24/06/2022 CODES Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delh-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test -6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Topics covered : Physics = Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group 15- 18), The d- and f-Block Elements, Coordination Compounds Botany = Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Principles of Inheritance ‘and Variation Zoology: Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction Instructions : (i) There are two sections in each subject, .€, Section’A & Section-B You haVe to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-Boutof 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 midfk'shallbe deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given/no marks, (ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken thé appropriate eifcle, (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the ciféle. (v)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only, (vii), Rough work must not be dones@n the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer SECTION -A 2. A potential divider is used to give outputs of 6 V 1. In the circuit as shown in figure, if a battery is and 9 V from a 15 V source as shown in figure. connected between points A and C of emf E = The value of Rs, Re and Rs may be respectively 18 V, then current flowing through the battery is ov ev 10 : : +15V R, Ry A ic + 450 (1) 10, 2kQand 3 ka {L 3 (2) 100 2, 100 © and 300 0 (1) 15a 5A (3) 200.2, 100 9 and 200 0 (3) 204 (4) 10 (4) 10.0, 209 and 30.0 a)Test-6 (Code-8) For the arrangement shown in the figure, the switch is closed at f = 0, Initial current in the circuit is Ti Our R=4Ma IT pax = 100 WC 7 s (1) SHA (2) 10 yA (3) 2.5 yA (4) 20 uA Twelve resistors each of resistance 12 9 are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure. The net resistance between points AB is Nh \ A 5 (40 239 @) 20 4 19 ‘The circuit as shown in figure is used)to compare the emf of two cells of 20 V and)30 V, Thesnull point is at point J when galVanometér “is connected to 20 V battery. When the galvanometer is connected to 30 V battery, the ‘ull point will be obtained a0Vvy]_1/30V, aa by 30V (1) Leftof v (2) Right of J (3) AtJitself (4) Nowhere on wire AB 10. Final Test Series for NEET-2022 In the circuit as shown in the figure, the maximum, ‘energy stored in capacitor is 0.216 mJ. Then emf of the cell is Sur {| aOR 2 'E (1) a0v @ 20v @) 10V (@) 40v It a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, then resistance is (Assuming density to be constant) (1) Increased by 0.1% (2) Increased by 0.2% (3) Decreased by 0.1% (4) Decreased by 0.2% ‘The current passing through the ideal ammeter in the circuit as shown in figure is 20 20 (1) 4.04 (3) 125A (4) 158 ‘The voltmeter shown in figure reads 18 V across ‘60 ohm resistor. The resistance of voltmeter is nearly (2) 058 30V 500 240) (1) 1400 (2) 128.60 (3) 103.0 (4) 1620 What could be value of Ry for which current through Ris zero? 20 R, ee L___4j, _v 10V 2) 400 (4) 6a 6a (1) 40 (3) 10a (2)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-8) " 12. 13. 14. 15. Four identical bulbs each of rated power P and voltage V are connected as shown in figure, Now after the key K is closed then incandescence of bulb A will gg? Be K ~ nO (1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Become zero (4) Remain same Let J is th current density at a point in a conductor and £ is the electric field there. If n be the number density of charge carriers, 6 the charge on them, mis their mass, + the relaxation time. Then J is equal to 2 @ 2 A uniform conducting wire of length 18% and carrying current jis wound up as a current coil as, regular hexagon of side f. Then magfiélic moment of the coil is «) ie @ Sie (3) 4.517 (4) si@ Two charged particles having. same linear momentum describe circular paths. of radius Ri and Re respectively in uniform” transverse magnetic field, if the ratio of their respective charges is 1:3, then the ratio of Ry and Re will be (1) 1:3 (2) 3:4 (3) 1:9 (4) 9:4 A particle having charge q and mass m, enters a uniform magnetic field B as shown, The displacement of the particle in the field is 8 x x « v 16. 17. 18, 19, 20. ) 38 Oe v3mv 2m ® OB © ee ‘The magnetic field at the centre (0) of a current carrying wire as shown in the figure is Hol 24R Pot 24R Oy into the plane (2) POE out ofthe plane hol ®) oR into the plane bok (4) ol ” 12R ‘The,Gifie’s laws given as (symbols have their usual meanings) (1) ae outéFthe plane ‘A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform extemal magnetic field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 0.05 N m. The magnitude of the magnetic. moment of the magnet is (1) 0.247" (2) 0457" (3) 4007" (4) 0.6437" Time period of a vibration magnetometer is To. Its magnet is replaced by another magnet whose moment of inertia is two times and magnetic moment is half of the intial magnet. The new time period of vibration magnetometer will be (1) To (2) V2T, @ 3% (4) 2% 2 Meissner effect is related to (1) Paramagnetic substance (2) Superconductors (2) Antiferromagnetic substance (4) Ferromagnetic substance (3)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 24 22, 23, 24, 25, Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials (A) and (B) are shown in the figure. These materials are to be used to make cores for transformer and electromagnet, then itis prefer to use material 8 8 “ 8) (1) (A) for both transformer and electromagnet (2) (B) for both electromagnet and transformer (3) (A) for electromagnet and (B) for transformer (4) (A) for transformer and (B) for electromagnet A circular coil of radius 1m carries a current 25 A. If it is placed in a magnetic field of 10 Wbim?. The work done to rotate it from position of stable equilibrium to unstable equilibrium is (1) 50nd (2) 25nd (3) 250 (4) 25 All substances, to some extent, exhibit (1) Paramagnetism (2) Diamagnetism (3) Ferromagnetism (4) Both (1) and (3) Ideal inductors of inductance 6.0 H each, are: connected as shown in the figures The équivalent inductance of the circuit between A and Bis TOOOTTT — 8 () 1H (2) 18H (3) 0H (4) 2H ‘The energy stored in the inductor long time after switch Sis closed is (steady state) a ot ww — OID s { 2 Le wy @) Zero Le? Le? @ @ 2R? 4R? 26. a7. 2B. 29. In the given branch PQ of a circuit, electric current = (5t + 2) Ais flowing, where ti time in second. At {= 1 s, the potential difference between points Pand Qis so 24 10V Q (1) Zero (2) 20v @) 10, (4) 55V Two concentric and coplanar circular coils having radius 7 and rm are shown in figure. The resistance of inner cols R. If the current in outer Calls increased from 0 to /, then the total charge that passes in the inner collis (r.>> ri) te worl ) Re flee belts (Re 4) Re The variation of induced emf (c) with time (f) in a coil, if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis with a constant velocity, as shown in the figure, is best represented by mm 0009 (4) 2 @) ® po ‘The magnetic flux through a coil varies with time as 4(t) = 7P + Gt + 9. The ratio of emf at time t= 3.8 to t= 0 s will be (where fis in second) a) 1:6 (28:1 @) 1:8 ast (4)Final Test Si 30. 34 32, 33, for NEET-2022 A rectangular coil of two tums having area A rotates in a uniform magnetic field B with angular speed @ about an axis perpendicular to the field and in plane of the coil. If initially the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field, then the average induced emf when it has rotated through = is 4BAw (1) (2) 2BAw 2BAw Bao (@) 4 > A square loop of side L is being pulled with a constant speed v (parallel to one of its diagonals) inside the uniform magnetic field B as shown in figure, The magnitude of induced emf in the loop (1) Has a maximum value of BL BLy (2) Has the maximum value of (3) First increases then decrease (4) First decreases then increase For ferromagnetic material, the relative permeability (jr) versus magnetic intensity (H) plot is described by (1) (2) A short-magnet is kept with its north pole pointing magnetic north pole of earth. A neutral point is formed at a distance of 15 cm from the magnet, ‘The magnetic moment of bar magnet is, {Bu=0.4 « 10-'T) (1) 2.35. Am? (3) 1.75 Am? (2) 1.35 Ame (4) 4.35 Ame 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, Test-6 (Code-8) A uniform but time varying magnetic field B(t) = at where a is constant exists in a circular region of radius R and directed into the plane of paper. The magnitude of induced electric field at a point P at a distance r(r> R) from the centre of the circular region is proportional to aye (2) 1 ®o (4) r Current flowing in a wire varies with time as i= (2 +1) A. The average current flown through the wire in first 4 s will be (2a 4A (@) 6A (4) 8A SECTION -B The effective resistance between A and B will be R 4 si — ei A * B R i (1) 2 (2) 3 @R (4) 6R ‘The maximum power that can be generated in an external resistor by a cell of emf 10 V and internal resistance 2 is (1) 25 (2) 125w (3) Sow (4) Zero Nine cells, each of emf « and intemal resistance 1, are connected in series to form a loop. If one cell is connected wrongly, then potential difference across this cell will be 16 4) 8 z o> (2) Zero 7 8 @ > M3 ‘The ratio of maximum and minimum resistance that can be obtained by using three resistances of 20.0, 50 0. and 100 cis 13 88 oF ast 34 7 es ws (8)Test-6 (Code-8) 40. 44 42. 43, A long straight current carrying wire is placed in horizontal plane near a square loop carrying a current of 1 A as shown in figure. The net force ‘on the loop is. 2Ah VIA > free (1) 1.28 x 10° N, attractive (2) 1.28 « 107 N, repulsive (3) 1.92% 10N, attractive (4) Zoro A cell of emf E and intemal resistance r is connected across an external resistance R. The graph showing the variation of P.D, (across R) versus R is best roprosented by v v el. ‘The magnetic moment of a current carryifigiloop carrying current / as shown in fighite, is vy (0,a,9} ¢ 2% qi (0.0.0) aon * z (1) V2 la?k (2) 1a?k oy 4 eK (3) E (4) ala’ Net magnetic field at the centre of the circle O due to a current carrying loop as shown in figure is 44 45, 46. a7, Final Test Series for NEET-2022 (1) Zero (2) Perpendicular to paper inwards (3) Perpendicular to paper outwards (4) Information is insufficient Accharged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 37° with the magnetic field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is P. The radius of the helix will be 3P. 3P Oo er P 1P (3) 2 4 35 BRC The dimensions of “= (where B is magnetic 0 field and yo is permeability of free space, R is resistance and C is capacitance) is (1) AUT 2) UT 8) ATT] (4) (ALAT!] If 59nd. se be the apparent angles of dip ‘observed in) two vertical planes at right angle to ‘each other and the true dip at the place is 6 then ‘choose the correct option, (1) tants =tan’s1 + tan’éa (2) Got? = cots, + cot? 2 (8) c0s"s = c08%6: + cos’ée (4) cots = tan®ss + tan®s, ‘Two identical short bar magnets of magnetic moment M are arranged at the opposite corners of a square of side d such that their centres coincide with comers and their magnetic moments are parallel to each other as shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic field at the comer P of the square is P Hy 2M J, ORF @) tg M ty M One O gag? (6)Final Test Series for NEET-2022 48. A current carrying circular coil of magnetic moment M is placed in region of uniform ‘magnetic field B with its plane perpendicular to ‘magnetic field, then net torque on the coil will be ve} (1) MB a> (3) Zero (4) 2MB 49. A magnet oscillating in horizontal plane has a time period of 2 s at a place where angle of dip is 45° and 6 s at a place where angle of dip is 60° ‘The ratio of earth's magnetic field at two places is Test-6 (Code-8) 50. Two conducting rods of length / and 4/ undergo translatory motion in opposite direction with velocity 4v and v respectively on @ conducting surface S as shown in the figure. There is a uniform magnetic field 8 into the plane of the paper, The potential difference between the highest points P and Q of the two rods is Pp 9 41 |e av fr eB (1) Zero (3) 4B (2) 8B (4) 108 (1) 9:V2, (2) 9:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 6:5 SECTION -A 51. Ore of copperis (1) Calamine (2) Malachite’ (3) Kaolinite (4) Magnetite 52, Carbon reduction method is not applicable for (1) Zine oxide (2) Lead oxid® (3) Sodium oxide (4) Tin oxide 53, Leaching reagent used during extraction ‘Of Al from bauxite ore is, (1) Nac (2) CaCle (3) NaH (4) NaeSO« 54. Which of the following is a basic oxide? (1) MnzOr (2) CrOs (8) cro (4) CraOs 55. Pair of ions having equal spin only magnetic moment is (1) Mn2*, Cut (2) Cu®, TH (3) Te, Cu (4) TP, Nr 56. The metal which can be purified by zone refining (1) 2 (2) Zn (3) Sn 4) si 57. Following complexes are given [Fe(H20)* — [Fe(NHs)s]** [Fe(CN)s]> @ iy (i) Order of stability of these complexes will be «(i <(i)< 2) Wi)< AsHs > PHa > NH (2) SbHs > NHa > AsHs > PHa (3) NHs > SbHs > PH > AsHs (4) NHs > SbHs > AsHs> PHs 61. Zinc and copper each on reaction with dilute nitric acid respectively give (1) NO and Ne (2) NzO and NO (3) N2O and NOz (4) NOz and NzO 62. Which ion gives brown ring test? (1) POY (2) soe (3) Br (4) NOTest-6 (Code-8) 63, 64, 65. 66. 67, 68. 69. 70, n Reaction which does not form Nz(g) as one of the product is (1) (NHg),Cr,0, —— (2) NHACI+ Ca(OH)2 —> (8) Ba(Ns), (4) NH«Cl + NaNO2 —> Which of the following does not form amalgam? (1) Fe (2) Co (3) Ag (4) 2n Consider the following statements (a) In laboratory, phosphine is prepared by heating white phosphorus with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of COz (b) In pure state, phosphine is non-inflammable (c) Phosphine explodes in contact with traces of oxidising agents The correct statements) is/are (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (byonly (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (€) only On heating, HsPO2 gives (1) P2Os and PH (2) HsPO« and PHs (3) HsPO2 and HxPOs (4) HsPO2 and PHy ‘The IUPAC name of [Co(NHs):]Ch is (1) Hexaamminecobat(t) chloride (2) Hexaamminecobalt(l)) chloride (3) Hexaamminetrichloride cobalt(tl) (4) Hexaamminetrichloride cobalt(ll) Which of the following statements is not eorrect? (1) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are almost Same because of lanthanide contraction (2) Vitamin Br2 contains Ni(i) (3) Lu(OH)s is less basic than La(OH)s (4) NOj is ambidentate ligand The metal which can be refined by vapour phase refining is (1) In (2) 2n (3) Ni (4) Hg The leaching reagent which can be used in extraction of copper from low grade ores is (1) HeSOs (2) NaOH (3) Nacn (4) Nac Total number of isomers of [Co(NHs)sCh] is (2 @3 @) 4 6 72, 73, 74, 6. 76 7. 78. 79. 80, Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Statement I: Os is the resonance hybrid of two canonical structures. Statement Il: Os acts as an oxidising agent in the manufacture of potassium permanganate. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect Froth stabiliser used in froth floatation process is (1) Pine oll (2) Fatty acids (3) Xanthate (4) Aniline Among the following reactions, which does not show calcination of ore? (1) FezOs-xH2O ——> FeaOs + xHeO (2) 2nGO4(s}=—+Zn0(s) + CO,(9) (3) CugS +20u,0—>6Cu+So, {4)| €866) *W.9C0, (2) —»Cuots) +MgO{s) +2C0,(9) Catalystlused in the conversion of S02 to SOs in Contact process of manufacture of sulphuric acid is (1),.Wz0s (2) Cr0a (8)-Fe20: (4) MnOz HNO2 in acidic medium does not produce (1) HNOs (2) NO (3) HO (4) N20 PCle undergoes hydrolysis to produce an oxoacid, which has the formula (1) (HPO3)n (2) HsPO2 (3) HsPOs (4) HsPOs ‘The species which is not formed on complete hydrolysis of XeF is (1) Xe (2) Fe (3) HE (4) O2 Products obtained on the reaction of ammonia with excess of chlorine gas are (1) NH«CI and No (2) NHONH» and NCIs (3) NH«ClandNCls (4) NCls and HCI Gun metal is an alloy of (1) Cu+Sn+Zn (3) Sn+Zn+Ni (2) Fe +Ag+Ni (4) Al+Zn+Sn (8)Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-8) at 82, 83, 84, 85, 86. 87. 88, Negative heat of hydration of which of the given ions is highest? (1) Te (2) NB (3) cr (4) Fe’ The element which does not show +4 oxidation state is (1) Ac (2) Tm (3) Pa @u The compound which reacts most easily with sodium is (1) Cr(CO}e (2) ViCO)s (3) NCO}. (4) Fe(CO}s The correct electronic configuration of the central atom in [MnCl based on crystal field theory is (1) they (2) Byes 8) eh, Select the incorrect statement about ozone. (4) oF (1) Its formation is endothermic process (2) During its formation from oxygén, entropy increases (3) Its pure liquid form is dark blue colour (4) ltoxidises lead sulphide to lead sulphate. SECTION -B Low spin complex of d' cation is an octahedral field will have following energy (Ao = crystalifield selting svorgy nan coahecrgals. aang croreoteoeron (2404 @ BaP @) 2a wy ana (3) 3 (4) 3 Nurbor of C1= 0" bond n HCO (aya (22 (3) 3 (44 Coect match among the otowing ( Jer > cor >]: |sabiiy Eee ore (2) | Fe>Cla>Bra> le Bond orongth @ Jaca Negatve See” can enthalpy w@ |reorcer Redueng Soiee 89, 90, ot 92, 93, 94, 95, 96. 97, ‘Aqua regia reacts with Au to yield (1) Au(NOs)s (2) HiAUCh) (3) AuCls (4) Aucl Ligand which will show highest trans effect ‘among the following is (1) Br (2) Colts (3) OF (4) Ho Outer orbital complex among the following is (1) [Co(Hz0)e)"* (2) [Cr(HeO)eF* (3) [Mn(CN)e}> (4) [CoFef> Which among the following has highest first ionisation enthalpy? (1) Mo (2) Fe (3) Cu (4) Ni Element which has one electron in ‘Ss’ orbital is (1) Cd @y (3) Ag (4) 2r Number of 'Cr — O — Cr’ bond{s) in dichromate (Om 2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 ‘Seléet the ineorfect statement about lanthanoids, (1), Alllanthanoids are silvery white soft metals. (2) Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured. (8) These are bad conductors of heat and electricity (4) Hardness increases with increase in atomic umber. Possible distribution of hybrid orbitals in space for complex having coordination number 4 is (1) Trigonal planar (2) Square planar (3) Trigonal bipyramidal (4) Octahedral Match column | with column Il, Column | Column 1 (a) | XeoFs ()_| Pyramidal (o) | PCls (it) | Trigonal planar (©) | xe0s (ii) | Square pyramidal (a) | Sos (iv) | Trigonat bipyramidal (1) afi, Biv), et), di) (2) atv), bi, c(i), di) (3) ati, Biv), eCi, di) (4) a(), btiv), efi), ai) (8)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 98, 99. 101 102. 103. 104, 105. Percentage of zinc and copper in brass respectively are (1) 60% and 40% (2) 75% and 25% (8) 25% and 75% (4) 40% and 60% Statement I: Cr(CO)s is an organometallic ‘compound, Statement Il: The metal-carbon bond in Cr(CO)s possess both « and = character. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct, (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect 100. Which among the following has highest density? (1) Mn (2) Fe (3) Ni 4a)Vv SECTION-A For asexual reproduction, spores are formed in (2) Algae (0) Fungi (c) Gymnosperms The correct one(s) is/are (1) (a) only (2) Both (a) and (b) (8) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) (@) only In Amoeba, binary fission is a process in which (1) Karyokinesisis followed by cytokinesis. (2) Nucleus is divided into many daughteflauelet (3) The resulting daughter cells do)not resemble with their parents (4) Only cytoplasm divides Which among the following is @ chromosomal disorder? (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) Phenylketonuria (4) Haemophilia In an anther, two lobes are attached to each other by a band of vasculated sterile tissue called (1) Exothecium (2) Stalk (3) Endothecium (4) Connective Mendel selected ___characters in pea plant for carrying out hybridisation experiments, Select the correct option to fil n the blank 7 14 (3) 10 (4) 5 106, The passage present at the tip of ovule where integument is absent is called (1) Funicle (2) Germ pore (3) Hilum (4) Micropyle 107. Which of \thelifollowing is a disadvantage of cleistogamy? (1) gfe offsprings produced have limited genetic, diversity (2) Itfneeds to produce a lot of pollen grains (8) There. is a little proba pollinated (4) There is always a need of pollinator 1108, Identify the following statements as true(T) or falso(F) and choose the option accordingly. of flower to get |. All annual plants show recovery phase when they flower. II. Angiosperms produce non-motile gametes. Ill, Only sexually reproducing organisms show embryogenesis from a zygote. It 4 W Mt F T QT F F @) F T T (4) F F T 109. Blood group of both the parents is O. What percent of their offsprings will also show © blood group? (1) 100% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75% (10)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-8) 110. m1 112, 113, 114. After culturing the anther of a plant, few diploid plants were found along with haploid plants. The diploid plants could have developed fram (1) Generative cell of pollen (2) Cells of anther wall (3) Vegetative cell of pollen (4) Exine of pollen wall During the development of embryo in dicot plants, the first cell of suspensor towards micropyle is called (1) Haustorium (2) Hypophysis (3) Embryo cell (4) Radicle cell Mark the incorrect statement, (1) Phenotype is observable morphological ‘appearance (2) Recessive trait fails to express in homozygous condition (3) Dominant trait can also be expressed in heterozygous condition (4) Dinybrid cross involves two// pairs contrasting traits of two characters Match the following columns and \seleet the correct option. of Column | Column I a. Bombax (i) Entomophily b. Calotropis (ii), Omithophily_ ©. Maize Gi) Hypohyrophiy d. Zostera (iv) Wind Botination (1) ali), bq), ett), tiv) (2) aD(0, etiv) a) (3) afi), b(ii), efit), div) (4) aiv), Bai), ctiiy 115. By looking into the ploidy of given structures, find the ploidy of male and female plants, respectively. Nucellus-6n ; PEN - 10n (1) 40, 60 (2) 6n, 4n (3) 8n, 6n (4) 4n, 8n Middle layer of anther wall (a) Degenerates at maturity (b) Has water resistant fibrous bands (c) Nourishes developing pollen grains (a) Forms microspore mother cell (e) Is polyploid ‘The correct one(s) is/are (1) (a), (d) & (e) (3) All except (b) (2) (a), (b) & (e) (4) Only (a) 116. 117. 118, 119. 120. 121 In Antirhinum sp. when red coloured flowers were crossed with white flowers and resultant plant is setf-crossed, then the phenotypic ratio in Fa generation would be (1) 122:4 (2) 3:4 @) 4:4 (4) 9:3:3:1 In which of the given pairs, both the traits are dominant in Drosophila? (1) Brown body with white eye (2) White eye with miniature wing (3) Normal wing with white eye (4) Brown body with normal wing In honey bees, males (1) Have 32 chromosomes (2) Are diploid (3) Are parthenogenetically produced (4) Are Sterile Select the inheritance, (1) Bagh polygene”atways has more than 2 alleles (2)\Humian skin inheritance incorrect one for _polygenic colour shows polygenic (8) The umber of each type of alleles in the Genotype determines the trait (4) "Such traits can be controlled by two or more genes A coconut plant has (1) Both pistilate and staminate flowers (2) Bisexual flowers (3) Either pistilate or staminate flowers (4) Only pistilate flowers Select the following, (a) In. bryophytes, water is the medium for gamete transfer (b) In all gymnosperms, male gametes are motile and female gametes are non-motile incorrect statements from the (©) In Chara, male sex organ occupies lower position than the female sex organ (a) Funaria is a dioecious bryophyte (1) (a), (c) and (4) (2) (b) and (a) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) (11)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 122. 123. 124, 126. 126. 127. 128. Embryogenesis is absent in (@) Algae (6) Angiosperms (c) Gymnosperms (@) Preridophytes (1) @ony (2) Both (a) and (c) (3) Both (a) and(d) (4) (b) only In humans (1) Males are homogametic (2) There is always 50% chance of male or female child in each pregnancy (3) Egg determines sex of chitd (4) Males have 44 + XXY chromosomes How many times mitotic nuclear divisions occurs in a functional megaspore to form a typical ‘embryo sac? (1) Four (2) Two (3) Seven (4) Five Statement A: Mutation that arise due to change! in single base pair of DNA is point mutation. Statement B: Mutation is the only phenomenon’ that leads to variation in DNA. Consider the above statements and Selett correct option (1) Only statement A is correct. (2) Only statement B is correet (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect The heterozygous round yellow seeded pea plants were selfed and total 400 seeds are collected. What is the total number of seeds with first dominant and second recessive traits? (1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 75 (4) 100 Fusing gametes are morphologically dissimilar in (1) Spirogyra (2) Fucus (3) Ulothrix (4) Cladophora The crossing over frequencies between A and B; A and C; B and C are 8%, 27% and 35% respectively. What is possible sequence of genes on chromosome? (1) ABC (3) CAB (2) ace (4) BCA 129. 130. 131 132 133, 134, 135. Dichogamy is (1) The failure of the pollen grains to germinate on stigma of same flower (2) Liberation of male gametophyte in three celled stage (3) Entry of pollen tube into ovule through ovary wall (4) Different maturation time of androecium and gynoecium in the same flower Select the option which is not true wert. most ‘common asexual spores formed in algae (1) These are motile (2) Their origin is endogenous (3) These are formed in unfavourable conditions (4) They can have more than one flagellum Choose correct option for the terms related to female reproductive structure in Marchantia (1) Antheridiophore, Oogonium, Sperm (2) Antheridiophore, Antheridium, Antherozoid (3) Archegoniophore, Archegonium, Ovum (4) Archegoniophére, Oogonium, Globule WhatiliS> the \probability of nor-parental type progenies formed in a typical Mendelian dinybria FOSS in F2 generation? (1) 96 (2) 3/16 3) 6/16, (4) 1116 During tripe fusion in angiosperms, fusion occurs between (1) One polar nucleus and one male gamete (2) One polar nucleus and two male gametes (3) Two polar nuclei and a male gamete (4) Two male gametes and one egg nucleus ‘Amale grasshopper (1) Has same number of chromosomes as that in female grasshopper (2) Produces a single type of gametes (3) Produces two types of gametes which differ in chromosome number (4) Is homogametic Which of the following statements sporopollenin is false? (1) It constitutes exine layer (2) Itis one of the resistant organic materials (3) Exine has apertures called germpores where sporopollenin is present (4) It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids about (12)136. 137, 138, 139. 140, for NEET-2022 SECTION -B Perispermic seeds are those seeds in which (1) Endosperm is not formed (2) Endosperm is diploid (3) Nucellus is completely consumed during the development of embryo (4) Remnants of nucellus is seen Which among the following is an example of pleiotropy? (1) Flower colour in pea plant (2) Phenylketonuria (3) ABO blood grouping (4) Skin colour in man Study the pedigree chart given below. What does itshow? (1) Both the parents P(1) and\P(2) are homozygous for the trait, (2) The trait under phenylketonuria (3) It shows inheritance of colour blindness, (4) It shows criss-cross inheritance Identify the following statements as. true(T) or false(F) and select the option accordingly. study could abe A. Apple fruits develop after the —process|(of fertilization B._ The wall of ovary forms the wall of fruit C, False fruits do not have seeds, ABC Mo FOT T @ TT F @) FOF T (4) TOF OF (A) This disorder appears due to fusion of normal egg (22 + X) and abnormal sperm (22 + 0). (8) The females have rudimentary ovaries. Above statements are true for (1) Down's syndrome (2) Thalassemia (3) Turner's syndrome (4) Klinefelter's syndrome 141 142 143. Test-6 (Code-8) Which of following traits of pea plant cannot ‘express itself in heterozygous condition? (1) Terminal flower (2) Green pod (3) Yellow seed (4) Violet flower Transfer of non-motile male gametes through pollen tube occurs in (1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes (2) Bryophytes only (3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) Pleridophytes and gymnosperms How many of the following characteristics of flowers favour pollination by insects? Bright colour, Presence of nectaries, Non-sticky pollen grains, Feathery stigma, Foul-odour 144, 145. 146. 147. (1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) Five Which of the following statements is not correct? (1) Mendel started his work on Pisum sativum in 1856 (2) In 900, three scientists independently rediscovered the Mendel's principle of inheritance {3),Homologous chromosomes separate at anaphase | (4) Mendel provided strong physical proof for the existence of factors Whigh”one of the following representation of symbols used in human pedigree analysis is incorrect? 1) [FEO consanguineous mating 2) @ Aftected fermate @) HArtocted mate (4) [7 + —O ating For hybridisation, emasculation in plants is the process in which (1) Pistils are removed from female parent flower (2) Anthers are removed from female parent flower (8) Anthers are removed from male parent flower (4) Pistils are removed from male parent flower All of the following are outbreeding devices in flowering plants, except (1) Unisexuality (3) Dioecy (2) Seltincompatibility (4) Bisexuality (13)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 148. 149. 151. 152 153. Regarding the presence of endosperm in mature seeds, choose the odd one out. (1) Maize (2) Castor (3) Bean (4) Wheat Perennial monocarpic plant is (1) Bamboo (2) Radish (3) Mango (4) Grapevine 150. A colourblind daughter can be born in which of the following cases? (1) Colourblind father and normal homozygous mother (2) Normal father and colourblind mother (3) Carrier mother and colourblind father (4) Carrier mother and normal father SECTION-A Read the following statements and select the option which correctly states them as true(T) or false(F). (a) Clones are morphologically and genetically similar individuals. (b) Lifespan of a cow is 60 years. (c) Formation of the diploid zygote is universalin, all sexually reproducing organisms. (a) Embryonal protection and care are bettertin’ viviparous organisms compared to oviparous organisms. (a) (b) (c) (a) aT T F T QT F T T @) F T F 7 ) F F T T ‘Approximately how many eggs are, released by each human ovary in a year under normal Physiological conditions? (1) Five (2) Twelve (3) Six (4) Four Complete the analogy and choose the correct cption. Euglena Longitudinal binary fission :: Planaria (1) Transverse binary fission (2) Simple binary fission (3) Oblique binary fission (4) Longitudinal binary fission 154, 155, 156. 157. 158, Read the following statements and select the correct option Statement A: In human females, oogenesis starts during embryogenesis and completes before puberty. Statement B: In human males, both testes have about 250 compartments in total called testicular lobules (1) Both the statements are correct (2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Onigistatement B is correct Productioiijand release of colostrum, that is the first, milk produced during the initial days of lactation is not associated with (1) Oxytocin (2) Relaxin (3) Proiactin (4) hPL Ini which of the following animals, testes remain permanently in the abdomen and do not cause ‘any defect? (1) Elephant (2) Bat (3) Otter (4) Human The human male ejaculates about ___ sperms during a coitus, of which, for normal fertility, at least 60 per cent sperms must have normal shape and size and ___ of them must show vigorous motility. Choose the option that fils the blanks correctly. (1) 200 to 300 million, 40 per cent (2) 200 to 300 million, 60 per cent (3) 200 to 300 million, 72 per cent (4) 200 to 300 million, 30 per cent Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of (1) Androgens from foetal pituitary (2) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary (3) Relaxin from foetal ovary (4) Oxytocin from maternal adrenal glands (14)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-8) 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164, 165, 166, 167. Maximum life span of dog is about (1) 5-8 years (2) 60-70 years (3) 18-20 years (4) 10-12 years During gastrulation, ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm of an embryo is derived from (1) Trophoblast (2) Trophoectoderm (3) Hypoblast (4) Epiblast Exogenous budding occurs in (1) Hyer (2) Euglena (3) Paramecium (4) Diatoms Choose the incorrect match from the following, (1) | Seminiferous tubules ]-] 1-3 in each testes (2)| Mammary lobes in | —| 15-20 both breasts (8) | Volume of semen per | — [25-5 mL ejaculate (4) | Number of primary follicles in each ovary at puberty 60,900:80,000 Gommules are asexual reproductive \suctures produced by (1) Hydra (2) Amoeba (3) Spongilla (4) Yeast ooyte from ovary enters the oviduct by (1) Beating action of the flagellum (2) Ciliary movement of fmbriae (3) Contraction of ovarian muscles (4) Uterine contractions In females, the hormone that inhibits FSH secretion is (1) hee (2) Inhibin (3) nPL. (4) Relaxin In human ovary, the structure which is formed afer failure in fertiization is (1) Corpus callosum (2) Corpus hemorrhagicum, (3) Corpus albicans (4) Corpus luteum, Sertoli cells secrete certain factors that help in the process of spermiogenesis, under the influence of (1) GH (2) FSH (3) hoc. (4) LH 168. 169. 170. m1 172 173. How many sperms and ova will be produced from 200 primary spermatocytes and 100 primary oocytes respectively? (1) 400 sperms and 50 ova (2) 200 sperms and 100 ova (3) 800 sperms and 100 ova (4) 800 sperms and 200 ova Ifthe menstrual cycle of a human female is of 35 days then ovulation takes place on (1) 30" day (2) 16" day (3) 21" day (4) 14" day Life span (1) Is the period from birth to natural death of an organism (2) Is always correlated to the size of an organism (3) Is the period from birth to death of an individual due to accident, natural calamities or disease (4) Of fruit fly fs less than butterfly Seleotitie incorrect match w.r.t. sperm. (1) Head Has haploid nucleus (2) Mic (3) Tail — Has central axial filament (4) Neck=Has mitochondria Read the following statement (A) and statement (B) W.rt, morula and choose the correct option. Statement (A): The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called morula. Statement (B): The size of morula in human is ‘smaller than the fertilized egg. idle piece — Has mitochondria (1) Both the statements are correct (2) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Only statement (B) is correct (4) Only statement (A) is correct Following is a diagrammatic representation of menstrual cycle of 30 days. What will be the length of phase A and B, if menstrual phase is of 5 days? ‘Menstruation starts on day 1 7 Menstrual phase (15)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 174. 176. 176. 177. Choose the correct option (1) A: 10 days, B: 15 days (2) A:14 days, B: 11 days (8) A: 12 days, B13 days (4) A: 15 days, B : 10 days Which of the following association of germ layers and the developed organ is correct? (1) Adrenal cortex : Ectoderm (2) Adrenal medulla : Mesoderm (3) Gonads : Mesoderm (4) Brain : Endoderm Match column I with column Il and choose the correct match. Column! Column It a. | Menstrual ()_ | Release of ovum phase b. | Follicular phase | (ii) | Development of follicles . | Ovulatory (ii) | Corpus luteum phase d.| Luteal phase | (iv) | Breakdown of endometrium (1) atv), BA), (i), i) (2) ati), BC, fH, i) 3) at, DG, etn, av) (4) affv), BG, fi, a) Read the following statements. (@) Parturition is induced by 9a complex neuroendocrine mechanism invalving cortisol, estrogen and oxytocin, (0) The opening of cervix is often covered partialy by a membrane called hymen, (c) Myometrium exhibits strong during the delivery of the baby. contractions () Colostrum contains antibodies which provide passive immunity to the newborn. How many given statement(s) are correct? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four In mammalian males, excretory and reproductive systems share (1) Urethra (3) Vas deferens (2) Seminal vesicle (4) Ureter 178. 179. 180. 181 182 183. Choose the edd one w.rt sexual reproduction. (1) Slow mode of reproduction (2) Formation of gametes by single individual only (3) Young ones are not exact replicas of their parent (4) Complex than asexual reproduction Select the odd one w.rt ploidy. (1) Primary spermatocyte (2) Spermatia (9) Secondary oocyte (4) Ootid In majority of sexually reproducing organisms, the gametes produced are of morphologically two distinet types. They differ generally on the given basis except (1) Size (2) Amount of cytoplasm (3) Chrofiosofie number (4) Motility Birt canal consists of and : ‘Select the option which fils the blanks correctly, (1) Vagina and uterus, (2) Vagina and cervix (3) Cervix and hymen (4) Vagina and hymen ‘Genetic constitution of (22+X) is found in (1) Oogenia (2) Primary oocyte (3) Primary spermatocyte (4) Ootia ‘Arrange the following in increasing order of the meiocyte chromosome number in each cell of these organisms. (a) Humans (b) Housetly (c) Rat (¢) Buttery {e) Dog (1) (©), (©) (@),(@) and (4) (2) (©), (a, (6), (e) and (a) (3) (b), (a), (c), (d) and (e) (4) (©), (€), (6, (a) and (a) (16)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-8) 184. 185, 186. 187. 188, Select the edd one w.rt. female reproductive system. (1) Bartholin’s glands (2) Mammary glands (3) Bulbourethral glands (4) Skene’s glands ‘What is the first sign of growing foetus that is noticed in human gestation? (1) Heart sounds in growing embryo. (2) Development of digits (3) Formation of eyelashes (4) Development of timbs SECTION -B Select the correct statement from the following. (1) In case of human males, inhibin inhibits the sscretion of LH. (2) Release of prolactin is not an important component of initiation of parturition “In humans. (3) Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from vas deferens to epididymis. (4) Secretion of salivary glands [email protected] fructose, calcium and some enzymes. Identity the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place_of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together. Developme | Site of occurence ntal stage (1) |e celled Starting point of fallopian morula tube (2) | Blastocyst | Uterine wall (3) [Late morula | Uterine cavity (4) | Blastula Middle part of fallopian tube How many eggs have been released from ovary {les) if the mother gave birth to identical twins? a4 (2) 3 (3) 1 @) 2 189. 190. 191 192 193, 194, 195. Implantation occurs in (1) Zygote stage (2) Moruta stage (3) Blastocyst stage (4) Gastrula stage Structure in female external genitalia which is homologous to male penis is (1) Labia majora (2) Labia minora (3) Mons pubis (4) Clitoris Select the organ which is devoid of glands. (1) Uterus (2) Vagina (3) Vulva (4) Oviduet How many secondary oocytes are required for the formation of-400 ova? (1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 400 (4) 50 Compléte the analogy wrt the structure Involved and select the correct option. Vasectomy: Vas deferens : : Hysterectomy : (1) Mammary glands (2) Uterus (8) Prostate gland (4) Testes The site where release of second polar body in humans ocours is (1) Body cavity (2) Uterine cavity (8) Oviduct (4) Ovary Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? (1) Isecretes somatomammotrophin (2) Facilitates removal of COz material from mother (3) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo (4) Connected umbilical cord and waste to the embryo through an (17)Test-6 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 196. 197. Gamete transfer occurs during (1) Pre-ferlisation event (2) Postfertlisation event (3) Gametogenesis (4) Embryogenesis Read the given statements and select the correct option, Statement A: Ectopic pregnancies are referred to implantation of embryo at a site other than uterus. Statement B: Fertilisation in human is practically feasible only if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of fallopian tube. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct a 198. 199, 200, a Select the organism which is considered as immortal (1) Only yeast (2) All unicellular organisms (3) Aphis (4) Cockroach How many of the animals given below in the box exhibit oestrus cycle? Cow, Sheep, Monkey, Deer, Dog, Ape (1) Four (2) Two (3) Three: (4) One Select the type of parthenogenesis in which unfertilized eggs form only females. (1) Epitoky (2) Thelytoky (3) Arrhenotoky (4) Amphitoky (18)