Time : 3 Hrs.

TEST MM : 720

[PHYSICS]

Choose the correct answer :

–1
1. Rydberg constant R has the dimension of L , which 53°
of the following can represent the dimensionally F
correct formula for R?
 = 0.2
2
em em
4 1 kg
(1) 2 3 (2) 3 2 2 kg =0
8h  0c 8h 0c
4
e3m2 em 100 50
(3) 3 2 (4) 3 2 (1) N (2) N
8h  0c 8h  0c 7 3
2. If a ball is thrown upwards from the surface of earth 50 100
(3) N (4) N
(1) The earth remains stationary while the ball moves 7 3
upwards 5. A bullet of mass m moving with speed u penetrates
(2) The ball remains stationary while the earth through a series of planks and finally stops in the
moves downwards 6th plank. Then the speed of bullet after emerging
from 3rd plank can be
(3) The ball and earth both move towards each other
u
(4) The ball and earth both move away from each
other

 25  1 2 3 4 5 6
3. A projectile fired at an angle of tan –1   just clears
 12 
u u
a wall 16 m away from the point of projection and (1) (2)
hits the ground 9 m away from the wall on the other 2 2
side. The maximum height of wall is (3) 0.6 u (4) 0.4 u
(1) 5 m (2) 12 m 6. A particle of mass 1 g moving with a velocity
(3) 25 m (4) 9 m u1 (3iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s experiences a perfectly inelastic
collision with another particle of mass 2 g and
4. A pushing force F, making an angle 53° with vertical, 
acts on a block of mass 1 kg. This block is kept on velocity u  (4 jˆ  6kˆ) m/s. The velocity of the
2
a long plank of mass 2 kg as shown. The coefficient combined particle is
of kinetic friction between the block and plank is 0.2
and the plank is kept on a frictionless floor. What is (1) iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ (2) iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ
the value of F for which acceleration of the block is
twice the acceleration of the plank? (3) 2iˆ  2 jˆ  4kˆ (4) iˆ  3.33 jˆ  4kˆ
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7. An object of mass m is moving on a circular track If this toy is rotated about the axis AA, then the
of radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is moment of inertia of the toy will be
2 2
given by ac = k rt , where k is constant. The power 2 2
delivered to the particle by the force acting on it is 5ml 5ml
(1) (2)
(1) mk r t
2 2
(2) Zero 22 42
2 2
mk r t
4 2 5 7ml 7ml
2 2
(3) 2mk r (4) (3) (4)
3 42 82
8. A spring of spring constant k is stretched by applying 11. A small planet is revolving around a massive star in
a force F on it such that the energy stored in the a nearly circular orbit of radius R with a period of
spring is E. Now, this spring is cut in three parts in revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction
the length ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Each part of the spring is between the planet and the star is proportional to
–5/2
stretched by applying a force of F on it. The ratio of R , then
energy stored in each spring is 2
(1) T  R
2
(2) T  R
2 3/2

(1) 6 : 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 : 6 2
(3) T  R
3/4
(4) T  R
2 7/2

(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 : 1 12. If the distance between the earth and the sun was
9. There are hundred identical sliders equally spaced half its present value, then the number of days in a
on a frictionless track as shown in the figure. Initially year would have been
all the sliders are at rest. Slider 1 is pushed with (1) 64.5 (2) 129
velocity v towards slider 2. In a collision the sliders
stick together. The final velocity of the set of hundred (3) 182.5 (4) 730
stucked sliders will be 13. A solid cylinder of length L is immersed such that it
floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface
1 v 2 3 100 as shown.

v v
(1) (2) 3L 
99 100 4
(3) v (4) Zero
10. Three identical wires of length l and mass m are used 2
to create circular rings to form a toy (The shape as
L
shown). The length of the cylinder is inside the denser
A 4
3L
liquid (density 2) and part is in less denser
4
liquid (). Then density of the solid cylinder (D) is
5 4
(1)  (2) 
4 5

(3) 4  (4)
A 5
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14. Three capillaries, made up of same material, have their 19. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. The ratio of volume of liquid, that in helium gas, at 300 K is
which rises in them when placed in water is
2 1
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 4 : 2 : 1 (1) (2)
7 7
(3) 1 : 4 : 16 (4) 1 : 2 : 4
15. Three rods of identical cross sectional area are made 3 6
(3) (4)
from the same metal form the sides of an isosceles 5 5
triangle ABC, right angled at B.. The points A and B
20. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its
are maintained at T and 2 T respectively. In steady first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at both ends
state, the temperature of the point C is Tc. Assuming vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with
Tc a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 and
that only heat conduction takes place, is P2 is
T
1 3 8 3
(1) (2)
2  2  1
(2) 
2  1
(1) 3 8

1 1 1 1
(3) (4)
3  2  1
(4) 
2  1
(3)
6 3
16. A spherical black body of radius 12 cm radiates 21. The tension in a string obeying Hooke’s law is T.
450 W power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and The speed of transverse wave in the stretched string
temperature doubled, the power radiated would be is v. If the tension in the string is increased by 50%,
(1) 225 W (2) 450 W the speed of transverse wave will be

(3) 900 W (4) 1800 W (1) 1.50 v (2) 1.22 v

17. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas (3) 0.61 v (4) 0.75 v
expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different 22. Two pulses in a stretched string, whose centres are
ways, the work done by the gas is w1 if the process initially 8 m apart are moving towards each other as
is purely isothermal, w2 if purely isobaric and w3 if shown in the figure.
purely adiabatic, then
2 m/s
(1) w2 > w1 > w3 (2) w2 > w3 > w1
(3) w1 > w2 > w3 (4) w1 > w3 > w2
2 m/s
18. If the temperature difference between a source and
8m
a sink is twice the sink temperature and an engine
is operating between the given source and sink, The speed of each pulse is 2 m/s. After 2 s the total
then the maximum efficiency of the engine can be energy of the pulses will be
3 1 (1) Zero
(1) (2)
4 2 (2) Purely kinetic
2 1 (3) Purely potential
(3) (4) (4) Partly kinetic and partly potential
3 3
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23. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance 26. A cell of EMF 8 V and internal resistance 2  needs
C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and the to be used to draw maximum output power using a
other to V2. After disconnecting the capacitors likely device of resistance R. The value of resistance R is
charged plates are then connected. Then, the (1) 0  (2) 1 
decrease in energy of the combined system is
(3) 2  (4) 4 
C V  V  C V  V 
2 2 2 2
(1) (2)
1 1 27. Two concentric circular loops of one turn each having
1 2 1 2 radii a and b (a < b) have equal current (I) flowing
4 4
1 1 in them in opposite direction. The magnetic field on
2 2
(3) C V1 V2  (4) C V1  V2  the common axial line at a distance x from the
4 4 centre of the loops is
24. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as 0I  b
2
a
2

shown in figure. The electric field at point P is  
(1) 3 3 
2  2
z 
 x b
2 2  2
x a
2  2 

 z = 3a
0I  
2 2
P b a

–2 z =0 (2)  3 3 
2  2

 x b
2 2  2
x a 2  2 

x
 b2 a2 
– z = –a (3) 0I  3  3 

 x  b 
 2 2 2  x 2  a2 2 
2  2 
(1)  k (2)  k
0  0  b2 a2 
(4)  0I  3  
3 
4  3    x 2  b2 2  x 2  a2 2 
 
(3)  k (4)  2 k
0 0 28. A rectangular loop was hanging vertically from a
25. In the given circuit with steady current, the potential current carrying wire with the help of an insulated
difference across the capacitor must be thread. Suddenly the thread is cut and the loop
starts to fall vertically downward as shown.
R I
V
C A B
V
D C
The direction in which the current will flow in the loop
2V 2R will be
V (1) From A to B
(1) V (2)
2 (2) From A to D
V 2V (3) From C to B
(3) (4)
3 3 (4) No current will flow in the loop
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29. A proton, a deuteron and an -particle having the (2) (VL)inst + (VC)inst + (VR)inst = (Vsource)inst
same kinetic energy are moving in circular (3) Voltage across inductor and resistance will be
trajectories in a uniform magnetic field. If rp, rd and same
r denote the respective radii of the trajectories of (4) Potential difference across inductor, capacitor
these particles, then
and resistance will be same
(1) r = rp < rd (2) r > rd > rp
33. A 10% efficient 100 W bulb operating at maximum
(3) r = rd > rp (4) rp = rd = r efficiency produces radiation at a distance of 1 m.
30. When an AC source of EMF e = E0 sin (100t) is The intensity of incident radiation will be
connected across a circuit, the phase difference (1) 1 W/m
2
(2) 0.8 W/m
2

between the EMF e and current i in the circuit is 2 2

 (3) 1.5 W/m (4) 1.2 W/m
observed to be as shown. 34. If radii of curvature of both convex surfaces are 30 cm,
4
then focal length of the lens for an object placed far
i e away in air in the given arrangement is

t
1=1 3= 4
3
2=
1.5
If the circuit consists possibly only of R–C or R–L or
L–C in series, find the relationship between the two
elements.
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm
(1) R = 1 k , C = 10 F
(3) 80 cm (4) 100 cm
(2) R = 1 k , C = 1 F
35. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis
(3) R = 1 k , L = 10 H of a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u
(4) R = 1 k , L = 1 H from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is
approximately equal to
31. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on
table without touching each other. Loop A carries a  u  f  12  f 2 1
(1) b (2) b
current which increases with time. In response, the    
 f   u  f 
loop B
 u f   f 
2
(1) Remains stationary (3) b   (4) b  
 f   u  f 
(2) Is attracted to the loop A
36. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I
(3) Is repelled by the loop A
interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
(4) Rotates about its CM, with CM fixed 
The phase difference between the beams is at
32. In a series LCR circuit which is connected to an AC 2
voltage source, choose the related correct point A and  at point B. Then the difference
statement. between resultant intensities at A and B is
(1) The algebraic sum of instantaneous voltage (1) 2 I (2) 4 I
across L, C and R is constant (3) 5 I (4) 7 I
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37. An old person is using a spectacle having bifocal 42. A radioactive particle of mass M at rest decays
lenses. The power of the two lenses L1 and L2 is producing two particles of masses m1 and m2 having
+2 D and – 1 D. Then, the range within which he non-zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie
can see clearly is 1
(1) 25 cm to 1 m wavelengths of the particles  is
2

(2) 50 cm to 75 cm m1 m2
(1) m (2) m
(3) 25 cm to 75 cm 2 1

(4) 50 cm to 1 m m2
38. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident (3) 1 (4)
m1
normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is
formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the 43. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes
direction of the incident beam. At the first minimum each with a forward resistance of 50  and with infinite
of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the
between the rays from the two edges of the slit is current through the 100  resistor (in amperes) is

 150 
(1) 0 (2)
2
50 
(3)  (4) 2 
39. The X-ray beam coming from an X-ray
ray tube will be
100 
(1) Monochromatic
6V
(2) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain
(1) 0.03 (2) 0.02
maximum wavelength
(3) 0.024 (4) 0.036
(3) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain
minimum wavelength 44. In a p-n
n junction diode not connected to any circuit

(4) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum (1) The potential is the same everywhere
and a maximum wavelength (2) The p-side
side is at higher potential than the n-type
n
40. If the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron side
emitted is 4 eV, then the corresponding minimum (3) There is an electric field at the junction directed
de-Broglie wavelength should be from n-side to the p-side
side
–9 –10
(1) 1.23 × 10 m (2) 6.13 × 10 m (4) There is an electric field at the junction directed
–10 –10 from the p-side to the n-side
n
(3) 12.3 × 10 m (4) 3.04 × 10 m
45. Which of the following statements
stateme is incorrect?
41. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV)
required to remove an electron from the ground state (1) An LED operates in forward bias
of doubly ionized Li atom (Z = 3) is (2) A Zener diode operates in reverse bias
(1) 1.51 (2) 13.6 (3) A photodiode operates in reverse bias
(3) 40.8 (4) 122.4 (4) A photovoltaic device operates in forward bias.

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 [CHEMISTRY]
46. A molecule of an antibiotic contains atoms of 51. Consider the following statements :
carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen in the ratio I. IF5 is square pyramidal whereas PCl5 is trigonal
9 : 15 : 1 : 3. If there are 18 oxygen atoms per bipyramidal.
molecule, then the molecular formula of the antibiotic
II. Bond enthalpy of O–H bond in ethanol and water
is
is different.
(1) C9H15H6O18 (2) C27H45N3O18 III. In carbon suboxide (C3O2) all carbon atoms have
(3) C54H90N6O18 (4) C54H15N6O18 same hybridisation.
47. Consider the following graph for kinetic energy of Choose the correct statements
ejected electrons (Ek ) vs frequency of incident (1) I & II only (2) II & III only
radiation (), for three elements x, y and z.
(3) I & III only (4) I, II & III
xyz 52. The critical temperature (T ) and critical pressure (P )
c c
Ek of CO2 are 30.98º C and 73 atm respectively, the
CO2(g) can be liquefied at
 (1) 32° C and 80 atm pressure
The elements x, y and z can be respectively (2) 31.1° C and 72 atm pressure

(1) Mg, Al and Na (2) Na, K and Rb (3) 28° C and 88 atm pressure
(4) 44° C and 100 atm pressure
(3) Mg, Na and Al (4) Rb, K and Na
53. At constant pressure 180 g of water is heated from
48. The tendency to form ions, two units lower in charge
27° C to 87° C. What is the change in entropy for
than expected from the group oxidation state is
the process?
called –1 –1
[ mCp= 75.3 JK mol ] [ln(1.2) = 0.18]
(1) Diagonal relationship (2) Inert pair effect (H2O)
–1 –1
(3) Metallic effect (4) Periodic effect (1) 137.3 JK (2) 14.3 JK
–1 –1
49. In which of the following ions, the oxygen have (3) 153.3 JK (4) 15.3 JK
–20
charge less than 8 × 10 C? 54. Consider the following statements :
– 2–
(1) ClO (2) CO I. Combustion of all organic compounds is an
4 3
2– 3–
(3) SO4 (4) PO 4 exothermic reaction.
II. Crystallisation of a liquid into a solid is
50. The ratio of number of -bonds to number of -bonds
accompanied by decrease in entropy.
in anthracene is
III. The molar enthalpy of vapourisation of acetone is
less than that of water.
is
Choose the correct statements
(1) 6 : 1 (2) 10 : 3 (1) I & II (2) II & III
(3) 26 : 7 (4) 30 : 7 (3) I & III (4) I, II & III
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55. The reaction that occurs while recharging the lead- 59. Choose the incorrect match
storage battery is (1) CaSO4 – Dead burnt plaster
2 PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O(l) (2) Na2CO3 – Soda ash
 Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2 H2SO4(l) (3) BaCO3 – Unstable in air and kept in CO2(g)
What will be the H°reaction? (4) BaSO4 – Insoluble in water
Given : 60. Consider the following statements about diborane,
B2H6
Pb(s) + PbO2 (s) + 2 SO3(g)  2PbSO4(s);
I. Four B-H bonds are in same plane
H° = –768 kJ 3
II. Hybridisation of ‘B’ is sp
SO3(g) + H2O(l)  H2SO4(l); H° = –132 kJ
III. It is a non-planar molecule
(1) 636 kJ (2) 504 kJ Choose the correct statements
(3) –1032 kJ (4) –900 kJ (1) I & II only (2) II & III only
56. When 0.5 mol of CaCO3 is placed in an evacuated (3) I & III only (4) I, II & III
sealed 10 L container and heated to 500 K, 61. Select the incorrect option
PCO = 0.410 atm when equilibrium is established
2
(1) Structure of silicon is similar to that of graphite
CaCO3(s) 

 CaO(s) + CO2(g) (2) Carbon shows catenation but lead does not
An additional 0.615 atm of CO2(g) is pumped in. (3) Tl(NO3)3 acts as an oxidising agent
What is the total mass of CaCO3 after equilibrium (4) PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4
–1 –1
is establised? [R = 0.082 L-atm K mol ] 62. Identify the oxoacid of phosphorus having P-P linkage
(1) 44 g (2) 40 g (1) H4P2O7 (2) H4P2O6
(3) 55 g (4) 60 g (3) H3P3O9 (4) H4P2O5
57. Select the redox chemical reaction(s) 63. The complex formed when aqua-regia is reacted with
Pt, is
I. PbS(s) + 3 O2(g)  2 PbO(s) + 2 SO2(g) 2(–) 2(–)
(1) [PtCl4] (2) [PtCl6]
II. 4 FeS2 + 11 O2(g)  2 Fe2O3 + 8 SO2(g) (3) [Pt(NO3)2 Cl2]
2(–)
(4) [PtCl4(NO3)2]
2(–)

III. XeF6 + 2 H2O  XeO2F2 + 4 HF 64. Which of the following will not show tautomerism
(1) Only I (2) I & II only efficiently?
(3) II & III only (4) I, II & III O-H OH

58. By which of the following H2 can be prepared? (1) (2)

(1) Contact process
(2) Haber's process OH

(3) Ostwald’s process (3) (4) H2C=C–H

(4) Lane's process

OH

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65. Identify the correct IUPAC name of an organic 70. For a binary ideal liquid solution containing non-volatile
non
compound component (X1), the variation of total vapour pressure
I. Pent-3-ene (p) versus composition of solution is given by the curve

II. 2-Methylcyclopropene
III. 1-Ethyl-2, 2-dimethylcyclohexane
dimethylcyclohexane
(1) p (2) p
IV. Buta-1, 3-diene
x1 x1
(1) Only III & IV (2) Only IV
x2 x2
(3) Only I, II & III (4) All are correct
66. Which of the following is not an aromatic system?
(3) p (4) p
(1) (2)
x1 x1
x2 x2
(3) (4)
B 71. Molar conductances of MgCl2, H2SO4 and HCl at
infinite dilution are x, y and z respectively, then
O H
equivalent conductance of MgSO 4 at infinite dilution
67. Choose the incorrect statement would be
(1) CO2(g) is one of the important greenhouse gases (1) (x + y – 2 z ) (2) (x + y – z )
(2) Photochemical smog contains NO 2 and O3
(3) 2 × (x + y – z) (4) (x + y – 2 z)/2
(3) Ozone is destroyed by solar radiation in upper
stratosphere 72. Electrode potential for Fe electrode is given by the
relation
(4) If BOD of water in a reservoir is more than
17 PPM it is highly polluted 0.0591 1
E  E   log
2 2
68. What is the total volume of spheres in hexagonal Fe /Fe Fe /Fe 2 [Fe2 ]
unit cell (3 D) of a metal?
Choose the correct graph
[r = radius of metal atom]
16 3
(1) 8 r
3
(2) r
(1) E 2 (2) E 2
3 Fe /Fe
Fe /Fe
4 3 8 3
(3) r (4) r 2
log [Fe ]
3 3 log [Fe2]
69. Identify the solid in which all the octahedral voids are
occupied. (3) E 2 (4) E 2
Fe /Fe Fe /Fe
(1) ZnS (2) CaF2
(3) CsCl (4) NaCl log [Fe ]
2
–log [Fe ]
2

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73. Consider the following statements : 78. The number of geometrical isomers possible for the
I. At higher temperatures, larger fraction of complex compound with monodentate ligands,
colliding particles can cross the energy barrier [Mabcd] square planar is
which leads to faster rate. (1) 6 (2) 4
II. Molecularity is the number of molecules taking (3) 3 (4) 5
part in an elementary reaction.
79. Consider the following octahedral complexes
III. Molecularity of overall complex reaction is
determined by the slowest reaction. a a c
Choose the incorrect statement(s) c a
M M M
(1) Only I (2) I & II
a
(3) I & III (4) Only III c c a
74. The time required for the 99.9% completion of a (I) (II) (III)
st
1 order reaction would be, if t1/2 for the reaction is
6.93 minutes Choose the correct statement
(1) 69.3 minutes (2) 46 minutes (1) I, II & III are stereoisomers
(3) 23.3 minutes (4) 30 minutes (2) I & III are enantiomers
75. Identify the most suitable catalysts for the following (3) II & III are geometrical isomers
conversions
(4) I, II & III are identical
x CH + H O
CO(g) + H (g) 4 2
2
y H
CH OH 80. OH + CH2 – CH 2 Z . Z is
z
3
(major)
HCHO O

(1) x = Ni, y = Cu – ZnO/Cr2O3, z = Cu

(1) O–CH2–CH2–OH
(2) x = Cu – ZnO/Cr2O3, y = Cu, z = Ni
(3) x = Ni, y = Cu, z = Cu – ZnO/Cr2O3 OH
(4) x = Cu, y = Cu – ZnO/Cr2O3, z = Ni
76. The depressant used in the metallurgy of galena is (2) H3C–CH2

(1) Aniline (2) NaCN OH

(3) Cresol (4) Xanthates
(3) H3C
77. The radius of Zr (Z = 40) is 160 pm, the radius of Hf
(Z = 72) should be OH
(1) 159 pm (2) 200 pm
(4) HO–CH2
(3) 180 pm (4) 300 pm

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 BCl3 85. -D (+) glucose and -D (+) glucose are
81. + CH2Cl X . Identify X
2
(1) Epimers (2) Anomers
(major)
(3) Tautomers (4) Both (1) & (2)
CH2Cl CH3
(1) (2) 86. Identify the least basic amine.

CH2
(3) (4) (1) (2) NH2
N
CH3 H
H,


82. A 
–H2O
CH3
(3) (4)
The compound ‘A’ cannot be
N N
CH3 CH3 H
OH CH3
(1) (2) 87. Monomer of Teflon is
CH3
OH CH=CH2
CH3 (1) F2C=CF2 (2)
C2H5
(3) OH (4) All of these
O
(3) H2C=CH2 (4) HC–H
benzene
83. N–H + O = X . X is 88. Which of the following would undergo Cannizzaro

(major) reaction?

Cl O O
(1) N (2) N
(1) Cl–C–C–H (2) C–H
Cl
(3) N (4) N
OH
(3) CH3–CH–CH3 (4) CH3CHO
84. The product of Balz Schiemann reaction is
89. Mesitylene on reductive ozonolysis gives only
NH2 OH
(1) 2-Oxopropanal (2) Glyoxal
(1) (2)
(3) Propanal (4) Acetone
 
N Cl  90. The artificial sweetener which contains chlorine is
2 F
(3) (4) (1) Sucralose (2) Aspartame
(3) Alitame (4) Saccharine
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 [BIOLOGY]
91. Choose the correct pair option. 95. Choose the correct pair of option w.r.t. algae.
A. Growth by mass – Defining property Features Spirogyra Ectocarpus Porphyra

B. Hominidae – Family of humans (1) Cell wall Cellulosic + Noncellulosic + Cellulosic +

Propectins Algin Carrageen
C. Potato and brinjal – Belong to same
(2) Pigments Chl-a, b & Chl-a, c & Chl-a, d &
species Fucoxanthin phycoerythrin phycocyanin

D. The specialised – Indian Botanical (3) Reserve Floridean Mannitol Laminarin

food starch
gardens with Garden
collection of living (4) Sexual Isogamy Anisogamy Oogamy
reproduction (Non-motile
plants gametes)
E. Biological names – Seldom in Latin
96. How many of the given features are related to
(1) A, B & E (2) B & D Gloriosa?
(3) B, A & D (4) B, C & D
Six tepals, Marginal Placentation, Seed endospermic
92. The basidiocarp bearing saprophytic fungi are
O, C(5) A5, G(3)
(1) Agaricus, Puccinia +

(2) Albugo, Mucor (1) Three (2) Six

(3) Aspergillus, Neurospora (3) Four (4) Five
(4) Amanita, Ganoderma 97. Tendril of pea and tendril of grapevines are
93. Choose the incorrect statement. respectively.
(1) Cyanobacteria is similar to mycoplasma in (1) Modified stem
presence of linear DNA (2) Modified stem and leaf
(2) Red tide is caused by actively swimming protists (3) Modified leaf
(3) No virus contains both DNA and RNA
(4) Modified leaf and stem
(4) Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness
98. Identify A, B, C & D and choose the mismatch
94. All are the adaptations required for seed habit, option.
except
(1) Development of young embryo within female
gametophyte A
B
(2) Presence of heterospory C D
(3) Retention of male gametophyte in parent
sporophyte
(4) Precocious development of female gametophyte

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 (1) B – Multicellular, cells interconnected through 102. If the amount of DNA in the cell during given mitosis
perforations in their common wall stage is 20 pg, then the number of chromosome and
(2) D – Maintains pressure gradient in the sieve amount of DNA in its mother cell at G1 phase was
tubes
(3) A – Main transporting element in flowering
plants
(4) C – Contains peripheral cytoplasm and a
large vacuole but lacks a nucleus
99. Early wood differs from late wood in
(1) Being produced in winter (1) 8; 20 pg (2) 4; 10 pg
(2) Presence of narrow vessels (3) 8; 10 pg (4) 4; 20 pg
(3) Being light in colour 103. Choose the correct option w.r.t. stages of meiosis
(4) Possessing high density in a plant cell.
100. Which of the following cell structures are not (1) Metaphase II – Stage of double metaphasic
exclusive features of bacterial cell? plate
A. Pili (2) Diakinesis – Decondensation of chromatin
B. Polysome (3) Pachytene – Generate recombinations
C. Plasma membrane (4) Anaphase II – Independent assortment
D. Gas vacuole 104. Continuous water column is created in xylem during
E. Double stranded DNA transpiration pull due to

(1) A & B (2) C & D (1) Cohesion and adhesion forces

(3) B, C & E (4) A, B & D (2) Dead nature of cell wall

101. Choose the correct pair. (3) Less lignification of cell wall
Organelle Feature (4) High tensile strength and low capillarity
(1) Lysosome Endomembrane system 105. A mesophytic plant shows wilting during heavy rains
(2) Mitochondria Matrix has all enzymes and water logging in soil due to
of Krebs cycle (1) Low soil temperature and widening of stomatal
(3) Ribosome First observed under pores
light microscope (2) Poor soil aeration
(4) Centrosome Two spherical structures (3) High salt concentration
surrounded by
(4) Low light intensity
crystalline material
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106. Match the given columns and choose the correct 109. Identify A, B, C and D in the given reaction occurring
option. during respiration.

Column-I Column-II
(Mineral) (Function) 2-PGA PEP B

A D
a. Sulphur (i) Photolysis of water C

b. Copper (ii) Ferredoxin (1) D - Cytoplasm; B - Pyruvate (3C)

c. Molybdenum (iii) Cytochrome a3 (2) A - ATP; C - H2O
d Manganese (iv) Nitrogenase (3) C - ADP; D - Mitochondrial matrix
(v) Chlorophyll (4) A - H2O B - Acetyl CoA

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(v), d(iii) 110. During which of the following conversions the
substrate level phosphorylation occurs?
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Citrate  Isocitrate
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v)
(2) Fumarate  Malate
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Malate  Oxaloacetate
107. The electron lost from the reaction centre of PS-I is (4) Succinyl CoA  Succinate
replaced by
111. Quantitative and qualitative exposure to low
(1) Water temperature for flowering is

(2) Hydrogen carrier of ETS (1) Performed on annuals only

(3) Copper containing mobile electron carrier (2) Called etiolation

(3) Due to a hypothetical hormone
(4) Phaeophytin
(4) Perceived by mature leaf
108. How many carbon are present in primary acceptor
and primary product during CO2 fixation in Maize (A) 112. The seed dormancy is promoted and broken by
respectively
and Rice (B) respectively?
(1) ABA; Cytokinin
Primary acceptor Primary product
(2) ABA; Gibberellins
(1) A - 3C A - 3C
(3) Gibberellins; Ethylene
(2) B - 5C B - 4C
(4) Ethylene; Auxins
(3) A - 3C B - 3C
113. Environmental plasticity is shown by
B - 5C
(4) A - 5C A - 4C (1) Butter cup (2) Larkspur
B - 3C (3) Cotton (4) Coriander

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114. Which of the given plant is monocarpic and 119. Fill in the blanks and choose right option.
perennial?
I. First linkage map was developed in (A)
(1) Wheat (2) Papaya
II. (B) discovered incomplete dominance.
(3) Radish (4) Bamboo
III. Karyotype of Klinefelter in humans is (C)
115. If male and female sex organs mature at different
time then the phenomenon is called IV. AaBBCcdd genotype can produce (D) types
(1) Heterostyly (2) Dichogamy of gametes

(3) Prepotency (4) Herkogamy A B C D

116. Egg apparatus Neurospora Bateson XXX; 45 8

(1)
(1) Is present at micropylar end of embryo sac Drosophila Correns 47; XXY 4
(2)
(2) Consists of three cells and three nuclei Pisum Morgan 45; XO 16
(3)
(3) Do not contain cell wall Mirabilis Sturtevant 47; XYY 4
(4)
(4) More than one option is correct
117. Which of the following features is incorrect for 120. Test cross of dihybrid ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 proves that
dicots?
(1) Genes are present on same chromosome and
(1) Embryonal axis is known as tigellum they are far apart
(2) Globular embryo is the mature stage (2) F1 hybrid produces four types of gamete
(3) Endosperm is mostly consumed during embryo (3) Genes are present on different chromosomes
development
(4) All of these
(4) Embryo development occurs at micropylar end of
embryo sac 121. The given pedigree depicts inheritance of

118. Sickle cell anaemia

A. X-linked recessive disorder.
B. Inheritance can be predicted by pedigree chart.
C. Occurs due to frame shift mutation in RNA
codon GAG which changes to GUG
S S
D. Hb Hb dies due to sickle shaped of RBCs
(1) Colour-blindness (2) Myotonic dystrophy
during oxygen tension.
(3) Thalassemia (4) Huntington chorea
(1) A & C are correct
122. Removal of RNA polymerase I from nucleoplasm will
(2) B & D are correct
affect synthesis of
(3) A & B are incorrect
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA
(4) C & D are incorrect
(3) tRNA (4) SnRNA
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123. If the sequence of nucleotides in DNA strand is 128. In which of the following population interactions both
3ATGCTAGG5 partners are harmed?

then the sequence of mRNA synthesized is (1) Crocodile and plover bird

(1) 3AUGCUAGG5 (2) 5 AUGCUAGG3 (2) Clown fish and sea anemone

(3) 3UACGAUCC5 (4) 5UACGAUCC3 (3) Flamingoes and resident fishes in South
American lakes
124. Read the following option and choose the correct
(4) Figs and Blastophaga
pair.
129. Select correct statement.
(1) The process of removal – Split genes
of introns (1) Eluviation does not help in enrichment of soil
(2) Used in DNA finger – Satellite DNA layers
printing sequences (2) Humification maintains biogeochemical cycle
(3) Joining of okazaki – DNA polymerase III (3) Most soils have only two horizons and many
fragments sub-horizons
(4) Amino acid coding – 64 (4) Red soil supports growth of cotton
codons 130. Given below is an ecological pyramid. Identify the
125. Unequivocal proof of DNA being genetic material organism(x) which occupies T3 trophic level and the
came from experiments of type of food chain (y) it represents.
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Conrat and Sanger T3 x

(3) Griffith T2 Herbivore birds y

(4) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty T1 Tree

126. ‘Pomato’ is produced by
(1) Somaclonal variation (1) Hawk ; Predator food chain

(2) Mass selection (2) Parasites ; Parasitic food chain

(3) Mutation breeding (3) Lion; Detritus food chain

(4) Somatic hybridisation (4) Parasite; Grazing food chain

127. Immunosuppressive agent used in organ transplant 131. In hydrarch succession the Reed-swamp stage is
patient is produced by preceeded by

(1) Aspergillus niger (1) Submerged free floating stage

(2) Streptococcus (2) Marsh-Meadow stage

(3) Trichoderma polysporum (3) Scrub stage

(4) Monascus purpureus (4) Submerged rooted plant stage

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132. Biodiversity is rich in tropics because of 139. Which of the following plasma protein helps in
(1) Warm temperature and high humidity coagulation of blood?
(2) Relatively constant and undisturbed (1) Albumin (2) -Globulin
environmental conditions (3) Fibrinogen (4) -Globulin
(3) Being more productive as they receive more
140. Consider the following statements regarding AIDS.
solar radiation
(a) Envelope of HIV consists of a lipid bilayer derived
(4) All of these
from host cell membrane
133. Choose the correct match w.r.t. national park
(b) Its genome consists of a single stranded RNA
(1) Kaziranga – Assam – Spotted deer
segmented into two identical filaments.
(2) Corbett – Uttrakhand – Tiger
(c) Macrophages act like HIV factory
(3) Gir – Rajasthan – Lion
(d) HIV infects and destroy Helper T cell and
(4) Keoladeo – Gujarat – Rhino macrophages
134. Three Mile Island is related to
– How many of the given statements are correct?
(1) NO poisoning (2) SO pollution
2 2
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Greenhouse effect (4) Radioactive pollution
(3) Three (4) Four
135. Forests conservation movement is
141. Mark the odd one w.r.t. first non-steroidal oral
(1) Ramsar convention (2) Chipko
preparation.
(3) Kyoto Protocol (4) Montreal Protocol
(1) Developed at Central Drug Research Institute in
136. Which of the following dinosaurs had about 20 feet Lucknow, India
height, fearsome appearance and dagger like teeth?
(2) Contains centchroman
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus
(3) Prevents implantation
(3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus
137. Among pethidine, methadone, psilocybin, LSD, (4) Prevents the entry of sperm in uterus as well as
morphine and cocaine which of the following drug is ovulation
a very effective sedative and analgesic and is very 142. In an ART, the donor ova is transferred into fallopian
useful in patients who have undergone surgery?
tube. This technique is X and the fertilisation
(1) Morphine only
is then taking place Y .
(2) LSD and psilocybin
Choose the correct option w.r.t. ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(3) Pethidine and methadone
X Y
(4) Morphine and cocaine
(1) ZIFT; in vitro
138. In which of the following, antibodies are synthesised
in the host body itself? (2) IUT; in vitro
(1) ATS (2) DPT vaccine (3) AI; in vivo
(3) Antidote (4) Both (1) & (3) (4) GIFT; in vivo

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143. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. STD and its 148. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the functioning
causative agent of kidney.
(1) Genital warts – Haemophilus ducrei (1) The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes
(2) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum filtration of blood through three cellular layers
(3) Leucorrhoea – Trichomonas vaginalis (2) The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called
podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner
(4) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(3) A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to
144. The first movement of the foetus and appearance of release renin
hair on the head are usually observed during
rd st (4) Reabsorption of water occurs passively in the
(1) 3 month (2) 1 trimester initial segments of the nephron
th th
(3) 5 month (4) 6 month 149. All of the following are present in the secretion of
145. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature sudorific glands of skin, except
of human placenta? (1) Urea (2) NaCl
(1) Haemochorial (3) Lactic acid (4) Hydrocarbons
(2) Deciduous 150. The portion of skeletal muscle fibres which is an
(3) Metadiscoidal active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP
(4) Diffuse type in later embryonic stage (1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin
146. Select the correct set which includes the structures (3) Actin (4) Myosin head
originate from the same germinal layer from which 151. The bone having dorsal, flat, triangular body and has
liver originates an elevated ridge called acromian process is
(1) Tongue, kidney, urinary bladder, thyroid (1) Ischium (2) Scapula
(2) Retina, pituitary, pancreas, tongue (3) Pubis (4) Sacrum
(3) Spleen, gonads, thymus, urinary bladder 152. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
(4) Lungs, thymus, eustachian tube, thyroid regarding human eye and select the correct option
stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are
147. Match the column.
false (F) statements :
Column I Column II
(A) Light induces association of retinal and opsin
a. Insulin (i) Regulates resulting in the changes in the structure of opsin
erythropoiesis (B) At fovea, the visual acuity is the greatest
b. Glucagon (ii) Stimulates (C) When all cone cells are stimulated equally, a
glycogenesis sensation of white light is produced.
c. Cortisol (iii) Reduces cellular (D) Light rays enter in eye generates an action
uptake of glucose potential directly in the ganglionic cells.
d. Thyroxin (iv) Produces A B C D
anti-inflammatory (1) T T T T
reactions (2) T T T F
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) F T T F
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) F T F T
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153. Which of the following portion of human is not 158. Solubility of CO2 is times higher than that
associated with balancing? of O2 in the blood plasma.
(1) Scala media (2) Semicircular canal (1) 10 – 20 (2) 20 – 25
(3) Crista ampullaris (4) Otolith organ (3) 30 – 35 (4) 100 – 200
154. All of the following functions are regulated by
forebrain, except 159. In which of the following, the partial pressure of CO2
is similar to partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated
(1) Urge for eating and drinking blood?
(2) Expression of emotional reactions
(1) Alveoli
(3) Regulation and sexual behavious
(2) Oxygenated blood
(4) Controls cardiovascular reflexes
155. Normal activities of human heart are regulated (3) Tissues
intrinsically. The factor which decreases the heart (4) More than one option is correct
rate is
160. The optimum pH for function of which of the following
(1) Injury to vagus nerve
enzymes is 6.8?
(2) Release of adrenal medullary hormones
(1) Amylopsin (2) Steapsin
(3) Injection of acetyl choline
2+
(4) Increased level of Ca ions (3) Trypsin (4) Ptyalin
156. The state of heart when it does not pump blood 161. Sphincter of Boyden is present in
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body is (1) Common hepatic duct
(1) Heart attack (2) Angina pectoris
(2) Ductus cholidocus
(3) Cardiac arrest (4) Heart failure
(3) Hepatopancreatic duct
157. Identify the given cell and choose the correct option
w.r.t. it. (4) Both (1) & (2)
162. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. GIT of human
(1) Serosa is the outermost layer and made up of
a thick mesothelium only
(2) An oblique muscle layer is present in stomach
and colon
(3) Liver is the largest gland of the body present in
left abdominal region just below diaphragm
Percentage Function
(4) Small amount of lipases is secreted by gastric
(1) 2 – 3% Associated with allergic reactions glands.
(2) 0.5 – 1% Involved in inflammatory reactions 163. A cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase is
(3) 6 – 8% Resist infection
(1) Copper (2) Iron
(4) 60 – 65% Phagocytic cells which destroy
foreign organism (3) Nickel (4) Zinc

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164. Among insulin, collagen, glucagon, carotenoid, 170. Given below are some features
trypsin, lanolin, lecithin and ferritin, how many of (a) Presence of cloaca
them are proteinaceous in nature?
(b) Cornified skin and epidermal scales
(1) Three (2) Four
(c) Ectotherm
(3) Five (4) Six
(d) Ossified endoskeleton
165. Given below is an organic compound Given features are present in
O Adenine (1) Columba (2) Calotes
O
HO—P—OCH2 (3) Ambystoma (4) Urecotyphlus

OH 171. Which of the following is not a vertebrate?

(1) Salpa (2) Hyla
OH H (3) Myxine (4) Struthio
Chose the correct option. 172. Complete the following analogy :
(1) Present in ATP (2) Monomer of RNA Limulus : Book gills : : Buthus :
(3) Monomer of DNA (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Gills (2) Bookgills
166. In which of the following, sperms are stored in (3) Trachea (4) Book lungs
female cockroach? 173. In which of the following, the genus name, its two
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Spermatheca characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched?
(3) Urecose gland (4) Oothecal chamber
Genus name Characters Phylum
167. Mushroom gland in Periplaneta present in
abdominal segments (1) Chaetopterus – Dorsal calcareous Mollusca
th th th th shell
(1) 5 – 6 (2) 7 – 8
– Muscular foot
th th th th
(3) 6 – 7 (4) 4 – 7 (2) Echinus – Water vascular Echinodermata
system
168. Cardiac muscles differ from biceps in having
– Calcareous
(1) Intercalated disc endoskeleton

(2) Striation (3) Ancylostoma – Muscular Aschelminthes

pharynx
(3) Cylindrical shaped – Monogenetic
parasite
(4) Fusiform shaped
(4) Ctenoplana – Radial Ctenophora
169. Blood is a specialised connective tissue which lacks symmetry
– Ciliated
(1) Cells comb plates
(2) Protein 174. Flame cells are present in all, except
(3) Electrolytes (1) Schistosoma (2) Branchiostoma
(4) Fibres (3) Fasciola (4) Enterobius
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175. Read the statements A and B 177. If hybrid adults do not produce functional gamete, it
is
A. All the existing life forms share similarities to
varying degrees and also may share common (1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid breakdown
ancestors. (3) Hybrid sterility (4) Both (1) & (2)
B. Those organisms who are better fit in their 178. Ferns, conifers and gnetales evolved from
environment produce less number of offspring
than other to prevent population explosion. (1) Zoosterophyllum (2) Psilophyton
Choose the correct option regarding Darwinism. (3) Seed ferns (4) Progymnosperms
(1) Only A is correct 179. Which of the following is not used in polymerase
chain reaction?
(2) Only B is correct
(1) Taq polymerase (2) dNTPs
(3) Only A is incorrect 2+
(3) Primers (4) Ca
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
180. Select the incorrect statement regarding RNA
176. Given below are certain phenomena in a box. interference.
Founder’s effect, Phyletic speciation, Genetic (1) It takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
drift, Natural selection, Stasigenesis, method of cellular defense
Cladogenesis, Adaptive radiation, Anagenesis (2) A dsRNA molecule prevents the translation of
the mRNA
How many of the phenomena are justified for the
evolution of Darwin finches? (3) Source of complementary RNA could be from
infection by viruses
(1) Four (2) Five
(4) RNAi was first discovered by Fire and Mello in
(3) Three (4) Six Meloidogyne incognita

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Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146 (4)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (2) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (3) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (4) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (4) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (3) 136. (4) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017 Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 6. Answer (1)
4
me Using conservation linear momentum
R= 2 3
8 h c
0
P P
i f
2. Answer (4)
m1v1  m2v2  (m1  m2 )v
3. Answer (2)
7. Answer (1)
2 2
y ac = 2r = k rt
 2   = kt
16 m 9m
d
tan  = tan 1 + tan 2 and  = =k
dt
2
25 y y Power = I   = mr  k  kt
  2 2
= mk r t
12 16 9
8. Answer (3)
 y = 12 m kxm = F
4. Answer (3)
1


Acceleration of block, a  3F  4F 2= E


  10  =  
kx
b  
5  5  2 m
 3F  After
force cutting the spring
constants of the in the ratio
springs will1 :be
2 :in3,the
the ratio
 5  10 
 
Acceleration of plank, ap =   F F F
2 : : i.e., 6 : 3 : 2. Hence, energy stored in
ab = 2 ap 123
50 each spring will be in the ratio
2 2 2
 F= N 1  xm  1  xm 1  xm 
7  6k    :  3k    :  2k     

2  6  2  3  2  2 
5. Answer (2)
111
1 2 = : :
If kinetic energy Ki = mu is just sufficient 632
2
 to cross 5 planks and hit the 6th plank or is =1:2: 3
 just sufficient to pierce the 6th plank, then the limit
 of energy required to break 3 planks must be 9. Answer (2)


 2Ki Ki Using consrvation of linear momentum.

K
 5 2 10. Answer (4)
 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 l = 2r
  mu  mv   mu
 5 2 2 2 2 l



 r=
 2 u 2 v 2
2
u 2
5 2 mr
2
7 2
2
I= 3 × + 2 mr = mr
2 u 2 2
 uv 2 2
5 2  l 
7 7 ml
 I = m   2
 0.632 u < v  0.707 u 2  2  8

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Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017
11. Answer (4) 16. Answer (4)
m2R  R–5/2 H = AT
4

   R–7/2
2
A
  4
 T2  R7/2 H =  2T
 4 
12. Answer (2) H
2
T a
3  4
H
3
2 a  H = 4H = 1800 W
T   
 2  17. Answer (1)

 T  1
 A 2 B
T 22 P
2  Isobaric
1
365 3 1  Isothermal
 T =  129 days
2 2 3  Adiabatic
13. Answer (1) V1 V2
V
3L L
× Ag + 2 × Ag = LADg
4 4  W2 > W1 > W3 [using the concept of area
under graph]
5
 Density of cylinder, D =  18. Answer (3)
4
T1 – T2 = 2T2
14. Answer (4)
T1 = 3T2
According to Jurin’s law
2s cos T1  T2 2T2 2
=  
hr = = constant T1 3T2 3
g

 h1 : h2 : h3 : : 4 : 2 : 1 19. Answer (3)

2 2 2
 V1 : V2 : V3 : : h1 × r : h2 × r : h3 : r
1 2 3 RT
2 2 2
v=
::4×1 :2×2 :1×4 M
::1:2:4
vN2  N M
15. Answer (2)  2
 He
vHe He MN2
T A
7
2l  54  3
5 28 5
l
3
20. Answer (3)
2T B C st rd
l 1 harmonic of closed pipe = 3 harmonic of open
pipe
2 T  Tc Tc  T
l  2l v  v 
 3
 2l 
 

KA KA 4l1  2 
3T l1 1
 T = 
c 2 1 l2 6

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical
Medical-2017 Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)


21. Answer (2)



2
0 2IR
3 B=
T T 4  x 2  R 2 3 2
v= and v   2
  Since, current in two loops are flowing in opposite
direction
v 
Hence,  1.5 
v Bnet = 0I  b2
32 
a2
3 2 
2  x  b    
2 2 2 2
 v = 1.22 v x a 
22. Answer (2) 28. Answer (1) 
After 2 s, all the particles undergoing oscillation will I
be at mean position. Hence, energy of all particles A B
will be purely kinetic.
X
23. Answer (3)
U = Ui – Uf
 V  V  2 D C
= C V1  V2    2C   1 2 
1 2 2 1
2 2  2  Magnetic field below the given conducting wire will be


1

into the paper as shown. As the magnetic field
= C V V 
2
strength is decreasing with the fall of the loop, the
1 2
4 induced current will flow in the loop in clockwise
24. Answer (2) direction. Hence, net induced current will flow in the
   direction ABCDA.
2     2  29. Answer (1)
 2  2 k
Ep   0    0k
2 0 0 
r : rp : rd : : 4 1 2
25. Answer (3) : :
4 1 1
V R  2mK , K & B are constant 
– +  r  
I Bq
 
I1 = 0
V 30. Answer (1)
A From given graph we find that i leads e. So, circuit has
B
e 
R and C. As phase difference is , hence |VR| = |VC|
4
1 [  = 100 rad/s]
I×1k=I
I 100  105
2V 2R
31. Answer (3)
VA – IR – V + V = VB IA increasing
VA – VB = IR
×
 V 
 V A
=  R
 3R  3
IB induced
26. Answer (3)
2
E R
Maximum output power, Pout =
R  r 2  4Rr B
For Pout to be maximum,
R–r=0
Current in A is increasing. Hence, magnetic field
 R= r
linking to B is out of paper, the strength of which is
27. Answer (2) increasing as well. Hence, induced current will be
Magnetic field along the axis due to loop carrying produced in B in clockwise direction. Hence, repulsion
current will be stronger between the loops as shown.

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Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017
32. Answer (2) For concave lens, f = – 100 cm
At any instant in series LCR circuit, u = – 
2
d q dq 1  v = f = –1 m
L  R  q = E0 sin t
dt
2
dt C 38. Answer (4)

33. Answer (2) For first minima, the path difference x = 



10% of power produced by bulb 2

and  =  x  2
The intensity I = 
Area
39. Answer (3)
10% of 100 W
= 2 X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube has a certain
4(1)
minimum wavelength  0 corresponding to the
2
 0.8 W/m maximum kinetic energy of incident electrons on the
target. The other spectra having wavelengths larger
34. Answer (2)
than 0.
2  1 3  2 3 1 40. Answer (2)
  
R1 R2 v u
h 12.27
min =  Å
Putting all the values, we get v = 60 cm, u = –  2meV V
 f = 60 cm
35. Answer (4) 12.27 –10
= Å = 6.13 × 10 m
4
Using equation
41. Answer (4)
1 1 1
  (En)H-like specie = Z2.(En)H
v u f
2
2 2 = 3 × 13.6
dv v  f  = 122.4 eV
  
du u
2
 u  f  42. Answer (3)
2
 f  h
 dv = du  =
u  f  p

36. Answer (2) Since p1 = p2 [following the law of conservation
of momentum]
I () = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos
I = I, I = 4I h h

1 2
p1 p2  1 = 2

At A,  = , IA () = 5I 43. Answer (2)
2
At B,  = , IB () = I I= 6V = 0.02 ampere
50  150  100 
 IA () – IB () = 4I
37. Answer (4) 44. Answer (3)
For convex lens, f = + 50 cm At no-bias condition, electrons diffuse towards p-side
and holes diffuse towards n-side. Hence, electric field
u = – 25 cm
at the junction directed from n-side to the p-side.
uf  25  50 = – 50 cm 45. Answer (4)
 v=
u  f 25  50
A photovoltaic device operates in no-bias condition.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical
Medical-2017 Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 55. Answer (2)
Ratio of C : H : N : O 2 PbSO4(s) Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2SO3;
H° = + 768 kJ
9 15 1 3
2 SO3(g) + 2H2O(l) 2 H2SO4(l);
 54 90 6 18
H° = – 264 kJ
 Molecular formula of the antibiotic would be
Adding 2 PbSO4 + 2H2O(l) Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(l);
C54H90N6O18
H° = 504 kJ
47. Answer (4) 56. Answer (3)
v0  ionisation energy st
I equilibrium :
 x, y and z are Rb, K and Na
 0.410 atm  10L
48. Answer (2) nCO2  = 0.1 mol
0.082 L-atm K1 mol1  500 K
This is called inert pair effect.
nd
II equilibrium :
49. Answer (1)
 PCO2 will remain constant, hence additional
1
Charge is  units. CO2(g) must be converted into CaCO3.
4
50. Answer (3)  0.615 atm  10L
nCO2  = 0.15 mol
0.082 L-atm K1 mol1  500 K
H H H
 Amount of CaCO3 = (0.5 – 0.1+ 0.15) mol = 55 g
H H No. of  bonds = 26
57. Answer (2)
H H No. of --bonds = 7
(III) is not a redox reaction, hence there is no change
H H H in oxidation state.
51. Answer (4) 58. Answer (4)
All statements are correct Fact
52. Answer (3) 59. Answer (3)
A gas cannot be liquefied above its critical BaCO3 is unstable in air and is kept in CO2
temperature by applying pressure. atmosphere.
53. Answer (1) 60. Answer (4)
T2 Fact
S = 2.303 ncp log
T1 61. Answer (1)
180 360 Fact
= 2.303 × × 75.3 × log
18 300 62. Answer (2)
= 1734.159 × (log 36 – log 30)
O
= 1734.159 × 0.08 P P
–1
= 137.31 JK HO
OH
54. Answer (4)
63. Answer (2)
Acetone is more volatile than water due to absence
of H-bonding. Fact

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Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017
64. Answer (1) 75. Answer (1) 
76. Answer (2) 
OH 
77. Answer (1)

is highly stable due to aromaticity and does Due to lanthanoid contraction

78. Answer (3) 
not show tautomerism.
79. Answer (4) 
65. Answer (2)
Fact 
H3C–CH2CH=CH–CH2 : Pent-2-ene
80. Answer (1) 
CH3 H O–CH2–CH2–
: 3-Methylcyclopropene OH +H2C–CH2 OH


O –H O–


C2H5 H
CH3 CH2CH2OH
CH3 : 2-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylocyclohexane
dimethylocyclohexane
81. Answer (3)

66. Answer (1) 

CH2 is stable carbocation

is non-planar, so non--aromatic 82. Answer (3)

83. Answer (2)
67. Answer (3)
O
Fact
68. Answer (1) N: + N
4 H HO
3 3
Total volume of spheres = 6 × r = 8 r
3
69. Answer (4) –H2O
N
Fact
70. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)
Fact 85. Answer (4)
71. Answer (4) 86. Answer (1)


Pyrrole being aromatic, least basic.



   
m(MgSO4 ) = m(MgCl2 ) + m(H2SO4 ) – 2m(HCl) 87. Answer (1)

Fact
 eq(MgSO4 ) = (x + y – 2 z)/2
88. Answer (2)
72. Answer (4)
Aldehydes not having -H-atoms
atoms undergo Cannizzaro
0.0591 reaction.
 E  E 2 
2
 log[Fe ]
Fe2
/Fe Fe /Fe 2 89. Answer (1)
73. Answer (4) CH3
OO
Fact (i) O3
(ii) Zn, H2O
H3C – C – CH
74. Answer (1)
H3C CH3
t99.9% = 10 t1/2
90. Answer (1)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical
Medical-2017 Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (2) 103. Answer (3)
• Potato and brinjal belong to same genus. • Metaphase II - Single metaphasic plate
• Biological names are in Latin or Latinised. • Diakinesis - Stage of condensation of chromatin
92. Answer (4) 104. Answer (1)
Toadstools and bracket fungi.
105. Answer (2)
93. Answer (1)
Roots require air for respiration.
Cyanobacteria have circular DNA.
106. Answer (4)
94. Answer (4)
107. Answer (3)
Development of male gametophyte is precocious.
Plastocyanin
95. Answer (4)
108. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3)
• Maize = C4 plant
Liliaceae Br + O
+ P(3+3) A3+3 G3 • Rice = C3 plant

97. Answer (4) 109. Answer (1)

• Pea - Leaf modification Glycolysis

• Grapevines - Stem modification A - H2O
98. Answer (3) B - Pyruvate (3C)
A - Tracheid C - ATP
B - Vessel D - Cytoplasm
C - Sieve tube 110. Answer (4)
D - Companion cell
Synthesis of ATP directly by substrate oxidation.
99. Answer (3)
111. Answer (3)
• Early wood - Spring wood
Vernalisation
• Late wood - Autumn wood
112. Answer (2)
100. Answer (3)
113. Answer (1)
Polysome, plasma membrane and ds DNA are
common to prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. 114. Answer (4)
101. Answer (1) Bamboo flowers after 50-100
100 years and then dies.
• Mitochondrial matrix lacks the enzyme 115. Answer (2)
succinate dehydrogenase
116. Answer (4)
• Ribosome - Electron microscope
117. Answer (2)
• Centrosome - Two cylindrical structure
surrounded by amorphous material Torpedo-shaped
shaped embryo is mature embryo.

102. Answer (2) 118. Answer (2)

Anaphase 4c = 20 pg • Sickle cell anaemia

then G1  2n = 4  2c = 10 pg • Autosomal recessive disorder

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Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017
119. Answer (2) 139. Answer (3)
A - Drosophila Prothrombin and fibrinogen help in clotting of blood.
B - Correns 140. Answer (3)
C - 47; XXY HIV destroys only helper T cells
D - 4 types 141. Answer (4)
120. Answer (4) Saheli is first non-steroidal oral pill.
121. Answer (3) 142. Answer (4)
Autosomal recessive disorder ‘X’-GIFT
122. Answer (2)
‘Y’ - in vivo
123. Answer (4)
143. Answer (1)
mRNA is complementary to template strand.
Genital warts is caused by Human papilloma virus.
124. Answer (2)
144. Answer (3)
• Removal of intron is splicing
145. Answer (4)
• Okazaki fragments – DNA Ligase
Placenta in human is diffuse type in early embryonic
• Amino acid coding codon = 61 stage.
125. Answer (1) 146 Answer (4)
126. Answer (4) Liver originates from endoderm.
127. Answer (3)
147. Answer (2)
Fungus
148. Answer (1)
128. Answer (3)
149. Answer (4)
Competition
Hydrocarbons are present in the secretion of
129. Answer (2) sebaceous glands.
130. Answer (2) 150. Answer (4)
x - Parasite Myosin head has binding sites for ATP.
y - Parastic food chain 151. Answer (2)
131. Answer (1) Scapula is a large triangular.
132. Answer (4)
152. Answer (3)
133. Answer (2)
Light rays generate an action potential on
134. Answer (4) photoreceptors.
Accidental leakage of radioactive radiation. 153. Answer (1)
135. Answer (2) Organ of Corti is related with hearing and present in
136. Answer (4) scala media.
Tyrannosaurus was giant carnivorous dinosaur. 154. Answer (4)
137. Answer (1) 155. Answer (3)
Morphine is opiate derivative and a strong pain killer. Acetylcholine decreases the heart rate.
138. Answer (2) 156. Answer (4)
Vaccination is an example of artificially acquired Cardiac arrest means complete stoppage of heart
active immunity. beat.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2017 Test - 8 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

157. Answer (4) 169. Answer (4)

Given cell is neutrophil 170. Answer (2)
158. Answer (2) Calotes is garden lizard.

Solubility of gases affects the rate of diffusion. 171. Answer (1)

159. Answer (4) Salpa is a urochordate which is a chordata but not

vertebrate.
pO2 = 40 mm of Hg in deoxygenated blood.
172. Answer (4)
160. Answer (4)
Buthus (scorpion) respires by book lungs.
Salivary enzyme is ptyalin.
173. Answer (1)
161. Answer (2)
Chaetopterus is a member of annelida
Sphincter of Boyden is present in common bile duct.
174. Answer (4)
162. Answer (4)
175. Answer (1)
An oblique muscle layer is present in stomach only. Darwin explained reproductive fitness.
163. Answer (4) 176. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2) 177. Answer (3)
165. Answer (3) 178. Answer (2)
Given organic compound is a nucleotide of DNA. Seed ferns evolved from progymnosperms.
166. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)
In male, sperms are stored in seminal vesicles. Mg2+ is required for the activity of DNA polymerase.
167. Answer (3) 180. Answer (4)
168. Answer (1) RNAi was first discovered in Coenorhabditis elegans.

  

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