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in 8146207241
 Section: - Reasoning
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions
given below:
In a certain language,
“train car bike book” is written as “tk bk mk gk”
“chair book bus car” is written as “gk tk sk bk”
“door road book bike” is written as “kk ak gk bk”
“house road window car” is written as “ak qk ck tk”

Q1. What is the code of “book”?

A. mk
B. gk
C. bk
D. tk
E. Can’t be determined

Q2. “kk” is the code of which of the following?

A. Chair
B. Bus
C. Book
D. Either “chair” or “bus”
E. Either “bus” or “book”

Q3. If “bike train house” is written as “mk bk qk” then “road door window” will be written
as”?
A. ak pk qk
B. pk qk ck
C. ak pk ck
D. ak ck tk
E. qk ck tk

Q4. What is the code of “car”?

A. bk
B. mk
C. tk
D. gk
E. Can’t be determined

Q5. If the code of “bus building” is “sk rk” then what is the code of “chair mobile”?
A. kk dk
B. kk sk

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 C. gk bk
D. kk gk
E. ak bk

I.6) Directions: In question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider
the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Q6. Statements: The best evidence of India's glorious past is the growing popularity of
Ayurveda medicines in the West.
Conclusions:
I. Ayurveda medicines are not popular in India.
II. Allopathic medicines are more popular in India.
A. If only conclusion I follows
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either I or II follows
D. If neither I nor II follows
E. If both I and II follow

I.7) Directions: A statement is given followed by three courses of action. A course of action
is taken for improvement, follow-up etc. read the statement carefully and pick the correct
answer choice.
Q7. Statement: Some newspapers have alleged that some of our eminent sportsmen offered
bribe to their adversary team to ensure victory.
Course of action: I. The concerned sportsmen should be suspended from all active
participation in sports.
II. The concerned sportsmen should file a defamation suit against the newspapers.
III. Proper enquiry should be done regarding the matter.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. I and III follow
D. Only III follows
E. Either I or II and III follows

I.8) Directions: Given below are pairs of events ‘A’ and ‘B’. You have to read both the events
‘A’ and ‘B’ and decide their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the information
given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information
in deciding the answer.
Q8. Event A: The US crushed Iraq in the gulf war.
Event B: The US had almost total international support in the gulf war.
A. If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and principal cause
B. If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘B’ is its effect
C. If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principal cause

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 D. If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause
E. None of the above

I.9) Directions: Each question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’
argument.
Q9. Statement: Should high chimneys be installed in industries?
Arguments: I. Yes. It reduces pollution at ground level.
II. No. It increases pollution in upper atmosphere.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I or II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong
E. if both I and II strong

I.10) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
A person is standing at point A, he starts walking towards his west and walks for 6m and
reached at point B then he takes a left turn and walks for 4m and reached at point C then he
takes a left turn again and walks for 3m then he takes a right turn and walks for 3m and
reached at point D which is 3m to the west of point E.

Q10. In which of the following direction is point B with respect to point E?

A. South
B. South-west
C. South-east
D. North-west
E. North-east

I.11) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
A person is standing at point A, he starts walking and walks towards his west and walks for
6m and reached at point B then he takes a left turn and walks for 5m and reached at point C
then he takes a left turn again and walks for 3m then he takes a right turn and walks for 4m
and reached at point D. Point E is 4m to the north of point F which is 6m to the east of point
D.

Q11. If point G is 3m to the west of point E then how far is point G with respect to point
A?
A. 5m
B. 4m
C. 6m
D. 7m
E. 3m

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 Directions (Q. 12 – 16): In each of these questions, a relationship between elements is
shown in the statement (s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer

Q12. Statements: C < B ≤ A = D, K ≥ J > A, F ≥ G ≥ N = K

Conclusions: I. J>B
II. K > D
A. if only conclusion I is true
B. if only conclusion II is true
C. if either conclusion I or II is true
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. if both conclusion I and II are true

Q.13) Statements: C < B ≤ A = D, K ≥ J > A, F ≥ G ≥ N = K

Conclusions: I. F≥K
II. A ≤ G
A. if only conclusion I is true
B. if only conclusion II is true
C. if either conclusion I or II is true
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. if both conclusion I and II are true
Q.14) Statements: R ≥ E = S ≥ T = J ≤ P, Q ≥ K > M < S
Conclusions: I. R≤M
II. Q ≥ S
A. if only conclusion I is true
B. if only conclusion II is true
C. if either conclusion I or II is true
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. if both conclusion I and II are true

Q.15) Statements: R ≥ E = S ≥ T = J ≤ P, Q ≥ K > M < S

Conclusions: I. S>P
II. M < R

A. if only conclusion I is true

B. if only conclusion II is true
C. if either conclusion I or II is true
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. if both conclusion I and II are true

Q.16) Statements: H ≤ S > T = M < K, C > V ≥ N > H

Conclusions: I. K<N
II. C ≥ S

A. if only conclusion I is true

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 B. if only conclusion II is true
C. if either conclusion I or II is true
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true
E. if both conclusion I and II are true

Directions (Q. 17 – 18): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Seven persons – Kajal, Bhagat, Mandeep, Kiran, Rinku, Pranav, and Shreya have different
height and weight such that the tallest one is not the heaviest one. Kiran is taller than Kajal
but not heavier than Shreya. Bhagat is heavier than Rinku but not as much tall as Mandeep.
Pranav is heavier than Bhagat and Rinku but shorter than Mandeep and Bhagat. Kiran is not
taller than Pranav. Shreya is not taller than Kajal and also not heavier than Rinku. Kajal is not
lighter than Mandeep who is heavier than Bhagat. Mandeep is shorter than only one person.
Pranav is not the second heaviest and is lighter than Mandeep.

Q17. Who among the following is the second lightest?

A. Pranav
B. Rinku
C. Kajal
D. Shreya
E. None of these

Q18. How many person(s) are heavier than the one who is second shortest?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. More than three

I.19) Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
There are six members i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F are in the family. It is a three-generation family,
two couples are there in the family and parents of each child are alive. A is mother of E. C is
mother of B. F is married to D’s daughter. A is daughter of D and B is an unmarried male. E is
son of A.
Q19. How is E related to B?
A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Nephew
D. Son
E. Father

Directions (Q. 20 – 24): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by
two conclusions, numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even

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 if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answer

Q20. Statements: Some powders are creams.

Some creams are jels.
All powders are oils.
Conclusions: I. All jels being oils is a possibility.
II. At least some oils are creams.
A. if conclusion I follows
B. if conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusion I and II follow

Q21. Statements: Some powders are creams.

Some creams are jels.
All powders are oils.
Conclusions: I. Some jels are not creams.
II. At least some powders are jells
A. if conclusion I follows
B. if conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusion I and II follow

Q22. Statements: No metal is a paper.

All alloys are woods.
Some metals are woods.
Conclusions: I. At least some alloys are metals.
II. At least some alloys are not metals
A. if conclusion I follows
B. if conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusion I and II follow

Q23. Statements: No metal is a paper.

All alloys are woods.
Some metals are woods.
Conclusions: I. Some woods are not papers.
II. Some papers are not metals.
A. if conclusion I follows
B. if conclusion II follows

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 C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusion I and II follow

Q24. Statements: All pens are books.

Some books are copies.
No copy is a cover.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are copies.
II. No cover is a copy
A. if conclusion I follows
B. if conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusion I and II follow

I.25) Directions: The following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given
below:
124 327 465 231 416 723
Q25. What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is divided
by the third digit of the highest number?
A. None
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1
E. 5

Directions (Q. 26 – 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are eight friends i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H which have birthday in different month of
same year. These months are March, Feb, April, May, August, June, January and July. They
live on different floor of eight storey building. First floor is ground floor and eight floor is top
most floor.
The one who lives on odd numbered floor above 3rd floor has birthday in February. There is
one floor between the one who has birthday in Feb and C. F has birthday is in 30 day’s month.
There is no floor between A and the one who has birth in June. C has not born in June but in
that month which has 30 days. C lives below from the one who has birthday is in Feb but not
on 3rd floor. A does not live on 6th and 8th. There are 3 floors between the one which has
birthday is in April and August. E lives just below from top floor and the one which has
birthday is in march live on just below from the one which has birthday in Feb. H lives
immediate above from G. There is one floor between the one which has birthday in January
and March but the one which has birthday is in Jan does not live on 4th floor. B lives below
from E. The one which has birthday is in July lives below the floor from F.A lives above the
floor to that person who has birth in June.

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 Q26. Who among the following has birthday in May?
A. F
B. H
C. D
D. A
E. None of these

Q27. Who among the following lives on 2nd floor?

A. H
B. A
C. D
D. G
E. None of these

Q28. Which one has birthday in July?

A. C
B. B
C. H
D. G
E. None of these

Q29. Who among the following lives on top most floor?

A. B
B. D
C. G
D. A
E. C

Q30. How many persons lives between B and F?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 1
E. No one.

Directions (Q. 31 – 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are playing a game of musical chairs and facing away
from the centre. Each person knows a different language, viz Marathi, Odia, Tamil, Punjabi,
Bengali, Hindi, Telugu and English, but not necessarily in the same order. Neither S nor T
speaks English. R speaks Hindi and sits third to the left of T. Those who speak Tamil and
Punjabi are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither the one who speaks Punjabi nor the
one who speaks Tamil is an immediate neighbour of either T or R. The one who speaks Punjabi
sits on the immediate left of Q, who speaks Odia. Those who speak Telugu and English are

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 immediate neighbours of each other. P speaks Telugu and is not an immediate neighbour of
the one who speaks Hindi. V sits third to the left of the one who speaks English. Only U sits
between the ones who speak Punjabi and Marathi.

Q31. Who among the following speaks English?

A. R
B. W
C. S
D. V
E. None of these

Q32. How many persons are there between those who speak Punjabi and Telugu
respectively?
A. None
B. One
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these

Q33. Who among the following is sitting third to the left of the one who speaks Tamil?
A. The one who speaks Punjabi
B. The one who speaks English
C. The one who speaks Bengali
D. The one who speaks Telugu
E. None of these

Q34. The one who sits second to the right of W speaks which of the following languages?
A. Marathi
B. Bengali
C. Telugu
D. Hindi
E. Odia

Q35. Who among the following sits opposite the one who speaks Odia?
A. P
B. The one who speaks Bengali
C. The one who speaks English
D. V
E. None of these

Directions (Q. 36 – 40): Study the following information carefully to answer the given
question
Eight friends C, D, E, F, L, M, N and O are seated in a straight line, but not necessarily in the
same order. Some of them are facing north while some face South. Only three people sit to

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 the right of M. E sits second to the left of M. F sits third to the right of O. O is not an immediate
neighbour of M. O does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. Both the immediate
neighbours of O face south. D sits second to the right of N. As many people sit between M
and D as between M and L. Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e., If one
person faces north then the other person faces south and vice-versa). C faces south. L and F
face direction opposite to C. (i.e., If C faces north then both L and F face south and vice-versa)
Q36. Which of the following is true, based on the given arrangement?
A. D faces North
B. Only three people face South
C. L sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
D. O and E face the same directions
E. None of the given options is true

Q37. How many people sit to the left of O?

A. 3
B. More than four
C. 1
D. 4
E. 2

Q38. Who amongst the following faces South?

A. E
B. M
C. F
D. L
E. O

Q39. Who amongst the following sits second to the left of L?

A. O
B. F
C. D
D. No one as less than two people sit to the left of L
E. N

Q40. Who amongst the following represent the persons sitting at extreme ends of the line?
A. D, N
B. C, D
C. L, N
D. D, L
E. C, N

Section: - Quant
Directions (41-45) Study the given table carefully to answer the given questions.

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 The following table represents marks obtained by five students in five different subjects.
Maximum marks of each subject are 100.

Student Mathematics Science English Hindi Social

Science
Reena 56 94 85 80 86
Tina 98 56 66 70 48
Meena 75 72 78 64 84
Geeta 92 88 86 82 52
Sita 68 90 94 92 54

Q41. What are the total marks obtained by all the students in English?
A. 420
B. 409
C. 305
D. 506
E. None of these
Q42. Marks obtained by Reena in all the subjects together is what percent more/less than
the marks obtained by Meena in all the subjects together?
A. 7.506% less
B. 8.504% less

C. 7.506% more
D. 8.504% more
E. None of these
Q43. Find the respective ratio of marks obtained by Meena in Mathematics and Science
together and marks obtained by Sita in English and Hindi together.
A. 52: 39
B. 49: 62
C. 39: 52
D. 62: 49
E. None of these
Q44. Marks obtained by all the students in English is what percent of the marks obtained
by all the students in Social Science?
A. 126.23%
B. 134.35%
C. 154.32%

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 D. 165.45%
E. None of these

Q45. Find the percentage of marks obtained by Geeta in all the subjects together.
A. 55%

B. 60%
C. 75%
D. 80%
E. None of these
Directions (46-48) Study the given information carefully and answer the question

Q.46) There are three Pathan brothers Yusuf Pathan, Irfan Pathan and Saddam Pathan. The
sum of the squares of their ages (in completed years) is 325. If the product of their ages
does not exceed 1000, find the age (in years) of the youngest brother.

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

E. None of these

Q47. Pradip spends 40 per cent of his monthly income on food items, and 50 per cent of
the remaining on clothes and conveyance. He saves one-third of the remaining amount
after spending on food, clothes and conveyance. If he saves 19,200 every year, what is his
monthly income?
A. Rs. 24000
B. Rs.12000
C. Rs.16000
D. Rs.20000
E. None of these
Q48. A bag contains 35 balls of three different colors viz. red, orange and pink. The ratio
of red balls to orange balls is 3: 2, respectively and probability of choosing a pink ball is 3/7.

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 If two balls are picked from the bag, then what is the probability that one ball is orange and
one ball is pink?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. None of these
Directions (49-53) Study the given pie charts carefully to answer the given questions.

The given pie chart shows the spending by Indian Government on various fields during
years 2017 and 2018.

Total spent by Government in 2014 = 5940

lakh crores
Percentage spend on different field in 2017

10% Railways
15%
Education
15% Highways
22% Agriculture

18% Indira Awas

10% Sports

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 Total spent by Government in 2015 = 6720
lakh crores
Percentage spending on different fields in
2018

Railways
10% 15%
Education
14% Highways
16%
Agriculture
20% Indira Awas
15%
Sports

Q49. What is the difference between total spending on Agriculture, Indira awas and
sports in 2018 and total spending on Railway, Education and Highway in 2017?
A. 150 lakh crores
B. 155 lakh crores
C. 160 lakh crores
D. 165 lakh crores
E. None of these
Q50. What is the ratio of difference between Education field and Railway field in 2017 to
difference between Highway and Indira awas in 2018?
A. 16: 99
B. 99: 16
C. 16: 97
D. 97: 16
E. None of these
Q51. What is the percentage of spending in Indira awas and sports together in both years
to the percentage of spending in Education and Highway together in both years?
A. 70.5%
B. 77.10%
C. 77.75%
D. 75.75%
E. None of these
Q52. What is the ratio of spending in education field and Railway field together in 2017 to
spending in Highway and Agriculture together in 2018?
A. 3663: 3920
B. 3920: 3663

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 C. 1307: 1221
D. 1221: 1307
E. None of these
Q53. In which field Percentage of spending had increases maximum from 2017 to 2018?
A. Railways
B. Education
C. Highways
D. Sports
E. None of these

Q54. (𝟓𝟏. 𝟎𝟏𝟐 + 𝟑𝟔. 𝟎𝟏𝟐 ) ÷ 𝟖. 𝟗𝟗 + √? = 𝟒𝟔𝟎

A. 729
B. 27
C. 625
D. 45
E. None of these

Q55. 𝟏𝟔𝟎𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 ÷ √? × 𝟓𝟒. 𝟎𝟐 ÷ 𝟐𝟎. 𝟎𝟗 = 𝟏𝟒𝟒. 𝟎𝟐

A. 64
B. 8
C. 30
D. 900
E. 825
Q56. 40.01% 900.09 + (7.07 × 99.99) ÷ 14.14 +? = 70.07% of 7000
A. 4490
B. 4940
C. 4904
D. 4094
E. 9044

Q57. √𝟔𝟐𝟒. 𝟗𝟖𝟑 − √𝟏𝟒𝟒. 𝟎𝟎𝟏) × √𝟏𝟔𝟖. 𝟗𝟒𝟓 + √𝟖𝟗𝟗. 𝟗𝟐𝟑 = ?

A. 601
B. 609
C. 659
D. 199
E. 540
Q58. 59.02 – 345.02 ÷ 22.984 = 11 ×?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 9

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 D. 12
E. 15
Directions (59-63) Study the bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside
Number of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance test from various cities.

40

35
35 33 33
32
30 30 30
30 28 28 28

25 23 23

20 2016
2017
15

10

0
Mumbai Delhi Bhopal Agra Hyderabad Patna

Q59. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance
test from Mumbai and Agra in the year 2016?
A. 11: 12
B. 28: 33
C. 12: 11
D. 11: 13
E. None of these
Q60. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from all
the cities together in the year 2016?
A. 2800000
B. 2950000
C. 2755000
D. 2795000
E. 2917000
Q61. The number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from Delhi in the year 2017
is what per cent of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from Bhopal
in the same year?

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 A. 75.34%
B. 112.53%
C. 124.22%
D. 130.43%
E. 97.19%
Q62. What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates appearing for the entrance
test from cities Mumbai, Delhi and Bhopal together in the year 2010 to the number of
candidates appearing for the entrance test from cities Agra, Hyderabad and Patna together
in the same year?
A. 18: 17
B. 13 :14
C. 86: 91
D. 14: 13
E. None of these
Q63. The number of candidates appearing for the entrance test from city Hyderabad in
the year 2017 is what per cent of the total number of candidates appearing for the
entrance test from all the cities together in the same year?
A. 17.05%
B. 16.15%
C. 12.31%
D. 14.49%
E. None of these
Directions (64-68) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series.
Q64. 26, 32, 58, 90, ?, 238, 386
A. 110
B. 130
C. 148
D. 160
E. 150
Q65. 5, 8, 11, 13, 15, ?, 21, 23, 25
A. 19
B. 18
C. 21
D. 20
E. None of these
Q66. 849 282 93 30 9 ?
A. 1

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 B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 2
Q67. 12 13 20 39 82 ?
A. 259
B. 232
C. 210
D. 198
E. 173
Q68. 18 18.8 20.4 23.6 30 ?
A. 42.8
B. 43.5
C. 49.2
D. 49.6
E. 44.4
Directions (69-73) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given beside.
Out of 200 people who attended a birthday party 100 had Ice-cream, 120 had cold drink,
80 had cake and 10 had none of these three. 100 people had exactly one of three items.
Q69. How many people had exactly two of the three items?
A. 98
B. 85
C. 110
D. 80
E. 70
Q70. If 20 people had only cold drink and ice-cream, then how many people had only
cake?
A. 25
B. 10
C. 20
D. 18
E. 12
Q71. If 15 people who had only cold drink, had cake also and 5 people who had only ice-
cream and cake had cold drink also, then how many people had at least two of the three
items?
A. 98
B. 119

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 C. 78
D. 105
E. 135
Q72. If 30 people had only ice-cream, then how many people had at least one of cake or
cold drink but not ice-cream?
A. 90
B. 108
C. 87
D. 98
E. 105
Q73. What is the maximum possible number of people who had only cold drink?
A. 118
B. 87
C. 90
D. 120
E. 130
Q74. A bus is running with a speed of 30 km/h on the road beside a railway track. The
bus is 260 meters ahead of the engine of a 440 meters long train running with the speed
156 km/h in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the bus
completely?
A. 20 seconds
B. 40 seconds
C. 35 seconds
D. 25 seconds
E. none of these
Q75. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B in 30 days. They work together for 7
days and then both leave the work. Then C alone finishes the remaining work in 10
days. In how many days will C finish the full work?
A. 25 Days
B. 30Days
C. 24 Days
D. 27 Days
E. 32 Days
Q76. A fruit-seller buys some oranges and by selling 40% of them he realizes the cost
price of all the oranges. As the oranges being to grow over-ripe, he reduces the price
and sells 60% of the remaining oranges at one third of the previous rate of profit. The
rest of the oranges being rotten are thrown away. The overall percentage of profit is
A. 54%
B. 68%

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 C. 49%
D. 75%
E. None of these
Q77. Shyam deposited Rs. 80000 in a bank which pays 10% compound interest for 2
years. Then after 2 years, he started a business with amount (sum + interest) along
with Ram, with capital of Rs. 60,000. Shyam invested for 6 months and left. Ram
invested for the whole year. What will be the ratio of their profits at the end of the
year?
A. 150: 221
B. 121: 150
C. 121: 130
D. 130: 121
E. 155: 101

Q78. Abhishek started a business investing Rs. 50,000. After one year he invested
another Rs. 30,000 and Sudin also joined him with a capital of Rs. 70,000. If the profit
earned in three years from the starting of business was Rs. 87,500, then find the share
of Sudin in the profit.
A. Rs. 37500
B. Rs.32500
C. Rs.38281
D. Rs.52500
E. None of these
Q79. In the income statement of Asha and Ravenna, the ratio of their income in the
year 2017 was 5: 4. The ratio of Asha’s income in the year 2018 to that in 2017 is 3: 5
and the ratio of Ravenna’s income in the year 2018 to that in 2017 is 3: 2. If Rs. 10242
is the sum of the income of Asha and Ravenna in the year 2018, then find the income
of Ravenna in the year 2017?
A. Rs.1024
B. Rs.1138
C. Rs.2776
D. Rs.2420
E. Rs.4552
Q80. A sum of Rs.1550 was lent partly at 5% and partly at 8% p.a. simple interest.
The total interest received after 3 years was Rs. 300. The ratio of the money lent at
5% to that lent at 8% is?
A. 5: 8
B. 8: 5
C. 16: 15
D. 31: 6
E. None of these

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 Section: - English Language
(Directions 81-86): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The Indian MSMEs are recognized as a major contributor in the economic growth. It is said to
be the backbone of the Indian economy. It has provided resilience to ward off global economic
shocks and adversities. Nearly, 20% of the Indian MSME are based out in the rural areas of
India and continues to provide employment opportunities to nearly 40% of the India’s labor
force. According to Reserve Bank of India (2017), in the year 2015–16, the MSME sector
comprised of more than 51 million enterprises employing more than 117 million persons.
The MSMEs manufacture more than 8000 products. This encompasses a wide range from the
traditional products to sophisticated products (in terms of high-tech items). Within the MSME
sector, the Coir Industry in India is the largest coir producer in the world. It accounts for more
than 80% of the total world production of Coir Fibre. It encompasses a diverse range of people
involving households, cooperatives, manufacturers and exporters.
The Report of the Working Group on Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) growth
for 12th 5 year Plan (2012–17), unveils that the sector accounts for 45% of the manufacturing
output and 40% of the total exports of the country. Further the Ministry of MSME’s (2017)
highlights that the MSMEs accounted for 30.74% of GDP in the year 2014–15. Current
economic forecast or survey interprets that with the Indian Economy growing at an average
of 7% per annum; it is likely to become a $5 trillion economy by the year 2025. Hence, the
development of the MSME sector becomes essential as it is considered to be the backbone
of India.
However, despite high growth rate and good prospects, the Indian MSMEs have been subject
to certain constraints. The most notable barriers are lack of timely credit, Procurement of raw
materials at competitive cost, inadequate infrastructure facilities including power, water, &
road, and lack of skilled manpower for manufacturing, services, marketing, etc.

Q81. What is the main idea of the given passage?

A. to highlight the importance of MSME in the Indian economy
B. to simultaneously highlight the importance of and problems faced by Indian MSME sector
C. to present a statistical report of Indian MSME sector
D. to put across the challenges faced by MSME across the world
E. None of the above

Q82. According to the given passage, which of the following is a noticeable difference in
the deductions from the report presented by working group on MSMEs and that highlighted
by the Ministry of MSME's?
A. The working group furnishes data highlighting greater importance of MSMEs than that
furnished by the ministry.

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 B. The ministry furnishes data highlighting greater importance of MSMEs than that furnished
by the working group.
C. The working group considers a subset of what the ministry considers to express the share
of MSMEs.
D. Both give equal importance to the MSME sector with respect to the Indian economy.
E. No definite conclusion can be drawn.

Q83. Which of the following words has a meaning that is most SIMILAR to the meaning of
'encompasses' as used in the passage?
A. excludes
B. considers
C. dejects
D. incorporates
E. ostracizes

Q84. Which of the following words has a meaning that is most OPPOSITE to the meaning
of 'constraints' as used in the passage?
A. obstacles
B. disadvantages
C. limitations
D. latitudes
E. hindrances

Q85. According to the given passage, which of the following has NOT been mentioned as a
constraint for the Indian MSME sector?
A. Shortage of timely credit facilities
B. Inefficiency in competitive pricing of raw materials
C. Lack of suitable digital facilities for Marketing
D. All of the above have been listed as constraints.
E. None of the above has been listed as a constraint.

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 Q86. According to the given passage, which of the following information is based solely on
the findings of Reserve Bank of India?
A. The Indian economy is growing at a rate of 7% per annum.
B. 20% of Indian MSMEs are based out of rural India.
C. In 2015-16, the Indian MSME sector was giving employment opportunities to a minimum
of 117 million people.
D. The MSME sector is the single largest contributor towards the exports
E. None of the above

Directions (87-91): In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word/phrase in each case.
The first half of the 20th century was dominated by the two world wars. The wars resulted in
unprecedented numbers of casualties. Eight and a half million people are believed (87)
___fighting in the first world war of 1914-1918. During the Second World War as many as 60
million (88) ____ in Asia and the Pacific. (89) _____ all the total number of casualties, half
were civilians. The scale of killing was largely (90) _____ the destructive power of weaponry.
With the use of atomic bomb at the end of the Second World War, this reached (91) ____
terrifying a peak that the major powers tried to prevent international wars.
Q87. Select the correct expression for blank (87)
A. to be dying
B. that they died
C. having died
D. to have died
E. died

Q88. Select the correct expression for blank (88)

A. killed
B. killing
C. having been killed
D. were killed
E. having killed

Q89. Select the correct expression for blank (89)

A. Of
B. From
C. Over

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 D. About
E. Without

Q90. Select the correct expression for blank (90)

A. because
B. similar to
C. with respect to
D. as to
E. due to

Q91. Select the correct expression for blank (91)

A. such
B. very
C. too
D. so
E. much

Directions (92-97): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
In today’s world, where corruption, violence, unrest have become so prevalent in our society,
schools have an added responsibility to ensure that value education as a subject is taken
seriously as a part of the curriculum to produce not just educated but also responsible citizens
with insightful minds who believe in giving back to the society.

Values should be integrated in various aspects of life. It goes without saying that values go a
long way in building a person’s character. Education without strong character is like a ship
without a captain. Good education is inconceivable if it fails to inculcate values which are
indispensable for a holistic life. Qualifications and skills are essential in the success of an
individual but without values he is incomplete as a person.

Values are virtues that are imbibed by the children from their surroundings, the environment
in which they are brought up, the environment in which they live. The people around them
play a vital role in leaving an impression on the tender minds of these young individuals. With
the increasing trend of nuclear families, parents working round the clock, absence of
grandparents and elderly in the family, children end up spending a lot of time with
housemaids and caretakers.

Here, role of the school and particularly the teacher becomes imperative to ensure that values
are interwoven in all her lessons she takes up with her students. Values should be a part of
each lesson, each topic taken up irrespective of the subject being taught.

Q92. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. to describe the importance of education
B. to describe the importance of pervasiveness of value education
C. to provide instructions to teachers on how to teach values
D. to discuss the importance of values for teachers
E. to initiate a debate on value-based education

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 Q93. According to the given passage, which of the following is TRUE regarding
contemporary society?
A. Corruption is the root cause of all social problems.
B. The number of educated citizens is lesser as compared to responsible citizens.
C. Corruption has become widespread.
D. People don't have enough insights on life.
E. None of the above

Q94. According to the given passage, which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of
values?
A. Value education is expected to produce not only educated but also educated and
responsible citizens.
B. The role of teachers and schools is critical in imparting value education.
C. Values should be a part of all lessons in every subject.
D. Value education as a subject should be made compulsory in all classes at primary and high
school.
E. All the given statements are TRUE

Q95. According to the given passage, which of the following is TRUE regarding the ways in
which children learn values?
A. Children imbibe values from their housemaids and caretakers.
B. Children learn values only at school.
C. Children learn more values in joint families than they do in nuclear families.
D. Children learn values only from parents.
E. Children incorporate values holistically from their environment

Q96. Which of the following is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'prevalent' in the context
that it is used in the passage?
A. previous
B. rare
C. scattered
D. dense
E. rampant

Q97. Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'inconceivable' in the
context that it is used in the passage?
A. arcane
B. lucid
C. gullible
D. conducive
E. checkered

Directions (98-103): Five statements are given below, labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Among these,
four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given
options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

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 Q98. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. Agriculture that emphasizes on sustainability, local resources and stewardship of the
environment to expand its global impact beyond food supply and into ecological health can
go a long way in reducing environmental impacts on agriculture.
B. It is found that organic farming practices generally have positive impacts on the
environment per unit of area, but not necessarily per product unit
C. In the post-independence era, green revolution has shown the way of self-sufficiency but
sustaining agricultural production against finite natural resources demands a shift from
degrading chemical agriculture to resource protective culture.
D. Programme on organic farming should be linked with certification along with public
awareness.
E. It is a holistic and philosophical approach to agriculture, to protect and conserve the land
for future generations.

Q99. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. Job losses undoubted is significant cause for unemployment in India as much as anywhere
else in the world. But it is not fair to blame all instances of caused mostly by changes in
economy and closure of businesses.
B. We have been suffering from slow creation of jobs, particularly in the manufacturing sector
where capital and machines are preferred over humans for greater efficiencies.
C. Being a land dependent community, every project is delayed by decades on account of land
acquisition resulting in huge cost over-run.
D. Situation becomes worse when roughly 10 million enter the labour pool every year while
India’s employment potential, instead of expanding is simply shrinking.
E. Equally important causes for high prevalence of unemployment are the lack of skills
required for the jobs.

Q100. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. Indian historians were also polite as though belonging to the Oxbridge club which was more
critical than compassionate for the victims.
B. Between the middle ground of silence and illiteracy about the event, the narrative split into
two.
C. One strand merged into folklore and people’s memory and became a tale told by old men
and women to their families.
D. The British tended to explain it away as one of the sideshows of history, an act of
contingency of an imperial Winston Churchill too busy with winning the war.
E. In the other what one sees is a banalization, a ritualization of the event.

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 Q101. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. A Biodiversity Literacy Movement should be launched, so that from childhood on everyone
is aware of the importance of diversity for the maintenance of food, water, health and
livelihood security
B. How can biodiversity be harnessed for poverty alleviation? This can be done by converting
biodiversity into jobs and income on a sustainable basis. Institutional mechanisms have been
developed at the MSSRF for this, such as Biovillages and Biovalleys.
C. In Biovillages, the conservation and enhancement of natural resources become priority
tasks.
D. At the same time, the Biovillage community aims to increase the productivity and
profitability of small farms and create livelihood opportunities in the non-farm sector.
E. Habitat conservation is vital to prevent genetic erosion. In a Biovalley, local communities
try to link biodiversity, biotechnology and business in a mutually reinforcing manner.

Q102. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. Our culture poses formidable mental and social barriers to girls when they attain puberty.
B. Some of these mental blocks make it extremely difficult for education to do what it is
supposed to — namely, boost confidence in one’s abilities by developing a positive self-
concept.
C. Right from early childhood, girls are socialized to perceive matrimony and motherhood as
the ultimate goals of their life.
D. That this scheme has been named Sabla also deserves attention. The coinage is supposed
to convey the opposite of Abla, which means ‘the one who has no power.’
E. A numbing array of rituals and customs is used to prepare girls for the inescapability of
leaving their natal homes and for a life of dependence and silent compliance.

Q103. Select the option which DOES NOT fit in the theme of the passage.
A. In the light of this definition, the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment
Act, 2016, passed last month in Parliament, seems progressive.
B. The list of hazardous occupations for children has been slashed from 83 to include just
mining, explosives, and occupations mentioned in the Factory Act.
C. It prohibits the engagement of children in all occupations and of adolescents in hazardous
occupations and processes, wherein adolescents refer to those under 18 years; children to
those under 14.
D. It deters people from employing children by imposing a fine on anyone who employs or
permits adolescents to work.

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 E. According to UNICEF, a child is involved in child labour if he or she, does at least one hour
of economic activity, or at least 28 hours of domestic work in a week.\

Directions (104-110): In each of the following sentence, there are two blank spaces. Below
each sentence, there are five options and each blank is to be filled with the same word given
below to make the sentence correct. Fill up the sentences with the correct word.
Q104. (I) I’m sure God has forgiven their little transgressions as both of them are ……… for
their actions.
(II) At the airport, the meter registers nine pounds, and of course he had said six or seven. I
have a sense now of his feeling somewhat ………, or perhaps only abashed.

A. pardoning
B. contrary
C. contrite
D. trite
E. alleged

Q105. (I) She ………. into the food on her plate, discovering that Brandon wasn’t bragging
about his mother’s cooking.
(II) She shivered despite her lamb’s wool coat, her hands ………. deep into pockets that
contained weapons.
A. hidden
B. drowned
C. sank
D. plunged
E. kept

Q106. (I) Among the other invertebrate groups there is also a large proportion of ……. species.
(II) Most notable of all, yellow fever was eradicated where it had been ………. for centuries.
A. epidemic
B. endemic
C. endangered
D. prevailing

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 E. residing

Q107. (I) That opens up a whole new list of sub-topics, like was it just a ………. mugger or
someone he knew?
(II) The Nevada mines are mostly grouped around the city of Eureka, where the ore occurs in
“pockets” disseminated at ………. through limestone.
A. methodical
B. specific
C. systematic
D. random
E. planned

Q108. (I) It will take over a year to complete the …………. task of rebuilding the museum.
(II) Since the changes are not …………, it should only take Sarah a day or two to remodel the
kitchen.
A. diversified
B. monolithic
C. hectic
D. stubborn
E. random

Q109. (I) It will take over a year to complete the …………. task of rebuilding the museum.
(II) Since the changes are not …………, it should only take Sarah a day or two to remodel the
kitchen.
A. diversified
B. monolithic
C. hectic
D. stubborn
E. random

Q110. (I) I was ....... beforehand about the meeting.

(II) His opinion has been ............ largely by his professional experience.

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 A. formed
B. moulded
C. intimated
D. disseminated
E. informed

Directions (Q.111-114): A statement has been divided into 5 parts labelled A, B, C, D and E.
Part E, highlighted in bold, is grammatically correct. Out of the rest, only one part is error-
free. You are required to mark the part which has no error in it. If none of the parts has
errors, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. If all the parts, except the bold one, have errors,
mark ‘All have errors’ as the answer.
Q111. The war to defeat the IS with Raqqa, (A) / the major city in northern Syria, can (B) /
not have been conducted by the U.S. and (C) / Russia and their various ally entirely from (D)
/ the air and required a partner on the ground (E).
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. All have errors
E. No error

Q112. This Prime Minister has built (A) / a personal position of great possibilities (B) /, and
his international approaches (C) / show the imagination and (D) / dexterity needed for
national greatness (E).
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. All have errors
E. No error

Q113. Five months within the government claimed the (A) / victory of quite diplomacy to
bring the stand-off (B) / between Indian and Chinese troops on Doklam to (C) / an end, the
contours of the actual agreement and events (D) / that have followed remain a mystery (E).
A. B
B. C

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 C. D
D. All have errors
E. No error
Q114. When the scale is debatable, border crossings (A) / into Assam and West Bengal are a
reality, and (B) / political parties are to blamed for turning (C) / a blind eye to the situation
over a (D) / decades in order to cultivate vote banks (E).
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. All have errors
E. No error

Directions (115-118): The questions below contain a sentence which has been divided into
sections. You need to select the part which contains grammatical error. If there is no error,
you are required to select option 5. Ignore the errors in punctuation, if any.
Q115. Bacteria is (A)/ probably the (B)/ most common (C)/ form of life on earth. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. No error

Q116. On reaching (A)/ the railway station (B)/ he was disappointed to learn (C)/ that the
train already left. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. No error

Q117. The presumption that the average (A)/ investor did not understand (B)/ or take interest
in the affairs (C)/ of the company is incorrect. (D)
A. A

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 B. B
C. C
D. D
E. No error

Q118. The demand of the workers' union (A) that the dismissed employee (B)/ to be
reinstated has been (C)/ accepted by the management. (D)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. No error

Directions (119-120): In the questions below, there is a sentence with a blank. From the list
of options, select the word which fits in the blank grammatically as well as contextually.
Q119. In many parts of the Antarctic, the land grades into ice so _______ that you can walk
off the coast and not know you are over the hidden sea.
A. permanently
B. imperceptibly
C. irregularly
D. precariously
E. slightly

Q120. After a brief and violent ______ that ousted the president, General Monsanto declared
himself the dictator of the country.
A. nuance

B. coup
C. espousal
D. upbraiding
E. lament

Section: - General Awareness

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 Q121. Which of the following states has bagged the first prize for comprehensive
development of Tourism at National Tourism Awards, released in the month of Sep 2018?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Telangana
C. Rajasthan
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Kerala

Q122. “India for Humanity” has been launched by the Ministry of External Affairs in the
month of Oct 2018, as part of the celebrations of 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma
Gandhi. This initiative has been launched for which of the following?

A. SC and ST students
B. NRI students
C. Differently abled people
D. Women working in SHGs
E. All of the above

Q123. Which of the following countries has topped the “Human Capital Index” launched by
the World Bank in the month of September 2018?

A. China
B. Japan
C. USA
D. Singapore
E. New Zealand

Q124. The city of Nasik is located on the banks of which of the following rivers?

A. Krishna
B. Godavari
C. Tapi
D. Mandovi
E. Tungabhadra

Q125. Recently in the month of Oct 2018, India has organised 'Gandhi March' to Mark
International Day of Non-Violence in which of the following countries?

A. Norway
B. South Africa
C. United Kingdom
D. Netherlands
E. Sweden

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 Q126. Recently in the month of Oct 2018, President Ramnath Kovind has the visited
Tajikistan, in his maiden visit to Central Asia. What is the capital of Tajikistan?

A. Bishkek
B. Dushanbe
C. Baku
D. Astana
E. Ashgabat

Q127. International Girl Child Day is observed on 11th October. What is the theme for the
year 2018?

A. With Her: A Skilled Girl Force

B. My voice, our equal future
C. Empowering her: Empowering all
D. Inclusive growth for future
E. None of these

Q128. Asian Development Bank has announced its support to India’s First Global Skill Park,
recently in Oct 2018, by signing an agreement of USD 150 million with the Govt of India.
Where is this Skill Park located?

A. Jaipur
B. Bhopal
C. Mumbai
D. Nasik
E. Pune

Q129. Kanha National Park is located in the state of __________

A. Gujarat
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Maharashtra
E. Karnataka

Q130. ‘JIMEX’ Bilateral Maritime exercise has recently taken place in Vishakhapatnam, in
the month of Oct 2018. It is a maritime exercise between India and which other nation?

A. Myanmar
B. Malaysia
C. Bangladesh
D. Singapore
E. Japan

Q131. DY Patil Stadium is located in which of the following of the following cities?

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 A. Navi Mumbai
B. Hyderabad
C. Lucknow
D. Indore
E. Pune

Q132. Who among the following has emerged as the richest Indian for 11 th consecutive year
as per Forbes India Rich List, released in the month of Oct 2018?

A. Mukesh Ambani
B. Azim Premji
C. Lakshmi Mittal
D. Hinduja Brothers
E. Shiv Nadar

Q133. Bhitarkanika National Park is situated in the state of ______________

A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Kerala
E. Maharashtra

Q134. 19th edition of the India-Russia annual bilateral summit has recently taken place in
the month of Oct 2018, at which of the following places?

A. Moscow
B. St. Petersburg
C. New Delhi
D. Gandhinagar
E. Srinagar

Q135. Which of the following states has topped in Ease of Living Index 2018 released
recently (September 2018) under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(AMRUT)?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Kerala
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Jharkhand
E. Andhra Pradesh

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 Q136. With which of the following countries has India signed a twin-city agreement (in Oct
2018) for the cooperation in various fields, including environment, culture and education,
for the next three years starting from Nov 1, 2018?

A. Netherlands
B. Singapore
C. China
D. Canada
E. Russia

Q137. Which of the following Airports has been recently honored by United Nations with
'Champion of Earth' award for being the first airport in the world to be completely powered
by solar energy, in the month of July 2018?

A. Chennai
B. Bengaluru
C. Kochi
D. Chandigarh
E. Indore

Q138. Moon Jae-in has recently visited India in the month of July 2018. He is the President
of which of the following countries?

A. Taiwan
B. Japan
C. South Korea
D. North Korea
E. None of these

Q139. What is the capital of Meghalaya?

A. Kohima
B. Agartala
C. Shillong
D. Gangtok
E. Imphal

Q140. Who among the following is the winner of 2018 Nobel Prize for Economics (Oct
2018)?

A. William Nordhaus
B. Paul Romer
C. Dr. Joseph Francisco
D. Both a & b
E. Both b & c

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 Q141. Who has won the girls' title in the IBSF World Under-16 Snooker Championships,
recently in the month of Oct 2018?

A. Keerthana Pandian
B. Vidya Pillai
A. Arantxa Sanchis
B. Varsha Sanjeev
C. None of these

Q142. As per SECC 2011, what percentage of population in rural India is illiterate?

A. 36%
B. 45%
C. 28%
D. 49%
E. 28%

Q143. Which of the following films has been chosen recently in Sept 2018, to represent
India in the Best Foreign Language category at the 91st Academy Awards next year?

A. Village rockstars
B. Raazi
C. Hichki
D. October
E. Padmaavat

Q144. Walmart has recently (May 2018) acquired ________, which is also the owner
company of Phonepe.

A. Snapdeal
B. Amazon
C. Paytm
D. Flipkart
E. None of these

Q145. Which of the following has recently registered over 137 million UPI transactions in
September 2018, becoming the leading contributor to Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
payments with over 33 percent of the overall market share?

A. PhonePe
B. Paytm
C. GooglePay
D. BHIM
E. None of these

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 Q146. Swachh Survekshan Grameen Awards have been recently conferred in the month of
Oct 2018. Which of the following ministries is responsible for conducting Swachh
Survekshan Grameen?

A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
C. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
E. None of the above

Q147. Indra Jatra festival has been recently celebrated in September 2018, It is an annual
religious festival of which of the following countries?

A. Bhutan
B. India
C. Nepal
D. Maldives
E. Myanmar

Q148. World Pneumonia Day is observed every year on which of the following days?

A. October 12
B. July 12
C. June 15
D. August 15
E. November 12

Q149. The Jaipur Literature Festival (JLF) has held for the first time in which of the following
places, in the month of September 2018?

A. New Delhi
B. New York
C. Gandhinagar
D. Moscow
E. Houston

Q150. AIBA World Women’s Boxing Championship has recently taken place in the month of
November 2018, in which of the following Indian cities?

A. Indore
B. Agartala
C. Kocchi
D. New Delhi
E. Pune

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 Q151. Jeremy Lalrinnunga has recently won India's first-ever gold medal at Youth Olympics,
held recently in Argnetina in the month of Oct 2018. He belomgs to which of the following
sports?

A. Weightlifting
B. Boxing
C. Fencing
D. Badminton
E. Tennis

Q152. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2018 has been given to which of the
following personalities, recently in Oct 2018?

A. Saikhom Mirabai Chanu

B. Virat Kohli
C. Sardara Singh
D. Sakshi Malik
E. Jitu Rai

Q153. PM Narendra Modi has launched Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan in the month of
April 2018. It is related to which of the following Ministries?

A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
C. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
D. Both a & b
E. Both b & c

Q154. Mullaperiyar dam is located in which of the following states?

A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Odisha
D. Maharashtra
E. Madhya Pradesh

Q155. According to Census 2011, what is the literacy rate in India?

A. 70.25%
B. 84.25%
C. 74.04%
D. 75.05%
E. 91.25%

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 Q156. Recently in July 2018, the committee headed by __________ has submitted its
report on "Data Protection Framework" to the Government of India.

A. Rajeev Kumar
B. Vinay Sheel Oberoi
C. Justice B.N Srikishna
D. Umesh Sinha
E. None of these

Q157. Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) has announced that its Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle-C42(PSLV) will put into orbit two earth observation satellites in the month
of Sept 2018. These satellited belong to which of the following countries?

A. Britain
B. Canada
C. Bangladesh
D. Russia
E. Seychelles

Q158. Pakyong Airport has been recently inaugurated in the month of Sept 2018, it is
located in which of the following Indian states?

A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Sikkim
C. Manipur
D. Tripura
E. Assam

Q159. After demonetization, the number of taxpayers has increased by how much
percentage during the current financial year, as informed by the Government in the month
of Dec 2017?

A. 17.5%
B. 22.5%
C. 25%
D. 19.5%
E. 21.5%

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 Q160. In the Union Budget 2018-19, Govt has announced a new initiative named
‘‘Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE)”, with a total investment of
how much amount for next four years till 2022?

A. Rs. 5,00,000 crores

B. Rs. 10,00,000 crores
C. Rs. 1,00,000 crores
D. Rs. 2,00,000 crores
E. None of these

Section: - Security Markets

Since syllabus of SEBI changed post 2020, the questions asked
from security markets in Phase 1 are not relevant for the SEBI
exam now

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Memor
yBasedPaper
Q.1 Write an Essay of about 250 words on any one of the following topics: - (40 Marks)
1. India's economic slowdown - Causes and consequences.
India's economy toppled to 5 per cent GDP growth rate—a 25-quarter low—during the first
quarter of 2019 fiscal. Days before the data was published, the government took a step
back to announce rescue measures to revive the sectors hurt by the economic slowdown
and reverse decisions on surcharge for high net-worth individuals. The finance ministry's
stimulus package was aimed at addressing two main concerns of the Indian economy—fall
in consumption and private investments.
Now, wading through the middle of a slowdown-hit economy to the festive days ahead
looks like a long swim. Though the government measures have provided some relief to a
monsoon deficit year to smaller enterprises and traders, the larger concerns over
'structural issues' ailing the Indian economy continue to bite.
The one-time cash curtailing exercise of the government had a telling impact on India's
growth. "We would come to know about the true impact of demonetisation only after
some years," Arvind Subramanian, former chief economic adviser who had shepherded the
demonetisation move of PM Narendra Modi, had said while announcing that
demonetisation had no short-term impact on the economy.
One of the main concerns for the current economic slowdown is a sharp fall in consumer
demand as witnessed by most major firms. India is still a rural-centric economy, the proof
of which was witnessed this time. As the rural economy slowed, tractor manufacturers and
fertiliser manufacturers felt the first impact.
Of all the things that hurt India’s GDP, a slowdown in the real estate and construction
sector have had the worst impact of all. The construction and real estate sector, credited
to account for 40 per cent overall jobs, had seen the worst last four years, with business
being slower with each passing year.
A drop in number of employment and wage levels have hastened the slowdown and the
slump in consumer demand. Fewer jobs have been reflected in the Periodic Labour Force
Survey (PLFS) for 2017-18 by the National Sample Survey Office. It also recorded a mere
five per cent rise in regular jobs, which provide more social security.
This is the final nail on the slowdown coffin. Investments are key to more business
activities, resulting in more jobs, higher earnings, and eventually higher spending. This
virtuous cycle of investments is the key focus of this year’s Economic Survey as well and is
credited to be the central of the government reforms.
The data by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the Commerce ministry
on FDI showed that investments of mere Rs 67,000 crore were promised by foreign
investors between January and March this year. The number is one per cent lower than
the investments in the comparable period last year.

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We would need investments to revive. For that a number of measures need to be
undertaken, including the government ramping up its own investments in building public
infrastructures and other assets as informed by CRISIL India.
2. The lasting impact of demonetization. Explain.
Demonetization is the act of removing currency as legal tender. The current form of money
is stripped from circulation and dismissed in the case of demonetization. New forms of
notes and coins are replaced by the old ones. Nations often fully introduce a new currency
by replacing the old currency. The most crucial thing about demonetization is that notes,
and coins of a certain denomination are banned by the central government. There are
certain merits and demerits of demonetization. When a new policy is introduced by the
government, it has to face several challenges and obstacles. Demonetization is not an
exceptional one.
Advantages of Demonetization
1. Corruption is reduced drastically due to demonetization. The dealing of black money
stops abruptly because of demonetization. Government pushes the future of the corrupt
people in stringent darkness by implementing demonetization across the nation.
2. Liability of the government is reduced by the introduction of demonetization. The risk
and liability of liquid currency is reduced too. It is quite convenient to handle soft money
in place of hard currency. Demonetization also reduces the liability notes of the
government.
3. One of the huge impacts of demonetization is that in certain cases, it leads to tax
avoidance. The deposited money will be tracked by the Income Tax authorities. Hence,
people who are known for their tax avoidance will become hesitant to do so. This will lead
to fulfilling the government exchequer in a proper way. The transaction of loan will also be
under review. Flow of taxes will increase. This will lead to the implementation of different
welfare measures taken by the government.
Challenges Faced by Demonetization
1. One of the major challenges faced by the introduction of demonetization is the
connectivity of the internet. Since digital transactions are promoted everywhere,
maximum people will go cashless. But not in every part of the world there is adequate
internet connectivity. In the developing nations, especially, certain policies should be
implemented first with proper infrastructure.
2. Another result of demonetization is cash shortage. Chaos cannot be avoided due to the
dearth of cash. This was the exact scenario during the 2016 Indian banknote
demonetization. People faced numerous problems in exchanging and depositing the
demonetized banknotes. Few unwanted casualties also occurred because of this ruling.

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3. The major negative impact of demonetization is felt in the rural areas. The agricultural
sector entirely depends upon cash. Moreover, rural people do not possess adequate
financial literacy to handle the situation. In India, almost 80% of the rural population is
unaware of the term digital transaction. Plus, there is still a lack of knowledge of computers
and a cashless economy. During 2016 demonetization, this chunk of population was hit
badly.
Demonetization is one of the historical steps taken by the Government of India so far. It
was no less than a financial revolution to curb corruption. However, it is a continuous
process which will be reviewed by the government from time to time. Although there are
certain challenges faced by the policy, the primary objectives of demonetization have been
achieved. The loopholes of the policy can be repaired but the national interest of
demonetization should be acclaimed.
3. Discuss Reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS).
The Indian parliament has approved the bill for offering 10 per cent quota in education and
employment to economically weaker sections in the general category. Though it is cited as
a historic bill for reservation for economically weaker sections in Upper Caste, many feel
that this is a political move to consolidate the vote banks.
Reservation is a part of corrective action which seeks to bring equality. In the beginning,
there were provisions of reservation in government jobs and education only for certain
socially and educationally backward castes like Schedule Caste (SC) and Schedule Tribes
(ST). After a period of time, Other Backward Castes (OBC) was added to the list.
Reservations were supposed to end 20 years after it was launched. Since they were
expected to uplift these sections and bring them at parity with the common general
population. But due to political compulsions, they were renewed.
The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2019 seeks to
provide for the advancement of 'economically weaker sections' of citizens. Article 15 of
the Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of race,
religion, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, the government may make special
provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, or for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Bill seeks to amend Article 15 to additionally
permit the government to provide for the advancement of 'economically weaker sections'.
Further, up to 10% of seats may be reserved for such sections for admission in educational
institutions. Such reservation will not apply to minority educational institutions. Article 16
of the Constitution prohibits discrimination in employment in any government office.
However, the government can allow reservation for any 'backward class of citizens', if they
are not adequately represented in the services under the state.The Bill seeks to amend
Article 16 to permit the government to reserve up to 10 per cent of all posts for the
'economically weaker sections' of citizens. The reservation of up to 10% for 'economically

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weaker sections' in educational institutions and public employment will be in addition to
the existing reservation. The central government will notify the 'economically weaker
sections' of citizens on the basis of family income and other indicators of economic
disadvantage.
Though the bill also applies to people from all religions, the new public sector job quota
and reservation in government colleges is expected to mainly benefit the upper sections
of the Hindu caste system, particularly who are economically weaker. Upper castes may
react positively to the move, but SC, ST and other OBC will be terribly upset.
4. Discuss Impact of e-commerce on businesses.
E-Commerce has affected businesses positively and negatively. On the one side,
ecommerce makes it easier for businesses to reach a much wider audience at less expense
than would be required if the traditional retail method was to be applied. With
ecommerce, there is no requirement to acquire expensive shops in high streets. You can
produce or store your goods at a remote upcountry location and still advertise and sell
them worldwide. While the cost of developing a good website may be substantial, it is
much cheaper than letting expensive high street storefronts. Additionally, once you have
your website operational, you will reach a wide client base. The next thing is to ensure that
you have access to appropriate means of transporting goods to customers who make
orders.
On the other hand, established enterprises, most of which are vertically integrated are
finding it harder than before to retain their market share. More flexible competitors are
entering the market traditionally dominated by these established companies, making
competition fiercer than ever. To remain relevant, old school companies are having to
adjust to the new technologies and incur capital expenditure in developing new
capabilities.
Ecommerce has contradicted the classic economic theory of decreasing returns to scale
which holds that a business cannot grow its profits infinitely. E-commerce based
enterprises have been shown to sustain fast growth while increasing returns as well. The
reason is that these startups have minimal infrastructure and inventory and rely heavily on
information and communication. In fact, in information based product industries,
distribution and sale via ecommerce may bring the cost per unit to almost zero. A perfect
example here would be the online software vendors who allow customers to buy products
and added licenses online.
The impact of ecommerce on businesses is immense and cannot be exhaustively
elucidated. The impact is expected to increase as internet penetration in emerging markets
increases.
5. Transiting to a cashless economy. Explain.

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It is an iron law of public policy that established players create obstacles to innovations
that threaten them. One such response could be building up in the financial system. This
newspaper reported on Monday that Indian banks are making it difficult for digital wallets
issued by private sector companies to be used on the respective bank websites. It could be
restrictions on using bank accounts to refill digital wallets or a lack of access to payment
gateways. Regulators will have to take a tough stand against such rent-seeking behaviour
by the banks.
Many developed countries such as Sweden are already moving towards a cashless
economy on the back on new payments technology. Even developing countries such as
Kenya have made immense strides in mobile payments. A drastic reduction in the use of
cash has several potential benefits. First, it will attack the problem of black money by
leaving behind a transaction trail. Second, there will be greater efficiency in welfare
programmes as money is wired directly into the accounts of recipients. Third, there will be
efficiency gains as transaction costs across the economy should also come down.
India uses too much cash for transactions. The ratio of cash to gross domestic product is
one of the highest in the world—12.42% in 2014, compared with 9.47% in China or 4% in
Brazil. The number of currency notes in circulation is also far higher than in other large
economies; India had 76.47 billion currency notes in circulation in 2012-13 compared with
34.5 billion in the US. Some studies show that cash dominates even in malls, which are
visited by people who are likely to have credit cards, so it is no surprise that cash dominates
in other markets as well.
Despite the recent expansion in digital wallet usage as well as the introduction of
specialized payments banks, a lot needs to be done before cash is eased out of the Indian
economy. One big reason many Indians use cash intensively is that half of them do not
have bank accounts, so the success of initiatives such as Jan Dhan accounts linked to
Aadhaar data will be very important. A robust payments mechanism to settle digital
transactions is also needed, though the National Electronic Funds Transfer and Real Time
Gross Settlement services have been a good start. The Reserve Bank of India too will have
to come to terms with a few issues, from figuring out what digital payments across borders
means for its capital controls to how the new modes of payment affect key monetary
variables such as the velocity of money.
The Indian central bank will also have to shed some of its conservatism, part of which is
because it has often seen itself as the protector of banking interests rather than overall
financial development.
As mentioned earlier, a lot of plumbing work also needs to be done. But the regulators also
need to keep a sharp eye on any potential restrictive practices that banks may indulge in
to maintain their current dominance over the lucrative payments business.

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Q.2 Make a Précis of the following passage in 150 words and give it a suitable title.

(30 Marks)

The Union Budget has introduced various reforms to boost economic growth and put India
back on track to become a $5 trillion economy. While the budget may not have a big bang
announcement, it has significantly stepped-up expenditure for the next financial year to
₹30.42 trillion from the revised estimate of ₹26.98 trillion in the current fiscal. It is thus
evident that the government will aim to spend aggressively in the new fiscal and put money
in the hands of citizens through its various programmes, including lowering of personal
income tax, to boost demand.

At the same time, the government is creating room for reviving private sector investment
by rolling out the National Infrastructure Pipeline that envisages creation of 6,500
infrastructure projects worth ₹103 lakh crore over the next five years. A rapid
implementation of these projects that are backed by efficient financing mechanism holds
the key to revitalising the growth engine and propelling GDP towards $5 trillion mark. The
bevy of projects promises to transform the hinterland and build robust infrastructure
across sectors like housing, safe drinking water, clean and affordable energy, healthcare,
world-class educational institutes, modern railway stations, airports, bus terminals, metro
and railway transportation, logistics and warehousing, irrigation projects, etc. The proposal
to grant 100% tax exemption to Sovereign Wealth Funds on their investments in
infrastructure is expected to bring copious and long-term funds into the sector. Similarly,
abolition of dividend distribution tax will encourage foreign companies to also step up
investments in these projects.

The idea to develop five new smart cities with states under (PPP) Public Private Partnership
model is also a step in the right direction as it will have the potential to harness
convergence of three different economic activities of upcoming economic corridors,
manufacturing activities in those regions, and new age technologies and demands of
aspirational classes.

Backed by a dynamic workforce, India is at the cusp of a major economic transformation

and a flurry of projects are critical to not only provide gainful employment but also fulfil
aspirations of a young society that wants better standards of living, with access to health,
education, clean energy, water and better jobs. It is here the Budget has rightly laid stress
on the need for a robust education system for creating next generation talent pool and
enhancing skill sets with greater inflow of finance to attract talented teachers, innovate
and build better labs. Various innovative ideas like improving employability of students in
general stream, providing internship to newly graduated engineers in local urban bodies
and attaching a medical college to an existing district hospital in PPP mode are noteworthy.
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The budget has provided ₹22,000 crore for power and renewable sector. Interestingly
there is mega push to boost generation of solar power. Schemes like helping 20 lakh
farmers set up stand-alone solar pumps and enabling them to set up solar power
generation capacity on their barren land and sell it to the grid will give a fillip to renewable
energy in the country. Similarly, the plan to set up large solar power capacity alongside the
rail tracks on railway land is also a laudable move. Along with several large renewable
energy projects including solar parks, such small ticket projects by farmers will allow India’s
rapid transition to an era of sustainable and clean power generation and bring down our
dependence on coal-based power generation.

Given that a number of our cities are battling polluted air, it is heartening to note that the
budget also talks about the need to shutdown thermal power plants that are old with high
carbon emission levels. The land vacated by such power projects can in fact be used to set
up wind or solar energy farms. The budget has also allocated Rs 4,400 crore to encourage
states to implement plans for ensuring cleaner air in cities.

While the budget did not announce any major steps to address the financial woes of the
distressed power distribution utilities or Distribution Companies (DISCOMs), it set the ball
rolling with the proposal to promote smart metering. If states and Union Territories replace
conventional energy meters by prepaid smart meters in the next 3 years, it will significantly
ease the financial burden of DISCOMs and cut their losses. At the same time, it would give
consumers the freedom to choose the supplier and the price of electricity.

To sum it up, the budget has the right intent in several areas. It is now over to quick and
seamless implementation to unleash the animal spirits in the economy.

Q.2 Make a Précis of the following passage in 150 words and give it a suitable title.

(30 Marks)

Title - Setting the track for a $5trillion economy

The government has raised the expenditure to 30.42 trillion rupees for the next financial
year. It aims to boost demand and raise the income levels of its citizens. To achieve the $5
trillion GDP mark, it envisaged investing over 100 lakh crores on a whole gamut of
infrastructure projects. To fulfill the needs of the aspiring youth of this nation, it is critical
to provide better education employment and living standards. Various projects like smart
cities, improving educational standards under PPP mode is a step in right direction. In order
to achieve sustainable and clean energy, the budget has provided 22,000 crores to boost
the solar power generation in the country. It also envisaged closing the old thermal power
plants and using the land to set up solar farms. Proposal to replace the conventional

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metering with smart meters is aimed to reduce the financial burden of DISCOMs.

Q.3 Read the passage given above and answer the questions on the basis of the

passage in your own words. (30 Marks)

1) Discuss the ambit of measures taken by the government in the current budget to

revive the economy.

In order to achieve the $5 trillion dollar economy, the government has embarked various
projects and proposals in the budget. It raised the budget form 27 trillion to 30.42 trillion
in order to fund various schemes and projects. The government is planning to revive the
private sector by rolling out the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), with 6500 projects
worth to near 103 lakh crores over the next 5 years. To garner funds for the NIP the
government has proposed to grant 100% tax exemption for the sovereign funds, which
invests in the infrastructure projects. Development of 5 new smart cities and creating
better educational institutions under PPP route and boosting of solar power through
schemes like setting up standalone solar pumps in farmers land and sell it to the grid were
such various schemes proposed in the budget to revive the economy.

2) Discuss the various new initiatives adorned by the government.

In the Current Union Budget, Government has adopted various innovative initiatives in
different sectors to boost economic growth. They are as follows:

• Creation of National Infrastructure Pipeline with 6500 projects and introducing

private investment in the economy thereby transforming Infrastructure, Transport
facilities, Educational Institutions, Medical care and many other sectors.

• Exemption and Removal of Taxes on Sovereign Wealth Funds and Dividend

Distribution helps in attracting investments from abroad.

• Harnessing Solar power effectively, by utilizing even the barren lands of farmers, not
just the government owned solar parks.

• Setting up of large solar power capacity alongside the rail tracks on railway lands is
an example of effective utilization of resources.

• Introduction of Smart Energy Meters replacing the conventional ones, which gives
the consumer freedom to choose supplier and price of electricity.
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• Creation of Solar and Wind Farms replacing old Thermal Power Plants can help
reduction of carbon emission and creation of cleaner cities.

• Designing an efficient Education system by enhancing skill sets of students,

attracting talented academicians, enhancing Research and Development utilities.

3) Describe the various steps taken by the government for a sustainable ecosystem.

The government has envisaged a national infrastructure pipeline worth 103 lakh crore for
various infrastructural projects which includes projects such as housing, safe drinking
water, clean and affordable energy, and smart cities.

The government has proposed 22,000 crores in the budget for renewable power sector, to
boost the generation of solar power. In order to achieve fast transition to sustainable
energy, government has planned to rope in farmers to be part of the project. Farmers are
now allowed to set up solar pumps and enabled them to set up solar generation capacity
on their lands and sell it to the grid. Government has also proposed to utilize the land along
the railway tracks for establishing the solar projects. It also proposed to shut down the old,
high polluting thermal power plants and replace them with solar and wind energy farms.
For encouraging the states to implement plan for cleaner air, the government has also
proposed 4,400crore in its Union budget.

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