SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 15.03.

2024
Time: 9.00 AM to 12.20 PM (XII Syllabus GT-6) KEY Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION - A
1. Fg and Fe represents gravitational and electrostatic force respectively between two electrons. The ratio
of Fg / Fe is of the order of
1) 1042 2) 10 36 3) 10 40 4) 1043
2. Three charges 4q, Q and q are in a straight line in the position of 0, l / 2 and l respectively. The
resultant force on q will be zero, if Q  _______
q
1) – q 2)  2q 3)  4) 2q
2
3. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius having charges 10 C and 20 C respectively and
placed at a certain separation experience force F1 . If they are brought in contact and separated to the
same distance, they experience force F2 . The ratio of F1 to F2 is
1) 1 : 8 2) – 8 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) – 2 : 1
4. A charge is placed on a solid piece of metal of irregular shape. The charge will distribute itself
1) Uniformly in the metal object
2) Uniformly on the surface of the object
3) Such that the potential energy of the system is minimised
4) Such that the total heat loss is minimized
5. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of side ' a ' . Work done in removing a
charge – Q from its centre to infinity is
2Q 2 2Q 2 Q2 2
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
4 0 a  0 a 2 0 a
6. Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface the electric field will be due to

1) q2 2) Only the positive charges

3) All the charges 4)  q1 and  q1

Pg. 1
7. The figure gives the electric potential V as a function of distance through five regions on x-axis. Which
of the following is true for the electric field E in these regions?

1) E1  E2  E3  E4  E5 2) E1  E3  E5 and E2  E4
3) E2  E4  E5 and E1  E3 4) E1  E2  E3  E4  E5
8. Figure (a) shows two capacitors connected in series and joined to a battery. The graph in figure (b)
shows the variation in potential as one moves from left to right on the branch containing the capacitors,
if

(a) (b)
1) C1  C2
2) C1  C2
3) C1  C2
4) The information is not sufficient to decide the relation between C1 and C2
9. Assertion: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if the temperature of the wire
is increased.
Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
1) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) assertion is true but reason is false.
d) assertion is false but reason is true
10. Assertion: Electric field outside the conducting wire which carries a constant current is zero.
Reason: Net charge on conducting wire is zero.
1) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) assertion is true but reason is false.
4) assertion is false but reason is true
11. A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater. The ratio of the
heat produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is
1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
a a
12. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis from x   to x  and carries a steady
2 2
current i. The magnetic field due to the section PQ at a point X = + a will be
1) Proportional to a 2) Proportional to a 2
3) Proportional to 1/ a 4) Zero
Pg. 2
13. A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre O and carrying currents i1 and i2 as shown in
the adjacent figure. If ratio of their radii is 1 : 2 and ratio of the magnetic flux densities at O due to A
and B is 1 : 3, then the value of i1 / i2 is

1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 4 3 2
14. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of the
plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX’ is given by

1) 2)

3) 4)
15. Assertion: A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight and thin walled pipe. Then
the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero.
 
Reason:  B .d l  o I
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) assertion is true but reason is false.
4) assertion is false but reason is true.
16. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside magnetic fields by
placing it inside a box of
1) Teak wood 2) Plastic material
3) Soft iron of high permeability 4) A metal of high conductivity

Pg. 3
17. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences
1) A force and a torque 2) A force but not a torque
3) A torque but not a force 4) Neither a torque nor a force
18. The material of permanent magnet has
1) High retentivity, low coercivity 2) Low retentivity, high coercivity
3) Low retentivity, low coercivity 4) High retentivity, high coercivity
19. Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its magnetic susceptibility will be
1) 5500  107 2) 5500  10–7 3) 5501 4) 5499
20. If a diamagnetic solution is poured into a U-tube and one arm of this U-tube placed between the poles
of a strong magnet with the meniscus in a line with the field, then the level of the solution will
1) Rise 2) Fall 3) Oscillate slowly 4) Remain as such
21. An inductance L and a resistance R are first connected to a battery. After some time the battery is
disconnected but L and R remain connected in a closed circuit. Then the current reduces to 37% of its
initial value in
R L 1
1) RL sec 2) sec 3) sec 4) sec
L R LR
22. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along
1) The same direction but differ in phase by 900
2) The same direction and are in phase
3) Mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
4) Mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by 900
23. Assertion: Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
Reason: Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
 
24. In an ac circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, I  100sin  100t   mA .
 3
The power dissipated in circuit is
1) 104 watt 2) 10 watt 3) 2.5 watt 4) 5 watt
25. The frequency of ac mains in India is
1) 30 c/s or Hz 2) 50 c/s or Hz 3) 60 c/s or Hz 4) 120 c/s or Hz
26. When the object is self-luminous, the resolving power of a microscope is given by the expression
(where the symbols have their usual meaning)
2 sin  1.22  2  cos  2
1) 2) 3) 4)
1.22  2 sin  1.22  
27. Yellow light is used in single slit diffraction experiment with slit width 0.6 mm. If yellow light is
replaced by X-rays then the pattern will reveal
1) That the central maxima is narrower 2) No diffraction pattern
3) More number of fringes 4) Less number of fringes
28. A particle which has zero rest mass and non-zero energy and momentum, must travel with a speed
1) Equal to c, the speed of light in vacuum 2) Greater than c
3) Less than c 4) Tending to infinity
29. Which of the following is true
1) Lyman series is a continuous spectrum
2) Paschen series is a line spectrum in the infrared
3) Balmer series is a line spectrum in the ultraviolet
4) The spectral series formula can be derived from the Rutherford model of the hydrogen atom
Pg. 4
30. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e. E A  EB  EC . If
1 , 2 , 3 are the wavelengths of radiation corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following statements is correct

12
1) 3  1  2 2) 3  3) 1  2  3  0 4) 32  12  22
1  2
31. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and 1.0073 a.m.u. respectively. If the neutrons and
protons combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha particles) of mass 4.0015 a.m.u. The binding energy
of the helium nucleus will be (1 a.m.u.= 931 MeV)
1) 28.4 MeV 2) 20.8 MeV 3) 27.3 MeV 4) 14.2 MeV
32. Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes 5 B and 5 B11 . Then ratio of 5 B10 :5 B11 in
10

nature would be
1) 19 : 81 2) 10 : 11 3) 15 : 16 4) 81 : 19
33. Some radioactive nucleus may emit
1) Only one  ,  or  at a time 2) All the three  ,  and  one after another
3) All the three  ,  and  simultaneously 4) Only  and  simultaneously
34. What percentage of original radioactive atoms is left after five half lives
1) 0.3% 2) 1% 3) 31% 4) 3.125%
35. In extrinsic P and N-type, semiconductor materials, the ratio of the impurity atoms to the pure
semiconductor atoms is about
1) 1 2) 101 3) 104 4) 107
SECTION - B
36. Two small spheres each having the charge Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L from a
hook. This arrangement is taken in gravity free space, then the angle between the two suspensions and
the tension in each will be
o 1 Q2 o 1 Q2 o 1 Q2 o 1 Q2
1) 180 , 2) 90 , 3) 180 , 4) 180 ,
4 0 (2 L)2 4 0 L2 4 0 2 L2 4 0 L2
37. The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by V  4 x 2 volt . The
electric field at the point (2m, 0, 2m) in volt / metre is
1) 16 along negative X  axis 2) 16 along positive X  axis
3) 8 along negative X  axis 4) 8 along positive Z  axis
38. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas another
identical capacitor B is uncharged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time after the switch
is closed is

1) Zero 2) q / 2 3) q 4) 2q
Pg. 5
39. Assertion: In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance is always connected in series with a
galvanometer.
Reason: As resistance increases the sensitivity also increases.
1) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) assertion is true but reason is false.
4) assertion is false but reason is true
40. A wire carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the form of the curve
x
y  a sin   ; 0  x  2 L. The force acting on the wire is
 L 

iBL
1) 2) iBL 3) 2iBL 4) Zero

41. As shown in the figure, a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced
electromotive force, induced current and induced charge in the coil is E , I and Q respectively. If the
speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is

1) E increases 2) I increases
3) Repulsive force due to the coil increases 4) Q increases
42. The diagram below shows two coils A and B placed parallel to each other at a very small distance. Coil
A is connected to an ac supply. G is a very sensitive galvanometer. When the key is closed

1) Constant deflection will be observed in the galvanometer for 50 Hz supply

2) Small (visible) variations will be observed in the galvanometer for 50 Hz input
3) Oscillations in the galvanometer may be observed when the input ac voltage has a frequency of 1 to
2 Hz
4) No variation will be observed in the galvanometer even when the input ac voltage is 1 or 2 Hz
43. A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly in all directions. The lamp is 3% efficient in
converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and consumes 100W of power. The amplitude of
the electric field associated with the electromagnetic radiation at a distance of 10m from the lamp will
be
1) 1.34 V/m 2) 2.68 V/m 3) 5.36 V/m 4) 9.37 V/m
Pg. 6
44. A thin mica sheet of thickness 2  106 m and refractive index (   1.5) is introduced in the path of the
first wave. The wavelength of the wave used is 5000 Å. The central bright maximum will shift
1) 2 fringes upward
2) 2 fringes downward
3) 10 fringes upward
4) None of these
45. Light of wavelength  strikes a photo-sensitive surface and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E.
If the kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength must be changed to  ' where
 
1)  '  4)  '  2 3)   '   4)  '  
2 2
46. Which of the following is dependent on the intensity of incident radiation in a photoelectric experiment
1) Work function of the surface
2) Amount of photoelectric current
3) Stopping potential will be reduced
4) Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
47. Three semi-conductors are arranged in the increasing order of their energy gap as follows. The correct
arrangement is
1) Tellurium, germanium, silicon
2) Tellurium, silicon, germanium
3) Silicon, germanium, tellurium
4) Silicon, tellurium, germanium
48. Energy bands in solids are a consequence of
1) Ohm’s Law
2) Pauli’s exclusion principle
3) Bohr’s theory
4) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
49. The cut-in voltage for silicon diode is approximately
1) 0.2 V 2) 0.6 V 3) 1.1 V 4) 1.4 V
50. Which of the following semi-conductor diodes is reverse biased

1) 2) 3) 4)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. The specific conductance of salt of 0.01M concentration is 1.06  104 mho.cm 1 Molar conductance of
same solution in mho.cm 2 .mol 1 is
1) 106.1 2) 10.61 3) 1.061 4) 1.061 104
52. Which of the following is not optically active?
3 3
1) Co  en 3  2) Cr  ox 3 
 
3) cis  CoCl2  en  2  4) trans  CoCl2  en  2 
53. Which one is a reducing sugar?
1) Cellulose 2) Starch 3) maltose 4) sucrose
54. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent 2-ene. This
product formation is based on?
1) Huckel’s rule 2) Saytzeff’s Rule 3) Hund’s rule 4) Hofmann Rule
Pg. 7
55.

1) 2)

3) 4)
56. The metal not present in German silver is
1) Cu 2) Sn 3) Zn 4) Ni
57. The best preferable reagent for the conversion of an alcohol into pure alkyl halide?
1) PCl5 2) PCl3 3) SOCl2 4) HCl / ZnCl2
58. On electrolysing a sample of acidified water, 22.4ml of hydrogen was obtained. The value of oxygen in
ml obtained is
1) 22.4 2) 44.8 3) 11.2 4) 2.24
59. All the following can undergo disproportionation except
1) MnO4 2) MnO42 3) Cu  4) Cl2
60. Which of the following compound not only give positive iodoform test but also gives positive Fehling
test
O

1) CH 3  C  CH 3 2) C6 H 5CHO 3) C6 H 5COCH 3 4) CH 3CHO
61.

What are A and B respectively

1) 2) 3) 4)
1) red hot tube 873 K 2
62. H  C  C  H 
2) CO  HCl / AICl3
 Product. The no.of sp carbons atoms present in the product
1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 7) 7
63.

Compound ‘B’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 8
64. Choose incorrect statement from the following
1) K 2 MnO4 is green coloured 2) K 2 CrO7 is the primary standard in volumetric analysis
3) Cr2 O3 is amphoteric 4) K 2 CrO4 is orange coloured
65. Find out the major products from the following reactions.

1) 2)

3) 4)
66. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of 0.1m Hg 2Cl2 will be: (If Hg 2Cl2 is 80% ionized in the
solution to give Hg 22  and Cl  )
1) 0.26 K f 2) 2.6 K f 3) 4.6 K f 4) 0.42 K f
67.

D in the above mentioned reaction is

1) 2)

3) 4)
68. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour which is in equilibrium with a solution containing benzene and
toluene having 2 moles each is when vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 120 torr and 80 torr
respectively
1) 0.5 2) 0.25 3) 0.4 4) 0.6
69. t99.9% of a first order reaction is 100 minutes Rate constant of the reaction is
1) 0.693 minutes 2) 2.303 minutes 3) 0.0693 minutes 4) 23.03 minutes
70. Identify correct statements As the temperature increases
A) Rate of reaction increases
B) Number of activated molecules increases
C) Collision frequency increases
1) A only 2) A and C only 3) A, B and C 4) B only

Pg. 9
71. Which of the following is correct acidic strength order for the marked hydrogen. The given compound

1) a > d > b > c 2) a > b > d > c 3) c > d > b > a 4) a > c > b > d
72. Mass percentage of Nitrogen in uracil is

1) 70 2) 50 3) 80 4) 25
73. Emf of the cell Al  s  / Al 3
10 3
M  || Ag 10 M  / Ag at 298 K is  ECell
 1 
 2.46V 
1) 2.46 V 2) 2.4 V 3) 2.52 V 4) 2.37 V
74. 
The energies of activation of forward and reverse reaction for A2  B2  2 AB are
180 KJ mol 1 and 200 KJ mol 1 Respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation energy of
both (forward and reverse) reactions by100KJ mol 1 . The enthalpy change of the reaction
 A2  B2  2 AB  in the presence of catalyst will be (in KJ mol 1 )
1) 300 2) 120 3) 280 4) -20
75. During electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 using inert electrodes, the product obtained at anode is
1) Cl2 g  2) H 2 g  3) O2 g  4) SO3 g 
76. The emf of the following galvanic cell is Zn / Zn0.1
2
M
/ /Cu0.1
2
M
/ Cu
 E Cu 2 / Cu  0.34V , E Zn 2 / Zn  0.76V 
1) 1.1 V 2) 1.06 V 3) 1.2 V 4) 1.0 V
77. Select the correct statement/s
a) Molecularity for a reaction can be fractional
b) Order of a reaction can be zero
c) For 1st order reaction units for rate constants are sec-1
d) For nth order reaction the units for the rate of reaction are mole lit 1 sec1
1) all are correct
2) only b, c and d are correct
3) only c and d are correct
4) only a, c, d are correct
78. If Al2  SO4 3 is 80% ionized in water, then the value of vant Hoff’s factor [i] for Al2  SO4 3 in water
is
1) 3.2 2) 4.2 3) 4.8 4) 3.8

Pg. 10
79. Which of the following compound do not favour SN 1 and SN 2 both reactions mechanisms

1) 2)

3) 4)
80. In which of the following reactions Saytzeff’s alkene is formed as major product

1) 2)

3) 4)
2
81. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in  Ni  NH 3 6  based on crystal field
theory?
6 6 6 2
1) e 4t24 2) t26 e 2 3) t2g eg 4) t2g eg
82. Match List – I with List - II
List – I (Reactions) List – II (Product formed)
a) Rosenmund’s reaction i) Bi phenyl
b) Reimer tiemann reaction ii)  - halo carboxylic acid
c) Fitting reaction iii) Aldehydes
d) HVZ reaction iv) Salicylaldehyde
v) Naphthalene
Choose the correct answer from the options give below
1) (a) – iv, (b) – v, (c) – iii, (d) – ii 2) (a) – iii, (b) – iv, (c) – v, (d) - ii
3) (a) – iv, (b) – iii, (c) – v, (d) – ii 4) (a) – iii, (b) – iv, (c) – i, (d) - ii

83. KMnO4 oxidises I in acidic and neutral / faintly alkaline solution, respectively to
1) I 2 & IO3 2) IO3 & I 2 3) IO3 & IO3 4) I 2 & I 2
84. The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt respectively in Co  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl2 are:
1) 3 and 5 2) 2 and 6 3) 2 and 8 4) 3 and 6
85. The compound which will have the lowest rate towards nucleophilic aromatic Substituion on treatment
with OH  is

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 11
 SECTION - B
86. In the cumene to phenol preparation in presence of air, the intermediate is

1) 2) 3) 4)
87. The correct order in aqueous medium of basic strength in case of methyl substituted amines is :
1) Me2 NH  MeNH 2  Me3 N  NH 3 2) Me2 NH  Me3 N  NH 3  MeNH 2
3) NH 3  Me3 N  MeNH 2  Me2 NH 4) Me3 N  Me2 NH  MeNH 2  NH 3
88. Number of mole of acidified KMnO4 required that can oxidise 0.5 Mole of mohr salt
1) 1 2) 2 3) 0.1 4) 0.2
st
89. 90% of 1 order reactions is completed in 100 sec the time required 99.9% of the same reaction to be
completed is
1) 100 sec 2) 200 sec 3) 300 sec 4) 400 sec
90. Statement I : Fructose is a reducing sugar
Statement I: Fructose contains a keto functional group
1) Both statements are true 2) Both statements are false
3) S – I is false, S – II is true 4) S – II is false, S – I is true
91. Reaction of propanamide with Br2 / KOH aq produces:
1) Ethylnitrile 2) Propylamine 3) Propanenrile 4) Ethylamine
92. Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Test) List – II (Functional group class of
compound)
A) Lucas reagent test I) Aliphatic aldehydes
B) Tollen’s test II) Aliphatic aldehydes
C) Carbylamine test III) Primary amine
D) Fehlings test IV) Aromatic aldehydes
V) Tertiary alcohol
1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
3) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
93. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

1) 2) 3) 4)
Pg. 12
94. Me  Cl  NH 3 ( Excess)  Major product ‘P’. ‘P’ will be
1) MeNH 2 2) Me2 NH 3) Me3 N 4) Me4 N Cl Θ
95. Arrange the following compound in decreasing order of reactivity in S N 2 reaction.
a) Ph  CH 2  Br b) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2 Br

c) d)
1) b > c > d > a 2) a > b > c > d 3) b > c > a > d 4) c > a > b > d
96. The set of correct statements is:
(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state in its oxide.
(ii) Ruthenium and Osmium exhibit +8 oxidation state in their oxides.
(iii) Sc state shows +4 oxidation state which is oxidizing in nature.
(iv) Cr shows oxidising nature in +6 oxidation state.
1) (ii) and (iii) 2) (i), (ii) and (iv) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
97. Correct order of spin only magnetic moment of the following complex ions is: (Given At. No.Fe: 26,
Co: 27)
1) [ FeF6 ]3  [CoF6 ]3  [Co(C2O4 ) 3 ]3 2) [Co(C2 O4 ) 3 ]3  [CoF6 ]3  [ FeF6 ]3
3) [ FeF6 ]3  [Co(C2 O4 ) 3 ]3  [CoF6 ]3 4) [CoF6 ]3  [ FeF6 ]3  [Co(C2O4 ) 3 ]3
98. The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting gases X (0.6 g) and Y (0.45 g) in a vessel is 740 mm of
Hg. The partial pressure of the gas X is - (Given : molar mass X = 20 and Y = 45 g mol 1 )
1) 255 mmHg 2) 555 mmHg 3) 625 mmHg 4) 425 mmHg
99. The number of correct statement/s from the following is _______.
A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the value of the rate constant.
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is the value of the temperature coefficient.
C. Activation energy may be greater then threshold energy.
1 Ea
D. A plot of ln k vs is a straight line with slope equal to 
T R
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4
100. In a reaction,

Reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are:

1) (CH 3CO ) 2 O / H  and CH 3OH / H  ,  2) (CH 3CO ) 2 O / H  and (CH 3CO ) 2 O / H 
3) CH 3OH / H  ,  and CH 3OH / H  ,  4) CH 3OH / H  ,  and (CH 3CO ) 2 O / H 
BOTANY
SECTION - A
101. In which group of plants, normal plant cells are converted into tumour cells by using Agrobacterium
1) Monocots 2) Dicots 3) Gymnosperms 4) More than one option correct
102. Enzyme involved in gene cloning is
1) DNA polymerase 2) RNA polymerase 3) DNA ligase 4) Methylase
103. Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usually occurs in
1) Bacteria 2) Prokaryotes 3) Eukaryotes 4) Both 1 & 2
104. Which of the following character is not studied by Mendel in Pea
1) flower position 2) pod colour 3) flower shape 4) pod shape
Pg. 13
105. Read the following statements:
(i) Majority of the plants use biotic agents for pollination, only a small number of plants use abiotic
agents.
(ii) The number of ovules produced by a plant in general is more than the number of pollens.
(iii) Among biotic agents, insect pollination is most common.
(iv) Among insects, the most common pollinator is ant
(v) Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) (iii), (iv) and (v) 3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) (i), (iii) and (v)
106. A hexaploid (6n) female plant gets pollinated by an octaploid (8n) male plant. As a result of double
fertilization, what will be the ploidy of embryo and endosperm respectively?
1) 10n, 7n 2) 6n, 8n 3) 7n, 10n 4) 8n, 6n
107. The recombinant phenotypic ratio in F2 obtained from parental cross having genotypes TTRR x ttrr
will be
1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 2) 3 : 1 3) 1 : 2 : 1 4) 3 : 3
108. Assertion (A): In eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs in nucleus.
Reason (R): The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization reaction in
only 5 ' – 3 ' direction.
1) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
109. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes, which statement is correct?
1) Both exons and introns are absent 2) Both exons and introns are present
3) Exons present, introns absent 4) Introns present, exons absent
110. Arrange the following Mendel’s laws of inheritance in the correct sequential order
S=Law of segregation
R= Law of Independent assortment
P=Law of dominance
1) R-P-S 2) P-S-R 3) S-P-R 4) P-R-S
111. In nomenclature of restriction enzymes, roman number represents to
1) Bacterial strain 2) Sequence of isolation
3) Species name 4) Serial number
112. Read the following
a) Two H-bonds are present between A & T and three H-bonds are present between G & C
b) If the sequence of one strand is known, then the sequence of other strand can be predicted
c) The two daughter DNAs are not identical to parent DNA (regarding replication)
d) The two chains are arranged parallel to each other
1) a and b correct
2) a, b, c are correct
3) b, c are correct
4) a, b, c, d are correct
113. If you ligate a foreign DNA at pst I in p BR 322 , then the recombinant plasmid will
1) lose ampicillin resistance
2) confers resistance to tetracycline resistance
3) lose tetracycline resistance
4) both 1 & 2
Pg. 14
114. Statement of Keerthana (K): When DNA bands are placed in ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to
ultraviolet light, then DNA bands appear blue colour.
Statement of Sankeerthana(S): Selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating transformants
& selectively permitting the growth of non transformants
1) Statement (K) correct and Statement (S) wrong
2) Statement (K) wrong and Statement (S) correct
3) both the statements(K) and (S) correct
4) both the statements(K) and (S) wrong
115. In papaya:
1) Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented
2) Xenogamy is prevented
3) Autogamy is prevented but not geitonogamy
4) Geitonogamy is prevented but not autogamy
116. Select the incorrect matching.
1) pBR322- Cloning vector 2) EcoRI, Clal, Hind III – Cloning sites
R
3) amp –PvuII 4) Ori - no cloning site
117. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.
1) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
2) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
3) Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
4) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
118. Find the correct combination
1) RNA interference – dsDNA
2) Rhizobium – Free living bacterial biofertiliser
3) Azotobacter – Symbiotic bacterial biofertiliser
4) Nostoc – Cyanobacterial biofertiliser
119. Which one of the following antibiotics was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in
world war – II?
1) Streptokinase 2) Penicillin 3) Statins 4) Neomycin
120. The usual floral rewards for insects from flowers are ____ and ____ during pollination
1) Calyx, corolla 2) Androecium and gynoecium
3) Pollens and nectar 4) Stigma and style
121. Read the following statements and find True (T) or False (F)
(A): DNA is formed from DNA during S phase of cell cycle in eukaryotes.
(B): Both the strands of DNA acts as template during replication.
(C): Only one strand of DNA acts as a template during transcription.
1) A-T, B-T, C-F 2) A-F, B-F, C-F 3) A-T, B-T, C-T 4) A-F, B-T, C-F
122. The genes cry II Ab and cry IAb produce the toxins which control :
1) Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
3) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
123. Identify the correct expressions regarding RNA.
I) RNA was the first genetic material in the living world.
II) RNA mutates at a faster rate than DNA.
III) When compared to DNA, RNA is chemically more reactive and structurally unstable.
IV) Catalytic RNA or RNA enzymes are known as ribosomes.
1) I and II only 2) I,II and III only 3) I,II,III and IV 4) I,II and IV only

Pg. 15
124. Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction because:
1) Seeds get formed without fertilization
2) Fruits get formed without fertilization
3) Shoots get formed without parthenogenesis
4) More than one option correct
125. Find true(T) or false (F) to the given statements
A) Number of nuclei involved in double fertilization is five
B) Number of gametes involved in double fertilization is three
C) Number of genomes involved in double fertilization is five
D) Number of female gametes involved in double fertilization is one
1) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F 2) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-T
3) A-T, B-T, C-T, D-F 4) A-F, B-T, C-T, F-T
126. Which of the following represents a test cross?
1) tt × tt 2) Tt × tt 3) TT × TT 4) Both (1) and (2)
127. A nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plants is
1) Agrobacterium tumefacients 2) Erwinia amylovora
3) Meloidogyne incognitia 4) Xanthomonas solanacearum
128. Recognise the figure given below and select the correct option

1) a-Male Drosophila, b-Female Drosophila 2) a-Female Drosophila, b-Male Drosophila

3) a-Male housefly, b-Female housefly 4) a-Female housefly, b-Male housefly
129. Match the list of items Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given
below
Column - I Column - II
A) Operator site i) Binding site for RNA polymerase
B) Promoter site ii) Binding site for repressor molecule
C) Regulator gene iii) Codes for protein / enzyme
D) Structural gene iv) Codes for repressor molecule
1) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv 2) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
3) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii 4) A – ii, B – iii, C - i, D – iv
130. In mRNA, AUG is the initiation and UAA, UAG,UGA are termination codons. Therefore, the
polypeptide cannot be synthesized beyond any of these triplets to the end of mRNA. Then which of the
following will be translated completely?
1) AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA 2) AUG AUA UAG CCC UCA
3) AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA 4) AUG UAC AGU ACC UAG
131. Which of the following is related to outbreeding devices?
1) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronized
2) Self-incompatibility
3) Production of unisexual flowers
4) More than one option correct

Pg. 16
132. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by
1) a machine
2) a bacterium that produces methane gas
3) a bacterium producing a large amount of carbon dioxide
4) a fungus that releases a lot of gases during its metabolic activities
133. If distance between two genes on a chromosome is more, then genes show
1) Weak linkage 2) Strong linkage 3) Less crossing over 4) both 1 and 3
134. Read the following statements
A) Developed by British geneticist
B) It is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of off spring in a
genetic cross
C) The possible gametes are written on two sides, usually the top row & left columns
The above statements are related to
1) Punnett square, proposed by Mendel 2) Punnett square, proposed by Morgan
3) Punnett square, proposed by Punnett 4) Punnett square, proposed by de vries
135. Assertion (A): Seeds generate new genetic combinations leading to variations.
Reason (R): Seeds are the products of sexual reproduction
1) Both A and R are true and the R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
SECTION - B
136. The generic code is called a degenerate code because.
1) One codon has many meanings
2) More than one codon has the same meaning
3) One codon has one meaning
4) There are 64 codons present
137. What is the first anticodon in translation?
1) GUU 2) UAC 3) UTC 4) GUA
138. DNA molecule in gel electrophoresis moves towards?
1) Positive electrode-anode 2) Negative electrode-cathode
3) Negative electrode-anode 4) Positive electrode-cathode
139. Which of the following is a dominant trait chosen by Mendel for pea plant?
1) Green pod 2) Green seed 3) Yellow pod 4) Constricted pod
140. Read the following statements:
(i) The Yucca plant and the moth pronuba yuccasella cannot complete their life cycles without each
other.
(ii) In some insect species, the floral reward for pollination is the safe place to lay eggs in the flower.
(iii) pollen robbers consume pollens or nectar without bringing about pollination.
(iv) Majority of the flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers.
(v) Continued cross-pollination results in inbreeding depression.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
3) (i), (ii) and (v)
4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
141. Number of kinds of cell in female gametophyte of angiosperms is
1) Seven 2) Eight 3) Four 4) Three

Pg. 17
142. Identify the correct match between the codons and coding functions.
Column – I Column – II
A AUG 1 Phenylalanine
B UAA 2 Methionine
C UUU 3 Tryptophan
D UGG 4 Termination
A B C D
1) 1 4 2 3
2) 2 4 1 3
3) 4 3 2 1
4) 4 1 3 2
143. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced, which includes
1) methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide
2) methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide
3) hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide
4) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane
144. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?
1) Acetobacter aceti- Antibiotics 2) Methanobacterium – Lactic acid
3) Penicillium notatum – Acetic acid 4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae-Ethanol
145. The coconut water is ________ and its surrounding white kernel is ________
1) Cellular endosperm, liquid endosperm respectively
2) Liquid endosperm, cellular endosperm respectively
3) Cellular endosperm, cellular endosperm respectively
4) Liquid endosperm, liquid endosperm respective
146. Refer to the given figure of nucleosome and identify the parts A, B and C

1) A-DNA, B-Histone octamer, C-H1 histone 2) A-Histone octamer, B-H1 histone, C-DNA
3) A-Histone octamer, B-DNA, C-H1 histone 4) A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Histone octamer
147. With reference to the term’Biopiracy’ the correct statement is
1) Use of plants to recycle the environmental pollutants
2) It is a technique used to identify criminals
3) Use of bio-resources by multinational companies without proper authorization from countries
concerned
4) Fear of transferring toxins to humans from genetically engineered crops.
148. Choose the correct combination
Column-I Column-II
A) F2 phenotypic ratio of incomplete dominance i) 1:2:1
B) F2 genotypic ratio of Mendel’s dihybrid cross ii) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
C) F2 phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s dihybrid cross iii) 9:3:3:1
D) F2 genotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross iv) 3:1

1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Pg. 18
149. Find the palindromic sequence of EcoRI
3' GAATTC  5' 5' GAATTC  3'
1) 2)
5' CTTAAG  3' 3' CTTAAG  5'
5' GATTAC  3' 3' GATTAC  5'
3) 4)
3' CTAATG  5' 5' CTAATG  3'
150. If a linear DNA has 5 recognition sites for restriction endonuclease enzyme, then
A) No. of fragments formed?
B) No. of fragments with one side cut?
C) No. of fragments with two side cut?
1) 6, 2, 4 2) 5, 2, 4 3) 6, 6, 6 4) 6, 0, 5
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
151. Which among the following could be an outcome of Co-evolution?
(A) Host and parasite
(B) Mutualistic organisms
(C) Flower and its pollinator
(1) All except A (2) All except B (3) All except C (4) A, B, C
152. Select the statements that is in support of narrowly utilitarian argument of biodiversity conservation
(1) 20% of oxygen in earth‟s atmosphere is contributed by Amazon Forest.
(2) Intrinsic value of each species in nature is to be realised.
(3) Conservation of threatened species by ex-situ and in-situ methods.
(4) Construction material, industrial products are obtained from nature.
153. Statement-I: Output in an ecosystem refers to degradation and energy loss.
Statement-II: Movement of energy in an ecosystem is cyclical
(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
154. Select the CORRECT option representing the advantages of recombinant therapeutics over conventional
therapeutics.
i. Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses.
ii. The recombinant DNA technological processes have made immense impact in the area of health care
by disabling mass production of safe and effective therapeutic drugs
(1) Only i is correct. (2) Only ii is correct.
(3) Both i and ii are correct. (4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
155. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in autoradiography technique used for detection of
mutated gene.
i. Mutated gene does not appear on the photographic film.
ii. ssDNA/ssRNA is tagged with a probe.
iii. Probes are allowed to hybridise to its cDNA in a clone of cells.
iv. Detection using autoradiography.
(1) ii – iv – i – iii (2) ii – iii – i – iv (3) iii – ii – iv – i (4) ii – iii – iv – i
156. Introduction of attenuated pathogens into human body results in _________.
(1) artificial acquired active immunity
(2) artificial acquired passive immunity
(3) natural acquired active immunity
(4) natural acquired passive immune

Pg. 19
157. Find the mismatch with regards to side effects of anabolic steroids in males and females.
Males Females
1) Decreased sperm production Abnormal menstrual cycles
2) Potential for kidney and liver dysfunction Breast enlargement
3) Reduction in size of testicles Enlargement of clitoris
4) Increased aggressiveness masculinisation
158. Read the following statements and select True (T) or False (F)
(A) Karyotype of ova is same in Drosophila
(B) Total number of chromosomes is same in male and female Grasshopper.
(C) Karyotype of sperms is different in fowls
(D) Total number of chromosomes is same in male and female honeybees.
A B C D
(1) T T F F
(2) F T F T
(3) T F F F
(4) F F F T
159. Which of the following represents the frequency of dominant individuals in a Hardy – Weinberg
population?
(1) p 2  q 2 (2) q 2  2 pq (3) p 2  2 pq (4) p  q
160. Select the correct match regarding the site of formation of different stages of Plasmodiumvivax
(1) Gametes – Salivary glands of man
(2) Sporozoites – Gut of mosquito
(3) Gametocytes – Hepatocytes of man
(4) Zygote – Erythrocytes of mosquito
161. Assertion (A): The probability of variations to be observed in non-coding DNA would be higher.
Reason (R) : Mutations in non-coding DNA may not have any immediate effect in an individual's
reproductive ability
(1) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) Both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A & R are false
162. Match the following Column-I with Column II
Column-I Column-II
A Louis Pasteur i Embryological support for evolution
B Ernst Haeckel ii On the principles of populations
C Hugo de Vries iii Life from pre-existing life
D Thomas Mathus iv Idea of mutations
A B C D
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) i iii iv ii
(3) i iii ii iv
(4) iii i iv ii
163. What is the probability of affected children if a thalassemic male marries to a carrier female?
(1) 25% (2) 50 % (3) 75 % (4) 100 %

Pg. 20
164. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A Chromosome 1 i 1.4 million
B Chromosome X ii 3000 bases
C Snips iii Dystrop hin
D Average gene iv 2968 genes
A B C D
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iii iv ii i
165. Which of the following structures are developed along different directions due to adaptations to
different needs?
(1) Fore limb bone pattern in whales and Cheetah
(2) Root modification in potato and stem modification in sweet potato
(3) structural differences in the wing of butterfly and that of crow
(4) functional similarity in flippers of Dolphin and Penguin
166. Assertion (A): Day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle is called the fertile period.
Reason (R): Chances of fertilization are very high during the fertile period.
(1) If both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) If both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If both A & R are false
167. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a Curable STI 1 Syphilis
b Non-curable STI 2 Genital herpes
c Family planning programme started in India 3 1951
d MTP legalized in India 4 1971
(1) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3, d – 4 (2) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
(3) a – 1, b – 2, c – 4, d – 3 (4) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
168. Find the correct statement.
(1) Androgens are produced by sertoli cells
(2) Leydig cells are found in ovary
(3) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum
(4) Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience
169. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
170. In Sickle cell Anaemia, the defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid by Valine of the Beta
globin chain of Haemoglobin molecule. The normal Beta chain of Haemoglobin is
(1) Val–His–Leu–Thr–Pro–Glu–Glu (2) Val–His–Leu–Thr–Val–Glu–Glu
(3) Val–His–Leu–Thr–Pro–Val–Glu (4) Val–His–Leu–Thr–Pro–Val–Val
171. Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to sequence annotation?
(1) It is a blind approach
(2) Whole set of genome is sequenced
(3) For sequencing, the DNA is randomly fragmented
(4) Focused is only on identifying the genes that are expressed as RNA
Pg. 21
172. In human males the mobility of sperms from seminiferous tubules to urethra is through epididymis (EP),
vasa efferentia (VE), vasa deferentia (VD), ejaculatory duct (ED) and rete testis (RT) in the following
order
(1) RT – EP – VE – VD – ED (2) RT – VE – EP – VD – ED
(3) VE – RT – EP – VD – ED (4) VE – EP – RT – VD – ED
173. Assertion (A): The study of the family history about inheritance (pedigree analysis) of a particular trait
provides an alternative practice of analysing inheritance pattern of traits in human beings.
Reason (R) : The control crosses that can be performed in pea plant or some other organisms, are not
possible in the case of human beings.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
174. Choose correct set from the following.
(a) The secondary oocyte completes Meiosis II after fusion of sperm pronucleus.
(b) The primary oocyte completes Meiosis I prior to ovulation.
(c) 60,000 to 80,000 primary follicles are seen in each ovary at the time of birth.
(d) Menarche is a sign of sexual puberty
(1) b, c (2) b, d (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, d
175. Which of the following STI is curable if detected early and treated properly?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts (3) HIV infection (4) Hepatitis – B
176. Predators in nature are said to be prudent as
(1) Predators evolve various defences to lessen predation.
(2) Predators maintain species diversity
(3) Predators do not over exploit the prey
(4) Predators keep prey populations under control.
177. Populations of which species are badly affected due to over exploitation?
(1) Clarias gariepinus (2) Passenger pigeon
(3) Birds with migratory habits (4) Eichhornia
178. Loss of diversity in a region may lead to
(1) Increased resistance to environmental perturbations.
(2) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity.
(3) Increased resistance to invasion by alien species.
(4) Increased resilience to occasional disturbances.
179. Trophic level of food chain specified to the organisms is mainly based on
(1) Size of the population (2) Source of their nutrition
(3) Rate of multiplication (4) Biomass of the organism
180. Oysters are ____ and they produce ____
(1) Crustaceans, small sized offsprings (2) Molluscs, small sized offsprings
(3) Echinoderms, large sized offsprings (4) Ctenophores, large sized offsprings
181. Assertion: Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes is not required in patients suffering
from ADA deficiency.
Reason: Genetically engineered lymphocytes are immortal.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is true and reason is wrong.
(4) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

Pg. 22
182. The feared property of cancer cells is
(1) metagenesis (2) metachrosis (3) metamorphosis (4) metastasis
183. If grassland ecosystem and pond ecosystem are compared, then which of the following statement will
hold true?
(1) The consumers will be same. (2) The biotic components of both are almost similar.
(3) Primary producers are same. (4) Biotic and abiotic components are dissimilar.
184. Which of the following provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?
(A) Peyer’s patches (B) Spleen (C) Thymus gland (D) Lymph nodes
(E) Appendix
(1) B, C only (2) All except C (3) A, B, C only (4) B, D only
185. Immune system will not generate ‘memory’ in a person
(1) infected with small pox (2) vaccinated with tetanus toxins
(3) injected with preformed antibodies (4) suffering with allergy
SECTION - B
186. The levels of estrogen and gonadotropins are high during
(1) menstruation (2) follicular phase (3) luteal phase (4) secretory phase
187. Choose incorrect match with reference to contraception.
(1) Vaults – Block entry of sperms into cervix
(2) IUD‟s – Increase phagocytosis of sperms with in uterus.
(3) Coitus interrupts – Couples avoid coitus during fertile period
(4) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation and implantation.
188. Statemennt – I : DNA from every tissue of an individual shows the same degree of polymorphism
Statement – II : The copy number of VNTR varies from chromosome to chromosome in an individual
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is Wrong
(4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
189. Mole-marsupial mole, Anteater-Numbat, Lemur – Spotted cuscus, Bobcat – Tasmanian tiger cat,
Placental wolf- Tasmanian wolf are some common relative examples. It shows all are the example of
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Radiation
(3) Adaptive Radiation (4) Convergent evolution
190. Statement (A) : MTP is essential where the continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even
fatal to the mother or to foetus or both
Statement (B) : MTP could be used to get rid of pregnancy as the foetus is found to be female
(1) Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong
(2) Both the statements A and B are correct
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong
(4) Both the statements A and B are wrong
191. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of reproductive age is lesser than pre reproductive but
higher than post reproductive ones. The population is
(1) Growing (2) Declining (3) Stable (4) Cannot be predicated
192. Which of the following is not ture for the second meiotic division during oogenesis?
(1) It is an unequal division
(2) It results in formation of larger secondary oocyte
(3) It is completed in the fallopian tube during fertilisation
(4) It results in formation of small haploid second polar body
193. In how many base sequences would there be differences between two persons?
1) 3  109 bp 2) 3  106 bp 3) 3  103 bp 4) 3  105 bp

Pg. 23
194. In India several varieties of rice have been preserved in gene banks. It is a method of
(1) ex-situ conservation (2) on-site conservation
(3) in-situ conservation (4) cryopreservation
195. The information related to the discovery of the following promises to revolutionise the processes of
finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history
(1) PCR (2) SNPs (3) Western blot (4) RFLPs
196. Sixth mass extinction is different from previous episodes in
(1) Rate of extinction is very fast. (2) Rate of extinction is very slow.
(3) It does not involve human interference. (4) It involves the extinction of just the plants.
197. In alpha thalassemia and beta thalassemia, the formed elements affected, respectively are
(1) erythrocytes and leucocytes (2) leucocytes and leucocytes
(3) leucocytes and erythrocytes (4) erythrocytes and erythrocytes
198. Endangered species can be best defined as
(1) Species facing a very high risk of extinction every where in the near future.
(2) Species which may face a very high risk of extinction in near future.
(3) Species facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future.
(4) Species which may face very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future.
199. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a Non-medicated IUD 1 Vaults
b Copper releasing IUD 2 Lippes loop
c Hormone releasing IUD 3 Multiload 375
d Barrier 4 LNG – 20
(1) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4 (2) a – 2, b – 3, c –4, d – 1
(3) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1 (4) a – 1, b – 3, c – 4, d – 2
200. In a population of 3,000 individuals in Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of dominant allele
of an autosomal gene is 0.6. The gene has only two alleles. What is the number of homozygous
individuals in that population, with reference to that gene
(1) 1080 (2) 1440 (3) 2520 (4) 1560

* * All the Best * *

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