Relational Database Management System Rdbms Solved Mcqs
Relational Database Management System Rdbms Solved Mcqs
2. A relational algebra operation annotated with instructions on how to evaluate it is called _______
a) Evaluation algebra
b) Evaluation plan
c) Evaluation primitive
d) Evaluation engine
3. A sequence of primitive operations that can be used to evaluate a query are called as __________
a) Query evaluation algebra
b) Query evaluation plan
c) Query evaluation primitive
d) Query evaluation engine
7. A selection of the form satisfying the intersection of all records satisfying individual simple conditions
is
a) Conjunctive selection
b) Disjunctive selection
c) Negation
8. A selection of the form satisfying the union of all records satisfying individual simple conditions is
a) Conjunctive selection
b) Disjunctive selection
c) Negation
d) None of the mentioned
9. A selection of the form giving all the records not satisfying simple individual conditions is ______
a) Conjunctive selection
b) Disjunctive selection
c) Negation
d) None of the mentioned
14. If nested loop join is done on a per block basis rather than on a per tuple basis, it is called as
a) Equi join
b) Hash join
c) Nested loop join
16. The ___________ merges the sorted relation with leaf entries of the secondary B+ tree index.
a) Merge join algorithm
b) Hybrid merge join algorithm
c) Hash join algorithm
d) Hybrid Hash join algorithm
17. The splitting of input until each partition of the build input fits the memory is called as ______
a) Temporary partitioning
b) Block partitioning
c) Recursive partitioning
d) Byte partitioning
20. Which of the following joins preserves the tuples of the relation on the left side of the operator?
a) Left outer join
b) Natural join
c) Right outer join
d) None of the mentioned
21. State true or false: The aggregation functions can be implemented in the same way as that of duplicate
elimination.
a) True
b) False
22. If the results of one operation are passed on to the other, it is called as ________
a) Chain
b) Pipeline
c) Materialized
d) Tree
23. The result of each intermediate operation are created and then are used for valuation of the next level
operations, this evaluation is called as ________
a) Chain evaluation
b) Pipeline evaluation
c) Materialized evaluation
d) Demand driven evaluation
24. If the system makes repeated requests for tuples from the operation at the top of the table, it is called as
_________
a) Demand driven pipeline
b) Producer driven pipeline
c) Query driven pipeline
d) None of the mentioned
25. If the operations do not wait to produce tuples, then it is called as _________
a) Demand driven pipeline
b) Producer driven pipeline
c) Query driven pipeline
d) None of the mentioned
29. State true or false: Hybrid hash join is partially pipelined on the probe relation
a) True
b) False
30. The usage of two buffers, with one continuing execution of the algorithm while the other is written is
called as __________
a) Double execution
b) Multi tasking
c) Double buffering
d) Double algorithm
32. Collections of operations that form a single logical unit of work are called __________
a) Views
b) Networks
c) Units
d) Transactions
d) Durability
39. State true or false: Information residing in the volatile storage does not usually survive system crashes
a) True
b) False
40. A transaction that has not been completed successfully is called as _______
a) Compensating transaction
b) Aborted transaction
c) Active transaction
d) Partially committed transaction
43. The scheme that controls the interaction between executing transactions is called as _____
a) Concurrency control scheme
b) Multiprogramming scheme
c) Serialization scheme
d) Schedule scheme
44. I and J are _________ if they are operations by different transactions on the same data item, and at
least one of them is a write operation.
a) Conflicting
b) Overwriting
c) Isolated
d) Durable
47. The set of ________ in a precedence graph consists of all the transactions participating in the schedule
a) Vertices
b) Edges
c) Directions
d) None of the mentioned
48. A ___________of the transactions can be obtained by finding a linear order consistent with the partial
order of the precedence graph.
a) Serializability order
b) Direction graph
c) Precedence graph
d) Scheduling scheme
49. State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = read(Q) then the order of I and J does not matter.
a) True
b) False
50. State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = write(Q) then the order of I and J does not matter.
a) True
b) False
c) Predicate locking
d) Snapshot isolation
53. The phenomenon in which one failure leads to a series of transaction rollbacks is called as ________
a) Cascading rollback
b) Cascadeless rollback
c) Cascade cause
d) None of the mentioned
55. A ___________ is one where, for each pair of transactions Ti and Tj such that Tj reads a data item
previously written by Ti , the commit operation of Ti appears before the commit operation of Tj
a) Partial schedule
b) Dependent schedule
c) Recoverable schedule
d) None of the mentioned
58. The average time for a transaction to be completed after it has been submitted is called as __________
a) Minimum response time
b) Average response time
c) Average reaction time
d) Minimum reaction time
61. Which of the following is a transaction isolation level as specified by SQL standard?
a) Serializable
b) Repeatable read
c) Read committed
d) All of the mentioned
62. 2. State true or false: Serializable level may allow both serializable and non-serializable executions
a) True
b) False
63. ________ allows only committed data to be read and further requires that no other transaction is
allowed to update it between two reads of a data item by a transaction.
a) Read uncommitted
b) Serializable
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed
64. ________ allows only committed data to be read, but does not require repeatable reads
a) Read uncommitted
b) Serializable
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed
66. State true or false: All the isolation levels disallow dirty writes
a) True
b) False
68. In ___________ isolation each transaction is given its own version of the database
a) Timestamp
b) Snapshot
c) Lock based
d) All of the mentioned
70. A system is in a _______ state if there exists a set of transactions in which every transaction is waiting
for another transaction in the set.
a) Deadlock
b) Starved
c) Isolated
d) None of the mentioned
78. Which of the following steps must be taken while choosing a victim?
a) Avoiding starvation
b) Number of transactions involved in rollback
c) Data items used by the transaction
d) All of the mentioned
79. If a transaction has obtained a __________ lock, it can read but cannot write on the item
a) Shared mode
b) Exclusive mode
c) Read only mode
d) Write only mode
80. If a transaction has obtained a ________ lock, it can both read and write on the item
a) Shared mode
b) Exclusive mode
c) Read only mode
d) Write only mode
81. A transaction can proceed only after the concurrency control manager ________ the lock to the
transaction
a) Grants
b) Requests
c) Allocates
d) None of the mentioned
82. If a transaction can be granted a lock on an item immediately in spite of the presence of another mode,
then the two modes are said to be ________
a) Concurrent
b) Equivalent
c) Compatible
d) Executable
83. A transaction is made to wait until all ________ locks held on the item are released
a) Compatible
b) Incompatible
c) Concurrent
d) Equivalent
84. State true or false: It is not necessarily desirable for a transaction to unlock a data item immediately
after its final access
a) True
b) False
85. The situation where no transaction can proceed with normal execution is known as ________
a) Road block
b) Deadlock
c) Execution halt
d) Abortion
86. The protocol that indicates when a transaction may lock and unlock each of the data items is called as
__________
a) Locking protocol
b) Unlocking protocol
c) Granting protocol
d) Conflict protocol
87. If a transaction Ti may never make progress, then the transaction is said to be ____________
a) Deadlocked
b) Starved
c) Committed
d) Rolled back
88. The two phase locking protocol consists which of the following phases?
a) Growing phase
b) Shrinking phase
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
89. 11. If a transaction may obtain locks but may not release any locks then it is in _______ phase
a) Growing phase
b) Shrinking phase
c) Deadlock phase
d) Starved phase
90. If a transaction may release locks but may not obtain any locks, it is said to be in ______ phase
a) Growing phase
b) Shrinking phase
c) Deadlock phase
d) Starved phase
91. A system is in a _______ state if there exists a set of transactions in which every transaction is waiting
for another transaction in the set.
a) Deadlock
b) Starved
c) Isolated
d) None of the mentioned
99. 9. Which of the following steps must be taken while choosing a victim?
a) Avoiding starvation
b) Number of transactions involved in rollback
c) Data items used by the transaction
d) All of the mentioned
101. A logical counter is _________ after a new timestamp has been assigned
a) Incremented
b) Decremented
c) Doubled
d) Remains the same
104. A ________ ensures that any conflicting read and write operations are executed in timestamp order
a) Organizational protocol
b) Timestamp ordering protocol
c) Timestamp execution protocol
d) 802-11 protocol
105. The default timestamp ordering protocol generates schedules that are
a) Recoverable
b) Non-recoverable
c) Starving
d) None of the mentioned
106. State true or false: The Thomas write rule has a greater potential concurrency than the timestamp
ordering protocol
a) True
b) False
107. Which of the following timestamp based protocols generates serializable schedules?
a) Thomas write rule
b) Timestamp ordering protocol
c) Validation protocol
d) None of the mentioned
108. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues read(Q) and TS(Ti)<W-
timestamp(Q), then
a) Read operation is executed
b) Read operation is rejected
c) Write operation is executed
d) Write operation is rejected
109. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues write(Q) and TS(Ti)<W-
timestamp(Q), then
a) Read operation is executed
b) Read operation is rejected
c) Write operation is executed
d) Write operation is rejected
110. The _________ requires each transaction executes in two or three different phases in its lifetime
a) Validation protocol
b) Timestamp protocol
c) Deadlock protocol
d) View protocol
111. During __________ phase, the system reads data and stores them in variables local to the
transaction.
a) Read phase
b) Validation phase
c) Write phase
d) None of the mentioned
112. During the _________ phase the validation test is applied to the transaction
a) Read phase
b) Validation phase
c) Write phase
d) None of the mentioned
113. During the _______ phase, the local variables that hold the write operations are copied to the
database
a) Read phase
b) Validation phase
c) Write phase
d) None of the mentioned
115. Which of the following timestamp is used to record the time at which the transaction started
execution?
a) Start(i)
b) Validation(i)
c) Finish(i)
d) Write(i)
116. Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a transaction has finished its
read phase?
a) Start(i)
b) Validation(i)
c) Finish(i)
d) Write(i)
117. Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a database has completed its
write operation?
a) Start(i)
b) Validation(i)
c) Finish(i)
d) Write(i)
118. State true or false: Locking and timestamp ordering force a wait or rollback whenever a conflict is
detected.
a) True
b) False
119. State true or false: We determine the serializability order of validation protocol by the validation
ordering technique
a) True
b) False
124. Under ________ the system uses locking mechanism that applies only to updates
a) First updater wins
b) First committer wins
c) First writer wins
d) None of the mentioned
125. The situation in which each pair of transactions has read a data written by the other, but there is no
data written by the transactions is called as _______
a) Deadlock
b) Read skew
c) Deadlock skew
d) Write skew
128. In ________ no two aborts occur unless two concurrent transactions update the same data item.
a) Multiversion scheme
b) Timestamp protocol
c) Lock based protocol
d) Snapshot isolation
129. Which of the following transactions can multiversion two phase locking protocol not differentiate.
a) Read only transactions
b) Update transactions
c) All of the mentioned
d) Double operator transactions
131. If the transaction can no longer continue with its normal execution because of some internal
condition, it is called as a _________
a) Logical error
b) System error
c) System crash
d) None of the mentioned
132. If a system has entered and undesirable state due to which it is unable to continue with normal
execution, it is called as _________
a) Logical error
b) System error
c) System crash
d) None of the mentioned
133. If there is a hardware malfunction or a bug in the database that causes the loss of content of volatile
storage, it is called as ________
a) Logical error
b) System error
c) System crash
d) None of the mentioned
134. The assumption that the hardware errors bring the system to a halt is called as ________
a) Halter assumption
b) Phantom assumption
c) Fail-stop assumption
d) Disk failure
137. State true or false: The destination block has incorrect information in case of a total failure
a) True
138. The partitions of the database into fixed length storage units are called as __________
a) Blocks
b) Tuples
c) Relations
d) None of the mentioned
140. The area of memory where blocks temporarily reside is called as ________
a) Block buffer
b) Disk buffer
c) Physical buffer
d) None of the mentioned
141. The most widely used structure for recording database modification is called as _______
a) Log
b) List
c) Queue
d) Stack
d) Quadruple
143. Which of the following fields does the update log record have?
a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier
c) Old value
d) All of the mentioned
144. The unique identifier of the transaction that performed the write operation is called as _______
a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier
c) Old value
d) New value
145. The value of the data item prior to the write is called as _________
a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier
c) Old value
d) New value
146. If a transaction does not modify the database until it has committed it is said to use a _______
modification technique
a) Deferred
b) Immediate
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
147. We say that a transaction has been ________ when its commit log record has been output to stable
storage.
a) Locked
b) Completed
c) Committed
d) Released
149. A __________ checkpoint is a checkpoint where transactions are allowed to perform updates even
while buffer blocks are being written out.
a) Temporary
b) Fuzzy
c) Permanent
d) Recovery
150. If the database modifications occur while the transaction is still active, the transaction is said to use
the __________ modification technique
a) Deferred
b) Immediate
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
152. The dependency rules specified by the database designer are known as _______
a) Designer dependencies
b) Database rules
c) Functional dependencies
d) None of the mentioned
153. If the decomposition is unable to represent certain important facts about the relation, then such a
decomposition is called as?
a) Lossless decomposition
b) Lossy decomposition
c) Insecure decomposition
d) Secure decomposition
154. If the decomposition is able to represent all the facts about the relation then such a decomposition is
called as?
a) Lossless decomposition
b) Lossy decomposition
c) Insecure decomposition
d) Secure decomposition
156. If all the domains are atomic then the relational schema is in ________ normal form
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
163. Which of the following is not a condition for X→ Y in Boyce codd normal form?
a) X → Y is trivial
b) X is the superkey for the relational schema R
c) Y is the superkey for the relational schema R
d) All of the mentioned
c) Check clause
d) All of the mentioned
165. Which of the following is not a condition for the third normal form in the case of XY?
a) X→ Y is trivial
b) X is the superkey for R
c) Each attribute in Y-X is a candidate key for R
d) Each attribute in X-Y is a candidate key for R
167. State true or false: A functional dependency must first satisfy the second normal form to satisfy the
third normal form.
a) True
b) False
168. State true or false: The fourth normal form does not exist and it is instead called as the BCNF.
a) True
b) False
171. If a functional dependency is reflexive, B is a subset of A and A is the set of attributes, then
a) B→A holds
b) A→B holds
c) AB→C holds
d) None of the mentioned
172. State true or false: Armstrong’s axioms allow us to generate all F+ for any given F
a) True
b) False
177. We say that a decomposition having the property F’+ = F+ is a __________ decomposition.
a) Dependency losing
b) Dependency preserving
c) Lossless
d) None of the mentioned
178. A _________ Fc for F is a set of dependencies such that F logically implies all dependencies in Fc,
and Fc logically implies all dependencies in F.
a) Canonical cover
b) Complete cover
c) Canonical dependency
d) Canonical clause
181. Which of the following is desirable in a database design with functional dependencies?
a) BCNF
b) Losslessness
c) Dependency preservation
d) All of the mentioned
182. State true or false: SQL specifies a way of mentioning functional dependencies
a) True
b) False
183. State true or false: Most current database systems do not support constraints on materialized view
a) True
b) False
186. The _______ is a set of all functional and multi values dependencies implied by a set of functional
dependencies
a) Star
b) Closure
c) Derivation
d) Evolution
187. State true or false: If a relational schema is in _______ NF and A is a subset of R and B is also a
subset of R then it is that A is a superkey is a trivial multi values dependency.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
189. Which of the following is not a process of generating a good relational schema?
a) Converting ER diagrams to relational schema
b) Decomposing the relational schema while satisfying functional dependencies
c) Joining multiple relations together to form a single relation containing all the attributes
d) A design of relations which is then tested and modified to satisfy given normal forms
192. State true or false: Crosstabs are not desirable in a database design
a) True
b) False
193. The data that have a time interval associated with them during which they are valid are called as
________
a) Timed data
b) Temporal data
c) Model data
d) Clocked data
195. 7. Functional dependencies that have a time associated with them during which they are valid are
called as________
a) Timed functional dependencies
b) Clocked functional dependencies
c) Temporal functional dependencies
d) Modeled functional dependencies
197. Which of the following is the time of temporal data that record when a fact was recorded in a
database?
a) Transaction time
b) Valid time
c) Enter time
d) Exit time
198. To specify the foreign keys in relations referencing temporal data we need to specify _______
a) The time interval
b) The Boolean value for the working
c) The integer corresponding to the relation number
d) None of the mentioned
Unit 5 : PLSQL
200 The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the Database is
1. Post
2. Post form
3. Commit form
4. None of the above
201 Which of the following do not execute multiple PL/SQL programs simultaneously?
202 Which package can you use to output values and messages stored procedures?
1. DBMS_DISPLAY
2. DBMS_OUTPUT
3. DBMS_LIST
4. DBMS_DESCRIBE
Answers :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d c b a a b a b c d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c d c b c a c a a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c a b a b d a c d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b c a b a b d a c d
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d c d b b a c a b d
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b a a c a a a a b C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
a a a c b d b a d a
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
a d d a d c c b d a
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b a c a a b a b c A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
b a d d a d c c b d
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 100
a a b c c a b c a B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
a c a c a d d a d d
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
c a b c c a b b a a
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
b a a d a c a c a b
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
b d c b a c a b b d
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
c b a c a b b d c C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d a c d d a a b c c
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
b a d a d d b a a b
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
a b a b a b d d c a
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
b a b c c b a a a c
201 202 203
c b d