1.

The MoSCoW prioritization model is an acronym for the following:

a. Must have, Should have, Could have, Want to have requirements.
b. Must have, Should have, Can’t have, Want to have requirements.
c. Might have, Should have, Can’t have, Will have requirements.
d. Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have requirements.

2. Which is NOT one of the four corporate roles which could substitute for the Scrum Product Owner
role?
a. Project Manager
b. Service Owner
c. Process Owner
d. Service Manager

3. In a matrix-management structure, resources can split time between operational and project activities.
a. True
b. False

4. What Crystal value does PDM support?

a. Personal safety
b. Participatory decision-making
c. Osmotic communication
d. Co-located teams

5. What Japanese Lean term supports the concept of organizational decomposition?

a. Jidoka
b. Kaizen
c. Genchi genbutsu
d. Mura

6. Why is the cost of change typically higher in Waterfall projects?

a. Significant amount of work would have to be redone.
b. Waterfall projects tend to be more complex.
c. Stakeholders aren't as engaged in the process.
d. Waterfall projects tend to be more expensive.

7. For which type of resistor is this an appropriate management response: organizations should change
team composition, model and praise the desired behaviour, involve followers in the process, and
determine the root cause of resistance, whether it is awareness, desire, or ability.
a. Follower
b. Saboteur
c. Diehard
d. Skeptic

8. CRUD is an acronym that is used to further decompose user stories.

a. True
 b. False

9. Which is NOT one of the 3 Cs of user story creation?

a. Conversation- The user story is supported by a conversation or point for a conversation
between business and project teams.
b. Concise/card- The user story is short enough to fit on a 4 x 6 card.
c. Completeness- The user story should include all the elements necessary for the story to
be considered complete.

10. A Gemba walk, involves Project team members going to where a process occurs and observing the
process in action.
a. True
b. False

11. The four Scrum events are:

a. Sprint Planning, Scrum, Sprint Review. Sprint Retrospective
b. User Stories, Backlog Creation, Scrum, Sprint Planning
c. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Closing
d. Backlog Creation, Sprint Planning, Sprint Review, Sprint Retrospective

12. Which is NOT part of Michael Cohn's ADAPT approach?

a. Promote
b. Transfer
c. Awareness
d. Dedication

13. Continuous Improvement specifically refers to the process of implementing incremental change that
reduces or eliminates waste.
a. True
b. False

14. Why do projects always contain an element of risk?

a. Because they are unique
b. Because they use SMART goals
c. Because they achieve an organizational goal
d. Because they are temporary

15. What is NOT a lean principle?

a. Maintain an unrelenting focus on providing customer value.
b. Provide exactly what is needed at the right time, based on customer demand.
c. Value and respect people.
d. Take the short-term view.

16. The Development Team is a collection of software developers assigned to a sprint.

a. True
b. False
17. If a user story appears to be too large to complete in a single sprint what should occur?
a. Complete as much of the user story as possible and complete later
b. Extend the sprint so it can be completed.
c. Break the story into smaller components.

18. Rather than identifying defects after a product has been completed, the goal is to minimize defects
from occurring in the first place by fixing the defect-causing behavior at its source. What does this
statement refer to?
a. Kaizen
b. Jidoka
c. Quality planning
d. Quality Testing

19. Team members see and contribute information at different times refers to what?
a. Co-located communication
b. Asynchronous communication
c. Synchronous communication
d. Osmotic communication

20. Like a traditional waterfall project charter, the Agile project charter authorizes the project work.
However, an Agile project charter provides detailed guidance to a project team. It helps focus the
work and provides a prescribed approach for the Agile project team.
a. True
b. False

21. Each Sprint should have:

a. A sprint goal
b. A sprint backlog
c. User stories
d. All of the above

22. In Scrum, "completed" means that the user story meet the following criteria:
a. Developed, Inspected, Trained
b. Developed, Inspected, Documented
c. Developed, Trained, Tested
d. Documented, Trained, Accepted

23. If the transferring element of the ADAPT framework is not done effectively, what force will bring the
enterprise back to the status quo?
a. Departmental memory
b. Organizational gravity
c. Functional norms

24. Value stream, or current state, maps can be created through:

a. Reviewing requirements
b. Observation
c. Collaboration
 d. Quality Assurance

25. The goal of value stream mapping is to determine business objective value.
a. True
b. False

26. What is a key difference between wideband Delphi and planning poker approaches to estimation?
a. Estimates are expert driven.
b. Meeting occurs for clarifying questions.
c. Estimates are completed in real-time.
d. Steps in the process repeat until a consensus is reached.

27. What is NOT a Lean value-added activity criteria?

a. It transforms the product or service.
b. Customers are willing to “pay” for it.
c. It must be done correctly the first time.
(These are the criteria for value-added activity.)

28. The total story points completed at the end of a sprint is considered:
a. The baseline velocity
b. Timeboxing
c. Actual time to complete.
d. A product increment.

29. The preferred model of decision-making is through negotiation, where teams are free to negotiate a
user story to achieve a win-win outcome. This approach is called accommodating, which differs from
some waterfall approaches that use a collaborating approach. Collaborating approaches yield to the
customer, which can result in cost, scope, and schedule overruns.
a. True
b. False

30. What type of procurement is Agile contracting?

a. Scope of work
b. Fixed price contract
c. Time and materials contract
d. Request for proposal.

31. Which is NOT one of the ADDITIONAL elements captures on a user story card?
a. Verification criteria
b. Size/points
c. Type of stakeholder
d. Business value

32. The backlog enables the development team to select user stories and begin work on them. The
development team does not have to wait for another dependency to be completed.
a. True
 b. False

33. Muri is a Japanese term to ensure resource waste is minimized by working resources to their
maximum capabilities for extended periods of time.
a. True
b. False

34. Once the enterprise transition to Agile is complete, the Enterprise Transition Community should be
disbanded.
a. True
b. False

35. Story points are a pure estimate that does not have to factor in distraction or elapsed time.
a. True
b. False

36. Who is responsible for creating the backlog?

a. Scrum Master
b. Development Team
c. Product Owner
d. Customers

37. What is a key element of the scrum master role?

a. The scrum master approves the product work.
b. The scrum master decides how a solution will be designed.
c. The scrum master is a functional manager that assigns work to the development team.
d. The scrum master does not direct the development team to make product changes at the
end of a sprint.

38. Which Agile principle does a fixed price contract conflict with most?
a. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes harness
change for the customer's competitive advantage.
b. Build projects around motivated individuals. Give them the environment and support they
need and trust them to get the job done.
c. Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of
valuable software.
d. The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a
development team is face-to-face conversation.

39. What does the following phenomenon describe: as more time elapses, more information is known
about the project, creating greater estimate accuracy?
a. Planning poker
b. Progressive elaboration
c. Wideband Delphi
d. Parkinson's Law
40. Which is NOT one of the strategies to create a productive distributed team?
a. Conducting scrums at times of the day when all teams can participate.
 b. Ensuring online information is static.
c. Creating a shared online presence, such as a web page on an organization's intranet
d. Using Agile software tools

41. User stories are prescriptive to ensure the Development Team knows exactly what to do.
a. True
b. False

42. TDD is an acronym for Testing Development Dynamically.

a. True
b. False

43. Who manages the Development Team?

a. The Scrum Master
b. The Development Team
c. The Project Manager
d. The Product Owner

44. Building the ability to work in an Agile manner can be achieved through coaching and training,
sharing information, and setting reasonable targets.
a. True
b. False
45. Which is NOT one of the three Scrum questions?
a. What will you do today?
b. What will you do tomorrow?
c. Are there any impediments in your way?
d. What did you do yesterday?

46. Skilled generalists are highly specialized resources that are invaluable to an Agile project team.
a. True
b. False

47. What happens to user stories that are not completed during a sprint?
a. Not applicable. A sprint is not completed until all user stories are complete.
b. They are broken into smaller stories.
c. They are released and issues are treated as bugs.
d. They are moved to a future sprint.

48. Which is NOT an Agile at Scale framework?

a. DAD
b. XP
c. SAFe
d. LeSS

49. For large and complex projects, the development team may need to include a number of roles. As a
result, the size of the team should be as large as needed to ensure the quality of deliverables.
a. True
b. False
50. The sprint review should only review features or outcomes that have been completed during the
sprint.
a. True
b. False

51. Time boxing focuses on fixing which variables?

a. Scope and budget
b. Quality and time
c. Scope and time
d. Time and budget

52. What is an advantage to using story points as an estimating approach?

a. They are individual estimates.
b. They are an empirical measurement.
c. Capture both ideal and real time.
d. They an abstract concept.

53. Could-have requirements should not exceed 20 percent of the overall distribution. Why?
a. Numerous superficial features or requirements are being implemented.
b. Could have requirements represent scope creep and should be avoided.
c. Too many could have requirements could jeopardize project release date.
d. More than this would indicate that the project may not be achieving business value.

54. In Michael Cohn's ADAPT framework, ETC and IC are acronyms for:
a. Enterprise Transition Committee and Improvement Committee
b. Enterprise Transition Community and Improvement Community
c. Enterprise Transfer Committee and Integration Committee
d. Enterprise Transfer Community and Integration Community

55. Which is NOT a step of planning poker?

a. Each user story is read out by the product owner.
b. Participants present their scores.
c. A follow-up meeting is called to review items with significant variation.
d. The participants ask clarifying questions.

56. If an organization is procuring an outside service or product from a vendor, it may be appropriate for
the vendor to designate an external product owner or owners to the team.
a. True
b. False

57. Affinity estimating is also known as:

a. Wideband Delphi
b. Planning poker
c. T-shirt sizing
d. User story elaboration

58. Which factor DOES NOT need to be fulfilled before a user story can be removed from the backlog?
a. It is in the right priority.
 b. The development team member understands the story enough to perform the work.
c. The development team member has enough work cycles.
d. The product owner assigns it to the development team member.

59. Incremental methodology = each step in the process is dependent on the previous one. If steps are not
complete, it could delay the start of the next iteration.
a. True
b. False

60. Which is NOT a team structure?

a. Matrixed
b. Hybrid
c. Projectized
d. Dedicated
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

61. What does the following phenomenon describe: as more time elapses, more information is known
about the project, creating greater estimate accuracy.
a. Planning poker
b. Wideband Delphi
c. Progressive elaboration
d. Parkinson's Law

62. Which is NOT one of the Lean seven forms of waste?

a. Movement waste-Materials, information, or resources are excessively moved to complete a
specific process activity.
b. Overproduction waste-Resources are producing more than necessary to achieve customer
needs.
c. Testing waste-The process results in too many false positives
d. Waiting waste-Resources are idle while they wait for a dependent process or activity to be
completed.

63. Which is NOT the purpose of a Kanban board?

a. Quality assurance
b. Visual management tool
c. Improve process flow.
d. Minimize in-progress items.

64. Which business function can benefit greatest by having priority, value and efficiency captured in a
user story?
a. Accounting
b. Procurement
c. Human resources

65. The product owner is responsible for:

 a. Defining and prioritizing the team backlog
b. Managing the scrum team
c. Telling the development team how to complete a user story
d. The amount of stories to be completed in a sprint.

66. For which type of resistor is this an appropriate management response: appoint a champion. This will
help solicit peer anecdotes as well as build awareness. Organizations should provide training to as
well as continuing to push the desire for change.
a. Diehard
b. Follower
c. Skeptic
d. Saboteur

67. Which is NOT part of the INVEST acronym?

a. Verifiable -The story can be verified and validated.
b. Small-The story is discrete and incremental in achieving value.
c. Negotiable-The story is open to negotiation of how it can be best fulfilled.
d. The story is discrete and can be fulfilled independent of other user stories.

68. The MOSCOW prioritization model was developed under the Dynamic Systems Development
Method (DSDM) Agile framework.
a. True
b. False

69. What is the Scrum framework recommended team size?

a. 9-12
b. 6-9
c. 3-9
d. 3-6

70. Kanban is a Japanese word that means progress chart.

a. True
b. False

71. Osmotic communication refers to knowledge being acquired simply by hearing team member
conversations.
a. True
b. False

72. What Agile Values does the Stakeholder Log support?

a. Responding to Change Over Following a Plan.
b. Customer Collaboration Over Contract Negotiation
c. Individuals and Interactions Over Processes and Tools.
d. Working Software Over Comprehensive Documentation

73. Both Agile and PMI recommends a dedicated project team when a project is high priority and cannot
afford timeline variation.
 a. True
b. False

74. What is a sign of negative co-located space?

a. Use of headphones to ensure focused productivity.
b. Regular interaction between team members
c. Project information is visibly displayed.

75. What is a loaded cost?

a. The sum of direct and indirect costs expressed in an hourly rate.
b. The hourly rate of an Agile contractor
c. The sum of direct and indirect costs for an entire project.

76. The Scrum Master is NOT responsible for:

a. Coach And mentor the team to work in an Agile way.
b. Removing obstacles
c. Completing and managing work
d. Facilitating Agile methodology

77. Lean was developed by Taichi Ohno in the 1950's. Lean was developed to: support mass production
in automotive sector.

78. Using software to manage a backlog is recommended when: The backlog is large and complex.

79. The scrum master must monitor and ensure that the team is functioning and therefore the
development team members' manager…
a. True
b. False

80. What is the Japanese term for eliminating waste that comes from unevenness? Mura

81. Which is not part of agile family of methodologies?

a. Kanban
b. Scrum
c. Crystal
d. XP

82. What characterizes a Flat organization? Few or no levels of management.

83. Which is NOT part of the scrum master's role as a servant leader?
a. Facilitate scrums and other Scrum events.
b. Prioritize backlog items.
c. Remove obstacles.
d. Coach the team about the Agile process.

84. What are the three sections associated to the Agile Project Charter?
a. Goals Objectives Values
 b. Scope Budget Schedule
c. Mission, Vision Success Criteria
d. Inclusions Exclusions, Risks

85. What type of relationship exists between uncertainty and project program.
a. Reverse
b. Indirect
c. Direct
d. Inverse
86. Which Scrum event supports the following Agile principle At regular intervals, the team reflects on
how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its behaviour accordingly,
a. Sprint Retrospective
b. Continuous Improvement
c. Sprint Review
d. Lesson Learned

87. Agile values:

a. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
b. Working software over comprehensive documentation
c. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
d. Responding to change over following a plan.
e. All of the above

88. Suggest that: following a plan, processes and tools, comprehensive documentation and contract
negotiation are not valued and should be eliminated as forms of
a. True
b. False

89. What process uses a modified Fibonacci series?

a. Planning poker
b. Osmotic communication
c. Value stream mapping
d. Wideband Delphi

90. 88. Which is NOT one of the three forms of waste?

a. Mura
b. Kaizen
c. Muda

91. An organizational silo is…..

a. closed management system.
b. Associated with a flat organization.
c. open management system

92. User stories aren't the only form in which requirements can be represented in Agile frameworks.
a. True
b. False
93. In a large enterprise project what should be the maximum number of Scrum teams running
concurrently?
a. As many as needed
b. 1
c. 10
d. 8

94. What does PDCA cycle stand for?

a. Progress, direct, change, accept
b. Plan, do, check, act
c. Plan, document, configure, accept
d. Plan, document, confirm, act

95. User stories are often expressed as:

a. Business requirements
b. Persona, Need and Purpose
c. Must have, Need to have and Nice to have requirements
d. High, Medium and Low level requirements

96. What percentage of Must Have requirements should NOT be exceeded according to the MoSCoW
model?
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80

97. Using software to manage a backlog is recommended when:

a. Teams are co-located.
b. Work is limited to one development team.
c. The backlog is large and complex.
d. All of the above.

98. Which is NOT part of the INVEST acronym?

a. Small-The story is discrete and incremental in achieving value.
b. Independent-The story is discrete and can be fulfilled independently of other user stories.
c. Negotiable-The story is open to negotiation of how it can be best fulfilled.
d. Verifiable —The story can be verified and validated.

99. These types of qualities are often functional in nature and specific to a project. For example, an
organizational unit being able to generate automated reports that were once manual illustrates
customer expectations. If the project does not fulfill the expectation, the customer will be dissatisfied
with the project. Which Kano model category does this best fit?
a. One-dimensional or wants qualities.
b. Attractive or delighter qualities
c. Performance qualities
d. Must-be or needs qualities.
100. If a story does not contribute to the removal of waste or fulfill one of the Kano model's needs or
wants, then it does not have a clear business value.
a. True
b. False