Block 3 Final: GI

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Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated
with appendicitis?
Steady; The pain begins in the epigastrium or periumbilical region,
1. Aching
then shifts to the right lower quadrant and becomes steady. The
2. Fleeting
pain may be moderate to severe.
3. Intermittent
4. Steady
Which of the following nursing interventions should be implement-
ed to manage a client with appendicitis? Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis; The focus of care is to
1. Assessing for pain. assess for peritonitis, or inflammation of the peritoneal cavity.
2. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids. Peritonitis is most commonly caused by appendix rupture and
3. Provide discharge teaching. invasion of bacteria, which could be lethal.
4. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis.
Which of the following definitions best describes gastritis?
Inflammation of the gastric mucosa; Gastritis is an inflammation
1. Erosion of the gastric mucosa.
of the gastric mucosa that may be acute (often resulting from
2. Inflammation of a diverticulum.
exposure to local irritants) or chronic (associated with autoimmune
3. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa.
infections or atrophic disorders of the stomach).
4. Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus.
Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?
1. Milk
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; NSAIDS are a common
2. Bicarbonate of soda, or baking soda.
cause of gastritis because they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
3. Enteric coated aspirin.
4. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine; Diverticulosis involves
1. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine.
a noninflamed outpouching of the intestine. Diverticulitis involves
2. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine.
an inflamed outpouching. The partial impairment of forward flow
3. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents.
of the intestine is an obstruction; abnormal protrusion of an organ
4. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that
is a hernia.
usually holds it.
Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the develop-
ment of diverticulosis? Low-fiber diet; Low-fiber diets have been implicated in the de-
1. Low-fiber diet. velopment of diverticula because these diets decrease the bulk
2. High-fiber diet. in the stool and predispose the person to the development of
3. High-protein diet. constipation.
4. Low-carbohydrate diet.
Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development
of diverticulosis into diverticulitis?
1. Treating constipation with chronic laxative use, leading to de-
pendence on laxatives. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area
2. Chronic constipation causing an obstruction, reducing forward to bacterial invasion; Undigested food can block the diverticulum,
flow of intestinal contents. decreasing blood supply to the area and predisposing the area to
3. Herniation of the intestinal mucosa, rupturing the wall of the invasion of bacteria.
intestine.
4. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the
area to bacterial invasion.
Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis?
1. No symptoms exist.
2. Change in bowel habits.
3. Anorexia with low-grade fever.
4. Episodic, dull, or steady midabdominal pain.
Which of the following tests should be administered to a client
suspected of having diverticulosis?
1. Abdominal ultrasound. Barium enema; A barium enema will cause diverticula to fill with
2. Barium enema. barium and be easily seen on x-ray.
3. Barium swallow.
4. Gastroscopy.
Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include
which of the following treatments? Administration of antibiotics; Antibiotics are used to reduce the
1. Reduced fluid intake. inflammation.
2. Increased fiber in diet.
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3. Administration of antibiotics.
4. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure.
Crohn's disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease.
Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with
this disease?
The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of
1. The entire length of the large colon.
the bowel; Crohn's disease can involve any segment of the small
2. Only the sigmoid area.
intestine, the colon, or both, affecting the entire thickness of the
3. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and sub-
bowel.
mucosa.
4. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of
the bowel.
Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative
colitis? Altered immunity; Several theories exist regarding the cause of
1. Acidic diet. ulcerative colitis. One suggests altered immunity as the cause
2. Altered immunity. based on the extraintestinal characteristics of the disease, such
3. Chronic constipation. as peripheral arthritis and cholangitis.
4. Emotional stress.
Which of the following associated disorders may the client with
Crohn's disease exhibit?
1. Ankylosing spondylitis. Malabsorption; Because of the transmural nature of Crohn's dis-
2. Colon cancer. ease lesions, malaborption may occur with Crohn's disease..
3. Malabsorption.
4. Lactase deficiency.
Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with
Crohn's disease?
1. Bloody diarrhea.
Steatorrhea; fatty stools.
2. Narrow stools.
3. N/V
4. Steatorrhea.
Which of the following symptoms is associated with ulcerative
colitis?
1. Dumping syndrome. Rectal bleeding; In ulcerative colitis, rectal bleeding is the predom-
2. Rectal bleeding. inant symptom.
3. Soft stools.
4. Fistulas.
If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following di-
agnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis is Crohn's disease
or ulcerative colitis? Colonoscopy with biopsy; A colonoscopy with biopsy can be
1. Abdominal CT scan. performed to determine the state of the colon's mucosal layers,
2. Abdominal x-ray. presence of ulcerations, and level of cytologic development.
3. Barium swallow,
4. Colonoscopy with biopsy.
Which of the following interventions should be included in the
medical management of Crohn's disease?
Using long-term steroid therapy; Management of Crohn's disease
1. Increasing oral intake of fiber.
may include long-term steroid therapy to reduce the inflammation
2. Administering laxatives.
associated with the deeper layers of the bowel wall.
3. Using long-term steroid therapy.
4. Increasing physical activity.
In a client with Crohn's disease, which of the following symptoms
should not be a direct result from antibiotic therapy? Decrease in body weight; A decrease in body weight may occur
1. Decrease in bleeding. during therapy due to inadequate dietary intake, but isn't related
2. Decrease in temp. to antibiotic therapy. Effective antibiotic therapy will be noted by a
3. Decrease in body weight. decrease in temperature, number of stools, and bleeding.
4. Decrease in number of stools.

Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to

Bowel perforation; Perforation, obstruction, hemorrhage, and toxic
treat which of the following complications?
megacolon are common complications of ulcerative colitis that
1. Gastritis.
may require surgery.
2. Bowel herniation.

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3. Bowel outpouching.
4. Bowel perforation.
Which of the following medications is most effective for treating
the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?
1. Acetaminophen. Steroids; The pain with irritable bowel disease is caused by in-
2. Opiates. flammation, which steroids can reduce.
3. Steroids.
4. Stool softeners.
During the first few days of recovery from ostomy surgery for
ulcerative colitis, which of the following aspects should be the first
priority of client care? Ostomy care; Although all of these are concerns the nurse should
1. Body image. address, being able to safely manage the ostomy is crucial for the
2. Ostomy care. client before discharge.
3. Sexual concerns.
4. Skin care.
Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the follow-
ing conditions? Ulcerative colitis; Chronic ulcerative colitis, granulomas, and fa-
1. Appendicitis. milial polposis seem to increase a person's chance of developing
2. Hemorrhoids. colon cancer. The other conditions listed have no known effect on
3. Hiatal hernia. colon cancer risk.
4. Ulcerative Colitis.
Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with
colon cancer?
1. Low-fiber, high fat. Low-fiber, high fat; A low-fiber, high-fat diet reduced motility and
2. Low-fat, high-fiber. increases the chance of constipation.
3. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
4. Low carbohydrate, high protein.
Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed an-
nually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?
1. Abdominal CT scan. Fecal occult blood test; Surface blood vessels of polyps and can-
2. Abdominal x-ray. cers are fragile and often bleed with the passage of stools.
3. Colonoscopy.
4. Fecal occult blood test.
Which of the following symptoms is a client with colon cancer most
likely to exhibit? A change in bowel habit; The most common complaint of the client
1. A change in appetite. with colon cancer is a change in bowel habits. The client may have
2. A change in bowel habit. anorexia, secondary abdominal distention, or weight loss. Fever
3. An increase in body weight. isn't associated with colon cancer.
4. An increase in body temp.
A client has just had surgery for colon cancer. Which of the
following disorders might the client develop? Peritonitis; Bowel spillage could occur during surgery, resulting in
1. Peritonitis. peritonitis. Complete or partial bowel obstruction may occur before
2. Diverticulitis. bowel resection. Diverticulosis doesn't result from surgery or colon
3. Partial bowel obstruction. cancer.
4. Complete bowel obstruction.
Which of the following complications of gastric resection should Dumping syndrome; Dumping syndrome is a problem that oc-
the nurse teach the client to watch for? curs postprandially after gastric resection because ingested food
1. Constipation. rapidly enters the jejunum without proper mixing and without the
2. Dumping syndrome. normal duodenal digestive processing. Diarrhea, not constipation,
3. Gastric spasm. may also be a symptom. Gastric or intestinal spasms don't occur,
4. Intestinal spasms. but antispasmodics may be given to slow gastric emptying.
Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause
peritonitis? Perforated ulcer; The most common cause of peritonitis is a per-
1. Cholelithiasis forated ulcer, which can pour contaminates into the peritoneal
2. Gastritis cavity, causing inflammation and infection within the cavity. The
3. Perforated ulcer other conditions don't by themselves cause peritonitis.
4. Incarcerated hernia
Which of the following symptoms would a client in the early stages
of peritonitis exhibit?
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1. Abdominal distention.
Abdominal pain and rigidity; Abdominal pain causing rigidity of
2. Abdominal pain and rigidity.
the abdominal muscles is characteristic of peritonitis. Abdominal
3. Hyperactive bowel sounds.
distention may occur as a late sign but not early on.
4. Right upper quadrant pain.
Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a
client with peritonitis?
1. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds White blood cell count above 15,000; Because of infection, the
2. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL client's WBC count will be elevated.
3. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
4. White blood cell count above 15,000
Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical
management of a client with peritonitis?
1. Broad-spectrum antibiotics. Regular diet; The client with peritonitis usually isn't allowed any-
2. Electrolyte replacement. thing orally until the source of peritonitis is confirmed and treated.
3. IV fluids
4. Regular diet.
Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing
management for a client with peritonitis?
Fluid and electrolyte balance; Peritonitis can advance to shock and
1. Fluid and electrolyte balance.
circulatory failure, so fluid and electrolyte balance is the priority
2. Gastric irrigation.
focus of nursing management.
3. Pain management.
4. Psychosocial issues.
A client with irritable bowel syndrome is being prepared for dis-
charge. Which of the following meal plans should the nurse give
the client? High fiber, low fat; The client with irritable bowel syndrome needs
1. Low fiber, low fat. to be on a diet that contains at least 25 grams of fiber per day. Fatty
2. High fiber, low fat. foods are to be avoided because they may precipitate symptoms.
3. Low fiber, high fat.
4. High fiber, high fat.
A client presents to the emergency room, reporting that he has
been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Fre-
Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia; Gastric acid contains large
quent vomiting puts him at risk for which of the following?
amounts of potassium, chloride, and hydrogen ions. Excessive
1. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia
loss of these substances, such as from vomiting, can lead to
2. Metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia.
3. Metabolic alkalosis with hyperkalemia
4. Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia
The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs of dumping
syndrome. Which symptom indicates this occurrence? Sweating and pallor; Early manifestations of dumping syndrome
1. Abdominal cramping and pain occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo,
2.Bradycardia and indigestion tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire
3.Sweating and pallor to lie down.
4.Double vision and chest pain
The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the client
who had an umbilical hernia repair. Which of the following would
the nurse include in the plan? Avoiding coughing; Coughing is avoided to prevent disruption of
1. Restricting pain medication the tissue integrity, which can occur because of the location of this
2. Maintaining bedrest surgical procedure.
3. Avoiding coughing
4. Irrigating the drain
The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of
ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the
client, would the nurse report to the physician?
Rebound tenderness; Rebound tenderness may indicate peritoni-
1. Bloody diarrhea
tis.
2. Hypotension
3. A hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL
4. Rebound tenderness
The client has been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreati-
tis. The nurse would assess this client for pain that is:
1. Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and
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radiating to the back.
2. Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower quadrant and
Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radi-
radiating to the groin.
ating to the back; The pain associated with acute pancreatitis is
3. Burning and aching, located in the epigastric area and radiating
often severe and unrelenting, is located in the epigastric region,
to the umbilicus.
and radiates to the back.
4. Burning and aching, located in the left lower quadrant and
radiating to the hip.
Glenda has cholelithiasis (gallstones). You expect her to complain
of:
Pain in the right upper quadrant, radiating to the shoulder; The
1. Pain in the right upper quadrant, radiating to the shoulder
gallbladder is located in the RUQ and a frequent sign of gallstones
2. Pain in the right lower quadrant, with rebound tenderness
is pain radiating to the shoulder.
3. Pain in the left upper quadrant, with shortness of breath
4. Pain in the left lower quadrant, with mild cramping
Gail is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. After completion of pre-
operative teaching, Gail states,"If I lie still and avoid turning after
the operation, I'll avoid pain. Do you think this is a good idea?"
What is the best response?
1. "You'll need to turn from side to side every 2 hours." "You'll need to turn from side to side every 2 hours."
2. "It's always a good idea to rest quietly after surgery."
3. "The doctor will probably order you to lie flat for 24 hours."
4. "Why don't you decide about activity after you return from the
recovery room?
You're caring for Lewis, a 67 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who
developed ascites and requires paracentesis. Relief of which
Dyspnea; Ascites puts pressure on the diaphragm. Paracentesis
symptom indicated that the paracentesis was effective?
is done to remove fluid and reducing pressure on the diaphragm.
1. Pruritus
The goal is to improve the patient's breathing. The others are signs
2. Dyspnea
of cirrhosis that aren't relieved by paracentesis
3. Jaundice
4. Peripheral neuropathy
You're caring for Jane, a 57 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who
developed ascites and requires paracentesis. Before her para-
centesis, you instruct her to:
Empty her bladder; A full bladder can interfere with paracentesis
1. Empty her bladder.
and be punctured inadvertently.
2. Lie supine in bed.
3. Remain NPO for 4 hours.
4. Clean her bowels with an enema.
Sharon has cirrhosis of the liver and develops ascites. What in-
tervention is necessary to decrease the excessive accumulation
of serous fluid in her peritoneal cavity?
Restrict fluids; Restricting fluids decrease the amount of body fluid
1. Restrict fluids.
and the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space.
2. Encourage ambulation.
3. Increase sodium in the diet.
4. Give antacids as prescribed.
Rob is a 46 y.o. admitted to the hospital with a suspected diag-
nosis of Hepatitis B. He's jaundiced and reports weakness. Which
intervention will you include in his care?
Rest period after small, frequent meals; Rest periods and small
1. Regular exercise.
frequent meals is indicated during the acute phase of hepatitis B.
2. A low-protein diet.
3. Allow patient to select his meals.
4. Rest period after small, frequent meals.
You're caring for a 28 y.o. woman with hepatitis B. She's concerned
about the duration of her recovery. Which response isn't appropri-
ate?
1. Encourage her to not worry about the future Encourage her to not worry about the future; Telling her not to
2. Encourage her to express her feelings about the illness worry minimizes her feelings.
3. Discuss the effects of hepatitis B on future health problems
4. Provide avenues for financial counseling if she expresses the
need

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The student nurse is teaching the family of a patient with liver
failure. You instruct them to limit which foods in the patient's diet? Meats and beans; Meats and beans are high-protein foods. In
1. Meats and beans liver failure, the liver is unable to metabolize protein adequately,
2. Butter and gravies causing protein by-products to build up in the body rather than be
3. Potatoes and pastas excreted.
4. Cakes and pastries
A patient with chronic alcohol abuse is admitted with liver failure.
Hypoalbuminemia; Blood pressure decreases as the body is un-
You closely monitor the patient's blood pressure because of which
able to maintain normal oncotic pressure with liver failure, so
change that is associated with the liver failure?
patients with liver failure require close blood pressure monitoring.
1. Hypoalbuminemia
Increased capillary permeability, abnormal peripheral vasodila-
2. Increased capillary permeability
tion, and excess rennin released from the kidney's aren't direct
3. Abnormal peripheral vasodilation
ramifications of liver failure.
4. Excess rennin release from the kidneys
Britney, a 20 y.o. student is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which
laboratory findings do you expect to be abnormal for this patient?
1. Serum creatinine and BUN Serum amylase and lipase; Pancreatitis involves activation of pan-
2. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotrans- creatic enzymes, such as amylase and lipase. These levels are
ferase (AST) elevated in a patient with acute pancreatitis.
3. Serum amylase and lipase
4. Cardiac enzymes
Brenda, a 36 y.o. patient is on your floor with acute pancreatitis.
Treatment for her includes:
1. Continuous peritoneal lavage Nutritional support with TPN; With acute pancreatitis, you need to
2. Regular diet with increased fat rest the GI tract by TPN as nutritional support.
3. Nutritional support with TPN
4. Insertion of a T tube to drain the pancreas
Ralph has a history of alcohol abuse and has acute pancreatitis.
Which lab value is most likely to be elevated?
1. Calcium Glucose; Glucose level increases and diabetes mellitus may result
2. Glucose d/t the pancreatic damage to the islets of langerhans.
3. Magnesium
4. Potassium
Claire, a 33 y.o. is on your floor with a possible bowel obstruction.
Which intervention is priority for her?
Measure abdominal girth; Measuring abdominal girth provides
1. Obtain daily weights
quantitative information about increases or decreases in the
2. Measure abdominal girth
amount of distention
3. Keep strict intake and output
4. Encourage her to increase fluids
Your patient, Christopher, has a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis and
has severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound
Bowel perforation; An inflammatory condition that affects the sur-
tenderness, fever, nausea, and decreased urine output. This may
face of the colon, ulcerative colitis causes friability and erosions
indicate which complication?
with bleeding. Patients with ulcerative colitis are at increased risk
1. Fistula
for bowel perforation, toxic megacolon, hemorrhage, cancer, and
2. Bowel perforation
other anorectal and systemic complications.
3. Bowel obstruction
4. Abscess
Matt is a 49 y.o. with a hiatal hernia that you are about to counsel.
Health care counseling for Matt should include which of the fol-
lowing instructions? Increase fluid intake with meals; Increasing fluids helps empty the
1. Restrict intake of high-carbohydrate foods stomach. A high carb diet isn't restricted and fat intake shouldn't
2. Increase fluid intake with meals be increased.
3. Increase fat intake
4. Eat three regular meals a day
You promote hemodynamic stability in a patient with upper GI
bleeding by:
Giving blood, electrolyte and fluid replacement; To stabilize a
1. Encouraging oral fluid intake
patient with acute bleeding, NS or LR solution is given I.V. until
2. Monitoring central venous pressure
BP rises and urine output returns to 30ml/hr.
3. Monitoring laboratory test results and vital signs
4. Giving blood, electrolyte and fluid replacement

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Weakness of the diaphragmic muscle; A hiatal hernia is caused by
Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?
weakness of the diaphragmic muscle and increased intra-abdomi-
1. Increased intrathoracic pressure
nal—not intrathoracic—pressure. This weakness allows the stom-
2. Weakness of the esophageal muscle
ach to slide into the esophagus. The esophageal supports weak-
3. Increased esophageal muscle pressure
en, but esophageal muscle weakness or increased esophageal
4. Weakness of the diaphragmic muscle
muscle pressure isn't a factor in hiatal hernia.
Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that
lead to increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following
complications can cause increased abdominal pressure?
Obesity; Obesity may cause increased abdominal pressure that
1. Obesity
pushes the lower portion of the stomach into the thorax.
2. Volvulus
3. Constipation
4. Intestinal obstruction
Which of the following symptoms is common with a hiatal hernia?
Esophageal reflux; Esophageal reflux is a common symptom of
1. Left arm pain
hiatal hernia. This seems to be associated with chronic exposure
2. Lower back pain
of the lower esophageal sphincter to the lower pressure of the
3. Esophageal reflux
thorax, making it less effective.
4. Abdominal cramping
Which of the following tests can be performed to diagnose a hiatal
hernia?
Barium swallow; A barium swallow with fluoroscopy shows the po-
1. Colonoscopy
sition of the stomach in relation to the diaphragm. A colonoscopy
2. Lower GI series
and a lower GI series show disorders of the intestine.
3. Barium swallow
4. Abdominal x-ray
Which of the following measures should the nurse focus on for the Recognizing hemorrhage; Recognizing the rupture of esophageal
client with esophageal varices? varices, or hemorrhage, is the focus of nursing care because the
1. Recognizing hemorrhage client could succumb to this quickly. Controlling blood pressure is
2. Controlling blood pressure also important because it helps reduce the risk of variceal rupture.
3. Encouraging nutritional intake It is also important to teach the client what varices are and what
4. Teaching the client about varices foods he should avoid such as spicy foods.
The hospitalized client with GERD is complaining of chest dis-
comfort that feels like heartburn following a meal. After adminis- On the left side with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees; The
tering an ordered antacid, the nurse encourages the client to lie discomfort of reflux is aggravated by positions that compress the
in which of the following positions? abdomen and the stomach. These include lying flat on the back
1. Supine with the head of the bed flat or on the stomach after a meal of lying on the right side. The left
2. On the stomach with the head flat side-lying position with the head of the bed elevated is most likely
3. On the left side with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees to give relief to the client.
4. On the right side with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
The client with GERD complains of a chronic cough. The nurse
understands that in a client with GERD this symptom may be
indicative of which of the following conditions? Aspiration of gastric contents; Clients with GERD can develop
1. Development of laryngeal cancer pulmonary symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and dyspnea
2. Irritation of the esophagus that are caused by the aspiration of gastric contents.
3. Esophageal scar tissue formation
4. Aspiration of gastric contents
A client with peptic ulcer disease tells the nurse that he has black
stools, which he has not reported to his physician. Based on this
information, which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this Deficient knowledge related to unfamiliarity with significant signs
client? and symptoms; Black, tarry stools are an important warning sign
1. Ineffective coping related to fear of diagnosis of chronic illness of bleeding in peptic ulcer disease. Digested blood in the stomach
2. Deficient knowledge related to unfamiliarity with significant causes it to be black. The odor of the stool is very stinky. Clients
signs and symptoms with peptic ulcer disease should be instructed to report the inci-
3. Constipation related to decreased gastric motility dence of black stools promptly to their physician.
4. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements due to gas-
tric bleeding

The nurse provides medication instructions to a client with peptic

"The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stomach
ulcer disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates
acid."; Cimetidine (Tagamet), a histamine H2 receptor antagonist,
the best understanding of the medication therapy?
will decrease the secretion of gastric acid. Sucralfate (Carafate)
1. "The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stom-
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ach acid."
2. "Sucralfate (Carafate) will change the fluid in my stomach." promotes healing by coating the ulcer. Antacids neutralize acid in
3. "Antacids will coat my stomach." the stomach. Omeprazole (Prilosec) inhibits gastric acid secretion.
4. "Omeprazole (Prilosec) will coat the ulcer and help it heal."
A female client complains of gnawing epigastric pain for a few
hours after meals. At times, when the pain is severe, vomiting
occurs. Specific tests are indicated to rule out:
Peptic ulcer disease; Peptic ulcer disease is characteristically
1. Cancer of the stomach
gnawing epigastric pain that may radiate to the back.
2. Peptic ulcer disease
3. Chronic gastritis
4. Pylorospasm

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