Tribhuvan University

Institute of Medicine
Maharajgunj Medical Campus

Set A .

CEE Model Entrance Examination 2080

Morning Shift
Organized by IOM 43rd Batch
Date: Ashoj 6th, 2080 (Saturday) Duration: 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Building Time: 7:00 AM – 10:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
 Darken ● the most appropriate one.
 Calculator and mobile a re not allowed.
 Students are not allowed to leave the exam hall before 3 hrs.

Supported By:
NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, PutalisadakTel:
- 01- 4231144

Nirvana Publication
NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

1. A person, riding a bike, got into accident and was unable to produce proper speech and
had difficulty in pronouncing words. Which of the following areas of his brain must have
been damaged by the accident?
a. Wernicke’s Area b. Vocal Cords
c. Occipital lobe d. Broca’s Area
2. An individual is said to be male if there is presence of
a. A X chromosome b. Two X chromosomes
c. Two Y chromosomes d. At Least one Y chromosome
3. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed.
The result expected was
a. High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
b. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
c. High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
d. High level of circulating HCG to stimulate oestrogen and progesterone synthesis
4. Which of the following sugars is present in semen and is responsible for nutrition of the
sperm?
a. Glucose b. Fructose
c. Galactose d. Arabinose
5. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying
description ?
a. Thyroid - hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism
b. Thymus - starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
c. Parathyroid - secretes parathormone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood
d. Pancreas - Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis
in liver
6. Secretion of which of the following by the adrenal glands is not stimulated by hormones
a. Cortisol b. Epinephrine
c. Sex corticoids d. Aldosterone
7. Which of the following is responsible for absorption of the highest quantity of water?
a. Buccal cavity and Oesophagus b. Stomach
c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
8. Which of the following is present in all types of blood vessels?
a. Fibrous tissue b. Smooth muscles
c. Endothelium d. All of the above
9. Vasa recta open into
a. Peritubular capillaries b. Collecting ducts
c. Duct of Bellini d. Ureters
10. The glomerular filtrate does not normally contain
a. Water b. Sodium
c. Albumin d. Potassium
11. Which of the following is not responsible for exchange of gases in the lungs?
a. Terminal bronchioles b. Respiratory bronchioles
c. Alveolar ducts d. Alveoli

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

12. The brain stem does not include

a. Pons varoli b. Medulla oblongata
c. Midbrain d. Cerebellum
13. Euglena is a photosynthetic Protista and is attracted by two light source. Euglena is to
be found bending side wise until right and left surface receptors of euglena are equally
stimulated. This type of movement is called:
a. Tropotaxis b. Klinotaxis
c. Menotaxis d. Telotaxis
14. Function of blubber in aquatic adaptation is :
a. As food storage b. Provides buoyancy
c. Serves as insulator d. All of the above
15. Which of the following is missing link?
a. Duck-Billed Platypus b. Peripatus
c. Lung fish d. Archaepteryx
16. The wings of bird and wings of insect are;
a. Homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
b. Analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
c. Phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution
d. Homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
17. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of chemical substances produced
during the origin of life on the earth:
a. Water, amino acids, nucleic acid, enzymes
b. Glucose, amino acid, nucleic acid, proteins
c. Amino acid, ammonium phosphate, nucleic acid
d. Ammonia, amino acid, protein, nucleic acid, proteins
18. Ancestor of man who first time showed bipedal movement
a. Cro-magnon b. Australopithecus
c. Java Apeman d. Peking man
19. Anukul, who was brought to OPD with clinical symptoms like significant weight loss,
persistent cough and haemoptysis, was diagnosed to be infected by an acid fast bacilli.
The clinician, Dr. Sanjaya Mishra prescribed him:
a. Zidovudine b. Interferon
c. HRZE (combined drugs) d. Paracetamol
20. Intestinal perforation is the ultimate symptom of extreme stage of which disorder?
a. Malaria b. Filariasis
c. Typhoid d. Pneumonia
21. Which of the following is most abundant antibodies and is found to cross placental
barrier?
a. IgG b. IgA
c. IgM d. IgE

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

22. New born mammals generally do not shiver inspite of lower temperature outside
because:
a. Skeletal tissue present in them
b. White fat has larger capacity for generating heat
c. Brown fat has larger capacity for generating heat
d. Chromatophores present in them
23. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tube, bronchioles
and small bronchi are known as:
a. Squamous epithelium b. Columnar epithelium
c. Ciliated epithelium d. Cuboidal epithelium
24. Haversian system is an exclusive feature of mammalian bone, it is found in;
a. Epiphysis b. Spongy bones of children
c. Diaphysis of long bones d. Cancellous bones
25. Which of the following is diploblastic in nature?
a. Fasciola b. Schistosoma
c. Ascariasis d. Aurelia
26. Taenia solium lacks alimentary canal because;
a. it doesnot require any food b. it lives in the intestine
c. it has saprozoic mode of feeding d. None of the above
27. Gynaecophoric canal is present in
a. Male schistosoma b. Male fasciola
c. Female schistosoma d. Female fasciola
28. Botryoidal tissue is present in
a. Coelom of earthworm b. Coelom of nereis
c. Coelom of leech d. Prostomium of nereis
29. Echinoderms are not characterized by
a. an absence of excretory system b. Bisexual animals
c. Usually external fertilization d. Indirect development with free swimming larva
30. Larva of hemichordate is
a. Amphiblastula b. Tornaria
c. Ammocoete d. Planula
31. Males possess claspers in pelvic fins in class
a. Cyclostomata b. Chondrichthyes
c. Osteichthyes d. Amphibia
32. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to vertebrates?
a. Vertebrates possess notochord during embryonic period
b. Notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adult
c. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
d. Vertebrates have a dorsal muscular heart with two, three or four chambers
33. A malarial patient is characterized by the adherence of parasites to blood vessels to the
brain and their blockage. The inoculated Plasmodium cause release of :
a. Schuffner’s dots b. Maurer’s dots
c. Ziemann’s dots d. Jame’s dots

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

34. Which is the correct order of stages in the erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium vivax?
a. Trophozoite, Schizont, Merozoite b. Signet ring, Rosette, Amoeboid
c. Signet ring, Amoeboid, Rosette d. Both (a) and (c)
35. Under Annelids, class oligochaeta contains a group of slender, burrowing and nocturnal
worms. The largest genera of these worms is
a. Pheretima b. Lumbricus
c. Megascolex d. Tubifex
36. Body cavity of Pheretima posthuma contains corpuscles of 4 kinds, viz. Amoebocytes,
Chloragogen cells (Yellow cells), Mucocytes and Circular nucleated cells. The function
possessed by Chloragogen cells is
a. Deamination b. Detoxicification
c. Storage of glycogen and fat d. All of the above
37. An earthworm is dissected and its nephridia are observed by some means. A particular
kind of nephridia was absent in the 14th segment but present in the 15th one. It
consisted of ciliated funnel like structure called:
a. Twisted loop b. Straight loop
c. Nephridiostome d. Septal excretory canal
38. When viewed under a microscope, the frog's skin possessed two layers. The thicker one
had cutaneous glands. Those glands are
a. Mucous glands b. Sebaceous glands
c. Poison glands d. Both (a) and (c)
39. Lower jaw of frogs possesses prelingual elevations for tighter closing of the mouth.
When the prey is captured, the lower jaw is elevated up. On full closing, these elevations
fit into
a. Maxillary fossa b. Post lingual fossa
c. Pterygopalatine fossa d. Subrostral fossa
40. Spiral valve, present in the heart of frog, divides the pylangium incompletely. The two
portions thus created by this incomplete division are:
a. Right-ventral: cavum aorticum and left-dorsal: cavum pulmocutaneum
b. Right-dorsal: cavum aorticum and left-ventral: cavum pulmocutaneum
c. Right-ventral: cavum pulmocutaneum and left-dorsal: cavum aorticum
d. Left and right aortic trunk
41. DNA of prokaryotic cell is
a. single stranded with a histone protein b. double stranded with a histone protein
c. single stranded without histone d. double stranded without histone protein
42. Ribosomes are important intracellular organelle. Which of the following is correct
about ribosome?
a. Membrane bound with protein synthesizing ability
b. Membraneless with protein synthesizing ability
c. Membrane bound with lipid synthesizing ability
d. Membraneless with carbohydrates synthesizing ability
43. Which one of the following is a viral disease ?
a. citrus canker b. little leaf disease of brinjal
c. Bakane disease of rice d. little leaf disease of cotton

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

44. Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to nitrogenous compound by specific groups of

bacteria. These are:
a. Free Living Bacteria b. Nitrifying Bacteria
c. Denitrifying Bacteria d. N2 fixing
45. Which of the following is true about Red algae ?
a. Reserved food material is laminarian starch b. Biflagellated gametes
c. Harveyella belongs to it d. cell wall is composed of silica
46. What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb
nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?
a. Haustoria b. Mildew
c. Constricting ring d. All of the above
47. Ferns differ from moss in having ;
a. Independent gametophyte b. Biflagellated male gamete
c. Archegonia d. Independent sporophyte
48. Gymnosperms are regarded as 1st successful land plants as they require no water for
fertilization. They are also called naked Seeded plants because they lack;
a. Seed coat b. Leaves
c. ovule d. ovary
49. Which is incorrect about Hornworts ?
a. Hornworts are Bryophytes b. Hornworts are Pteridophytes
c. They have elongated horn like Sporophyte d. Multicellular scales are absent
50. Lichens are considered as dual organisms. Their mode of life is :
a. obligatory parasite b. Symbiont
c. Saprophyte d. None
51. Phyllode and phylloclade are modifications of............respectively
a. Leaf and stem b. stem and leaf
c. Flower and stem d. Root and leaf
52. Parietal placentation is seen in family
a. Compositae b. cucurbitaceae
c. leguminosae d. solanaceae
53. Fleshy , one or more seeded fruit with pericarp differentiated into outer epicarp , fleshy
mesocarp and stony endocarp belongs to
a. Drupe d. Lomentum
c. pome d. Hesperidium
54. Lateral roots originate from
a. pericycle and are endogenous b. pericycle and are exogenous
c. Endoderm and are endogenous d. Endoderm and are exogenous
55. Which of the following lies in between the bark and wood of a tree trunk
a. phloem b. vascular cambium
c. cork cambium d. primary cortex
56. What is incorrect about most stem ?
a. Vascular bundle is conjoint , collateral and open
b. Secondary growth present

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

c. Dictylostele
d. Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath present
57. Guttation occurs during early mornings or night when the rate of transpiration is low
and absorption is high. It is the manifestation of;
a. Root pressure b. Vapour pressure
c. Increased transcription d. Atmospheric pressure
58. Photosythetic pigments have their own absorption spectrum in which they absorb
specific wavelengths. Sequence of absorption spectrum in photosynthesis is;
a. Red to blue b. Blue to Red
c. Green to Blue d. White to green
59. In photosynthesis , photolysis of water is used in
a. oxidation of NADP b. Reduction of NADP +
c. oxidation of FAD d. None .
60. Number of ATP from complete oxidation of 1 molecule of pyruvic acid , is :
a. 15 b. 12
c. 24 d. 36
61. Mitochondria was discovered by;
a. Altman b. Kolliker
c. Haeckel d. Purkinje
62. Disjunction of homologous pair occur in
a. Telophase I b. Telophase II
c. Anaphase I d. Anaphase II
63. Genotypic ratio of incomplete dominance is
a. 1:2:1 b. 3:1
c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:1
64. If TAG CTA GCT ACG are triplet of DNA , codon of m – RNA will be
a. ATC GAT CGA TGC b. AUC GAU CGA UGC
c. TAG CTA GCT ACG d. AUC GAU GCT ACG
65. Mutual exchange of segments between 2 non- homologous chromosome is :
a. Crossing over b. Transversion
c. Reciprocal translocation d. Transition
66. Law of Independent Assortment is not followed by
a. Linkage b. Segregation
c. Purity of gamete d. Mutation
67. Most of amino acid have more than 1 triplet codon. But which of following amino acid
are specified by only 1 triplet Codon
a. Serine b. Tryptophan
c. Alanine d. Valine
68. The transfer of genetic material from 1cell to another with the help of virus is known as
a. Transduction b. Transcription
c. Conjugation d. Transformation

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

69. An individual of f1 generation is Crossed with homozygous recessive parents . It is :

a. back cross b. Outcross
c. Reciprocal cross d. Test Cross
70. A Triticum durum is an example of
a. Allopolyploidy b. Trisomy
c. Autopolyploidy d. Monosomy
71. .The typical and most common type of embryo sac found in 80 percent of flowering
plant is polygonum type containing 8 nuclei and 7 cells. Among these cells pollen tube
first arrives in
a. antipodal cells b. egg
c. synergids d. central cell
72. If the stock has 2n = 48 and scion microspore mother cell has 2n =24 then root cell and
microspore will have chromosomes.
a. 12; 48 b. 48; 12
c. 24; 12 d. 24; 96
73. Keystone species are the ones who make up only a small proportion of the total biomass
yet have a huge impact on community's organisation and survival. They deserve
protection because they:
a. are capable of surviving in harsh environmental condition
b. indicate presence of certain minerals in soil.
c. have become rare due to over exploitation
d. play an important role in supporting other species
74. The tropical rain forests are rich in biodiversity on this biosphere leading to variety of
flora,fauna and minerals. The variety in vegetation is mainly due to its
a. low latitude b. amount of rainfall
c. soil having enriched minerals d. higher temperature
75. The conservation of germplasm of reduced species 'THE NEED OF TIME' at lower
temperature is called
a. cryoprotection b. chemical preservation
c. cryopreservation d. cooling
76. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the oxygen in milligrams required for five days in
one litre of water at 20º C for the organism to metabolize organic waste. It. is a measure
of
a. industrial wastes poured into water bodies
b. extent to which water is polluted with organic compound
c. amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin.
d. amount of O2 needed by green plant during night
77. Nitrogen oxides produced from emission of automobiles and power plants are source of
fine air borne particles which lead to
a. photochemical smog b. dry acid deposition
c. industrial smog d. wet acid deposition
78. Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is called
a. tissue culture b. vernalization
c. genetic engineering d. eugenics

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

79. In maize hybrid vigor is exploited by

a. bombarding the seeds with DNA
b. crossing of two inbreeding parental lines
c. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
d. inducing mutations
80. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because
a. these are small circular DNA molecules which can integrate with host chromosomal DNA
b. these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site
c. these can shuttle between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d. these often carry antibiotic resistant genes
81. Natural chlorine is the mixture of two isotopes that is Cl-35 (75% abundance ) and Cl-37
(25 % abundance). The atomic weight of chlorine is
a. 35 amu b. 37 amu
c. 35.5 amu d. 36 amu
82. The molecular formula of an oxide of sulphur containing 50% of sulphur is
a. SO3 b. SO2
c. H2SO4 d. H2S
83. 40g of MgO and 90g of H2SO4 react in a vessel, gives MgSO4 and H2O. Find out the limiting
reagent in the reaction.
a. MgO b. MgSO4
c. H2SO4 d. H2O
84. In 1911, one scientist had bombarded a thin gold foil with high speed α - particle. One of
the conclusion made by him was
a. Existence of neutron b. Existence of nucleus
c. Very few α-particle goes undeflected d. There was use of helium atom
85. Molecular weight of acetic acid in Benzene solution is 120 instead of being normal 60 , it
is just because
a. Weight of benzene plus acetic acid
b. Bonding character of acetic acid by hydrogen bond
c. More no. Of carbon added on acetic acid
d. Due to benzene ring
86. One gas bleaches the colors of flower by reduction while other by oxidation , the two
gases are
a. CO and Cl2 b. SO2 and Cl2
c. H2S and Br2 d. NH3 and SO2
87. Ammonia gas dissolves in water to give hydroxide of ammonia. In this reaction , water
act as
a. An acid b. A base
c. A salt d. A conjugate base
88. The density of a gas X is twice of Y, if the molecular weight of gas Y is 32 , determine the
molecular weight of X ?
a. 32 b. 16
c. 64 d. 80

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

89. The gold no. of gelatin is 0.009 and that of starch is 40. Then which is correct according
to protective action.
a. Gelatin have more protective power than starch
b. Starch have more protective power than gelatin
c. Starch have less protective power than gelatin
d. Both a and c
90. The H2SO4 acid in the laboratory table has volume 250 ml of 0.4N concentration . One
student slowly drops 1 litre of water from the rim of the glass. What is the concentration
after the phenomenon?
a. 1N b. 0.8N
c. 0.7N d. 0.08N
91. During melting 1kg of ice of higher volume to water of lesser volume . The formation of
water is favoured by..
a. High temperature and high pressure b. Low temperature and low Pressure
c. High temperature and low pressure d. Low temperature and high pressure
92. Calculate the hydrogen ion concentration of 1/1000 N H2SO4 if it completely ionised .
a. 3 b. 2
c. 10^-3 d. 10^-2
93. Salt of strong base and weak acid dissolve in water to give alkaline solution , the
mechanism of hydrolysis in which the salt goes on is
a. Anion hydrolysis b. Cationic hydrolysis
c. Neutralisation reaction d. Dissolution process
94. The rate law for the reaction A ———> B has been found to be the form , Rate =K [A]^m.
What will be the overall order of the reaction based on following data ?
a. First b. Second
c. Third d. Fourth
Initial concentration of A Initial Rate
0.05 3x105
0.10 12x105
0.20 48x105
95. Which of the following cannot be used on salt bridge
a. Nitrate of K b. Chloride of K
c. Nitrate of ammonia d. Nitrate of sodium
96. “Without the use of external agency , heat cannot by itself pass from a colder to a hotter
body “. This is the statement of which law of thermodynamics
a. First law b. Second law
c. Third law d. Zeroth law
97. It is impossible to know simultaneously the position and momentum of a moving particle
with absolute exactness at any instant . This is known as
a. Aufbau principle b. Hands rule
c. Heisenberg uncertainty principle d. Pauli's exclusive principle
98. The hardness of diamond represent the consistency of
a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond
c. Covalent bond d. Coordinate bond

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

99. The gas not absorbed by coconut charcoal is :

a. He b. Ne
c. Ar d. Kr
100. Laughing gas is prepared by heating :
a. NH4Cl + NaNO3 b. NH4Cl
c. (NH4 ) 2 SO4 d. NH4NO2
101. Which among the following is the strongest acid?
a. H(ClO)O2 b. H(ClO)O3
c. H(ClO)O d. H(ClO)
102. Which of the following acts as pickling agent?
a. HNO3 b. HCl
c. H2SO4 d. HNO2
103. Which of the following is not oxidized by O3 ?
a. KI b. FeSO4
c. KMnO4 d. K2MnO4
104. When Br2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl and NaI separately
a. F2 , Cl2 and I2 are liberated b. only F2 and Cl2 are liberated
c. only I2 is liberated d. only Cl2 is liberated
105. Tritium undergoes radioactive decay giving
a. α -particles b. β -particles
c. Neutrons d. γ -rays
106. Which substance does not speed up decomposition of H₂O₂ ?
a. Glycerol b. Pt
c. Gold d. MnO₂
107. Spelter is
a. Impure Cu b. Impure Zn
c. ZnO d. CuO
108. Chloride of which of the following elements will be coloured
a. Silver b. Mercury
c. Zinc d. Cobalt
109. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium
a. Magnesite b. Dolomite
c. Gypsum d. Carnallite
110. A chemical A is used for the preparation of washing soda to recover ammonia. When CO₂
is bubbled through an aqueous solution of A, the solution turns milky. It is used in
whitewashing due to disinfectant nature. What is the chemical formula of A?
a. Ca (HCO₃)₂ b. CaO
c. Ca(OH)₂ d. CaCO₃
111. Paper is
a. Lignocellulosic compound b. Cellulosic compound
c. Lignin compound d. All of above

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

112. An element X occurs in short period having configuration ns2 np1 . The formula and
nature of its oxide is
a. XO3 , basic b. XO 3 acidic
c. X2O3 , amphoteric d. X2O3 basic
113. Acetylene molecule contains,
a. 5σ bond b. 4σ and 1 π bond
c. 2π bond d. 3σ and 2 π bond
114. The violet colour obtained during detection of sulphur (S) in organic compound is of,
a. Na₃[Fe(CN)₆] b. Na₂[Fe(CN)₅S]
c. Na₄[Fe(CN)₅ NOS] d. Na₄[Fe(CN)₄NO]
115..An isomer of ethanol is,
a. Methanol b. Dimethyl ether
c. Diethyl ether d. Ethylene glycol
116..Which one of the following is wrong.
a. Electrophiles are electron deficient species
b. Electrophiles are electron loving species
c. Electrophiles attacks on electron deficient site
d. Electrophiles seeks for a pair of electrons.
117. which one of the following do not show electromeric effect?
a. Alkenes b. Ethers
c. Aldehydes d. Ketones
118. The gas obtained by adding water on aluminium carbide is,
a. Methane b. Ethers
c. Ethyne d. Benzene
119. The octane no. has 0 value of,
a. Iso-octane b. n-heptane
c. n-octane d. TEL
120..chloropicrin is obtained by chemical reaction of,
a. Chlorine and acetone b. Chlorine and ethanol
c. Chloroform and conc. Nitric acid d. Chloroform and acetone.
121..Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acid to form esters; the order of such esterification
reaction of alcohol is,
a. Tert. >sec.>pri. b. Sec. >tert.>pri.
c. Pri. >sec.>tert. d. None
122..Fehlings test is positive for,
a. Benzaldehydes b. Acetaldehyde
c. Acetone d. Alcohols
123..Formaldehyde when treated with KOH gives methanol and potassium formate, the
reaction is known as,
a. Perkins condensation b. Claisen's condensation
c. Aldol condensation d. Cannizzaro reaction.
124..Choose the wrong statement.
a. Aldehydes and ketones on reduction with LiAlH₄ forms pri and sec. alcohol respectively.
b. Aldehydes on treatment with schiffs reagent, gives pink color.

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

c. Aldehydes on treatment with fehlings reagent gives red ppt of CuO

d. Aldehydes on treatment with tollens reagent gives silver mirror
125..Acetic acid dissolves in benzene shows molecular mass of
a. 30 b. 60
c. 120 d. 240
126..If a cyanide compound is subjected to complete hydrolysis; it forms acid, in the same
way if cyanide compound is subjected to partial hydrolysis then it forms,
a. Amine b. Amide
c. Acid d. Alcohol
127. Primary nitroalkane (1°) on treatment with HNO₂ forms nitrolic acid which on treatment
with aq.NaOH gives,
a. Red colouration b. Blue colouration
c. Colourless d. Pink colouration
128.Which one of the following is called a polyamide?
a. Rayon b. Nylon
c. Terylene d. Orlon
129.Which one of the following is mordant dye.
a. Indigo b. Alizarin
c. Maritus yellow d. Aniline yellow
130. Match the following group of drugs with its example.
1. Antipyretics i. Dettol
2. Antibiotics ii. penicillin
3. Antiseptics iii. Paracetamol
4. Disinfectants iv. 1% phenol
a. 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iii) b. 1(iii), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iv)
c. 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) d. 1(iii), 2(ii), 3(iv), 4(i)
PHYSICS
131. A medical student tries to measure blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer. Due to
his fluctuated values, while calculating it, he finds systolic pressure as 110.16 mm of Hg
and 112.5 mm of Hg. For the convenient value, he finds the average and notes that value
as systolic pressure. The pressure that he gets is
a. 111.4 mmHg b. 111.3 mmHg
c. 111.35 mmHg d. 111 mmHg
132. The net acceleration of the block system as depicted in the following
pulley diagram is
a. 1m/s2
b. 2m/s2
c. 3m/s2
d. 1.5m/s2
133. For which sets of following angles, horizontal range for two projection of a body will be
equal?
a. 60°, 30° b. 45°+ θ), (45°- θ)
c. 65°, 35° d. Both a and b
134. Which of the following quantities have the same dimension?
a. Work and torque b. Frequency and angular velocity
c. Both a and b d. Plank's constant and linear momentum
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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

135. Simple harmonic motion differs from uniform circular motion

a. SHM is periodic b. SHM is harmonic
c. SHM is not periodic d. HM has same speed
136. At what height from earth surface, the acceleration due to gravity is equal to one-fourth
of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface?
a. R b. R/2
c. 2R d. R/4
137. The elasticity of the rigid body and perfectly inelastic body respectively are
a. 0, ∞ b. ∞,∞
c. ∞, 0 d. 0, 0
138. In the given diagram, a pipe is shown used in hospitals for
supplying water which is horizontal to the ground. The correct
order of velocities at different point is
a. VA > VB > VC b. VB > VA > VC
c. VB > VC > VA d. VC > VB > VA
139. A metallic sphere of mass 8m falls through glycerine with a terminal velocity V. If we
drop a ball of mass m of the same metal into a column of glycerine, the terminal velocity
of the ball will be
a. 8V b. 4V
c. V/8 d. V/4
140. A medical student is ordered by his professor to bring a cuboidal solid box as fast as
possible which is lying 50m away. Then, that student tries to use the laws of physics and
brings it by pulling it. The minimum force he should apply for easiness is where ‘W’
is the weight of block and θ is angle of friction .
a. Wcosθ b. Wsinθ
c. WTanθ d. Wcotθ
141. The temperature at which centigrade and Fahrenheit scale give same reading is
a. 40°C b. -40°C
c. -40°F d. Both b and c
142. The coefficients of cubical expansion of brass and iron are 9x10-6 °C-1 and 3x10-6 °C-1
respectively. If brass and iron rods show the same difference of length at all
temperatures, their lengths are in the ratio of
a. 1:3 b. 3:1
c. 2:3 d. 3:2
143. The ratio of change in temperature of two liquids of masses m and 2m respectively with
specific heat capacity in the ratio 2:1 respectively is supplied with
same heat is
a. 3:1 b. 1:4
c. 4:1 d. 1:1
144. The following diagram depicts different thermodynamic processes
while going from point A to B. The work done by gas is in the order
for different processes is
a. W2 > W3 > W4 > W1 b. W4 > W1 > W3 > W2
c. W1 > W2 > W3 > W4 d. W4 > W3 > W2 > W1
145. The ratio of energy emitted in the star in between two different temperature of 27 °C
and 600K is

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

a. 2:3 b. 1:16
c. 8:1 d. 16: 1
146. Real gas follows the behavior of ideal gas at
a. High temperature, and high pressure b. Low temperature and low pressure
c. High temperature and low pressure. d. Low temperature and high pressure
147. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index
of the lens. Then it's focal length will
a. become zero b. Become infinite
c. Remain unchanged d. Becomes small but not zero.
148. At sunrise or sunset the sun looks redder than at mid day because
a. The sun is hottest at these times b. of the scattering of light
c. of the effects of refraction d. of the effects of reflection
149. An ice cube of 12 cm edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent distance is 5 cm
when observed through one face and 3cm when viewed from the other face. The
refractive index of ice is
a. 12/5 b. 3/2
c. 4 d. 2/3
150. In YDS- experiment of interference the intensity ratio of the bright band to the dark
band was found to be 16:1. The ratio of amplitude of interfering wave is
a. 5/3 b. 16
c. 1/4 d. 4
151. For constructive interference to take place between two monochromatic light waves of
wavelength λ, the path difference should be
(2n–1)
a. nλ b. 2
(2n+1) n
c. 2
d. 2
152. For which of the following, the width will be maximum in a double slit experiment?
a. violet b. Green
c. Red d. Yellow
153. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
b. Both light and sound waves can travel in a vacuum
c. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
d. The sound waves in the air are longitudinal, while the light waves are transverse.
154. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contains gases of density ρ1 and
ρ2 respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes
are vibrating in their first overtone with same frequency. The length of open organ pipe
is.
L 4L
a. 3 b. 3
4L ρ1 4L ρ2
c. d.
3
√ρ 2 3
√ρ 1
155. Two waves having a sinusoidal wave forms have different wavelengths, and different
amplitude. They will be having.
a. Same pitch and different intensity b. Same quality and different intensity
c. Different quality and different intensity d. Same quality and different pitch

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

156. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it

a. Gains electrons from silk b. Gives electron to silk
c. Gains protons from silk d. Gives protons to silk
157. 27 identical drops of mercury are charged simultaneously with the same potential of 10
V. Assuming the drop to be spherical, if all the charged drops are made to combine to
form one large drop then its potential will be.
a. 90 b. 40
c. 160 d. 10
158. Find effective capacitance between A and B
a. 3 μF b. 2 μF
c. 4 μF d. 8 μF
159. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by
a. Low resistance in series b. High resistance in parallel
c. Low resistance in parallel d. High resistance in series
160. A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater.
The ratio of the heat produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is.
a. 2:1 b. 1:2
c. 1:4 d. 4:1
161. The electrolyte used in Lechlanche cell
a. Copper sulfate solution b. Ammonium chloride solution
c. Dil. Sulfuric acid. d. Zinc sulfate
162. If E = at + bt2, what is the neutral temperature?
–a a
a. 2b b. 2b
a –a
c. b
d. b
163. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated
at 110 V is.
a. 50 W b. 75 W
c. 90 W d. 25 W
164. The core of an electromagnet is made of soft iron, because
a. the susceptibility of soft iron is very high b. Coercivity of soft iron is very low
c. Both of these d. None
165. The net magnetic fields at the center of the circular loop is
a. μoI b. μoI
μ4r
oI μ2rI
c. (� + 1) d. o (� − 1)
2πr 2πr

166. The number of turns in a secondary coil is twice the number of

turns in primary. A Leclanche cell of 1.5 V is connected across
primary. The voltage across the secondary is.
a. 1.5 V b. 3 V
c. 240 V d. zero
167. The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will
be
a. 100 V b. 20 V
c. 220 V d. 140 V

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

168. On the basis of energy bands in solids, they are classified into conductor, semi
conductor and insulator. The temperature coefficient of resistance for conductor and
insulator, respectively are
a. Positive, negative b. Negative, positive
c. Positive, positive d. Negative, negative
169. Controlled amount of impurities added to pure semiconductor to increase its
conductivity, the process of being called as doping. In extrinsic semiconductor,
a. Donor energy level lie close to conduction band in N-type semiconductor
b. Donor energy level lie close to conduction band in P-type semiconductor
c. Donor energy level lie close to valence band in P-type semiconductor
d. Donor energy level lie close to valence band in N-type semiconductor
170. The current gain (α) of a transistor is 0.95. The emitter current is 10mA, the base
current is
200
a. 19 mA b. 10.5 mA
c. 0.5 mA d. 9.5 mA
171. The resulting logic gate in the given diagram is:
a. AND b. OR
c. NOR d. NOT
172. When an electron enters in a direction
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, it moves
in a circular path. Calculate the frequency of electron
of havingBem
mass ‘m’ and charge ‘e’ in magnetic field strength
Bm
‘B’
a. � = π b. � = 2πe
Be em
c. �= 2πm
d. �= 2πB

173. An oil drop carrying a charge q has a mass m kg. It is falling freely in air with terminal
velocity V. The electric field required to move drop upwards with same speed is
mg 2mg
a. q b.
q
mgv 2mgv
c. q2
d. q

174. Light of frequency three times the threshold frequency is incident on a metal surface. If
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, photoelectric current becomes
a. Zero b. Remains same
c. Quadrupled d. Doubled
175. The spectral lines emitted, as a result of transition of electrons from higher energy to
lower energy state form the spectral series. The first spectral series discovered was.
a. Lyman b. Balmer
c. p-fund d. Humphrey
176. X-rays are used to study their internal structure of crystals which is in accordance with
Bragg's law. Braggs law has no solution when
a. � > 2� b. � < 2�
c. � < � d. � > �
177. Radioactivity is expressed in various units like Curie Becquerel and Rutherford. 1 Curie
is the activity of 1gram of
a. Uranium b. Radium
c. Polonium d. Radon

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

178. Uranium is used widely to produce nuclear energy through nuclear fission. If 200MeV
energy is released per fission of 92U235 atom. Calculate the number of uranium atoms
fissioned in explosion releasing 7x1014 joule
a. 2.18x1031 b. 2.18x1025
c. 3.5x10 31
d. 3.5x1025
179. Photon act as a mediating a particle in which type of fundamental force interaction
a. Strong interaction b. Electromagnetic interaction
c. Weak interaction d. Gravitational interaction
180. Waves of energy caused by sudden breaking of rocks within the Earth, are called
seismic waves. The correct order of velocities of different seismic waves are
a. P wave >s wave > surface wave b. Surface wave> S wave > P wave
c. S wave> P wave > surface wave d. S wave> surface wave> P wave
181. Choose the analogy from the options provided, that is most similar to the one in
question.
limp : walk
a. Flap: fly b. run : race
c. Stutter : talk d. Chew : digest
182. If JAPAN is coded as KCSES, then the code for CASTLE will be:
a. DIJOBT b. DJKRDP
c. DKMSGR d. DCVXQK
183. Complete the series: 2, 6, 15, 28, 55, …?…
a. 110 b. 85
c. 78 d. 53
184. _m_no_mm_oam_noa
a. amanm b. amman
c. mnaon d. mnoom
185. There are 100 students in IOM 43rd batch. If they shake each other’s hands once and
only once, how many handshakes are there altogether?
a. 200 b. 5050
c. 4950 d. 5500
186. A meaningful nine-lettered English word is formed using all the I S Y
alphabets given in the grid below, starting with the alphabet of a C N H
corner block, moving in anti-clockwise direction and ending at the I A P
alphabet in the central grid. What is the fourth letter of the word?
a. S b. C
c. P d. I
187. The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men aged
20 and 24 are replaced by two women. The average age of these two women is:
a. 46 years b. 32 years
c. 30 years d. 44 years
2 7 C
188. What is the missing letter in the matrix?
4 0 H
a. G b. A
6 5 ?
c. I d. B

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

189. Rajan is in the east of Madan who is in the north of Prabesh. If Muskan is in the South of
Prabesh, then in which direction of Rajan is Muskan?
a. North b. South
c. South-east d. None of these
190. Statement:
The doctor is of the opinion that the patient’s condition would become normal after this
operation.
Conclusions:
I. The patient’s condition is such that he can be operated upon.
II. Certain costly medicines can be administered and the operation may not be necessary.
a. Only conclusion I follows the statement. b. Only conclusion II follows the statement.
c. Neither conclusion I nor II follows. d. Both conclusions I and II follow.
191. From among the five doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, four engineers A, B, C, D and six teachers M,
N, O, P, Q and R, some teams are to be selected. Of these 1, 2, A, B, O, P, Q are females and
the rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the following conditions:
Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female teacher. Wherever there is a
male engineer, there will not be a female doctor. There shall not be more than two male
teachers in any team. If the team consists of two doctors, two-female teachers and two
engineers, then all the following teams are possible except
a. 1, 2, C, D, P, Q b. 1, 2, A, B, P, Q
c. 1, 2, A, B, O, Q d. O, P, A, B, 1, 2
192. Arjun is the brother of Sabina and Ritik. Bindu is the mother of Ritik. Barun is the father
of Arjun. Which of the given statement cannot be said to be definitely true?
a. Arjun is the son of Bindu. b. Barun is the husband of Bindu.
c. Barun is the brother of Sabin. d. Bindu is the mother of Arjun.
193. The price of tomatoes rose by 25% then fell by 20%. The price after these changes was:
a. 20% greater than the original price. b. 5% greater than the original price.
c. Same as the original price. d. 5% less than the original price.
194. What value replaces “?” in the below figure?

a. 4 b. 3
c. 2 d. 1
195. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when
the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
196. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red (R), blue (B), yellow (Y), green (G), white
(W) and orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they
are folded to form a cube, what would be the face opposite the white face?

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NAME CEE Model Exam IOM 43rd Batch

a. R b. B
c. G d. Y
197. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix:

a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
198. Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.

a. 28 triangles, 10 squares b. 28 triangles, 8 squares

c. 32 triangles, 10 squares d. 32 triangles, 8 squares
199. Sudan invested a certain sum of money in a simple interest bond whose value grew to
Rs. 300 at the end of 3 years and to Rs. 400 at the end of another 5 years. What was the
rate of interest?
a. 12.5% b. 12%
c. 6.67% d. 8.33%
200. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which
when fitted into each other would form a complete square.

a. 1,4,5 b. 2,3,4
c. 2,4,5 d. 1,3,5

Best of Luck

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