g )  2NH 3 (g ) (1) K 1 / K 2 K 3 (2) K 1K 2 K 3

(4) the equilibrium will remain unaffected in (3) K 2 / K1K 2 (4) K 1  K 2  K 3

all the three cases.
57. 
For the reaction 2A(g )  B (g )  3C (g ) , at a
52. 
The Kc for the reaction PCl5  PCl3  Cl2 is
0.04. at a given time 0.1 mole PCl5, 0.3 mole given temperature, K c  16 . What must be the
each of PCl3 and Cl2 are present then predict volume of the flask. If a mixture of 2 mole each
direction of reaction of A, B and C exist in equilibrium
(1) forward (2) backward
1 1
(3) at equilibrium (4) None of these (1) (2)
4 2
53. The vapour density of N 2 O 4 at a certain (3) 1 (4) None of these
temperature is 30.Calculate the percentage
dissociation of N2O4 at this temperature 58. 
For reaction ; A(g )  B (g )  AB (g ) , we start
(1) 25% (2) 50.5 % with 2 mole of A and B each. At equilibrium 0.8
moles of AB is formed. Then how much of A
(3) 53.3 % (4) 62%
change to AB :
54. 
For the equilibrium H 2O (l )  H 2O (g ) is (1) 20% (2) 40%
attained in a closed container at 40°C. The (3) 60% (4) 4%
vapour pressure of water is 23 mm.What is Kp
for reaction 59. In the formation of nitric acid, N2 and O2 are
made to combine. Thus N 2  O2 
 2NO  x KJ .
(1) 46 mm (2) 23 mm
Which of the following condition will favour the
(3) 15 mm (4) data insufficient formation of NO

 (1) High temperature (2) Low temperature

55. For the reaction ; PCl3 (g )  Cl 2 (g )  PCl5 (g ) ,
the value of Kc at 250°C is 26 M. The value (3) Freezing point (4) All are favourable
of Kp at this temperature will be 60. Assertion : For a reaction at equilibrium, the
(1) 0.61 atm–1 (2) 0.57 atm–1 Gibb’s free energy of reaction is minimum at
constant temperature and pressure.
(3) 0.46 atm–1 (4) 0.83 atm–1

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
Reason : The Gibb’s free energy of both reactants 66. In the following redox equation :
and products increase and become equal at
equilibrium. x UO 2  Cr2O 72  yH   aUO 22  zCr 3   6H 2O
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the the value of coefficients x, y and z respectively
correct explanation of (A) are
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not (1) 3, 8, 2 (2) 3, 8, 7
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) 3, 2, 4 (4) 3, 1, 8
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
67. The oxidation number of Fe in K 4 [Fe (CN )6 ] and
(4) (A) and (R) both are wrong
K 3 [Fe (CN )6 ] is respectively
61. Which substance is serving as a reducing agent
in the following reaction (1) +2 in both (2) + 3 both
 2 3 2
14H  Cr2O 7  3Ni  2Cr  7H 2O  3Ni (3) + 2 and + 3 (4) + 3 and + 2
(1) H2O (2) N i 68. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in the neutral
medium and gets reduced to MnO 2 . The
(3) H+ (4) Cr2O 72 equivalent weight of KMnO4 in neutral medium
62. In the following reaction; (1) mol. wt/2 (2) mol.wt/3
3Br2  6CO 32  3H 2O  5Br   BrO 3  6HCO 3 (3) mol. wt/4 (4) mol.wt/7
(1) Bromine is oxidised, carbonate is reduced 69. A carbohydrate which cannot be hydrolysed to
(2) Bromine is reduced, carbonate is oxidised simpler compounds is called
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised (1) monosaccharide (2) Disaccharide
(4) Bromine is reduced as well as oxidised
(3) Polysaccharide (4) Oligosaccharide
63. In which of the following compounds transition
metal has zero oxidation state 70. The number of chiral centres present in D –
(+) – glucopyranose is
(1) CrO3 (2) Fe2O4
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) FeSO4 (4) Fe(CO)5
(3) 3 (4) 4
64. A, B and C are three element forming a part
71. In aqueous solution, amino acids mostly exist
of compound in oxidation states of +2, + 5 and
as
– 2 respctively. What could be the compound
(1) NH 2  CHR  COOH
(1) A2(BC)2 (2) A2(BC4)3
(3) A3(BC4)2 (4) ABC (2) NH 2  CHR  COO 
65. On reduction of KMnO4 by oxallic acid in acidic 
(3) H 3 N  CHR  COOH
medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes.
What is the magnitude of this change 
(4) H 3 N  CHR  COO 
(1) from 7 to 2 (2) from 6 to 2
(3) from 5 to 2 (4) from 7 to 4

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
72. The bond that determines the secondary 77. An amine (X) reacts with benzenesulphonyl
structure of a protein is chloride and the product thus obtained is soluble
(1) Co – ordinate bond (2) Covalent bond in KOH. The amine (X) is
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) Ionic bond (1) 1°Amine (2) 2°Amine
73. The  – amino acid that possesses a primary (3) 3°Amine (4) Any of the three
alcohol group (– CH2OH) is 78. I n t he fol lowing react ion sequence the
(1) Threonine (2) Serine compound (y) is :
(3) Cysteine (4) Tyrosine
74. Which of t he fol lowing can e xhibit the
phenomenon of mutarotation
(1) (+)Lactose (2) (+) Maltose 
Excess Br2
H 2O
 x 
(i )NaNO 2 /HCl
(ii )H 3 PO2
y
(3) (–) Fructose (4) All of these


75. 
(CH 3CO )2 O
 x 
Br2 /CCl 4

 y 
H 2O /H
z
(1) (2)
Identify ‘Z’
(1) p – Bromo aniline
(2) p – Bromo acetophenone
(3) p – Bromo acetanilide
(4) O – Bromo acetophenone (3) (4)
76. p – Aminophenol reacts with one equivalent of
acetyl chloride in the presence of pyridine to
79. The major product of the reaction between m
give mainly
– dinitrobenzene with NH4SH is

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4) 80. The order of basic strength among the following
amines in benzene solution is

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
(1) CH 3NH 2  (CH 3 )3 N  (CH 3 )2 NH 85. Assertion : Alkyl isocyanides in acidified water
give alkyl formamides.
(2) (CH 3 )3 N  (CH 3 )2 NH  CH 3 NH 2 Reason : In isocyanides, carbon first acts as a
nucleophile and then act as an electrophile.
(3) CH 3NH 2  (CH 3 )2 NH  (CH 3 )3 N (1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) (CH 3 )3 N  CH 3NH 2  (CH 3 )2 NH
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
81. Order of rate of electrophilic substitution the correct explanation of (A)
reaction is (3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) and (R) both are wrong
(P) (Q)

86. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then treated

(R) (S) with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product.
Its structure would be

(1) Q > P > S > R (2) Q > P > R > S (1)

(3) P > Q > S > R (4) P > Q > R > S

(2)
82. Benzene on reaction with conc. HNO 3 in
presence of Conc. H 2 SO 4 followed by the
treatment of Cl2 in presence of FeCl3, it gives (3)

(1) 2 – chloro – 1 – nitrobenzene (4)

(2) 1 – chloro – 3 – nitrobenzene
87. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium
(3) 4 – chloro – 1 – nitrobenzene generates
(4) None of these (1) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid
(2) propanoic acid and ammonium salt
83. phenol 
Zinc
distillation
 A 
conc .HNO 3
conc .H 2SO 4
 B 
Zn
NaOH
C
(3) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
final compound (C) is (4) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
(1) Aniline (2) m – nitroaniline
88. CH 3CH 2NH 2  CHCl 3  3KOH  A  B  3H 2O ,
(3) m – toluidine (4) hydrazobenzene the compounds (A) and (B) are respectively
84. In the reaction, the product (C) is (1) C2 H 5CN and 3KCl
NaNO2  HCl H  /H 2O
C 6 H 5 NH 2 (A ) 
0  5C
(B ) (C )
CuCN
KCN (2) CH 3CH 2CONH 2 and 3 KCl

(1) C 6 H 5CH 2NH 2 (2) C 6 H 5COOH (3) C2 H 5 NC and K2CO3

(3) C 6 H 5OH (4) None of these (4) C2 H 5 NC and 3KCl

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
89. Consider the following reaction what is y (1) MnO 4 and H+ both are reduced
C6 H 5NO2  X 
Sn /HCl
 y  HCl
C6 H 5COCl
(2) MnO 4 is reduced and H+ is oxidised
(1) Acetanilide (2) Benzanilide
(3) Azobenzene (4) Hydrazobenzene (3) MnO 4 is reduce and SO 32 is oxidised
90. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH (4) MnO 4 is oxidised and SO 32 is Reduced
and p – toluidine form
96. The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the thermal
(1) dissociation of PCl5 at 200°C is 1.6 atm. The
pressure (in atm) at which it is 50% dissociated
at that temperature is
(2) (1) 4.8 (2) 4.2
(3) 3.2 (4) 2.4
(3) 97. On doubling p and v with constant temperature,
the equilibrium constant will
(4) (1) become double
(2) become one – fourth
91. Which of the following is a redox reaction (3) remain constant
(1) NaCl  KNO3  NaNO 3  KCl (4) None of these
(2) CaC 2O 4  2HCl  CaCl 2  H 2C 2O 4 98. 
For the reaction AB (g )   A(g )  B (g ), AB is
(3) Mg (OH )2  2NH 4Cl  MgCl 2  2NH 4OH 33% dissociated at a total pressure of P.
Therefore, P is related to K p by one of the
(4) Zn  2AgCN  2Ag  Zn (CN )2 following options :
92. In which of the following reactions H2O2 is a (1) p = Kp (2) p = 3 Kp
reducing agent (3) p = 4Kp (4) p = 8 Kp
(1) 2FeCl2  2HCl  H 2O2  2FeCl 3  2H 2O 99. Which of the following statements is correct for
(2) Cl 2  H 2O2  2HCl  O2 a revesible process in a state of equilibrium

(3) 2HI  H 2O2  2H 2O  I 2 (1) G   2.303 RT log K

(4) H 2SO3  H 2O 2  H 2SO 4  H 2O
(2) G   2.303 RT log K
93. A solution of sulphur dioxide in water reacts with
H2S precipitating sulphur. Here sulphur dioxide (3) G  2.303 RT log K
acts as
(1) An oxidising agent (4) G  2.303 RT log K
(2) A Reducing agnet
(3) An acid 100. According to Le – Chatelier’s principle, adding
(4) A catalyst heat to a solid and liquid in equilibriun will
94. In which of the following compounds the cause the :
oxidation number of carbon is maximum (1) Amount of solid to decrease
(1) HCHO (2) CHCl3
(2) Amount of liquid to decrease
(3) CH3OH (4) C12H22O11
95. In the reaction (3) Temperature to rise
(4) Temperature to fall
MnO 4  SO 32   H   SO 42  Mn 2   H 2O
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
(iv) In aquatic animals, the osmotic
concentration of the body fluids change with that
SECTION - A of the ambient water osmotic concentration.
101. The amount of rainfall in desert locations is (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
measured in ______ centimeters annually. (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii)
(1) less than 5 (2) less than 15 106. In a lab flask, you are cultivating a population of
(3) less than 25 (4) over 50 bacteria using a flow-through system that
102. Consider the following statements (A) - (D) each continuously replaces used culture material
with one or two blanks. with new medium while leaving the bacteria in
place. Which of the following graphs most
A. Lichens represent an intimate______(i)____ accurately depicts how this population will
relationship between a fungus and___(ii)____. increase over time?
B. The ___(iii)___ are associations between fungi
and the roots of higher plants.
C. Plants need the help of______(iv)____ for
pollinating their flowers and dispersing their
seeds.
D. The_____(v)____pollinates the fig
inflorescence while searching for suitable egg -
laying sites.
Which one of the following options, gives the
correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers
from (i) - (v) in the statements ?
(1) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Algae; (iii) - Mycorrhizae; (iv)
- Wind; (v) - Bee
(2) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Algae; (iii) - Mycorrhizae;
(iv) - Animals; (v) Wasp
(3) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Algae; (iii) - Mycorrhizae; (iv)
- Insect; (v) Bumble bees
(4) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) -
Lichen; (iv) - Wind; (v) Wasp (1) A (2) D
103. When birth rate equals death rate :- (3) B (4) C
(1) a population grows rapidly. 107. Assertion : An age pyramid in the form of a bell
(2) the size of a population remains constant. signifies a stable population.
(3) density-dependent limiting factors do not Reason : In a stable population, proportion of
affect the population. individuals in reproductive age group is higher
(4) a population is in danger of extinction. than the individuals in pre-reproductive age
group.
104. In the formula G = rN (K - N)/K, the factor rNtends
to cause the population to________. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(1) remain stable at the carrying capacity (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) grow at a slower rate than the (K - N/K) factor reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) grow increasingly rapidly (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) decrease in size (4) If both assertion and reason is false
105. Identify the incorrect statement. 108. Deserts, rainforest, tundra, etc are examples of
(i) Energy-wise, thermoregulation is the least (1) Community (2) Biome
expensive operation for many creatures, (3) Ecosystem (4) Population
including hummingbirds and shrews.
109. Assertion : Species are groups of naturally
(ii) Nearly all plants and 99 percent of animals occurring populations that have the potential to
are unable to sustain their stable interior interbreed but are isolated from other species.
environment.
Reason : Reproductive isolation results in the
(iii) The costs and heights of preserving a steady
expression of distinctive morphological
internal environment are abandoned during the
characteristics.
course of evolution.
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(1) If both assertion and reason are true and 115. In an ecosystem, the rate at which light
reason is the correct explanation of assertion energy is transformed into chemical energy in
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but organic molecules is :-
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion (1) net primary productivity
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (2) gross primary productivity
(4) If both assertion and reason is false
(3) secondary productivity
110. Certain exotic species become invasive when they
are brought into a region primarily because :- (4) gross secondary productivity
116. When comparing the ecosystems of ponds and
(1) The invaded land does not have its natural
grasslands, it can be seen that :-
predator.
(1) the biotic components are almost similar
(2) The invaded land has unlimited resources
(2) the abiotic components are almost similar
for the introduced species.
(3) both abiotic and biotic components are
(3) The population of the introduced species in different
the invaded land is very low.
(4) primary and secondary consumers are similar
(4) Introduced species do not face any 117. Read the given statements and select the correct
competetion in the introduced land. option.
111. In an area, a population with large size Statement-1: The gross primary productivity
individuals having long life span, more parental exceeds the net primary productivity.
care and slow development was present. The type
Statement-2: Net primary productivity is equal
of population growth curve will be :-
to the gross primary productivity minus the
(1) J-shaped (2) S-shaped respiration losses.
(3) Z-shaped (4) All of the above (1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
112. The best development of mechanical tissue (2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
occurs in :- correct.
(1) Hydrophytes (2) Halophytes (3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(3) Xerophytes (4) Mesophytes incorrect.
113. Carbon molecules found in an organism have (4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
moved through three levels of ecosystem; the 118. Which of the following are present at the same
organism is :- trophic level ?
(1) Primary consumer (1) Crow and Cow
(2) Secondary consumer
(2) Snake and wild boar
(3) Producer
(3) Tiger and Earthworm
(4) Tertiary consumer
(4) Deer and bee
114. Match the column-I with column-II :-
119. A detrivore is :-
Colmn-I Column-II
(1) Animal feeding on plant matter
A. Population P. Part of the Earth
(2) Animal feeding on decaying organic matter
consisting of all the
ecosystems of the world (3) A plant feeding on another animal
(4) Animal feeding on another animal
B. Community Q. Assemblage of all
individuals belonging to 120. Energy and nutrients generally enter in a
different species community through :-
(1) Producer (2) Primary consumer
C. Ecosystem R. Group of similar
individuals belonging to (3) Decomposer (4) Sunlight
same species of an area 121. Within the ecosystem of deep-sea hydrothermal
vents, the primary producers are :-
D. Ecosphere S. Classification of
organism based on type (1) Coral reefs
of environment (2) Blue-green algae
(1) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S (3) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P (4) Green Algae
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-P
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122. Read the given statements and select the correct 126. Match the column-I with column-II :-
option. Colmn-I Column-II
Statement-1: Herbivores are also called as first A. Rhinoceros P. High endemism
order consumers. B. In situ conservation Q. off site conservation
Statement-2: Herbivores obtain their food C. Ex situ conservation R. on site conservation
directly from plants.
D. Hotspots S. Kaziranga
(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
correct.
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is (3) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
incorrect. (4) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. 127. Within a National Park, protection are offered for
which among the following ?
123. Which two of the following statements about food (1) flora and fauna both
chain are correct ?
(2) entire ecosystem
(a) Vegetation grew more when 80% of the tigers (3) fauna only
were removed.
(4) flora only
(b) When most carnivores were eliminated, the
128. Sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia
number of deer grew.
hills of ___(i)___, Aravalli hills of _____(ii)____,
(c) Length of food chain is limited to 3-4 trophic Western ghat regions of ____(iii)_____.
levels due to energy loss
(1) (i) - Meghalaya, (ii) - Rajasthan, (iii) -
(d) Length of food chain may vary 2-3 trophic levels Karnataka and Maharashtra
(1) a, d (2) a, b (2) (i) - Meghalaya and Maharashtra, (ii) -
(3) b, c (4) c, d Rajasthan, (iii) - Madhya Pradesh
124. Assertion : Temperature and soil moisture are (3) (i) - Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, (ii) -
the important climatic factors that regulate the Rajasthan, (iii) - Meghalaya
process of decomposition. (4) (i) - Rajasthan, (ii) - Meghalaya, (iii) -
Reason: Warm and moist environment favours Karnataka and Maharashtra
decomposition whereas low temperature and 129. What is the most effective way to preserve
anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition. germplasm ?
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) Seed bank (2) Herbarium
reason is the correct explanation of assertion (3) Zoological park (4) Botanical garden
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
130. Assertion : Species with low genetic variability
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
are generally at greater risk of extinction than
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false the species with more genetic variability.
(4) If both assertion and reason is false
Reason: Species with low genetic variability are
125. Read the given statements and select the correct more vulnerable to diseases, predators or other
option. environmental challenges.
Statement-1: Tropical rainforests are rapidly (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
disappearing from developing nations like India. reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Statement-2: These forests hav e little (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
biodiversity, thus there is no value placed on reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
them. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct. (4) If both assertion and reason is false
(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is 131. What is genetic diversity?
correct. (1) The entire genetic code present in every
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is member of a species.
incorrect. (2) The total phenotypic information contained
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect. within all individuals of a species.
(3) The diversity of Earthly living types.
(4) The range of biotic communities and abiotic
elements present in an area.
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
132. Of the following, which one does not accurately 137. In an aquatic environment, the kind of benthic
describe the biodiversity of a given area? animals is defined by :-
(i) The major species in the area exhibit genetic (1) Presence of light
diversity. (2) Sediment characters of soil
(ii) Species endemic to the region. (3) Water requirements
(iii) Endangered species found in the region.
(4) Levels of thermal tolerance
(iv) The diversity in the organisms living in the 138. Which of the following statements does not
region. explain why grasses predominate in savannah?
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (1) There are few native herbivores in this biome.
(3) (ii) only (4) (iv) only (2) Grasses grow well in fine, sandy soils.
133. National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are not
(3) The above ground portions of grass plants die
the same as Biosphere Reserves because:
during dry seasons.
(1) human beings are not allowed to enter. (4) The deep roots of the grasses can survive
(2) people are an integral part of the system. many months of drought.
(3) More attention is given to plants than to 139. In aquatic system, actively moving animal
animals. organisms are:
(4) Living organisms are imported and conserved (1) Benthic (2) Nektons
from all over the world. (3) Zooplanktons (4) Phytoplanktons
134. The Red Data Book offers information about :- 140. The surface area determines how much heat is
(1) Red flowered plants lost or gained. Which of the below statements are
(2) Red coloured fishes correct regarding the function of surface area?
(3) Endangered plants and animals (i) Small animals in colder areas have large
surface area.
(4) Red eyed birds
(ii) They expend less amount of energy and do not
135. Several natural reserves have been established
loose body heat.
in order to protect particular species of wildlife.
Choose the appropriate combination from the list (iii) Small animals are rarely found in cold
below. regions.
(1) Gir Forest - Tiger (1) Only (i) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii) (4) (i) and (iii)
(2) Kaziranga - Elephants
141. Trophic levels in ecosystem are formed by :-
(3) RannofKutch - Wild Ass
(1) Only herbivores
(4) Manas wild life Sancturay - Musk deer
(2) Only bacteria
136. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(3) Only plant
correct ?
(4) Organisms linked in food chain
(i) Organisms living in oceans, lakes and rivers
do not face any water-related problems. 142. Identify the correct food chain among the
following :-
(ii) Euryhaline can tolerate a wide range of
salinities. (1) Eagle  snake  grasshopper  grass
(iii) Stenohaline are restricted to a narrow range  frog
of salinities. (2) Frog  snake  eagle  grasshopper
(iv) No fresh water animals cannot live for long  grass
in sea water but sea animals can live in fresh
water for long time because of osmotic balance. (3) Grasshopper  grass  snake  frog
(v) The salt concentration is less than 5% in  eagle
inland water, 30-50% in sea and >100% in some (4) Grass  grasshopper  frog  snake
hypersaline lagoons.  eagle
(1) All are correct except (i)
(2) None of the above
(3) Only (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023

Water flea Small fish ZOOLOGY

V VI
IV SECTION - A
Phytoplankton Larvae Perch
I VII 151. Choose the correct one w.r.t decreasing order
143. of abundance (% weight) of elements in a cell.
Tadpoles Water
II boatman (1) O > C > N > H (2) O > N > C > H
III
(3) C > O > N > H (4) H > N > O > C
Study the food web given in the above figure and
152. Given below are the example of few amino acids:
answer the question given that which of the
following organisms in food web act as a
secondary consumer ?
(1) II and V (2) III and VI
(3) III and IV (4) V and VII How many of the above are aromatic amino acids
144. Pyramid of biomass for a grazing food chain
represents :- (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) gradual decrease in biomass from apex to base
(3) 4 (4) 5
(2) gradual decrease in biomass from producers
to the tertiary consumers 153. The inorganic compounds like phosphate,
sulphate, etc. Which becomes available in the
(3) gradual increase in biomass from producers
filtrate after grinding the living tissue in
to the tertiary consumers
trichloroacetic acid represents :
(4) no change in biomass
(1) Water pool (2) Gaseous pool
145. Organisms connected to both the first and third
trophic levels are :- (3) Acid soluble pool (4) Acid insoluble pool
(1) macrophytes 154. Choose the incorrect option :
(2) phytoplanktons (1) Cellulose give no colour with iodine solution
(3) chemoautotrophs (2) Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose
(4) insectivorous plants (3) Starch gives blue colour and glycogen gives
146. Which pair of regions in our nation exhibits the red colour with iodine solution
greatest diversity ? (4) Inulin is a heteropolysaccharide
(1) Sundarbans and Rann of Kutch 155. How many of compounds given below represent
(2) Western ghats and Eastern ghats nucleosides (x) and nucleotide (Y)
(3) Eastern Himalayas and Western ghats [Adenylic acid, cytidine, AMP, dCTP, Guanosine,
(4) Kerala and Punjab dAMP]
147. Which region is rich in maximum species (1) X = 2, Y = 4 (2) X = 3, Y = 3
diversity among the option given below ? (3) X = 4, Y = 2 (4) X = 1, Y = 5
(1) South Pole (2) Temperate region
156. Which type of bond is indicated by X in the
(3) North Pole (4) Tropical region diagram given below ?
148. Decrease in species diversity in tropical
countries is mainly due to :-
(1) Urbanization (2) Pollution
(3) Soil Erosion (4) Deforestation
149. The term "biodiversity" was made popular by :-
(1) Paul Ehrlich (2) Odum
(3) Edward Wilson (4) Tilman
150. The diversity of species coexisting in the same
environment or community is referred to as :-
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(1) Alpha diversity
(2) Beta diversity (2) Ionic bond
(3) Gamma diversity (3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Delta diversity (4) Ester bond
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
157. Identify X and Y in the newly synthesised 163. Match the following :
polypeptide chain given below : Column – I Column – II
A. Thyroxine (i) Steroid
B. Melatonin (ii) Tryptophan
C. Insulin (iii) Tyrosine
(1) X = – COOH, Y = – NH2 D. Estrogen (iv) Protein
(2) X = – NH2 , Y = – COOH (1) A – iii, B – ii, C - iv, D – i
(3) X = – NH2, Y = – COOR (2) A – i, B – ii, C - iii, D – iv
(4) X = – COOR, Y = – NH2 (3) A – ii, B – iv, C - i, D – iii
158. Which of the two groups of the structure of an (4) A – iv, B – iii, C - ii, D – i
amino acid given below are involved in peptide 164. Find the correct match w.r.t. hormone and its
bond formation ? function :
(1) Prolactin – Causes milk ejection by
contracting mammary gland ducts
(2) FSH – Causes ovulation from mature
Graafian follicle
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) MSH – Acts on melanocytes and regulates
pigmentation of skin
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
(4) TSH – Promotes secretion of insulin from
159. The most important ‘energy currency’ produced
pancreas
in mitochondria is a :
165. Which of the following hormone increases the
(1) Nucleotide triphosphate
breakdown of liver glycogen to blood glucose and
(2) Deoxyribonucleotide stimulates the formation of glucose from amino
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate acids ?
(4) Nucleoside triphosphate (1) Somatostatin (2) Glucagon
160. Three of the following statements about (3) Insulin (4) Aldosterone
enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which
166. Glucocorticoids are secreted by Zona fasciculata
one is wrong ?
and affect glucose homeostasis. Main
(1) Enzymes are highly specific glucocorticoid is
(2) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal (1) Cortisol (2) Corticosterone
activity
(3) Cortisone (4) Aldosterone
(3) Most enzymes are proteins but some are
167. Which of the following hormones is not
lipids
proteinaceous in nature ?
(4) Enz ymes are denatured at h igh
(1) TSH (2) Aldosterone
temperatur e but in cer tain excepti onal
org anisms they are ef fectiv e ev en at (3) LH (4) FSH
temperature 80° – 90°C 168. Column I Lists the endocrine structure and
161. Sella turcica is a depression in the sphenoid column II lists the corresponding hormones.
bone which Lodges Match the two columns. Identify the correct
option from those given
(1) Thyroid (2) Hypophysis
Column – I Column – II
(3) Epiphysis (4) Pineal gland
A. Hypothalamus p. Relaxin
162. Select the incorrect statement about pineal
gland. B. Anterior Pituitary q. Estrogen
(1) Influences metabolism C. Testis r. FSH and LH
(2) Decreases blood Ca2+ level D. Ovary s. Androgen
(3) Helps in maintaining body temperature t. Gonadotropin
(4) Regulation of a 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of releasing
our body. hormone
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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
(1) A – t, B – r, C – s, D – q (2) It secretes enzymes
(2) A – t, B – r, C – q, D – s (3) It only stores and releases hormones
(3) A – p, B – q, C – s, D – r (4) It synthesizes only two hormones
(4) A – r, B – t, C – s, D – q 176. Glycosidic bond is formed between
169. In nucleoside, nitrogen base is attached to (1) Amino and carboxyl groups of two amino
pentose sugar at acids
(1) Carbon – 2’ of pentose sugar (2) Two carbon atoms of adjacent
monosaccharides
(2) Carbon – 1’ of pentose sugar
(3) Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar in
(3) Carbon – 5’ of pentose sugar
a nucleotide
(4) none of these
(4) Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide
170. Match the columns : chain.
Column – I Column – II 177. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
A. Glucagon (i)  – cells correct with respect to the given reaction?

B. insulin (ii) Corpus luteum 

CO2  H 2O  H 2CO2
C. Androgens (iii)  – cells (1) In the absence of enzyme, 200 molecules
D. Progesterone (iv) Leydig cells of carbonic acid are formed per hour
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii (2) In the presence of carbonic anhydrase 600,
(2) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii 000 molecules of H2CO3 are formed per second.
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i (3) The presence of enzyme increases the rate
of reaction 10 million times
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(4) All are correct
171. The hormone which is regularly abused by the
milkman....... to get more milk from their cows 178. Which of the following is a characteristic
and buffaloes feature of all lipids ?
(1) Vasopressin (2) Oxytocin (1) Presence of nitrogen
(3) Somatostatin (4) FSH (2) Contain phosphate groups
172. The symptoms of a disease include excretion (3) They are all esters of fatty acids and alcohol
of large amount of urine, thirst and dehydration. (4) Insoluble in water
It is caused by 179. Which of the following statements are correct
w.r.t. repolarization ?
(1) Hyposecretion of Vasopressin
(i) Resting membrane potenti al of the
(2) Hypersecretion of Vasopressin
membrane is restored
(3) Hyposecretion of oxytocin
(ii) K+ diffuses outside the axonal membrane
(4) Hypersecretion of oxytocin
(iii) Na+ diffuses outside the axon membrane
173. Which of the following hormone deficiency in
(iv) No movement of ions takes place across
childhood causes impaired body growth, mental
axon membrane
development, and reduced metabolic rate ?
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(1) Insulin (2) Growth hormone
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
(3) Thyroxine (4) Parathyroid hormone
174. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t 180. A bone is present near the base of skull
cretinism ?
and has a large opening called B for
(1) Low intelligence quotient and abnormal
skin spinal cord to move out of skull.
Fill in the blanks with correct options :
(2) Metal retardation in newborn
(1) A – temporal, B – foramen rotundum
(3) Defective development and maturation of
(2) A – occipital, B – foramen magnum
the growing body
(3) A – frontal, B – foramen ovale
(4) Loss of weight and high blood pressure
(4) A – occipital, B – foramen rotundum
175. The posterior pituitary gland is not a true
endocrine gland because
(1) It has a duct

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
181. Which of the following is not seen in body if the (3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is
blood volume is low ? correct
(1) Increase release of angiotensin II (4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(2) More aldosterone is relased by adrenal Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
cortex
(3) Increased tubular reabsorption of sodium
(4) Increased secretion of atrial natriuretic 186. Identify the amino acids marked as A,B and C
factor (ANF)
182. Assertion : Human diet should compulsorily
contain glycine, serine and tyrosine.
Reason : Essential amino acids are not
synthesised in the human body.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion (1) A – Alanine B – Serine C – Glycine
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not (2) A – Glycine B – Alanine C – Serine
correct (3) A – Glutamic B – Serine C – Alanine
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is Acid
correct (4) A – Glycine B – Serine C – Alanine
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 187. A triglyceride is formed by esterification of :
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(1) Three molecules of fatty acids and three
183. Assertion : In a DNA molecule, A and G of one molecules of glycerol
strand compulsorily base pairs with T and C.
(2) One fatty acid molecule and three molecules
Reason : In between A and T, there are two H of glycerol
– bonds, whereas in between G and C, there
are three H – bonds (3) One molecule of glycerol and three
molecules of fatty acids
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion (4) None of the above
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not 188. In a polysaccharide chain like glycogen, the
correct right end is called the reducing end since :
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is (1) CH3 group may be free
correct (2) – CHO group is engaged in glycosidic
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and linkage
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (3) – CH3 group is engaged in glycosidic linkage
184. Assertion : Diabetes insipidus is marked by (4) – CHO group is free
excessive Urination and too much thirst of 189. In a DNA molecule, the phosphate group is
water. attached to ____ carbon of the sugar residue of
Reason : Vasopressin (ADH) is released by the its own nucleotide and _____ carbon of the sugar
posterior lobe of pituitary gland. residue of the next nucleotide by ____ bonds :
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but (1) 5’, 3’ , phosphodiester
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion (2) 3’, 5’, glycosidic
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
(3) 5’, 3’, glycosidic
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is
(4) 3’, 5’, phosphodiester
correct
190. Choose the incorrect statement for enzyme
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
activity :
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(1) It is maximum at an optimum temperature
185. Assertion : Oxytocin is called as ‘milk – ejection
and optimum pH
hormone’.
(2) It initially decreases with increase in pH
Reason : Thymosin acts on the smooth muscles
values
of our body and stimulates their contraction
(3) It initially increases with the increase in
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
temperature then decreases
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not (4) It increases with increase in substrate
correct concentration upto the saturation point.

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 All India Test Series - 13.03.2023
191. Match the columns : 195. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. insulin
Column – I Column – II (1) It is secreted by beta cells of islets of
A. Transferase (i) Kinase Langerhans of pancreas
B. Lyase (ii) Aldolase (2) It is polypetide hormone
C. Ligase (iii) RNA – Ligase (3) It increases glucose levels by inhibiting
uptake of amino acids by liver and muscle cells
D. Hydrolase (iv) Lipase
(4) It Lowers glucose levels by promoting
(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) synthesis of fats from glucose by adipose tissue
(2) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (iii) 196. Which statement is true for all enzymes of living
(3) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (ii) organisms ?
(4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv) (1) increase the amount of energy required to
192. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk, start a reaction
stimulates milk production and growth of (2) Denatured at high temperature
ovarian follicle, are respectively. (3) Catalyse the breakdown of large molecules
(1) Prolactin, oxytocin, LH in small
(2) Oxytocin, Prolactin, FSH (4) Have active site which can bind the specific
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin, progesterone type of substrate molecule
(4) Prolactin, oxytocin, FSH 197. The hormones oxytocin and Vasopressin are
released into blood by
193. In the given below diagram select the labelled
str ucture throu gh whi ch secretion of (1) Neurohypophysis (2) Adenohypophysis
neurosecretory cells reaches adenohypophysis (3) Adrenal medulla (4) Hypothalamus
198. Cellulose, the most important constituent of
plant cell wall is made up of
(1) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
linked by  – 1, 4 glycosidic bond
(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules
linked by  – 1, 4 glycosidic bond
(3) branched chain of glucose molecules linked
by  – 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of
branching
(4) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked
(1) A (2) B by  – 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and
(3) C (4) D  – 1 , 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
199. Which disorder is correctly matched with the
194. In testis, Leydig cells are present in (i ) and malfunctioning of endocrine gland ?
secrete a group of hormones called (ii ) , mainly (1) Gigantism and Posterior pituitary gland
(2) Dwarfism and Adrenal cortex
(iii ) . (3) Diabetes insipidus and Posterior Pituitary
Choose the options which fills up these blanks gland
(4) Diabetes mellitus and parathyroid gland
(i) (ii) (iii) 200. Testosterone is an example of a chemial signal
1 Intertubular Androge ns Te stosterone that affects the cells that synthesise it, the
space s neighbouring cells in the testis, along with
dist ant cells outside the gonads. Thus
2 Intratubular Oe stroge ns te stoste rone
testosterone is an example of
space s
(1) An autocrine signal
3 Intertubular Oe stroge ns Estradiol
(2) An endocrine signal
space s
(3) A paracrine signal
4 Intertubular Androge ns Estradiol
space s (4) All of the above

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