Vstep Collection Official R1

VSTEP COLLECTION
20 Mock Tests
With Full Answer Keys For 4 Skills & Audio Files

A BOOK FOR VSTEP PREPARATION
Nguyen Thi Tu, M.A. - Bui Thi Phuong Thao, M.A. - Hoang Thi Phong Linh, M.A.
Tran Quang Nam, M.A. - Le Thuy Trang, M.A.
Ho Chi Minh City – 2017

CONTENT
COLLECTION 1
v LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 ____________________________________Page 1-7

v READING MOCK TEST 1 _____________________________________Page 8-16
v WRITING MOCK TEST 1______________________________________Page 17-18
v SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 ____________________________________Page 19-20
COLLECTION 2

COLLECTION 3

COLLECTION 4

COLLECTION 5

ANSWER KEYS, SCRIPTS & SUGGESTED IDEAS
v MOCK TEST 1 _______________________________________________Page 96-106

v MOCK TEST 2 _______________________________________________Page 107-117
v MOCK TEST 3 _______________________________________________Page 118-128
v MOCK TEST 4 ______________________________________________Page 129-139
v MOCK TEST 5 _______________________________________________Page 140-152
REFERENCE
v REFERENCE ________________________________________________Page
VSTEP
COLLECTION 1
PHẦN 1: NGHE HIỂU – VSTEP
Thời gian: 40 phút
Số câu hỏi: 35
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special
directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers in the recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work.
The recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer
sheet.
PART 1: Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one
question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C
or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday
you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch
and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount
of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information.
Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:

Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All meals
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.
Question 1: What is the purpose of the message?
A. To schedule a checkup
B. To delay a meeting
C. To confirm an appointment
D. To request some files
Question 2: What is being advertised?
VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 1

A. A city tour
B. A spa package
C. A hotel
D. A hospital
Question 3: According to the announcement, what will be built near Berryville?
A. A university
B. A high school
C. A new hospital wing
D. An airport terminal
Question 4: Who is this announcement probably for?
A. Factory employees
B. Office managers
C. Safety supervisors
D. Hotel workers
A. To make a reservation at a restaurant
B. To ask about a new employee
C. To invite a co-worker for dinner
D. To offer a ride home
Question 6: What is this message about?
A. A new security policy
B. The business hours
C. An office relocation
D. A permanent closure
A. To make an appointment
B. To offer a position
C. To cancel an interview
D. To confirm receipt of an application
Question 8: Who is the speaker?
A. A new employee
B. The founder
C. The chairman of the board
D. The personnel director

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated.
There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B,
C or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
Question 9: Why is the woman calling?
A. To make an appointment
B. To speak with Dr. Johnson
D. To receive some medical advice
Question 10: What is probably true about the man?
A. He is a doctor.
B. He is very busy these days.
C. He is the woman’s friend.
D. He will be late for the appointment.
Question 11: What does the woman ask the man to do?
A. Show up to his appointment a little early
B. Get more medical insurance
C. Wait 10 minutes in the waiting area
D. Always arrange his appointments a day early
Question 12: What will the man likely take to his appointment?
A. His past medical records
B. Some insurance documents
C. His appointment book
D. An application form

Question 13: Who most likely are they?
A. Journalists
B. Physicians
C. Lawyers
D. Restaurant owners
Question 14: Who has been mentioning the study to the woman?
A. Her patients
B. Her mother-in-law
C. Her doctor
D. Her friends
Question 15: When will they likely attend the conference?
A. Today
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday
Question 16: Who is going to visit the woman?
A. Her friends
B. Her husband
C. Her mother-in-law
D. Her patients

Question 17: What are they talking about?
A. A newly released product
B. The duration of the warranty
C. A customer they helped
D. A vehicle the man recently fixed
Question 18: According to the man, what was the customer most satisfied with?
A. The low cost of the repair work
B. The free service they provided
C. The competitive price of their products
D. The length of the warranty period
Question 19: What do the speakers feel makes customers happy?
A. The low price
B. The great service
C. The free gifts
D. The store hours
Question 20: What is true about the customer?
A. He is a loyal one.
B. He thought the warranty had expired.
C. He will definitely come back to the store.
D. He will recommend the store to his friend.

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or
conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation.
For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Question 21: Why is the woman visiting this office?
A. She wants to be a science major.
B. She wants to learn about politics.
C. She is interested in registering for a course.
D. She is interested in Political Science.
Question 22: Why are there few people in the honors program?
A. It is not considered a prestigious program.
B. The requirements are difficult to meet.
C. No one likes the economics requirement.
D. It is an unpopular program.
Question 23: What subject is NOT included, if the woman chooses Political Science?
A. Political Science 1
B. Political Science 2
C. Writing seminar
D. Economics
Question 24: Which is one of the requirements, if the woman chooses International Relation
program?
A. Students have to maintain over a "B" average in all required courses.
B. Students have to study economics and a second history credit.
C. Students need to be realistic in their expectation.
D. A, B, and C are all correct.
Question 25. What is NOT a reason for the Political Science Department's elaborate
registration process?
A. To make students think carefully about what courses they will take
B. To have a similar system with other majors
C. To make students have a planned program
D. To ensure students have realistic expectations
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following lecture.

Question 26: What happened to the debate club meeting?
A. They painted instead of debating.
B. The club was disbanded.
C. The meeting was moved to another room.
D. The meeting was postponed.
Question 27: Why couldn’t the man receive the email?
A. He was too busy with his classes.
B. He was in a meeting.
C. His computer has been out of order.
D. His friend forgot to tell him.
Question 28: What is going to happen with the debate club’s meeting room?
A. It is going to be demolished.
B. It is going to be sold.
C. It is going to be repainted.
D. It is going to be closed.

Question 29: What is true about the debate club's meeting room?
A. It is too small for the group.
B. It is called "Turner Auditorium".
C. It will soon be enlarged to accommodate everyone.
D. It is the most run-down room in the student building.
Question 30: What can be inferred about the man?
A. He does not enjoy the debate club.
B. He is not taking many classes.
C. He is a weak debater.
D. He is not ready for his debate yet.
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk.

Question 31: What is the professor mainly talking about?
A. The science of space travel
B. Scientific problems in Star Wars
C. The erroneous science in science fiction
D. Why science fiction is bad literature
Question 32: According to the lecture, what is wrong with space travel in most science fiction?
A. There are no aliens in outer space.
B. There is no way to go faster than light speed.
C. There are many other stars and galaxies.
D. There is nowhere to go in outer space.
Question 33: According to the professor, how long does it take to travel to the closest star to
Earth?
A. Three light years
B. One hundred light years
C. Hundreds light years
D. A million light years
Question 34: What does the professor NOT say about the movie 2001: A Space Odyssey?
A. It is exceptionally good.
B. It portrays gravity correctly.
C. It does not have faster-than-light travel.
D. It does not depict sound in space.
Question 35: What can be inferred about science fiction?
A. Many people do not like watching science fiction.
B. It is costly to make science fiction.
C. Science fiction is not meant to teach us about science.
D. The film Space Odyssey is a famous science fiction.
THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING PAPER.

NOW YOU HAVE 05 MINUTES TO TRANSFER YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER SHEET.

PHẦN 2: ĐỌC HIỂU – VSTEP
Số câu hỏi: 40
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer
sheet.
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In
January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot.
The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He
bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to
limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the
repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of
an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined
with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground.
The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and
spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks
before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look
like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the
parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are
taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten
weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life
by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
1. What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great horned owls C. Nest building of great horned owls
B. Mating rituals of great horned owls D. Habits of young great horned owls
2. The phrase "a resonant hoot" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 1 8
A. an instrument B. a sound C. a movement D. an offering of food
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls _____.
A. takes place on the ground C. happens in the fall
B. is an active process D. involves the male alone
4. According to the passage, great horned owls _____.
A. are discriminate nest builders C. may inhabit a previously used nest
B. need big nests for their numerous eggs D. build nests on tree limbs
5. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To initiate the courtship ritual C. To sit on the nest
B. To feed the young D. To build the nest
6. The phrase "precious charges" in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. the eggs C. the hawks and crows
B. the nest D. other nesting owls
7. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT
A. other small birds B. insects C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds
8. The word "they" in the passage refers to _____.
A. the wise old men B. the adult birds C. the young birds D. the prey
9. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned
owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
C. They probably don't see their young after November.
D. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
10. The phrase "weary of" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. tire of B. become sad about C. support D. are attracted to
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United
States could either buy steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons, and their livestock or
- as happened more often- simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland
trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively
fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants
would pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent
ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points.
Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the
northwest; in fact, emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying
on the paddle-wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.
At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks and directions, asked
questions of others as green as themselves, and made their final decisions about outfitting. They had
various, sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two-wheel carts or wagons
could be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and
slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and for a wife who likely as not was
pregnant. Everybody knew that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be
overturned by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand — but
maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers,
with their farm background, were used to wagons.
A. Important river towns C. The advantages of traveling by wagon
B. Getting started on the trip west D. Choosing a point of departure
12. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about travel east of the Missouri
EXCEPT that it _____.
A. was faster than in the West C. took place on good roads
B. was easier than in the West D. was usually by steamboat
13. The phrase "jump-off point" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. a bridge across a river B. a point of departure C. a gathering place D. a trading post
14. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be
farthest west?
A. Independence B. St. Joseph C. Westport D. Fort Leavenworth
15. The word "preeminent" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. oldest B. superior C. most easily reached D. closest
16. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants _____.
A. knew a lot about travel
B. were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes
C. left from the same place in Missouri
D. preferred wagon travel to other types of travel
17. The word "neophyte" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. eager B. courageous C. prosperous D. inexperienced
18. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation
from the Missouri River to the West EXCEPT _____.
A. a wagon B. a riverboat C. a pack animal D. a two-wheel cart
19. The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. hitting B. orienting C. departing D. marking
20. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the emigrants
EXCEPT _____.
A. the speed at which it could travel C. its familiarity and size
B. its bulk D. its cost

Alexander the Great commissioned the city of Alexandria to create a Mediterranean stronghold in
Egypt to rival Rome and cities in Greece. He died before his idea came to fruition, but his successors built
it into one of the greatest cities of the Hellenistic world. The Royal Library of Alexandria has achieved an
almost mythical status among scholars of classical studies. As with many ancient topics, scholarship on
the matter often conflicts and relies heavily on hearsay and supposition. We will examine the importance
of the library during its heyday and how it operated.
As with many ancient landmarks, there is much debate and controversy over Alexandria's library,
especially regarding its destruction. The tale has been retold by countless historians and attributed to just
as many different factions and rulers, not to profile this landmark of education, but as a tool for political
slander. It is estimated that there are over 4000 writings regarding its destruction, yet very little data exists
regarding the structure, layout, organization, administration, or whereabouts of the complex. The accuracy
of the available information is suspect. However, 20th century scholars have reached some general
consensus from the remaining sources.
Most historians have come to the conclusion that the original library (also known as the Temple of the
Muses) was commissioned by Ptolemy I, Alexander's key general. More accurately, it was commissioned
by the Athenian exile Demetrius of Phaleron under Ptolemy l's patronage. Traditionally it was attributed
to his son Ptolemy II. However, it was later shown that Demetrius was antagonistic toward Ptolemy II and
did not survive for much of his reign. Ptolemy II can be seen as responsible for the fruition and completion
of the library and museum complex. H.G. Wells asserts that Ptolemy and his son encouraged 'a blaze of
knowledge and discovery at Alexandria' through their funding of the library and other endowments.
The library itself was not a 'library' in the modern etymology. In fact, the library was essentially a
collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to expand scientific and philosophical wisdom and
musings brought about because of the ambition and drive of Ptolemy I. It was not the first institution
of its type, developing about a half-century after Plato's Academy and Aristotle's Lyceum. About 30-50
scholars were probably permanently housed there, fed, and funded, first by the royal family, and later,
according to an early Roman scroll, by public money. It served a religious, as well as an intellectual,
function and it was the centerpiece of a so-called cult of the muses, governed by a priest.
[A] The library's output was created through observation and deduction in math, medicine, astronomy,
and geometry, the editing of texts and manuscripts, and debating various advances in Western knowledge.
[B] For two or three generations, the scientific output at Alexandria was considerably good. Its
achievements included the introduction of the first steam engine, the first star map, and an astoundingly
accurate estimate of the Earth's diameter. [C] Famous scholars employed there included Euclid,
Eratosthenes, Apollonius, and Hero. [D]
The library may have consisted of a group of buildings, including lecture halls, study rooms, dining
rooms, gardens, and an astronomical observatory. In organization of the library, it is believed that, in the
time of Ptolemy II, the scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general category. From the time
of Callimachus onwards, they used an early iteration of a subject catalog. Subject divisions outlined by
Callimachus included mathematics, medicine, astronomy, and geometry, as well as philology. At its peak,
it is estimated about 600,000 scrolls were held within its walls, although that is likely an overstatement.
The Ptolemys achieved their goal of creating the largest collection of its kind by varied and often
forceful means. At the time of its founding, Greek libraries were usually collections of manuscripts by
private individuals. Ptolemy had a vision to collect all accepted literature on all matters scientific,
philosophical and spiritual. The library tried to get copies of all known books and would send agents far
and wide to acquire them. Ptolemy III wrote a letter "to all the world's sovereigns" asking to borrow their
books. On more than a few occasions, scribes made copies and kept the originals. Supposedly, all ships
entering Alexandria's harbor were searched for books to copy.
The Royal Library of Alexandria was created at an ideal time and place in world history. It was able
to combine the deductive techniques of Greek thought toward the learning of other world cultures. As
such, it holds a legendary position among historians as an important center of classical knowledge.
Although much of the story has been buried with time and conflict, the importance and significance of its
contributions is clear.
21. All of the following sentences express important ideas in the passage EXCEPT _____.
A. The library was essentially a collection of scholars and scribes encouraged to expand
scientific and philosophical wisdom.
B. In the time of Callimachus, the scrolls were haphazardly stored and grouped by general
category.
C. It is estimated that there were over 4000 writings about its destruction, yet very little
evidence exists.
D. The library tried to get copies of all known books and would employ several methods of
acquiring them.
22. The word "factions" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. sections B. insubordinates C. cliques D. conspiracies
23. The word "its" in the passage refers to
A. data C. the Royal Library of Alexandria
B. education D. destruction
24. The author mentions "its destruction" in the passage in order to _____.
A. introduce the idea that the destruction was caused by natural disaster
B. illustrate that there are so many arguments surrounding its demise and disappearance
C. indicate the difference between its destruction and other libraries destruction
D. highlight the difference between the library and other historic sites
25. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. Commissioned by Ptolemy I, the Royal Library was a place where people who wanted to learn
gathered to study and record their philosophies.
B. The library was a large building where students gathered to research and study.
C. Philosophers often visited the library to further their studies.
D. Many people gathered at the Royal Library in Alexandria in order to socialize with their
friends.
26. According to paragraph 6, what was true about the early iteration of a subject catalog?
A. All the books were grouped within two general categories.
B. The books were chosen for their innovation, thematic impact, and popular appeal.
C. The librarians organized the collection of books systematically.
D. The library achieved an astonishing collection and many developments.
27. The word "overstatement" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. estimation B. falsehood C. exaggeration D. presumption
28. Which of the following can be inferred about the Royal Library from the passage?
A. Most of the manuscripts from the library are preserved in modem museums.
B. Several writings from the library have been scanned and can be viewed on the Internet.
C. Little of the manuscripts contained in the library are in existence today.
D. The library is currently being reconstructed.
29. According to historians, all of the following were true about the Royal Library of Alexandria
EXCEPT
A. It probably contained over 600,000 writings.
B. Little is known of its exact location.
C. It was responsible for the first star map.
D. It was the largest and most magnificent library in history.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the
passage.
It remained an important intellectual center for over 500 years until numerous fires and other
problems eroded its significance.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
B.
The Pacific Ocean contains approximately 20,000 to 30,000 islands. Islands, excluding Australia, that
are south of the Tropic of Cancer are grouped into three divisions: Melanesia, Micronesia, and Polynesia.
Melanesia includes the nation of Papua New Guinea, provinces of Indonesia, and the Solomon Islands.
Micronesia means ‘small islands,’ most of which are north of the equator. Finally, Polynesia, which means
‘many islands,’ includes the Hawaiian Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Easter Island, among others. Migrants
from South East Asian cities were the first settlers. The next wave of migrants populated New Guinea,
gradually spreading to Fiji. The last of the Pacific islands to be settled was Polynesia. Hawaii was
discovered sometime between the 7th and 13th centuries.
Bats were the only mammals on these islands until the arrival of the first humans. Birds adapted to
environmental niches, like grazers and insectivores. Due to the cool and humid location, New Zealand
lost plants and animals, like the giant flightless bird, that were intolerant of its climate. However, the
extinction coincided with the arrival of the Melanesians, so it was probably caused by hunting and fires.
Adding to that, mining and a natural drought destroyed a majority of the natural habitat. This was repeated
on Easter Island, where early settlers wiped out 22 species of sea birds and land birds. By the time the
Europeans had arrived, most of the plant life was extinct and nearly 30% of the forests were cleared.
The invasion of New Zealand by the Europeans resulted in a complete transformation of the island,
importing over 3,198 species of plants and animals and filling most of the wetlands. Australia also
imported animals and plants from many Pacific island countries. Sheep, pigs, goats and foxes were brought
to Australia, which further disrupted the native ecosystems. Many plants and animals are presently
endangered.
The plants and animals that inhabit Pacific islands are found nowhere else on earth. They are often
adapted to specific habitats and live on a small part of a few islands. New Caledonia is an island that has
been isolated from other lands for over 80 million years. 66 percent of the plant life there evolved on the
island. Numerous plant species, unique in the world, are on a small area of one mountain and are
represented by only a few specimens.
This varied genetic heritage is of such scientific importance that New Caledonia has been listed as one
of the ten hot spots where the primary forest is in danger of extinction. It also boasts 68 species of bird;
the most diverse bird life in the Southwest Pacific.
During the first Ice Age, ocean levels were much lower than they are at present. Levels in the shallow
seas, now separating Asia from North America near the present-day Bering strait, dropped approximately
300 feet, creating 1,000 miles of grassland plain. Called the ‘Bering Land Bridge,’ this linked Asia and
North America together. The Bering Sea has a long history of stable animal populations, despite the harsh
environments, which sustain human life. Lemmings, ox, and mammoths all made the journey across the
land bridge. Although mammoths have been extinct for quite a while now, the other two have remained.
Pacific walruses inhabit shallow waters of the Bering Sea during winter. They congregate to feed on
clams, their principal food. [A] This type of feeding releases nutrients into the water, providing food for
starfish and increasing the roughness of the sea floor. [B] Actual impact of the ecology of bottom
communities is unknown, but walruses, along with other animals like beavers and sea otters, have
huge effects on the biological communities they occupy. [C] Animals such as seals, bowhead whales,
and walruses are important for the subsistence of their community. [D]
Pacific islands have the same pollution and over fishing problems as most countries. Destructive forms
of fishing in Asian nations have taken their toll on marine animals such as birds and tuna. Many of these
nations have now entered joint venture agreements to enable them to develop their marine resources more
efficiently.
31. The word "populated" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. inhabited B. exiled C. traveled D. governed

32. The word "it" in the passage refers to
A. arrival B. extinction C. climate D. hunting
33. Why does the author mention "The invasion of New Zealand by the Europeans" in the
passage?
A. To demonstrate its destructive effect on local ecosystems
B. To explain how many of New Zealand’s species came into being
C. To show the lack of responsibility that early settlers had toward new places
D. To draw a comparison to the way Australia expanded in the Pacific
34. According to paragraph 5, what is unique about the Pacific Islands?
A. They have a long history of traditional management approaches for marine resources.
B. They are home to rare and unique animals.
C. They are made up of 66% plant life.
D. They have all been damaged by European settlers.
35. The word "specimens" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. genres B. features C. examples D. images
36. According to paragraph 7, how has the Bering Sea aided life forms in the past?
A. By providing creatures with plentiful food
B. By being home to a diverse and varied ecosystem
C. By allowing transit across the great iceshelves in the Americas
D. By keeping creatures cool and comfortable in the ice
37. According to the passage, which of the following is true of walruses?
A. They protect the surrounding ecosystem by preventing over-fishing.
B. Their unique feeding habits enrich the ecosystem with nutrients.
C. They are solitary animals which hunt and eat by themselves.
D. They are usually found living in the deepest regions of the Bering Sea.
38. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Although ecological impacts are not known, many species are largely dependent on animals
occupying a sub-level.
B. The true biological diversity of all the walruses is revealed only below the species level.
C. Beavers and otters are strongly related to the walrus family because there is a clear cause-effect
relationship.
D. There is a great deal that still needs to be learned about biological communities and ecosystems.
39. According to paragraph 9, what measures have been taken to protect sea creatures?
A. Protection agencies have begun guarding areas known for high fish population.
B. Destructive fishing methods such as drag-nets have been outlawed.
C. Agreements have been made to ensure that marine resources are used carefully.
D. Restrictions have been placed on amounts permitted to be fished in certain areas.

passage.
Walruses blow the clams loose with a jet of water, then suck them from their shells.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
THIS IS THE END OF THE READING PAPER.

NOW PLEASE SUBMIT YOUR TEST PAPER AND YOUR ANSWER SHEET.

PHẦN 3: VIẾT – VSTEP
Số câu hỏi: 2
Task 1:
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You live in Ho Chi Minh City. You moved to Manchester to study English three months ago.
You have just received an email from a friend of mine, Sara from London. Read part of her
email below.
….
What’s Manchester like? I bet the weather’s not too good!
Have you still got that part-time job in the fast-food restaurant? It must be a good way of
speaking to new people and making friends.
What about the family you’re staying with? Do you go out much in the evening? I hope the
English classes are going well.
……………..
Sara
Write a reply to Sara. In your email, you have to describe Manchester and the weather there, tell
her about your part-time job, the family you are staying with, and your activities in the evening,
and finally you have to write about your English classes there.
You should write at least 120 words.
VSTEP – WRITING MOCK TEST 1 17

Task 2:

Write about the following topic:
In order to solve traffic problems, Vietnamese government should tax private car owners
heavily and use the money to improve public transportation.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of such a solution?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or
knowledge.

PHẦN 4: NÓI - VSTEP SPEAKING
Số câu hỏi: 3
Part 1: Social Interaction (3’)

Let’s talk about walking.
- Do you like walking? When and where do you walk?
- Do you think walking is important?
- Do you think walking in the countryside is better than walking in the city?
Let’s talk about your eating habits.
- Do you often eat healthy food?
- What do you usually eat at school/ at work?
- What is the unhealthiest food you can think of?
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’)
Situation: You are choosing a birthday gift for your friend. There are three suggestions: a book,
a music show ticket, and a shopping coupon. Which do you think is the best choice?
VSTEP- SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 19

Part 3: Topic Development (5’)
Topic: Cheap air travel should be promoted.
Offers a flexible
travelling mode
Reduces travelling Cheap air travel Your own idea

costs
Creates business
opportunities
- Do you think that governments should encourage cheap flights?

- Are there any problems with low-cost air travel?
- Cheap air tickets should be offered on domestic flights or international flights?
VSTEP- SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 20

VSTEP
COLLECTION 2
Số câu hỏi: 35
sheet.
Goodbye.

Question 1: Who is probably making talking on the phone?
A. The receptionist at a hotel
B. The receptionist at a dentist’s
C. A travel agent
D. A real estate agent

Question 2: Why has the meeting been relocated?
A. Because a building is being renovated
B. Because the North Tower is being painted
C. Because the South Tower is sold
D. Because the North Tower is more spacious
Question 3: What is the main cause of decreased domestic sales?
A. A weak economy
B. Competition
C. Retail clothing sector
D. Domestic economy
Question 4: What should the listeners do before they skate?
A. Get permission from the safety coordinator
B. Wear the proper safety equipment
C. Pay a nominal fee
D. Have membership cards
Question 5: What profession does the speaker work in?
A. Sports therapy
B. Sports broadcasting
C. Physical training
D. Sports fashion
Question 6: What is the purpose of Ricardo's visit?
A. To train staff members
B. To oversee a project
C. To learn business methods
D. To see a client
Question 7: What kind of business would be making this announcement?
A. A gas station
B. A hotel
C. A restaurant
D. A store
Question 8: Why has confidence increased?
A. Because of increased investment
B. Because of low inflation
C. Because of higher production
D. Because of government data

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated.
There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B,
C or D.
Question 9: What is the problem?
A. The woman does not know how to get to the man's office.
B. The copy machine is not working properly.
C. The man is late for his appointment.
D. The woman can't go to the office today.
Question 10: Who most likely is the man?
A. An auto mechanic
B. A photocopier technician
C. A new assistant
D. A coffee shop owner
Question 11: What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. To have a clinic check-up
B. To turn off the machine
C. To check the inside paper jam
D. To call another technician
Question 12: When will the man most likely get to the woman's office?
A. In the morning
B. During lunch
C. In the afternoon
D. In the evening

Question 13: What is the woman's problem?
A. She lost a library book.
B. She does not know where Germany is.
C. The library does not have a book she needs.
D. The library will not let her sign out a book.
Question 14: Why does the woman need to find the book?
A. She wants to borrow it for a friend.
B. She wants it for her essay.
C. She wants to learn about computer systems.
D. She wants to collect it.
Question 15: What does the man offer to do for the woman?
A. He will help her to locate the material she wants from other libraries.
B. He will ask his friends about the material she needs.
C. He asks her to go to the nearest library.
D. He asks her to go to the book store.
Question 16: What if the woman borrows more than 5 books from other libraries?
A. She has to return the books earlier than usual.
B. She has to pay a small service charge.
C. She has to fill in a special form.
D. She has to deposit.

Question 17: When is the woman supposed to meet James?
A. At noon
B. At four o’clock
C. At four fifteen
C. At ten o’clock
Question 18: What can be inferred about James?
A. The low cost of the repair work
B. The free service they provided
C. The competitive price of their products
D. The length of the warranty period
Question 19: What is true about the man?
A. He is a friend of Jane’s and James’.
B. He is Jane’s teacher.
C. He doesn’t know James.
D. He is an irresponsible man.
Question 20: Why does Jane have this appointment?
A. To meet her old friends
B. To complain about James’ behavior
C. To prepare for her exam
D. To have an interview

Question 21: What did the woman do last night?
A. Studied for a final test
B. Worked on her paper
C. Stayed in the computer lab
D. Turned the paper in early
Question 22: What is probably true about the woman?
A. She called Professor Kensington and asked for an extension.
B. She had her friend help to complete her paper.
C. She had plenty of time to complete her paper last night.
D. She completed his paper without help from anyone else.
Question 23: What can be inferred about the man?
A. He is too unhappy to express his anger to the woman.
B. He does not feel the extension was necessary at all.
C. He understands the reasoning behind the extension.
D. He is planning to hand in the paper today no matter what.
Question 24: What is the extension for the assignment submission?
A. They have 1 more day.
B. They have 2 more days.
C. They have 1 more week.
D. They have 2 more weeks.
Question 25. What is the woman probably going to do next?
A. She is going to revise the paper.
B. She is going to talk with the professor.
C. She is going to submit her paper.
D. She is going to prepare for the exam.
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following conversation.

Question 26: Who is professor Atkins?
A. A math teacher
B. A physics teacher
C. A chemistry teacher
D. A laboratory manager
Question 27: What is the acceptable range of difference off the textbook?
A. 4% or 5%
B. 10%
C. Less than 10%
D. 45 %
Question 28: What will the woman most likely do?
A. Redo the experiment in the evenings
B. Ask the professor for more time
C. Hand in the experiment as it is
D. Lower her results by 10% from the textbook
Question 29: When is the experiment due day?
A. Tomorrow
B. Next week
C. Tuesday
D. Friday
Question 30: What does the professor advice Julie to do?
A. Spend more time in the lab
B. Clean the tubes before the experiment
C. Ask someone to help her
D. Meet him after class hours in the lab

Question 31: What is true about Alaska?
A. It is the second largest state in the USA.
B. It is bordered by Canada on the East.
C. It is smaller than California and Texas combined.
D. It is populous.
Question 32: What is the average number of students in a middle school classroom?
A. 10 C. 20
B. 15 D. 25
Question 33: Which of the following is a popular transportation system in Alaska?
A. Airplanes
B. Ships
C. Railways
D. A complex highway system
Question 34: What will the professor probably talk about in the next class?
A. The volcanic eruption of Mount Katmai in the early 20th century.
B. The type of airplanes used by Alaskans to move from point to point.
C. The amount of food imported by the Alaskans to balance out their miniscule farming
production.
D. The effects of seismic sea waves that reach tar inland and destroy communities.
Question 35: What does the professor feel about life in Alaska?
A. It is a fantastic place to dwell for anyone.
B. It is probably not very desirable for some to live in.
C. It is not a place that he knows much about.
D. It is a peaceful place without any worries to think about.

NOW YOU HAVE 05 MINUTES TO TRANSFER YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER
SHEET.

Số câu hỏi: 40
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, for each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
sheet.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them
to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the
substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive
to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy,
since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems.
You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The
most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and
tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his
intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set
off by foods containing tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common
foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken
livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some
people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6
and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially
colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers,
peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why
Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is
A. reactions to foods C. infants and allergies
B. food and nutrition D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to_____.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. indications B. diet C. diagnosis D. prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. overly active B. unusually low activity C. excited D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant's_____.
A. lack of teeth C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
B. poor metabolism D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" in the passage refers to
A. food additives C. innutritious foods
B. food colorings D. foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT_____.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination against women in business,
the demands of caring for families, and lack of business training had kept the number of women
entrepreneurs small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than $40 billion in
annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt
Gray, an official of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the decade of women
entering management, and the 1980s turned out to be the decade of the woman entrepreneur."

What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as more women earn advanced degrees
in business and enter the corporate world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from most
executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant, had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if
they got an MBA and worked hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out that
isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own."
In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields cosmetics and clothing, for
example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software
business. It was founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with degrees in math and
engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business, her first product was software that let weekly
newspapers keep tabs on their newspaper carriers and her office was a bedroom at home, with a shoebox
under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she succeeded with the newspaper software system, she
hired several bright computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these were
marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees, and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million
of stock.
Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as men often do. They still face
hurdles in the business world, especially problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned by women are still quite small. But
the situation is changing; there are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.
11. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the
business world.
B. The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
C. Women are better at small businesses than men are.
D. Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
12. The word "excluded" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. not permitted in
B. often invited to
C. decorators of
D. charged admission to
13. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business
world EXCEPT_____.
A. women were required to stay at home with their families
B. women lacked ability to work in business
C. women faced discrimination in business
D. women were not trained in business
14. The word "that" in the passage refers to_____.
A. a woman becomes chairman of the board
B. women working hard
C. women achieving advanced degrees
D. women believing that business is a place for them
15. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s_____.
A. were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
B. were still more interested in education than business opportunities
C. had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
D. were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
16. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the third paragraph in order to_____.
A. show the frugality of women in business
B. show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
C. point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig's business were limited
D. suggest that the company needed to expand
17. The word "this" in the passage refers to_____.
A. women becoming entrepreneurs C. women working in "women's fields"
B. women buying cosmetics and clothing D. women staying at home
18. The expression "keep tabs on" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. recognize the appearance of C. provide transportation for
B. keep records of D. pay the salaries of
19. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by
women are small because_____.
A. women prefer a small intimate setting
B. women can't deal with money
C. women are not able to borrow money easily
D. many women fail at large businesses
20. The author's attitude about the future of women in business is_____.
A. skeptical B. optimistic C. frustrated D. negative
Symbiosis is a close ecological relationship between two dissimilar organisms. They assist each other
with feeding, defending, and reproducing. In symbiosis, at least one of the pair benefits from the
relationship. The other may be injured (parasitism), unaltered (commensalism), or may also benefit
(mutualism).
An interesting mutually dependent relationship exists between the pine and the pinon jay. Blue pinon
jays settle on the tops of pine trees and pick at the dark round seeds from the sticky cones. They store the
seeds in their throats, fly off and hide them somewhere, and then return to repeat the process again. It
seems the reproductive cycle of a pine jay corresponds with the ripening of the pine’s seed. Similarly,
the pine is dependent on the pinon jays for distribution of the seeds.

Seeds are stored in the bark of a tree or in the ground. Using their long bills, pinon jays plant and store
them for later consumption. Their throats can expand to hold a large number of seeds; one pinon jay has
been reported carrying 50 seeds in one trip. After they have planted the seeds, they return to eat them.
Using their bills like a woodpecker, they hammer the seed until the shell breaks. Any unrecovered nuts
are then grown into new trees. This fascinating relationship has been ongoing for thousands of years.
When both species benefit each other, this is called mutualism. An example of mutualism is a plant
and fungi. The fungus occupies the cortex cells of the secondary roots of the plant. This relationship is
called a ‘mycorrhiza.’ It helps the plant absorb inorganic nitrogen and phosphorus from the soil. Some
fungi also produce antibiotics which may prevent the invasion of parasitic fungi and bacteria. Another
example of mutualism is pollination. Bees carry pollen from one plant to the next when they seek out
plants for nectar. They feed themselves on the nectar, and the plants reproduce after fertilization by the
pollen from other plants.
Mutualism can also bring together two very different organisms, for example a buffalo and an ox bird.
These birds journey on the backs of African buffalo eating their parasites. The bird receives food, and the
buffalo is rid of irritating insects. There are also a number of fish that provide an excellent example of
mutualism. Known as ‘cleaner fish,’ these fish get rid of parasites and dead skin found on other fish. The
best-known example is the ‘cleaner wrasse,’ which dwells in the Pacific and Indian oceans. They clean
large predatory fish by eating tissue and parasites off their skin. This relationship provides food and
protection for the wrasse and several health benefits for the other fish.
The other two types of symbiosis, besides mutualism, are commensalism and parasitism. [A]
Commensalism refers to a symbiotic relationship where one organism eats the unused food of another.
[B] One benefits, but the other is not affected. Examples include the remora and the shark. The remora
attaches itself to the shark, when the shark feeds itself, the remora picks up scraps. [C] One example of
commensalism in humans is bacteria living in our intestines that feed on food in our gut. [D]
In parasitism, one organism benefits and the other is harmed. Parasites live off the body of other
organisms and receive nourishment from their tissues, while also inflicting damage on their hosts.
Plants are parasitized by bacteria, fungi, and a handful of other plants. Parasites cause harm by entering
the tissue of the host for their own nutritional benefit.
None of these relationships are fixed, and it is likely that what starts as a parasitic relationship may
gradually evolve into a mutualistic one. For example, in 1966, amebas were discovered that had become
infected with bacteria. However, after five years, it was found that the core of the amebas had become
dependent on the bacteria; thus, parasitism had evolved into mutualism. Unfortunately, the inverse is also
possible; mutualistic associations may evolve into parasitic ones.
21. According to paragraph 2, what does the pinon jay do for the pine tree?
A. It gives the tree important nutrition.
B. It provides a primary means of seed dissemination for pinon trees.
C. It keeps the tree free from parasites.
D. It helps the tree produce larger seeds.
22. The word "corresponds" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. matches B. includes C. exposes D. protects
23. According to paragraph 3, how does the blue pinon jay store the seeds for later?
A. By holding up to 50 in its mouth
B. By burying them in the ground
C. By protecting them in its nest
D. By allowing them to develop into new trees
24. The word "It" in the passage refers to_____.
A. bacteria B. mutualism C. mycorrhiza D. fungus
25. According to paragraph 5, what is an example of a mutual relationship?
A. An animal eating parasites from another
B. An animal licking the body of another
C. An animal providing protection for another
D. An animal keeping another awake and alert
26. The author mentions "the remora and the shark" in the passage in order to
A. explain the details behind a mutualist association
B. demonstrate a connection between an active parasite picker and host
C. show how one animal can benefit from the acts of another
D. give an example of one animal causing the suffering of another
information.
A. There are many types of creatures that are very well developed and have the strength to support
other species.
B. Sometimes, the organisms supplying parasites are very harmful to their hosts.
C. Some animals are selfish and only cause damage to their hosts.
D. Organisms which must depend on others die easily because they are not strong.
28. The word "gradually" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. slowly B. increasingly C. constantly D. rapidly
29. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an example of mutualism?
A. A plant and its fungi C. The remora and the shark
B. Pollen transfer from one plant to another D. A buffalo and an ox bird
passage.
They are completely safe and may possibly help us, hence a commensalism relationship.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

Earth has several distinct layers; the outermost of these is the crust, which has an inconsistent thickness
of 35-70 km in the continents and 5-10 km in the ocean basins. The second layer is known as the mantle,
which is about 2900 kms thick, and divided into an upper and lower mantle. Most of Earth’s internal heat
is situated here. The upper mantle has an area known as the low-velocity zone, where secondary waves
decrease rapidly and then gradually increase. The last layer is the core. This is a thick ball of iron and
nickel divided into two layers, the inner core and the outer core.
The inner core is solid, whereas the outer core is so hot that the metal is always molten. However,
because the force at the inner core is so immense, it cannot melt. Due to Earth’s rotation, the outer core
spins around the inner core, which causes the Earth’s magnetism. The inner core consists of iron, nickel
and other elements, probably a mix of carbon, oxygen, sulphur, silicon, and potassium. The temperature
is extremely high, and due to pressure, the core is solid. Because the outer core is liquid, mainly consisting
of iron, nickel and about 10% oxygen and sulphur, here the temperature is not as high.
Both the outer and inner cores together create the Earth’s magnetism. The core has a huge influence
on Earth. Because it is so hot, it radiates a natural heat to the upper layers, setting off a current of heat,
which in turn causes the movement of the tectonic plates. Because of Earth’s rotation, the outer core spins,
but the inner core does not because it is solid. This provides a sort of dynamo effect and causes the Earth’s
magnetic force.
A seismic wave is a wave that travels through Earth; it is often the result of a tectonic earthquake.
There are two kinds of seismic waves, “body waves” and “surface waves.” Other waves do exist, but are
of little importance. Body waves travel through the center of Earth, following ray paths which are bent by
the unstable density and stiffness of Earth’s interior. These differ according to temperature, phase, and
structure. Body waves send out the first tremors of an earthquake as well as any later ones.
There are two kinds of body waves, “primary” and “secondary" waves. Primary waves are
compression waves, meaning the ground is alternately compressed and expanded in the direction of
propagation. These waves can travel slightly faster through solids than secondary waves can, and are also
able to travel through any type of material. Through air, they take the form of sound waves and so travel
at the speed of sound.
Primary waves, when created by an earthquake, are less destructive than sound waves due to their
minor amplitudes. Secondary waves are tilted waves; in other words, the ground is shifted vertically in
the direction of transmission. Here, the ground moves from one side to the other. Secondary waves are
only able to travel through solids, not liquids or gases, and thus are unable to travel through Earth’s core.
Primary waves are faster than secondary waves. Primary and secondary waves are usually produced by
earthquakes and volcanoes. However, they can also be produced by people using explosives or large
machinery.
Surface waves are comparable to water waves traveling just under Earth’s surface. They travel at
slower speeds than body waves. Surface waves can be the most devastating type of seismic wave due to
their low frequency, long duration, and large amplitude. In theory, they are understood as a system which
relates to primary and secondary waves.

[A] The moment an earthquake occurs, seismographs try to record its primary and secondary
waves, but often they cannot detect the secondary waves of a distant earthquake. [B] This may be
due to the fact that secondary waves are unable to pass through liquids. [C] This information about wave
travel helps scientists determine the internal structure of the planet. [D]
31. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the presence of the low-velocity zone in the
Earth’s interior?
A. It causes the high-frequency stimulation.
B. Its width is consistent with the fault zone.
C. It induces regionally extensive oscillations.
D. It is located just above the lower crustal boundary.
32. The word "immense" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. compressed B. dilated C. immeasurable D. varied
33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the inner core?
A. It contributes to the Earth's magnetic field.
B. It is always molten and liquid.
C. It is under a lot of pressure.
D. It mainly consists of iron, nickel and some lighter elements.
34. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the reason for tectonic plate movement?
A. The convection of heat from the core
B. The gravitational effect of the core
C. The powerful magnetic forces of the core
D. The spinning of the inner and outer core together
35. Why does the author mention "a tectonic earthquake" in the passage?
A. To show that primary waves are far more powerful than secondary waves
B. To demonstrate the effect of seismic waves on the Earth
C. To develop understanding of the structure of the Earth’s interior
D. To explain that scientific detection methods are very efficient
36. The word "phase" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. change B. period C. heat D. construction
37. The word "devastating" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. faint B. destructive C. productive D. quiet
information.
A. Although primary and secondary waves would be recorded, the secondary waves are not
strong enough to be detected at a distance.
B. Seismic waves are too small to be felt as a noticeable earthquake, but detectable by
seismographs.
C. Secondary waves can be generated as a result of nonlinear interaction, so seismographs
cannot detect them.
D. Because of extensive fault repetition, the primary wave is the most powerful force in an
earthquake.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which of the following
about earthquakes in the world?
A. Volcanoes would not exist if earthquakes never happened.
B. They are caused by the force of primary waves hitting the crust.
C. They are primarily caused by the heat from the Earth’s core.
D. There is no more destructive thing in the world.
passage.
For example, with the use of secondary waves, scientists were able to suggest that Earth has a
liquid outer core.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]


Số câu hỏi: 2
Task 1:
You live in Ho Chi Minh city. You just took a trip to Ha Long Bay with an English friend
named Daisy. You received an email from her after she returned to London. Read part of
her email below.
………..
I hope you like the photos we took in Ha Long Bay. Did you get home all right?
I’m back at work now, but it’s a bit difficult to start again. I wish we were still on holiday.
Why don’t we plan another trip this spring if you’ve got time and money? Any suggestions
where we could go?
………………….
Daisy
Write a reply to Daisy. In your email, you have to tell her that you really like the photos and the
time you got together, describe a problem you had at the airport to her and suggest the time and
place for the next trip.

Task 2:

Recent advances in technology leads the fact that human workforce is gradually replaced
with machinery.
What are some problems caused by this trend, and how could they be dealt with?
knowledge.

Số câu hỏi: 3
Let’s talk about weather.

- What kind of weather do you like?
- Does weather affect your mood/ feeling?
- What do you usually do in hot/ cold weather?
Let’s talk about your favorite childhood game.
- What game(s) did you enjoy playing when you were a child?
- Who did you play with?

- Did you need any skills to play the game?
Situation: You are planning your holiday. There are three suggestions: a beach holiday, a
climbing holiday, and a sight-seeing holiday. Which do you think is the best choice for you?
VSTEP – SPEAKING MOCK TEST 2 38

Topic: Music should be taught in schools.
Can be relaxing
Improves memory Music education Your own idea
Helps develop language

and reasoning
- Should children be encouraged to learn music early?

- Do you agree that music can change people’s moods/ feelings?
- How would life be like without music?

VSTEP
COLLECTION 3
Số câu hỏi: 35
sheet.
Goodbye.

Question 1: Why is the speaker apologizing?
A. To schedule a checkup
B. To delay a meeting
D. To request some files
Question 2: Why would Daniel Jergens like to reschedule the meeting?

A. To satisfy a request from Barrier Associates
B. To complete the purchase more quickly
C. To reconsider the contract
D. To avoid the severe weather condition
Question 3: Why will the information technology division be relocating earlier?
A. Because of an increase in staff
B. Because of an interruption of network service
C. Because of the full relocation
D. Because of the high release costs
Question 4: What is the message mainly about?
A. A question about substituting order items
B. A question about the number of the items
C. The list of items that will be delivered
D. The shipping service that will be used
Question 5: What is the purpose of the talk?
A. To address customer complaints
B. To discuss a presentation
C. To celebrate a new contract
D. To hand out assignments
Question 6: Who most likely is the speaker?
A. A landlord
B. A business executive
C. A real estate agent
D. A police officer
Question 7: What will be provided for the travelers?
A. A free flight
B. Meal vouchers
C. Winter clothing
D. Hotel rooms
Question 8: What is the celebration for?
A. A merger
B. An anniversary
C. A new CEO
D. A stock offering

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be
repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct
answer A, B, C or D.
Question 9: Where most likely is the plumber now?
A. He is having lunch.
B. He is working somewhere else.
C. He is at home relaxing.
D. He is doing a favor for the man.
Question 10: When is the plumber expected to arrive?
A. At one o'clock
B. At two o'clock
C. At three o'clock
D. At four o'clock
Question 11: Where is the man going?
A. To meet a client
B. To talk to the plumber
C. To fix the pipe
D. To have lunch
Question 12: When will the man come back to his office?
A. At one o'clock
B. At two o'clock
C. At three o'clock
D. At four o'clock

Question 13: When is the conference scheduled to take place?
A. Today
B. Tomorrow
C. Next week
D. Next month
Question 14: Why will John miss the conference?
A. He is going on a business trip.
B. He is taking a vacation in Europe.
C. He has too much work.
D. He has to review the videos.
Question 15: Where has the man just been to for a business trip?
A. Chicago
B. Toronto
C. Europe
D. Asia
Question 16: Why is the man thanking the woman?
A. She offered to give him a ride.
B. She will lend him her video recorder.
C. She will go to the seminar in his place.
D. She will record the sessions he wants to see.

Question 17: Where is the conversation most likely taking place?
A. In a truck
B. At the bus stop
C. In a warehouse
D. At an electronics store
Question 18: When will the computers arrive at the store??
A. In five minutes
B. In fifteen minutes
C. By this evening
D. By tomorrow morning
Question 19: Who most likely the man is?
A. A manager
B. A director
C. A secretary
D. A blue worker
Question 20: What will the man do next?
A. Call the electronics shop
B. Talk to the truck driver
C. Turn on the computer
D. Lift some boxes
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following lecture.

Question 21: What is the main topic in this lecture?
A. Russian leaders
B. The Cold War
C. The wars between the USSR and the US
D. The impacts of the Cold War
Question 22: Why did the US and the USSR never actually fight each other?
A. Because the USSR had nuclear weapons
B. Because the US were afraid of Stalin
C. Because they did not want to destroy the world.
D. Because nuclear power could destroy the US
Question 23: According to the professor, how long did the Cold War last?
A. Around 50 years
B. Around 60 years
C. Around 70 years
D. Around 80 years
Question 24: What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The Cold War was caused by different opinions.
B. The Cold War was a long, violent war between the US and USSR.
C. The Cold War was an important time in history of the US and the USSR.
D. The Cold War changed the world dramatically.
Question 25. How does the professor describe the main topic?
A. By comparing and contrasting
B. By giving examples
C. By listing the events chronologically
D. By giving definitions

Question 26: What is the lecture mainly about?
A. The way the eye sees colors.
B. The steps to painting in a Neo-impressionism style
C. The artists who learned from Seurat
D. The difference between painting styles
Question 27: What is the professor's opinion of this style of painting?
A. He thinks painting in brush strokes is a better way.
B. He is surprised that so many artists are good at it.
C. He thinks it is difficult to learn.
D. He doesn't like it.
Question 28: According to the professor, why did Seurat not blend his paints?
A. He thought it would ruin the paints.
B. He thought mixed paints did not look real.
C. He thought blended paints made paintings look too divided.
D. He thought it would make the art bright.
Question 29: What is true about Georges Seurat?
A. He was the best artist at his time.
B. He was proud of his painting style.
C. He used brush strokes to make the pictures brighter.
D. He didn’t spend a lot of time to finish his paintings.
Question 30: How did the professor organize the information about this way of painting?
A. By describing only Seurat's style
B. By describing only other styles
C. By comparing Seurat and other Neo-impressionists
D. By comparing Neo-impressionism and other styles

Question 31: What is the lecture about?
A. The feeding habits of snakes
B. How certain snakes protect themselves
C. The most dangerous snakes in the world
D. The different uses of snake poison
Question 32: Why does the professor discuss the beads on a rattlesnake 's tail?
A. To show how the rattlesnake is more dangerous than other snakes
B. To compare the rattlesnake to less scary animals
C. To explain how the rattlesnake scares off animals
D. To describe how the rattlesnake uses its tail to hunt
Question 33: According to the professor, where does the spitting cobra spray its poison?
A. At the animal it is hunting
B. At other snakes
C. At the tongue of an animal that is attacking it
D. At the eyes of an animal that is attacking it
Question 34: What is the professor's attitude towards the hognose snake?
A. She is amazed by it.
B. She thinks that it is stupid.
C. She thinks that it is the best snake.
D. She thinks that it is the most dangerous.
Question 35: What can be inferred from the lecture?
A. The spitting cobra rattles its tail.
B. The hognose snake pretends to be sick.
C. Beads in a rattlesnake's tail make the sound.
D. There are no creatures that eat snakes.


Số câu hỏi: 40
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D for each question.
Then, on your answer sheete, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
sheet.
This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial circumstances of the last half of
the 19th century were accompanied by the development of a national literature of great abundance and
variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors, new audiences all emerged in
the literature of this half century. As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance of
American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center of production had shifted from Boston to
New York in the late 1880s and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer was it
produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn, typically moralistic men from New England
and the Old South; no longer were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young people
the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were these narratives to be set in exotic places and
remote times; no longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the chief acceptable forms
of literary expression; no longer, finally, was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In
sum, American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure the condition Walt Whitman
called for in 1867 in describing Leaves of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and
region as peers “and expands from them, and includes the world connecting an American citizen with the
citizens of all nations”. At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been designated "the
literature of argument," powerful works in sociology, philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by
the spirit of exposure and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century as an
autonomous international political, economic, and military power, so did its literature establish itself as a
producer of major works.
1. The main idea of this passage is_____.
A. that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
B. that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
C. that centers of culture shifted from East to West

D. that most people were wary of the new literature
2. It can be inferred that the previous passage probably discussed_____.
A. the importance of tradition to writers
B. new developments in industrialization and population shifts
C. the fashions and values of 19th century America
D. the limitations of American literature to this time
3. The word "evolved" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. became famous B. turned back C. diminished D. changed
4. The word "it" in the passage refers to
A. the population B. the energy C. American literature D. the manufacturing
5. The word "exotic" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. urban B. unusual C. well-known D. old-fashioned
6. The author uses the word "indeed" in the passage for what purpose?
A. To emphasize the contrast he is making
B. For variety in a lengthy paragraph
C. To wind down his argument
D. To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
7. The phrase "these years" in the passage refers to_____.
A. 1850-1900 B. the 1900s C. the early 1800s D. the present
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman_____.
A. disliked urban life C. wrote Leaves of Grass
B. was disapproving of the new literature D. was an international diplomat
9. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT____.
A. It was not highly regarded internationally.
B. It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings.
C. It broke with many literary traditions of the past.
D. It spoke to the issue of reform and change.
10. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
A. European history
B. American literature
C. Current events
D. International affairs
When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan's elegant stone Missouri farmhouse on
September 26,1820, the surge of emigrants along the Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone
already exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical giant (five feet nine) nor the
innocent child of nature that legend has made of him. He was an intelligent, soft spoken family man who
cherished the same wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred company to solitude, and when he
told his wife it was time to move because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was joking.
Pennsylvania- born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers who migrated to North Carolina.
There Boone was recruited at age 40 to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers and
establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000
worth of goods to Boone's employers, the Transylvania Company. It was all fair and square the Indians
had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound advice of their squaws. The deal completed, Boone led a
party from Tennessee through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set up a town
Boonesboro and a government. Elected a legislator, he introduced on the first session's first day a bill to
protect game against wanton slaughter and a second bill to "improve the breed of horses." He got 2,000
acres for his work, but after the Revolution in which Boone won considerable fame as a militia commander
the scheme of the Transylvania Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his land. Undaunted, he
staked out more claims and lost them because he impatiently neglected to register his deeds. Ever hopeful,
he accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to come and settle there and bring others with him.
The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced
Missouri, again left him but not his children landless. Old and broke, Boone cheerfully continued hunting
and trapping long after his hands shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking knowledgeably with young
men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.
11. What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?
A. To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
B. To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
C. To show Boone's many successes on the frontier
D. To trace Boone's explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
12. It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was_____.
A. politics B. hunting and trapping C. business D. the military
13. The phrase "fair and square" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______.
A. honest B. simple C. efficient D. lucrative
14. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died_____.
A. a rich man B. an eternal optimist C. in California D. a lonely trapper
15. According to the passage, where is Boone's namesake city located?
A. In North Carolina B. In Transylvania C. In Kentucky D. In Missouri
16. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to
A. settle Kentucky C. be fair to the Indians
B. ensure animal rights D. claim Missouri
17. The word "undaunted" is closest in meaning to_____.
A. unscrupulous B. fearless C. undiscouraged D. uninformed
18. According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase_____.
A. legitimized Boone's land claim in Missouri
B. revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
C. drove the Spanish from the East
D. excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction
19. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone's children?
A. They were better off financially than Boone.
B. They supported Boone's desire to settle new areas.
C. They lived in Kentucky.
D. They had no land due to Boone's bad investments.
20. The author's attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage can be best described as_____.
A. admiring B. critical C. admonishing D. indifferent
The Solar System, as we know it, contains over 178 objects which revolve around our central star, or
the Sun. Some of these objects can be seen from Earth with the unaided eye or an earth-based telescope,
but the majority have only been detected through the development of instruments such as the Hubble
Space Telescope, or unmanned probes like Voyager. These instruments operate outside Earth’s
atmosphere collecting information on the composition and behavior of objects in the Solar System, which
has enabled researchers to hypothesize their origins.
[A] It is generally thought that a cloud of interstellar gas and dust known as a ‘nebula’, was disturbed
by some major event in space, possibly a supernova, about five billion years ago and began to collapse
under its own gravity, forming a cloud. [B] The center of the cloud became so hot that it eventually
exploded into a star with the cooler gases flowing around it. [C] In time, the gases condensed into dust,
metals, and various kinds of ice in the cold outer reaches of space. [D] These solid particles collided with
each other to form larger objects, or asteroids, as they continued to spin around our central star.
As these asteroids increased in size, their gravity began to pull in all the material in their immediate
surroundings, and the largest of these went on to become planets. The very different composition of the
inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars) and the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune
and Uranus) has led astronomers to hypothesize that their distances from the Sun caused them to
develop at different rates and in different ways. According to the most widely-held opinions, the planets
closest to the Sun, where all the ice particles were vaporized due to the incredible heat, were formed
mostly of rock, silicates, and metals with high melting points. These particles collided and were pulled
together by gravity. These inner planets have thin atmospheres or none at all, and few, if any, satellites,
which would indicate that most of the available material was either pulled into their own gravity or burned
away in the heat of the Sun.
The inner and outer planets are separated by an asteroid belt, consisting of material that was not able
to form into planets due to Jupiter’s immense gravity. Beyond this area, as more dust and ice particles
escaped destruction by the Sun, four larger planets formed over a longer period of time in a far colder
environment as material was thrown out from the center by the spinning star's centrifugal force. About a
million years after the cooling of the original nebula, the Sun began to emit a stream of charged protons
and electrons known as solar wind which blew the remaining gases outwards, to be sucked in by the outer
planets which became gas giants. These planets attracted many objects in their vast gravity fields, some
of which are big enough to be termed 'satellites’, and countless smaller fragments which formed rings
around the planets.
The discovery of more objects in the Solar System in recent times has led to the need for further
classification. Far beyond the outer planets lies Pluto, which was originally considered to be the ninth
planet, but which has since been found to be a binary system of two dwarf planets, the other being Charon.
Pluto’s origins may be in the recently discovered Kuiper Belt, the source of many of the comets which
travel through the Solar System. This theory is based on Pluto’s rock/ice composition which is similar to
that of a comet. At one time, also thought to be a moon of Neptune, Pluto/Charon was reclassified in 2006
as one of three dwarf planets discovered so far, the others being Eris and Ceres.
Scientific knowledge is only as good as the ability of scientists to collect evidence, so as new advances
are made in astronomy, the present theories may be disproved, as in the case of Pluto. The above account
represents the consensus of current opinions on the matter.
21. In paragraph 1, what does the author say about the role of the Hubble Space Telescope?
A. It is too defective for our scientists to come up with definite answers to the origin of the
universe.
B. Scientists discovered billions of new planets by combining measurements from the Hubble
Space Telescope with Voyager measurements.
C. It solved the age of the universe and measured the age of what may be the youngest galaxy
ever seen in the universe.
D. It has helped unveil many mysteries or queries about our universe.
22. The word "composition" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. make-up B. musical C. evolution D. revolution
23. The word "disturbed" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. Broken B. attracted C. bothered D. imported
24. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
A. Planets formed from gases and dust particles after comets collided with the Sun.
B. According to scientists, the manner in which planets developed was wholly dependent on their
distance from Jupiter’s rings.
C. The dissimilar make-up of the planets closest to the Sun and those farthest from the Sun
suggests that their distance from the Sun affected their formation.
D. Scientists believe the Sun evolved from the composition of several older planets in the solar
system.
25. According to paragraph 4, the inner and outer planets are separated by what?
A. an asteroid belt B. a star C. comets D. a moon
26. According to the passage, all of the following are true about our solar system EXCEPT_____.
A. Planets nearest the Sun were formed mostly of rock.
B. There continue to be new discoveries as technology improves.
C. Colliding asteroids eventually formed planets.
D. Most of the comets in the solar system can be seen with the naked eye during an annular solar
eclipse.
27. Why does the author mention "Pluto" in paragraph 5?
A. To discuss Pluto's rock/ice composition
B. To introduce the concept of planet formation
C. To show that new discoveries are always occurring
D. To introduce the distinction between planets and dwarf planets
28. It can be inferred from the passage that the planets_____.
A. broke off from the rapidly spinning Moon
B. collided more frequently, to spur the formation and growth of protoplanets
C. were initially asteroids
D. were formed by the collision of massive objects circling a black hole in eccentric orbits
29. According to the passage, what were the universe’s origins?
A. A nebula collapsed under its gravity.
B. A black hole exploded and merged to create the universe.
C. A super being wished it into existence.
D. The Sun collapsed in on itself.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
This cloud began to rotate rapidly as it got smaller and denser and heated up to several thousand
degrees, causing some of its elements to vaporize into gas.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a method of producing electricity developed from the
temperature difference that subsists between deep and shallow waters. It converts solar radiation to electric
power. The system uses the ocean's natural thermal gradient to direct a power-producing cycle. To produce
a significant amount of power, the temperature between warm water on the surface and deep cold water
should differ by about 20 degrees Celsius. On average, 23 million square miles of tropical seas absorb an
amount of solar radiation equal in heat content to about 250 million barrels of oil. If less than one tenth of
this could be converted into electric power, it would provide more than 20 times the total amount of
electricity utilized in America on any given day.
Oceans are a huge renewable resource with the possibility of producing millions of watts of electric
power. Some experts think the cold, deep seawater that is used in the OTEC process is rich in nutrients
and, therefore, can be used to culture marine and plant life on shore or on land.
There are certain conditions which have to be met to enable OTEC to work. First, commercial OTEC
facilities must be located in an environment that is stable enough for efficient system operation. This
means that they must be built on land or submerged on the continental shelf. In addition, the natural ocean
thermal gradient necessary for OTEC operation is generally found between latitudes 20° N and 20° S. The
temperature of the surface water must differ from that of deep water and allowances should be made
for a wide-open space. Tropical islands meet the requirements for a wide space, so they are areas for
OTEC development. Land-based facilities offer advantages. For example, plants do not require extensive
maintenance, and they can be installed in sheltered areas, safe from storms and general bad weather. Land-
based sites allow OTEC plants to function with related industries.
Thermal energy from the ocean was first proposed as far back as 1881. However, it wasn’t until 1930
that a system was built, producing 22kw of electricity. Another was constructed sometime later, but It was
destroyed by waves. In 1980, the U.S department of energy built a site for OTEC heat exchangers on
board a navy ship. Tests revealed that OTEC systems are able to function on slow moving ships and are
of little consequence to the surrounding marine environment.
In 1981, Japan established a closed-cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean, producing 40,000 watts of
electricity. In May 1993, another 50,000 watts of electricity was produced. However, it was an impractical
energy source as the materials used were expensive. Currently, scientists are continuing to develop more
cost effective and open-cycle OTEC systems. An integrated OTEC system can help create
harmonious, self-sustaining island communities, independent of imported fossil fuels and their
associated costs.
Tidal energy is another form of ocean energy caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun,
and the rotation of the Earth. When tides come into shore, they can be trapped in reservoirs behind dams.
Then when the tide lowers, the water behind the dam can be released, functioning similarly to a
hydroelectric power plant. Tidal dams can change the tidal level In the local basin, affecting the
navigation. The prime disadvantage is th e effect a tidal station has on plants and animals. However, tidal
fences, which are also used to channel the energy of tides, have less environmental impact than traditional
sources of power such as fossil fuels or nuclear power, and are cheaper to install.
Turbines are devices with blades attached to a central rod that spin when a force hits the blades. [A]
This spinning motion is extremely practical. The first turbine used was the undershot waterwheel,
probably the oldest type of waterwheel dating back over 2,000 years. [B] Waterwheels and windmills
were the first turbines; their wooden blades captured the power of wind or rivers to lift water for Irrigation
or to rotate huge stones to grind grain. [C] It wasn't until the 1880s, when the generator was first invented,
that people began using turbines to produce electricity. [D]
31. According to paragraph 1, OTEC uses what to produce power?
A. The wave energy stored in the Earth’s oceans
B. The salt in the ocean
C. The seawater temperature differences
D. The tropical oceans’ warm surface water
32. The word "absorb" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. take in C. reject
B. work together with D. make efficient
33. The word "converted" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. consumed B. released C. used D. transformed
34. In paragraph 3, the author mentions "The temperature of the surface water" as an example
of
A. the requirements for the perfect OTEC settlement
B. the specific requirements needed for OTEC to work
C. the careful calculations and considerations needed in OTEC
D. why water based programs are always superior to land-based ones
35. According to paragraph 5, what does the author say was the main problem with the closed
cycle plant in the Pacific Ocean?
A. It was damaged by the salt water.
B. It was environmentally damaging to the area.
C. It could not generate electricity without pollution.
D. The overall cost was far too high to be economically feasible.
information.
A. The beauty of the OTEC system is that it allows islands to be self-sufficient.
B. The OTEC system could prove to lead the world in an age of co-dependency.
C. A completely autonomous, cost effective society could be created by the system.
D. The system could mean that societies are no longer dependent on fossil fuels.
37. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is true of tidal energy?
A. It is derived from the hydrological climate cycle.
B. It is based on the small fluctuation of tide in a given area.
C. It has no environmental and ecological effects on local inhabitants.
D. It needs a barrage to convert tidal energy into electricity.
38. The word "practical" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. unnecessary B. swift C. useful D. sensitive
39. The following are all characteristics of the OTEC system EXCEPT_____.
A. It seeks to harness the temperature difference.
B. It is not technically feasible for the production of base load electricity.
C. It can be practiced on slow moving ships.
D. It can create self-sufficient systems.
passage.
It was turned by water flowing under the wheel and striking the boards.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]


Số câu hỏi: 2
Task 1:
Your English-speaking friend, Clare, has recently gone to live in another city. Read part of
her email below:
………….
Well, I’ve now been here for two weeks and I’m beginning to get used to my new life here. I’ve
certainly been very busy since I moved here - there have been all sorts of things happening!
I’m quite happy in my new home although lots of my belongings are still in bags and boxes!
I’m hoping to find time to unpack everything soon.
I’m glad I decided to come and live here - it’s a really good city. But there are some things and
people that I miss of course!
It would be really good if you could come and stay with me here, perhaps in a couple of months
when I really settle down. What do you think?
Keep in touch.
Clare.
Write a reply to Clare. In your email, you have to ask her what is happening to her, tell her to
describe her new home, ask her to tell you what and who she misses after she moves there and
suggest the time when you can visit her.

Task 2:

Some people argue that we have to think twice before deciding to eat fast food because of
some health problems it may cause, while others believe that this kind of food is a good
choice for those with a very busy life.
Which opinion do you agree with?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.

Số câu hỏi: 3

Let’s talk about noise.
- Do you like to live in a noisy place or a quiet place?
- What kind of noise disturbs you most?
- Does noise affect your health?

Let’s talk about your favorite photograph.
- What is your favorite photograph?
- When was it taken?
- What makes the photograph special to you?
Situation: You are thinking about how to spend your evening. There are three options: hanging
out with friends, reading books, and surfing the Internet. Explain your choice.

Topic: There are several ways for people to make friends.
Joining social events
Forming interest-based How to make Your own idea

groups
friends
Attending parties
- Should people trust online friends? Why or why not?

- What factors can contribute to a true friendship?
- Which one is more important: family or friends?

VSTEP
COLLECTION 4
Số câu hỏi: 35
sheet.
Goodbye.

Question 1: What does the caller ask Ms. Cook to do?
A. Take along her medical insurance card
B. Make an appointment
C. Call the receptionist
D. Drive his car to the clinic
Question 2: Who is Sachiko Suzuki?

A. A job applicant
B. A receptionist
C. A client
D. A personnel officer
Question 3: What is the listener asked to do?
A. Order a new phone
B. Call back
C. Go to the office
D. Contact the speaker
Question 4: What is the purpose of this message?
A. To confirm an order
B. To order some furniture
C. To ask for order information
D. To inform a change
Question 5: What is the main purpose of the call?
A. To reschedule an interview
B. To arrange a class
C. To postpone an exhibition
D. To request an application
Question 6: What is Ms. Kim asked to do?
A. Return a phone call
B. Deliver a printer
C. Meet him on Friday
D. Change the order
Question 7: What is the decreasing percentage of domestic sales?
A. 7 percent
B. 11 percent
C. 17 percent
D. 70 percent
Question 8: What does the speaker say about Rea?
A. She can answer questions about safety equipment.
B. She can teach people how to skate.
C. She can provide safety helmet.
D. She can stake with others.


Question 9: What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Giving a presentation
B. Organizing an essay in a clear way
C. Finding a partner for a class project
D. Finding information and taking notes
Question 10: What does the professor recommend doing when taking notes?
A. Writing as quickly as possible
B. Making a summary
C. Checking the information
D. Getting lots of information
Question 11: What does the professor suggest the woman do?
A. She only needs to read the summary.
B. She should use computers to search for information.
C. She should go to the library to find information.
D. She should organize her notes.
Question 12: What is the likely outcome of using both books and computers as sources?
A. The student will need help doing the research.
B. The student will not be able to finish her project.
C. The student will have plenty of information.
D. The student will like books more than the computer.

Question 13: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. The different sections of the library
B. How to check out library books
C. How to return the due books
D. The use of computer in the library
Question 14: Who is Mr. Baker likely be?
A. A librarian
B. A janitor
C. A shopkeeper
D. A student
Question 15: What does the woman need if she wants to use the self-service machine?
A. Librarian’s permission
B. Library account
C. Money
D. A receipt
Question 16: How does the man explain the solution?
A. By mentioning the ways to check out books
B. By describing which books to check out
C. By giving information about the self-service machine
D. By explaining the procedure of borrowing books

Question 17: Why is the student looking for help?
A. He is supposed to meet with one of his friends.
B. He is looking for a part-time job.
C. He wants to know how to find a book.
D. He is struggling with his job.
Question 18: What kind of books is the man looking for?
A. Economics
B. Poetry
C. Geography
D. History
Question 19: How does the book listing organize the books?
A. Alphabetically
B. By the author's name
C. By the subject and then title
D. By the subject and then the author's name
Question 20: What is implied about the student's opinion of finding a book?
A. He thinks it will be easier than he expected.
B. He doesn't think that he can do it.
C. He is not looking forward to trying to find a book.
D. He thinks that the librarian should find it for him.


A. What heat is
B. How heat transfers
C. The properties of heat
D. Heat in hot air balloons
Question 22: What happens to a hot air balloon because of convection?
A. The balloon's air is heated
B. The balloon becomes filled with gas
C. The balloon goes up and goes down
D. The balloon's flame gets hotter and hotter
Question 23: What is the professor's opinion of conduction?
A. He finds it easiest to teach by cooking.
B. He feels that it is good for making buildings.
C. He believes that it is useful heating buildings.
D. He thinks many people get hurt from it.
Question 24: Why does the professor mention a toaster?
A. To explain how toast is made by convection
B. To discuss how conduction makes toasters hot
C. To give an example of something that burns people
D. To give an example of heat radiation
Question 25. What can be inferred from the lecturer?
A. Heat moving through solid materials is convection.
B. Convection is not a pattern that repeats.
C. Heat cannot move through solid materials.
D. Some materials are better at conducting heat than others.

A. The Impressionist painters and their work
B. Why people didn't like Impressionism
C. How people posed in Impressionist paintings
D. The key features of Impressionist painting
Question 27: How did Impressionist art differ from previous art?
A. It featured people instead of landscapes.
B. It used new and different blends of colors.
C. It created a three-dimensional effect.
D. It was created outside using natural light.
Question 28: What is the speaker's opinion of Impressionism?
A. She likes it because it is different.
B. She likes it because the colors blend so well.
C. She thinks it's difficult because it uses natural light.
D. She doesn't like it because it's blurry.
Question 29: How are the points in the lecture organized?
A. In the order that the painters painted
B. From most difficult to least difficult
C. In the order the textbook mentions them
D. By describing the most important points
Question 30: Why does the professor say this?
A. To show why older styles of art were better
B. To show how older styles of art were different
C. To explain how the students should paint
D. To describe a famous canvas

A. The writer of Watership Down
B. The main characters of Watership Down
C. The themes of Watership Down
D. The political ideas behind Watership Down
Question 32: What is the reason the rabbits leave home?
A. They do not have any freedom.
B. Their home is going to be destroyed.
C. They want to have an adventure.
D. They want a new government.
Question 33: Why does the professor mention the leader of Efrafa?
A. To show the government style of Efrafa
B. To compare Efrafa and the Tharn Warren
C. To describe how the rabbits typically acted
D. To show that the rabbits lived peacefully with others
Question 34: How is the professor's lecture organized?
A. The themes of the story and how they are shown.
B. The characters and then what the themes aren’t.
C. The character comparisons followed by the contrasts.
D. The steps the author took in writing the book

Question 35: What is the professor's attitude towards Watership Down?
A. She thinks that it shows real life very well.
B. She believes that Watership Down is a very simple book.
C. She thinks that the book is just about rabbits.
D. She thinks that it is hard to understand.

NOW YOU HAVE 05 MINUTES TO TRANSFER YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER
SHEET.

Số câu hỏi: 40
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, for each
question. Then, on your answer sheete, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on
the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
As new industrialism swept over the land in the wake of the Civil War, people flocked to the
nation's cities in unprecedented numbers from rural regions, villages, and foreign countries. Housing
for the new city-dwellers took many forms as new architectural styles were developed.
During this period of urban expansion, speculative builders discovered a bonanza in the form of
the row house. Designed for single-family occupancy, these dwellings cost relatively little to construct
because they shared common walls with their neighbors and because many could be erected side by
side on a narrow street frontage. Along New York's gridiron of streets and avenues rose block after
block of row houses, which, by the 1880s, were almost invariably faced with brownstone. In contrast,
wooden row houses on the West Coast appeared light and airy with their coats of bright paint. San
Francisco developed a particularly successful row vernacular, suitable for rich and poor alike, as
typified by clusters of homes like the Rountree group, which featured Queen Anne elements in their
pitched roofs and heavily decorated exteriors. Although critics likened the facades of such structures
to the "puffing, paint, and powder of our female friends", the houses were efficiently planned, sanitary,
and well-lighted. Virtually every dwelling boasted one or more bay windows, which were as important
to sun-loving San Franciscans as brownstone fronts were to New Yorkers. As an English traveler
observed, California architecture, "with all the windows gracefully leaping out at themselves", should
rightly be called the "bay-window order".
1. The main purpose of the author in this passage is_____.
A. to contrast two versions of a similar architectural form
B. to persuade people to live in row houses
C. to argue for the excellence of California row houses
D. to describe the effects of urbanization
2. The phrase "a bonanza" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. a confusing choice B. a difficult challenge

C. an exciting design D. a good investment
3. The phrase "almost invariably" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. usually B. seldom C. sometimes D. never
4. According to the passage, why did speculative builders profit from row houses?
A. Because they cost very little to build C. Because they were well-constructed
B. Because they were for single families D. Because they were attractive
5. All of the following can be inferred about row houses from the passage EXCEPT_____.
A. they provided for high-density housing
B. they housed people of different economic classes
C. they provided a new and popular form of architectural design
D. they had no front yards
6. The phrase "such structures" in the passage refers to_____.
A. West Coast wooden row houses C. the homes in the Rountree group
B. poor people's houses D. Queen Anne's home
7. What can be inferred from the passage about New York row houses?
A. They were less colorful than row houses on the West Coast.
B. They were windowless.
C. They were smaller than California row houses.
D. They were less similar in appearance than row houses in California.
8. In the passage, critics of California row houses commented on their_____.
A. excessive use of bay windows C. repetitive nature
B. ostentatious decoration D. lack of light
9. The word "boasted" in the passage is used to indicate the owners’_____.
A. skill B. wealth C. intelligence D. pride
10. The author of the passage implies that the most important feature for Californians living
in row houses was_____.
A. the color C. the windows
B. the price D. the heavily decorated exteriors
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the
crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And
since man's inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can
scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand
its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are
found: the giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert
country is open, it holds more swift-footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its
population are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not
emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in
the world.
The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could
survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter
of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the
ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150
degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and lack of water is the
kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay underground during the day. At night, they
go outside to look for food. As evening temperatures drop, moisture from the air forms on plants and
seeds. They absorb some of this moisture and kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat.
A. Desert plants C. Animal life in a desert environment
B. Life underground D. Man's life in the desert
12. The word "greater" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. stronger B. larger C. more noticeable D. heavier
13. The phrase "those forms" in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT_____.
A. water-loving animals C. moist-skinned animals
B. the bobcat D. many large animals
14. The word "desiccating" in the passage means_____.
A. drying B. humidifying C. killing D. life threatening
15. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT_____.
A. animals sleep during the day C. animals are noisy and aggressive
B. animals dig homes underground D. animals are watchful and quiet
16. The word "emaciated" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy
17. The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they____.
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are less healthy than animals who live in different places
C. can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees
D. live in an accommodating environment
18. The word "subterranean" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. underground B. safe C. precarious D. harsh
19. The word "they" in the passage refers to_____.
A. kangaroo rats C. plants and seeds
B. the desert population D. the burrows of desert animals
20. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage?
A. Water is the basis of life. C. Desert life is colorful.
B. All living things adjust to their environments. D. Healthy animals live longer lives.

Animals and higher-order plants depend on nitrogen that is present in soil as they cannot utilize
free nitrogen from the atmosphere. To enter living systems, nitrogen must be combined with oxygen
or hydrogen to form compounds such as ammonia or nitrates that plants are able to use. Nitrogen gas
is converted to ammonia fertilizer by a chemical process involving high pressure and high temperature.
This process is called nitrogen fixation. Martinus Willem Beijerinck discovered nitrogen fixation.
The nitrogen molecule is quite inert and breaking it apart requires a considerable amount of energy.
There are three processes that are responsible for most of the nitrogen fixation in the biosphere. They
are atmospheric fixation, biological fixation, and industrial fixation. Atmospheric fixation occurs
through lightning, forest fires, or even hot lava flows where energy breaks down nitrogen molecules
and enables their atoms to combine with oxygen in the air, thus forming nitrogen oxides. These liquefy
in rain, forming nitrates, that are then carried to earth.
In biological nitrogen fixation, the nitrogen is available to some species of microorganisms.
Atmospheric nitrogen is converted to ammonia by bacterial enzymes called nitrogenase. More than
90% of all nitrogen fixation is affected by them. There are two kinds of nitrogen-fixing
microorganisms: free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria and symbiotic bacteria. Microorganisms that fix
nitrogen are called diazotrophs. These need a chemical energy source if they are non-photosynthetic.
However, if they are photosynthetic, they can utilize light energy. The free-living diazotrophs supply
little fixed nitrogen to agricultural crops, whereas the symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria live close to
plant roots and can obtain energy materials from the plants.
The symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria invade the root hairs of plants. Here they multiply the
formation of root nodules, and enlargements of plant cells and bacteria in close proximity. Within the
nodules, the bacteria convert the free nitrogen to nitrates, which the plant makes use of for Its
development.
To make certain of sufficient nodule formation and the best possible growth of legumes (beans,
clover, peas, soybeans), seeds are usually inoculated, particularly in poor soils where bacteria is
lacking. This system is most important for agriculture as many legumes are then able to grow
vigorously under nitrogen deficient conditions, contributing nitrogen to the farming system or
as green manure included in the soil. Legumes are also a significant source of protein primarily for
the developing world.
Industrial fixation takes place at a temperature of 600 degrees Celsius. In this method, atmospheric
nitrogen and hydrogen can be combined to form ammonia, which in turn can be used directly as a
fertilizer. It was during the early 19"1 century that the importance of fixed nitrogen to growing plants
was understood. Where people practiced intensive agriculture, demand arose for nitrogen compounds
to augment the natural supply present in the soil.
Around the same time, Chilean saltpeter was increasingly used to make gunpowder. This led to a
global search for natural deposits of this nitrogen compound. Toward the end of the 19th century, it
was realized that Chilean imports would not meet future demands, and, in the event of a major war,
without the Chilean supply, manufacturing sufficient weapons would not be possible.
[A] Several processes were then developed: directly combining oxygen with nitrogen, the reaction
of nitrogen with calcium carbide, and the direct combination of nitrogen with hydrogen. [B]
Combining oxygen and nitrogen was inefficient in its use of energy. Both were costly and the process
was abandoned. [C] It is named after Fritz Haber and Carl Bosch, who determined that nitrogen from
the air could be combined with nitrogen under enormously high pressures and fairly high temperatures
in the presence of an active mechanism to produce an extremely high quantity of ammonia. [D]
Germany heavily relied on this process during World War I, which led to a rapid expansion of the
construction of nitrogen plants in many other countries. This method is now one of the leading
processes of the chemical industry throughout the world.
21. According to paragraph 1, how must nitrogen molecules enter living organisms?
A. They must be converted to ammonia or nitrates.
B. They must be combined with oxygen in the form of nitrate.
C. They must be absorbed by the plant to furnish its nitrogen.
D. They must be mixed with oxygen or hydrogen.
22. The phrase "breaks down" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. destroys B. discontinues C. ceases D. decomposes
23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about nitrogen fixation?
A. Nature cannot make it occur by itself.
B. It is a process that does not necessarily require the influence of man.
C. The process needs perfect circumstances to happen.
D. Nitrogen is essential to all life on Earth.
24. According to paragraph 3, one factor needed for photosynthetic biological fixation is____.
A. a light source C. 90% rainfall for a week
B. the presence of ammonia D. a chemical energy source
25. The word "affected" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. driven B. influenced C. stopped D. changed
26. Why does the author mention "diazotrophs" in the passage?
A. To explain the industrial process of nitrogen fixation
B. To show how a plants roots are important for this process
C. To give an example of a living organism capable of fixing nitrogen
D. To explain the impact of nitrogen on a microorganism
27. The word "invade" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. attack B. defend C. occupy D. dominate
28. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
A. The ability to grow legumes with little nitrogen is highly valuable.
B. Legumes do not need much nitrogen to develop and grow strong.
C. The farming system makes huge demands on the nitrogen level in the ground.
D. Agriculture creates a great need for legumes and their produce.
29. According to paragraph 8, which of the following is characteristic of the Haber-Bosch
process?

A. Producing low amount of Ammonia
B. Using extremely high pressures
C. Reducing the supply of nitrogen compounds
D. Leading to widespread use during World War I
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to
the passage.
However, the Haber-Bosch process which created ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is the
most cost-effective nitrogen fixation process known.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Throughout Western civilization, women’s suffrage and the progression of these rights have played
a pivotal role in its history. The best example of how these rights have progressed is in two nations
that share a common history, Great Britain and the United States of America. [A] In England, the
suffrage movement began in 1866 when prominent women’s rights reformers gathered over 1,500
signatures on a petition to Parliament appealing for the right to vote. [B] However, significant headway
had not been made yet. Women’s rights activists soon grew combative and thus made certain that
suffrage was a central issue. [C] In America, due to the Civil War, women's suffrage was temporarily
halted. However, from 1876, campaigns, referendums, and gatherings were organized and carried out.
[D]
The influence of Great Britain on the United States cannot be understated, yet there are both
significant differences and similarities in how suffrage rights have progressed and evolved within each
of these nations. In both countries, suffrage was based on class, race, nation, and gender. The
suffragists were outside of the political establishment, campaigning alone and without support. They
were predominately white and middle class in both countries, and their arguments reflected their class.
In the first phase of the two countries, the arguments for suffrage focused on equality, and then turned
to women’s contribution to nation building after World War I.
Feudalism and hereditary rule predated the establishment of limited suffrage in Great Britain.
Aspects of this system remained for a significant period of time with only the wealthy and land-owning
males allowed to vote. This system was based on the principles that the wealthy would vote in the
interests of the nation, just as the monarchy of Britain would rule in the interest of all its subjects. This
distributive system of power played an important role in the history of the United States.
English landowners asserted their right to vote based on their personal wealth. Aspects of this
trend are clearly evident In America. In 1776, a clause that guaranteed voting rights for white, male
landowners was included in the United States Declaration of Independence. This was identical to the
suffrage rights in Great Britain at that time in history. Voting was generally perceived not as a right,
but as a privilege that only those who owned land could exercise.
By 1786, the United States Constitution had been amended to give individual states the power to
establish their own suffrage rights. As a result of this, in 1791, Vermont passed a law declaring that all
white males, regardless of whether they possessed property or not, could vote. In contrast, it was not
until the Chartist movement in Great Britain in the 1840s that a popular movement had demanded
wider suffrage rights. The eventual failure of the Chartist movement in 1850 ensured that only one in
every five adult males in England was entitled to vote. While popular suffrage reform stalled in Great
Britain, it accelerated in America during this period. In the wake of the American Civil War, the
Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution granted African-American men the right to vote throughout
the country. However, just as in England, women remained excluded by law from voting.
In the aftermath of the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to include women. This
change took place first in America in 1920 with the 1991 amendment to the Constitution. It was not
until 1928 that voting rights between men and women in Great Britain were equalized. As suffrage
rights have extended to include groups formerly excluded, this trend continues in the West. In 1971, a
further amendment lowered the age of voting from 20 to 18 in America. Today, in Great Britain and
the majority of Western nations, the voting age is 18.
Initially, the progression of suffrage rights in America mirrored Great Britain’s. The wealthy male
landowners dominated voting and, therefore, political power, and voted only in their interests. In the
wake of the American Civil War and the first World War, suffrage rights were extended to
African-Americans, women, and individuals possessing no property, which boosted their status
from lower class citizens to a higher level. Today, suffrage, in its universal form, plays a key role in
democracies worldwide.
31. According to paragraph 1, why were 1,500 signatures gathered on a petition?
A. Women sought the right to peaceful demonstrations.
B. Women and men urged for the right to vote and own property.
C. Women were requesting the right to vote.
D. Collaboration was needed to facilitate women’s right to vote.
32. The word "progressed" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. withheld B. withstood C. advanced D. contained
33. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was true of the suffragist movement?
A. Suffragists had a chance to change their position in society.
B. Women achieved their goal of winning full voting rights.
C. It was primarily run by working class women.
D. Most suffragists were moderate in their tactics.
34. According to paragraph 4, the United States Declaration of Independence
guaranteed_____.
A. that African Americans could vote
B. that all 21 year olds could vote
C. that women could vote and hold political office
D. that only white, male landowners were allowed to vote
35. The word "their" in the passage refers to_____.
A. Englishmen C. English landowners
B. British royalty D. American landowners
36. Why does the author mention that "Aspects of this trend are clearly evident in America"?
A. To argue that the right to vote only was exercised by the wealthy and elite

B. To provide evidence that voting was not a right only for those who owned land
C. To show that the right to voting privileges only was granted to wealthy male property
holders
D. To support the claim that the right to vote was an attribute of U.S. citizenship
37. The word "stalled" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. prevented B. profited C. contributed D. halted
38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Chartist movement?
A. Suffrage rights became the standard and expanded to include people of middle Eastern
descent after the Chartist movement failed.
B. The Chartist movement was quashed by a group of hostile forces who were opposed to
progression.
C. The Chartist movement helped ensure that only woman could vote.
D. The progression of suffrage rights started to slow after the Chartist movement failed.
A. In the period following the Civil War and World War I, voting rights were extended to most
minorities.
B. No one could vote in Great Britain unless they owned land, were white, and could read.
C. War in Europe and America led many countries to disallow people of color the right to
vote.
D. Voting has always been considered a privilege in most Western countries.
the passage.
American suffragists, however, were not as aggressive as their British counterparts.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]


Số câu hỏi: 2
Task 1:
Your English-speaking friend, Mary, whom you haven’t met for a long time, sent you an
email. Read part of her email below:
……….
Do you remember me? We met when you visited my high school in Oxford during your summer
trip to England 3 years ago. We haven’t heard from each other for a long time, right?
Anyway, how are you? What have you been doing? You always wanted to be a teacher!
Here some of my news. I’m studying Laws at Oxford University. I think I have changed a lot
over the years. I don’t like thrillers any more. I prefer history books now. Do you remember
Pete, the tall thin guy with glasses? He’s on the same course as me. We are best friends now!
Well, I must finish now because I’ve got an exam tomorrow. It would be really good if we could
get together again.
Write back soon and tell me all your news.
Mary.
Write a reply to Mary. In your email, you have to tell her you still remember her and the time
you visited her high school, tell her all your news, and ask her to send your regards to Pete.

Task 2:
Levels of youth crime are increasing rapidly in major cities in Viet Nam.
What are the reasons for this? Suggest some solutions.
knowledge.

Số câu hỏi: 3
Let’s talk about your favorite color.

- What color(s) do you like most?
- Do you care for colors when choosing clothes to wear?
- Does color affect your mood/ feeling?
Let’s talk about going to the library.
- How often do you go to the library?
- What do you usually do in the library?

- Do you think that fewer people go to the library nowadays?
Situation: You are going to celebrate your birthday. There are three suggestions for the place
where you can hold the party: in a fast-food restaurant, in a sit-down restaurant, and in your
house. What do you think is the best choice?

Topic: More recycling centers should be built in communities.
Help reduce the size of

landfills
Utilize waste products Recycling centers Your own idea
Offer more employment

opportunities
- Are you aware of what recycling means?

- Do you recycle as part of your everyday life?
- Do you agree that everyone should reuse and recycle products?

VSTEP
COLLECTION 5
Số câu hỏi: 35
sheet.
Goodbye.

Question 1: Where would you probably hear this announcement?
A. In a moving van
B. In a school
C. In an office building
D. In an office supply shop

Question 2: Where would someone hear this message?
A. Calling a newspaper company
B. Calling a journalist
C. Calling a telephone company
D. Calling a law firm
Question 3: How long are the classes?
A. 45 minutes
B. an hour
C. an hour and a half
D. two hours
Question 4: What should Jen do tomorrow?
A. Turn her cell phone back on
B. Check her email, even if it is at home
C. Make sure she gets an office address
D. Give people her new contact information
Question 5: What is the purpose of this announcement?
A. To discuss the news
B. To give information
C. To ask for help
D. To demand a report
Question 6: What is the main point of this announcement?
A. To welcome visitors
B. To ask people to leave soon
C. To tell people about the exhibition
D. To ask people to come
Question 7: Who is Gary Reynolds?
A security officer
B. An airline pilot
C. A flight attendant
D. An airline employee
Question 8: What does the woman recommend the listeners do?
A. Go to the website
B. Go back to their rooms
C. Talk to the hotel manager
D. Wait for more information


Question 9: What is the main topic in this conversation?
A. How to get a better grade in class
B. How to write a better essay
C. How to write a paragraph
D. How to organize an essay
Question 10: According to professor Smith what is important for essay writing?
A. Many good ideas
B. Strong introduction
C. Summary
D. Organization
Question 11: How many are there in an essay?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Question 12: What are the functions of the body paragraphs?
A. To summarize the main ideas
B. To provide examples and ideas
C. To provide evidences and details
D. To give main ideas for an essay
Question 13: What is the main topic in this conversation?
A. Taking a math test
B. Getting a tutor
C. Taking a midterm test
D. Having a part-time job
Question 14: What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Help him finish his homework
B. Tutor him with a subject at school
C. Teach him English
D. Find him a good math teacher
Question 15: What will happen if the students cheat?
A. They will be expelled from school.
B. They cannot take the final exam.
C They will be fined.
D. They will have to study again.
Question 16: Which of the following the tutor CANNOT do for the student?
A. The learning strategies
B. Taking notes
C. Homework
D. Learning tips

Question 17: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. Ways a student can make up for missed lectures
B. How to avoid getting sick and missing school
C. How to get a scholarship
D. How to get high scores
Question 18: Why did the woman miss the lessons?
A. Because of her sickness
B. Because of the accident
C. Because of the severe weather
D. Because of her laziness
Question 19: What does the woman want the man do for her?
A. Lend her his notes
B. Give her an extension
C. Give her a scholarship
D. Explain the lessons
Question 20: What should the woman probably do next?
A. Go on a vacation
B. Go to the library to do some research
C. Hang out with her classmates
D. Apply for a scholarship

Question 21: What is the student's problem?
A. He didn't do well on his final exam.
B. He didn't do all his coursework.
C. He missed too many classes.
D. He moved away from the school.
Question 22: What does the student want the professor to do?
A. He wants her to give him a new test.
B. He wants an immediate change of grade.
C. He wants her to let him take the class again.
D. He wants her to give him an incomplete in the class.
Question 23: Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the professor mean when she says this?
A. You have to deal with this.
B. This is the solution.
C. I can't deal with this.
D. Let's come to an agreement.
Question 24: What is the professor's solution to the student's problem?
A. He has to write 2 critical essays.
B. He has to fill out a lot of paperwork.
C. He has to re-read all of Shakespeare's plays.
D. He has to have read all the Shakespeare plays.
Question 25. What is the student's attitude about the solution?
A. relieved
B. disappointed
C. shocked
D. ungrateful

Question 26: Why does the student go to the tutoring center?
A. because she doesn't have a clue how to use a computer
B. because she wants help putting her presentation together
C. because she's never used the presentation viewer program before
D. because she's nervous about speaking in front of people
Question 27: Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the man mean when he says this?
A. He wants to know if her presentation will have graphics and animation.
B. He wants to know if she needs a whistle.
C. He wants to know if she needs a timer.
D. He wants to know if she needs sound.

Question 28: What does the man say about using the presentation viewer program?
A. It is an easy program to use.
B. It is a very complicated program.
C. It is not part of the tutoring subjects at the center.
D. It doesn't have as many interesting features as the word processing
Question 29: What is the student concerned about?

A. researching her topic
B. working with the computer
C. speaking in front of other people
D. how to operate the power source on her computer
Question 30: What does the man advise the student to bring to the tutoring session?
A. her research paper
B. her outline
C. the program
D. her laptop

Question 31: What is the focus of the lecture?
A. Doug Levere's re-photography of Abbott's work
B. Berenice Abbott's Changing New York project
C. two examples of photography supported by the FAP
D. the effect of the Depression on Berenice Abbott's work
Question 32: According to the professor, why was Abbott a good candidate for the FAP??
A. She had already been documenting America.
B. She had a fresh perspective due to her recent return.
C. She was willing to change her approach to fit the FAP.
D. She was a widely recognized figure in the art world.
Question 33: Based on the lecture, what artistic characteristics did Abbott reject in her art?
A. modern urban life
B. depiction of older buildings
C. meticulous composition
D. rural settings and landscapes
Question 34: What did Abbott do to "keep the life in her shots"?
A. use a hand-held camera
B. include random people in the frame
C. frame scenes of urban activity
D. juxtapose old and new buildings

Question 35: What is the professor's attitude toward Levere's re-photography of Abbott's
work?
A. concerned
B. unimpressed
C. disappointed
D. complimentary


Số câu hỏi: 40
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D, for each
question. Then, on your answer sheete, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on
the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the
answer sheet.
The influx of Americans into Oregon in the 1840s ignited a dispute between Britain and the United
States that, in its more intemperate phases, was accompanied by shrill demands in both countries for
war. The argument originated in the fact that the boundaries of Oregon had never been clearly fixed.
The name vaguely embraced the territory west of the Rockies between the northern boundary of
Mexican-held California and the southern edge of Russian-held Alaska, which at the time extended
south to parallel 54° 40'. In 1818, when America proposed a boundary at the 49th parallel an extension
of the border with Canada that already existed east of the Rockies and the British suggested a line
farther south, statesmen of both nations avoided the resulting impasse by agreeing to accept temporary
"joint occupancy".
But by the early 1840s, the issue could no longer be avoided: Oregon fever and Manifest Destiny
had become potent political forces. Though many eastern Americans considered Oregon country too
remote to become excited about, demands for its occupation were shouted with almost religious
fervor. Senator Thomas Hart Benton, for one, urged Congress to muster "thirty or forty thousand
American rifles beyond the Rocky Mountains that will be our effective negotiators."
The Democratic Party made "54°40' or fight", an issue of the 1844 Presidential election and just
managed to install James K. Polk, an ardent expansionist, in the White House. But despite their
seeming intransigence, neither Polk nor the British government wanted to fight. And just about the
time that Polk learned that the land lying north of the 49th parallel was useless for agriculture, the
British decided the American market for goods was worth far more than Oregon's fast-dying fur trade.
So they quietly settled for the 49th parallel, the boundary that the United States had proposed in the
first place.
1. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The disagreement over the boundaries of Oregon was peacefully solved.
B. The United States wanted more land than it needed.

C. Politicians in 1840 favored war with Britain.
D. The United States ended up by sharing Oregon with Canada.
2. The word "intemperate" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. untimely B. initial C. immoderate D. uninformed
3. As used in the passage, the word "fixed" is closest in meaning to_____.
A. repaired B. adjusted C. built D. established
4. The word "remote" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. far away B. dangerous C. large D. uninteresting
5. The confrontation with Britain over Oregon boundaries came to a head in the early 1840s
for all the following reasons EXCEPT_____.
A. more people were living in Oregon at that time
B. the expansionists made the situation a political issue
C. all people were united in favoring the expansion and settlement of Oregon
D. Manifest Destiny was a major political force at this time
6. The word "ardent" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. superficial B. enthusiastic C. old D. moderate
7. The word "they" in the passage refers to
A. the Americans C. the British
B. the British and the Americans D. the Democratic Party
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Senator Thomas Hart Benton_____.
A. was a temperate man
B. supported the occupation of Oregon by force
C. felt negotiation was the best policy
D. proposed and approved the final boundary decision
9. The 49th parallel was accepted by both parties in the border dispute for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT_____.
A. the dying fur trade in Oregon C. the condition of the land north of 49°
B. the attraction of the American market for goods D. the desire for a good fight
10. It can be inferred from the passage that in the final boundary settlement the United States
A. got the land that it had originally demanded
B. got less land than it had originally demanded
C. got more land than it had originally demanded
D. had no interest in the land involved in the dispute
For all their great diversity of shapes and sizes, glaciers can be divided into two essential types:
valley glaciers, which flow downhill from mountains and are shaped by the constraints of topography,
and ice sheets, which flow outward in all directions from domelike centers of accumulated ice to cover
vast expanses of terrain. Whatever their type, most glaciers are remnants of great shrouds of ice that
covered the earth eons ago. In a few of these glaciers the oldest ice is very ancient indeed; the age of
parts of the Antarctic sheet may exceed 500,000 years.
Glaciers are born in rocky wombs above the snow line, where there is sufficient winter snowfall
and summer cold for snow to survive the annual melting. The long gestation period of a glacier begins
with the accumulation and gradual transformation of snowflakes. Soon after they reach the ground,
complex snowflakes are reduced to compact, roughly spherical ice crystals, the basic components of a
glacier. As new layers of snow and ice, snow that survives the melting of the previous summer,
accumulate, they squeeze out most of the air bubbles trapped within and between the crystals below.
This process of recrystallization continues throughout the life of the glacier.
The length of time required for the creation of glacier ice depends mainly upon the temperature
and the rate of snowfall. In Iceland, where snowfall is heavy and summer temperatures are high enough
to produce plenty of meltwater, glacier ice may come into being in a relatively short time say, ten
years. In parts of Antarctica, where snowfall is scant and the ice remains well below its melting
temperature year-round, the process may require hundreds of years. The ice does not become a glacier
until it moves under its own weight, and it cannot move significantly until it reaches a critical thickness
the point at which the weight of the piled-up layers overcomes the internal strength of the ice and the
friction between the ice and the ground. This critical thickness is about 60 feet. The fastest moving
glaciers have been gauged at not much more than two and a half miles per year, and some cover less
than 1/100 inch in that same amount of time. But no matter how infinitesimal the flow, movement is
what distinguishes a glacier from a mere mass of ice.
11. This passage mainly discusses
A. the size and shape of glaciers C. why glaciers move
B. the formation of glaciers D. two types of glaciers
12. The word "constraints" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. restrictions B. height C. beauty D. speed
13. Why does the author mention the Antarctic ice sheet in the first paragraph?
A. It is a slow-moving glacier.
B. One would expect glaciers in this part of the world.
C. It contains some of the oldest ice in existence.
D. It is an example of a well-formed ice sheet.
14. In order to describe the development of glaciers, the author uses the analogy of____.
A. birth B. snowflakes C. crystals D. Iceland
15. The phrase "this process" in the passage refers to_____.
A. air bubbles being trapped below
B. snow and ice compressing the ice crystals
C. formation of ice from snow that is about to melt
D. melting of summer snow
16. The word "trapped" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. enclosed B. hunted C. formed D. stranded
17. According to the passage, what is one of the differences between valley glaciers and ice
sheets?
A. Ice sheets move faster than valley glaciers.
B. While valley glaciers flow downhill, ice sheets flow in all directions.
C. Valley glaciers are thicker than ice sheets because of the restricting land formations.

D. Valley glaciers are not as old as ice sheets.
18. What does "it" in the passage refer to_____.
A. glacier C. ice
B. weight D. critical thickness
19. The word "significantly" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. quickly B. naturally C. thoroughly D. notably
20. According to the passage, the characteristic that identifies a glacier is_____.
A. the critical thickness of the ice
B. the amount of ice accumulated
C. the movement of the ice
D. the weight of the ice
Pottery refers to dishes, plates, cups and cooking pots made out of clay. Chinese pottery was
invented during the Neolithic period (5,000-2,200 BC) and it was molded by hand. Before this time,
people had been nomadic, making it difficult to carry heavy, breakable pieces of pottery. At first,
pottery was made by pushing a hole into a ball of clay or by taking a piece of clay and coiling it up
into a pot shape. Many early pots were simple lumps of clay. However, people later discovered that
clay, when placed in an open fire, hardened. This technique, known as firing, soon became common
practice in pottery production.
People used pottery as a way of forming their social identity or showing who they were and how
they were different from other people. Many of the designs that were used on pottery were usually
borrowed from those already found on clothing and garments. The decoration of pottery began with
simple incisions, which were later painted on. Gradually, plants, animals, and human figures were
included on the vases. Mythological scenes were common as were dancers, musicians, and images
from everyday life.
[A] Pottery also has roots in ancient China where, for centuries, people produced black, carved,
and painted pieces from rough clay. It was in the Sui dynasty, however, that the aesthetics of pottery
took a major leap forward. [B] Potters began experimenting with porcelain and the effect was a
stunning, shiny new look and feel for Chinese ceramics. [C] This gleaming pottery became popular
not only in China, but in West Asia as well. [D] Inevitably, this led to a new market for cheap
imitations.
After 1,200 AD, Chinese potters began using different colored glazes to create designs on their
pots. Chinese pottery was still the best and most expensive. After thousands of years of advancements
in technique and materials, painted porcelain such as blue and white, tri-color, and under-glazed
became successfully produced.
The Chinese often used pottery as part of the burial ritual; bronze vessels were decorated with
elaborate designs of plants and animals. In Chinese culture, jade symbolizes nobility, perfection, and
immortality. Jade utensils were laid over the deceased and some were placed In the mouth or enclosed
In the hand. Liquids were placed In the vessels to help the dead in their afterlife and also to aid In
funerary ceremonies in which the living communicated with deceased ancestors and gods in an altered
state of consciousness after drinking fermented beverages.
Such vessels containing liquids have been excavated at centers near the Yellow River, especially
from burials of elite, eminent individuals. Many pottery fragments and figurines have also been
discovered in the Chang Jiang drainage area.
Pottery can be divided into three groups: those designed for storage, those for preserving or holding
liquids, and those for special uses. The Greeks made pottery for many purposes. The custom of burning
their dead involved using vases to collect the ashes. Some pottery served as decorative pieces, while
others were used for ceremonies or during religious festivals. Amphoras were larger vessels used to
store liquids such as water or wine. Amphoras have occasionally been found in ancient shipwrecks;
some held wine and others were shipped empty after selling their contents off to other countries. The
Alabastron had special uses such as holding perfume or oil. The Skyphes, a flat-bottomed bowl, was
used as a drinking cup.
Grecian soil had many deposits of clay near rivers. This abundance of raw material was not
available to others, giving the Greeks a strategic advantage in manufacturing material. They
made full use of clay. After its discovery, vessels were made in a wide range of sizes and shapes. Jugs,
vases, fruit bowls, and feeding bottles were widely used in homes. Although some larger vessels were
made of stone, glass, or metal, clay was by far the most prominent.
The ancient Egyptians used pottery and ceramic art for burial purpose. Four vases were sometimes
deposited with the mumified body, A large number of vases which have been recovered had been
buried with the dead in tombs. Some vases are found hanging or standing upright in the tomb. They
appear to have been valued by the deceased, hence leaving them for burial in the tomb.
21. According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements is true of early pottery?
A. The first pots were made of hardened clay.
B. The nomadic nature of man before the Neolithic period prevented the widespread use of
pottery.
C. Pottery was invented as a way of storing fresh fish and meats.
D. It was not possible to fashion clay into shapes for pottery.
22. The word "incisions" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. figures B. squares C. paintings D. cuts
23. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about pottery designs?
A. Designs helped the pot to stay together and not break.
B. The designs on pottery reflected the culture of those who made them.
C. Three basic techniques to produce pottery vessels have been used around the world.
D. Pot design was imaginative and unique in every example.
24. The word "gleaming" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. shiny B. dull C. delicate D. soft
25. According to the passage, whose pottery was regarded as the most valuable?
A. Japanese B. Egyptian C. Chinese D. Greek
26. The author mentions "jade" in the passage in order to_____.
A. demonstrate how stone could be carved into pottery
B. give an example of the use of expensive material in burials
C. show how different cultures value different materials
D. explain the difficulties in mining a stone for pottery
27. The word "deceased" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. sick B. dying C. dead D. diseased
A. The use of substantial amounts of clay in Greece resulted in a culture rich in pottery.
B. The ancient Greeks had a more advanced way to construct pottery.
C. Pottery making was harder for the ancient Greeks, but pottery was important to them for
storage.
D. Pottery was very convenient and useful because the raw material, clay, was abundant and
simple to shape and fire In Greek.
29. According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a use of pottery?
A. storing wine
B. holding ashes
C. ceremonial offerings
D. cooking
the passage.
However, it was very expensive there because it had to be carried from China on camels and
donkeys.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Louis Pasteur was arguably the greatest biologist of the 19th century. His immense contributions
were among the most varied and beneficial in the field of science and industry. Pasteur’s methods of
conducting experiments illustrated brilliance, which started when he studied the crystal structure. He
observed that tartrate, when created in a laboratory, was optically inactive. This is different from the
tartrate from grapes because the artificial tartrate is composed of two optically asymmetric crystals.
Pasteur succeeded in unraveling the asymmetric crystals from each other and showed that each
regained optical activity.
He then theorized that living organisms only produce molecules that are of one specific objective
and that these molecules are active at all times. This experiment contradicted ‘Mitscherlich’ who had
observed only a single type of crystal. Later in his career, Pasteur was approached by the parent of one
of his students, regarding a contamination problem in alcoholic fermentation. At the time, fermentation
leading to the making of wine, or beer was thought to be a simple breakdown of sugar to the favored
molecules. Yeast cells were believed to be either a useful ingredient in maintaining or simply a product
of fermentation.
The manufacturers of alcohol were having economic problems related to fermentation. Wine would
suddenly turn sour or into vinegar, or the quality and taste of beer would suddenly change. Therefore,
the producers would have to start anew. Pasteur proved that yeast was an organism which did not
necessitate oxygen for fermentation to occur. This proved to Justin Von Liebig, who had upheld that
fermentation was purely chemical, that he was incorrect.
Pasteur was able to prove that the yeast was responsible for forming alcohol from sugar and that
contaminating microorganisms turned the fermentations sour. Over the years, he segregated the
organisms that were responsible for normal and abnormal fermentations when producing wine or beer.
He demonstrated that if he heated them to mild temperatures, this would kill the microorganisms and
prevent souring. This was a major discovery and Pasteur showed brewers how to refine the right
organisms for good beer. He proposed that heating milk to a high temperature before bottling it would
prevent souring. This is now known as pasteurization.
All this had given Pasteur an iconic status throughout the world. After his research on fermentation,
he refuted the principle of spontaneous generation. The theory that maggots, beetles and microbes
could arise spontaneously from matter had always been a matter of speculation. Pasteur carried out
ingenious experiments wiping out every argument in favor of spontaneous generation. In his famous
experiment using the 'swan neck flask', fermented juice was put in a flask and after sterilization, the
neck was heated, (this resembled the neck of a swan). The end of the neck was then sealed. If the flask
was opened by pinching off the end of the neck, air would enter but dust would get trapped on the
inside of the neck which was wet. The fluid, however, would still be germ free. If the flask was tipped
over allowing the juice to touch the inside of the neck, microorganisms would grow instantly.
Pasteur’s work with silkworm parasites and germs led to the proposal of the germ theory of disease.
After visiting the hospital wards, he became more aware of the infections being spread by
physicians from sick patients to the healthy patients. He compelled doctors to disinfect their
instruments by boiling and steaming them. Surgeons were told to wash their hands and use disinfectant.
At the time, countries were suffering from anthrax, which is a disease that affects cattle. He believed
it was possible that If the animals were intentionally infected with a very mild case of the disease, this
may be enough to prevent them from getting the disease later on. To prove this, he needed to test his
theory on live animals.
[A] They recovered and, when placed with cattle that did have the disease, they remained immune.
[B] Pasteur's last major research success was the development of a vaccine against rabies. [C] Institutes
were built and people were treated for the disease in them. Pasteur was a national hero in France. [D]
He died in 1895 and was given a state funeral.
31. The word "inactive" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. motionless B. occupied C. dangerous D. reactive
32. According to paragraph 2, what evidence contradicted the previous beliefs of
‘Mitscherlich’?
A. Proof of the process of fermentation
B. Molecules being active at all times
C. Observed only a single type of crystal
D. Molecules produce all living organisms
33. According to Pasteur’s experiments, what did he prove to be true?
A. The wine would change to vinegar because of fermentation.
B. Microorganisms were present in all alcoholic drinks.
C. Yeast was an organism that did not need oxygen to work.
D. The fermentation was a purely chemical process.
34. The word "necessitate" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. facilitate B. require C. produce D. consume
35. According to paragraph 5, what did Pasteur publicly refute?
A. That fermentation contributed to spontaneous generation
B. That bottle-neck glasses can keep things germ-free
C. That maggots can form suddenly from matter without warning
D. That flies were created from the maggots on dead meat
36. Why does the author describe Pasteur's 'swan neck flask' experiment in the passage?
A. To explain the method of scientific experimentation
B. To demonstrate the correct way to do a scientific experiment
C. To show how microbes contribute to spontaneous generation
D. To illustrate exactly how Pasteur determined his findings
37. The word "ingenious" in the passage is closest in meaning to_____.
A. original B. tremendous C. controlled D. significant
A. Most patients became sick from being infected by doctors in the emergency room.
B. Hospital wards had become dirty and dangerous places due to the lack of proper training
and space.
C. Pasteur learned that infections could be transmitted to healthy patients from dirty, non-
sterile instruments doctors had used on previous patients.
D. Healthy patients could become infected by sick people, simply by the shake of a hand or
sharing a drink.
39. According to the passage, which method was NOT used in Pasteur's experiments?
A. Sealed bottles under observation
B. Disinfection of materials and instruments
C. Heating to mild temperatures
D. Going into animal experimentation known to be scientifically unsound
the passage.
Pasteur was successful in producing a safe version of anthrax bacteria which he then injected
into a population of cows.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]


Số câu hỏi: 2
Task 1:
Your English-speaking friend, Natalie sent you an email. Read part of her email below.
……………………………..
Thanks for inviting me to stay with you when I visit your country next month.
I’m not sure how to get to your apartment from the airport. Could you write back giving me
some simple directions? What’s the cheapest means of transport?
What will the weather be like when I get there? I’ll need to know which clothes to pack.
Hope to get your early reply.
Natalie
Write a reply to Natalie. In your email, you have to express your excitement of her trip to your
country, tell her how to get to your apartment from the airport and what the cheapest means of
transport is, and tell her about the weather next month.

Task 2:
Nowadays many people have access to computers on a wide basis and a large number of
children play computer games.
What are the positive and negative impacts of playing computer games and what can be
done to minimize the bad effects?
knowledge.

Số câu hỏi: 3

Let’s talk about parties.
- Do you enjoy going to a party?
- What do you usually do at a party?
- On what occasions do you hold a party?
Let’s talk about your city.
- Which part of the city do you like best?
- Why do you like it?
- Are there any changes you would like to make to the place?
Situation: You are considering buying a brand watch. There are three suggestions
for how to get it: placing an order through a website, shopping in a mall, and
calling over the phone. Which one is the best option for you?

Topic: There are several factors that lead to success in life.
Education and skills
Vision Factors for Your own idea
success
Passion
- Why is money the most common way of judging success?

- Is your idea of success the same as your parents’ idea of success?
- Does luck play a part in success?

ANSWER KEY
SCRIPTS &
SUGGESTED IDEAS
ANSWER KEY- LISTENING TEST 1
PART 1:
1C 2B 3D 4A 5C 6C 7A 8B
PART 2:
9C 10 B 11 A 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 B
PART 3:
21 C 22 B 23 D 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 C 29 A 30 D 31 C 32 B 33 A
34 A 35 C
SCRIPTS:
Q.1: What is the purpose of the message?
Good afternoon. I'm calling for Julie Gibbs. This is Donald Carson from Doctor Kim's office. I
just wanted to confirm your appointment for your annual physical checkup on Friday, June 27 at
3 o'clock. The checkup shouldn't last longer than an hour and a half. Since this is your first visit
with Doctor Kim, we'd like you to come to the clinic about 20 minutes early so that we can create
a file for you. If you cannot make the appointment, please contact the office and let us know at
least a day in advance. Thanks.
Q.2: What is being advertised?

Do you need a way to relieve your stress? Whether you're looking for a full-time membership or
just a day of relaxation, Istanbul Spa has something for you! We have several different services
for all your treatment needs. This week, we're offering a full-day service including a full-body
massage, aromatherapy and a facial for just one low price. You can also enjoy our hospitality with
a healthy and refreshing beverage at our tea lounge.
Q.3: According to the announcement, what will be built near Berryville?

I am very pleased to announce that city leaders in Berryville have finally approved a proposal to
enlarge the airport on Hathor Road. We have given the building contract to Heaton Construction.
The new terminal will join our older, existing facilities. Berryville's population has been growing
at a rapid rate over the past 15 years, due to the addition of a local university and the recent
expansion of several businesses.
Q.4: Who is this announcement probably for?

This announcement is for all assembly line employees. Please make sure to check your work
schedule as soon as you arrive in the morning to see where you will be working for the day. You
will need to sign in by putting your signature in the space by your name. After that, please check
96
the announcement board next to the manager's office for any daily notices. Finally, don't forget to
pick up your protective aprons and glasses from the safety area.

Hi, Rose. This is Dorothy calling from the personnel department. I just wanted to know if you are
free to join us for dinner tonight. A few of us will be leaving the office around 5:30 and going to
the Thai restaurant. Our new colleague Sophia is coming as well. Anyway, if you'd like to join us,
just meet us downstairs in front of the building at about 5. Sophia and I will be taking my car, and
you are more than welcome to ride with us. Anyway, I hope to see you later. Bye.
Q.6: What is this message about?

Thank you for calling the Tower Place security department. This office will be closing at 11:00
a.m. Wednesday morning as we relocate to the 10th floor. All security officers will be on duty
during this time. The 10th floor office will be open at 9 a.m. Thursday. Please contact the security
officer on duty, Roy Williams, at 555-7251 if you need to speak with security personnel after 11
on Wednesday. Thank you.

Hello, Mr. Nakamura. This is Eric Parkman, manager of the personnel department for Linderman
Enterprises. We received your resume last week for the accounting position in our shipping
department. I was very impressed with your experience and education. I would like to schedule an
interview at our office on Friday, April 29 at 10 o'clock. Please give me a call and let me know if
that time is good for you. Thank you.
Q.8: Who is the speaker?

Staff members of Winton Property Development, welcome to the 8th annual Top Achievers Awards
Dinner. When I founded Winton Property Development 13 years ago, I knew that I alone could
not make the company the success that it is today. I knew that it would take people like you to help
me achieve that goal. The reason why I host this dinner every year is to express my deep
appreciation to everyone for working so hard for the continued growth of this company.
SCRIPTS:
Q.9-12
W: Mr. Stone, this is Susan White from the Speedy Medical Center. I am calling to remind you
that you have an appointment with Dr. Johnson tomorrow at 11.
M: Ah, yes, thank you for reminding me. You know, if you hadn't called, I would've completely
97
forgotten all about it. I've been so busy lately.
W: Well, we call all of our clients a day before their scheduled appointment. Anyway, please
get here 10 minutes before your appointment since there are some forms that you have to fill
out. Also, don't forget to bring your insurance information.
M: Okay, I will remember to bring it with me. Thanks, and I will see you tomorrow then.
Q.13-16
M: I just read an article in the paper about the medical conference being held in the city this
weekend. I'm really looking forward to going there.
W: Really? I am thinking of going as well. I really want to listen to the talk on that study about
soybeans. A lot of my patients have been mentioning it to me lately.
M: Yes, my patients have been asking me about it, too. Hey, do you want to go together this
Saturday?
W: All right. My in-laws are coming for a visit this Sunday, so Saturday will be perfect.
Q.17-20
W: I think the customer was quite satisfied with the service we provided.
M: Yes, I think he was especially happy because he thought the warranty had expired. He managed
to get the repair done at no cost to him.
W: Well, I am glad that we were able to help a good customer. You know, it's customers like
that who will continue to come back to our store.
M: Yes, I agree with you. I think it's very important that we try to keep all of our customers happy.
SCRIPTS:
Q.21-25: Listen to part of a conversation between two people on campus.
W: Hi, there. I was looking for information about becoming a political science major.
M: Sure. We have some brochures right here.
W: Thanks, but could I ask you a few questions?
M: No problem. Fire away.
W: Are there many requirements for Political Science?
M: Uh, not really ... Just you must take Political Science 1 and 2, a general history class, and a
writing seminar.
W: I thought you had to take economics, too.
98
M: Not for the general Political Science program. But there are a couple of specialized
programs that have additional requirements.
W: Oh, really? What are they?
M: Well, there is the International Relations program. It is more interdisciplinary, so it requires
economics and a second history credit; the two history credits have to be in different regions.
There is also the honors Political Science program. To get into that, you need to take the same
economics class as the International Relations program, and a special Political Science seminar.
And you need to maintain over a "B" average in all those required courses.
W: Wow, that sounds difficult.
M: Yeah, not many people are qualified for the honors program. That's why it's considered more
prestigious, I guess.
W: Is that all?
M: No. You also have to complete this form, listing all the Political Science and related credits
you have already taken or plan to take, and get the department chair to sign off on it.
W: Uggh. This is really a lot of work.
M: Yeah, but everyone has to do it. It's not different from any other majors; the department
wants to know that you've thought about your major carefully and thoroughly, and that all the
students are being realistic in their expectations.
Q.26-30:
M: Hey, Clara. Got a minute?
W: Oh, hi, Will. Sure, I've got plenty of time. What's the matter?
M: Did you see the poster saying that our debate club meeting tonight had been moved?
W: Oh yes, you didn't get the email?
M: My computer hasn't been working these few days, so I can't get access to my mailbox.
Anyway, why has it been moved?
W: That whole wing of the Student Union building is getting repainted today, so it's off-limits
until the paint dries, vented properly and the workers clean everything up.
M: It's about time. The club offices in the student building have been looking rundown for quite a
while now. A new paint-job would do them a world of good.
W: And the rooms are going to be repainted in a lighter color, too. That old paint was too dark
and depressing.
M: A lighter color would help everything look bigger, too. Our debate club could use that.
W: Yeah, but we need more than just light paint. We've grown too big for that little room; we
really need to move into a bigger place.
M: Any chance of that happening?
99
W: Not that I know of. Except for tonight, that is, just for this once, we'll be meeting downstairs
in Turner Auditorium.
M: That place is huge, way too big for us.
W: I know, but it was the only place available tonight. And it was either there or else cancel the
meeting altogether.
M: I guess it's better than canceling. Although, to be honest, I could use another week to prepare
for my speech, I've been really busy with my classes lately.
Q.31-35: Listen to part of a lecture in a film class. The professor is talking about science
fiction and popular culture.
Science fiction is very popular these days – in books, in movies, and on TV. Unfortunately, popular
science fiction is often a lot more "fiction" and not so much "science." One of the most common
problems is science fiction's fascination with faster-than-light travel. We know that is impossible,
as it violates Einstein's basic theory of space and time, but on Star Trek and other science fiction
shows, spaceships jump from star to star and galaxy to galaxy like you or I might want to drive to
another city. In truth, the closest star to Earth, Proxima Centauri, is over three light years away.
That means traveling at the speed of light, the fastest speed anyone theoretically could travel, it
would take three years to make it to our nearest neighbor. Other stars and galaxies are routinely
thousands and millions of light years away, making intergalactic travel an impossibility. Even if
we grant that such space travel somehow was possible, there is no shortage of other errors in
popular science fiction. In Star Wars and other films, spaceships swoop across the screen, with
their. ... uh ... their engines emitting a great roar. However, since space is a void, sound waves
cannot travel. There is no sound in space; it is utterly silent. Gravity is another mystery in these
films. Gravity depends mostly on mass. Spaceships are tiny compared to the mass of earth. In
space there should be practically no gravity. And yet people in science fiction routinely walk
around on their spaceships in space as comfortably as they would on earth. That said, there have
been a few, scarce films that bothered to portray the science of space flight somewhat realistically.
In 2001: A Space Odyssey, the ship must rotate to create artificial gravity. Outside the spaceship,
there is total silence. And the voyage from Earth to Jupiter takes many months. But such films are
the exception, not the rule. While science fiction may be enjoyable, you should look elsewhere to
learn about science.
100
ANSWER KEY- READING TEST 1
PART 1 PART 2 PART 3 PART 4
1. A 11. B 21. B 31. A
2. B 12. D 22. C 32. B
3. B 13. B 23. C 33. A
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. B
5. C 15. B 25. A 35. C
6. A 16. D 26. C 36. C
7. D 17. D 27. C 37. B
8. C 18. B 28. C 38. A
9. C 19. C 29. D 39. C
10. A 20. C 30. D 40. A
101
MODEL ANSWER- WRITING TEST 1
Task 1:
Dear Sara,
Manchester is a really interesting city. There are a lot of shops here. The people are friendly and
the night life is fantastic. It’s a pity it’s always raining!
As you know, I’m working in a fast-food restaurant. I go to work from 5 to 9 in the evening, so I
don’t go out with my friends very often. I go straight home after work to review the lessons and
get ready for the class the next day. However, I love my job because I have lots of chances to
practice speaking English with the customers. I believe that I can improve my spoken English so
much. However, I don’t like my boss because he’s too strict.
I was living with an English family, but I didn’t get on very well with them. Therefore, now I’m
sharing a flat with 4 French students. We have a lot of fun together, but I’m not speaking much
English at home because we always use French.
I’m going to English classes every morning in a language school next to my flat. I can learn a lot
here and make great progress.
Well, it’s time for work now.
Looking forward to hearing from you.
Best wishes,
Word count: 200
102
Task 2:
Traffic congestion in many big cities of Viet Nam is getting more and more serious. Many people
believe that one possible solution to this problem is to impose heavy taxes on car drivers and spend
this money on making public transport better. However, there are both pros and cons to deciding
to do this. This essay will discuss the benefits and drawbacks of such a measure and draw a
conclusion.
Let’s begin by looking at the positive aspects of such a solution. One of the main advantages would
be that the heavy taxes would discourage car owners from using their cars because it would become
very expensive to drive. This would mean that they would begin to make use of public transport
instead to travel here and there, thus reducing road accidents and pollution as well. Another good
point would be that more people would use public transport if it were improved. In fact, public
transport in major cities like Hanoi and Saigon is very poor. For example, we often see old and
dirty buses and trains that no one wants to take a ride on. High taxes would create enough money
to make the necessary changes.
On the other hand, there are some negative points of such a measure. First, this would be a heavy
burden on car drivers. At present, taxes on private cars are already high for a lot of people, and so
further taxes would only mean less money at the end of the month for most people who may have
no choice but to drive every day. Another problem is that this type of tax would likely be set at a
fixed amount for all who use car as a means of transport. This would mean that it would hit those
with less money harder, while the rich could afford it. It is, therefore, not a fair tax.
In conclusion, there are two sides to everything and applying this solution is not an exception.
However, personally I think it’s time for us to do something to tackle the problem of traffic jams
in big cities of Viet Nam. This measure is, therefore, obviously worth considering to improve the
current situation.
Word count: 341
103
SUGGESTED IDEAS FOR SPEAKING TEST 1

Let’s talk about walking.
- Do you like walking? When and where do you walk?
When? every morning; at the weekend; in one’s free time
Where? in the park; in one’s neighborhood; in the countryside along the beach
- Do you think walking is important?
Walking is a good way to relax/ reduce stress/ improve blood circulation/ keep fit/ stay
useful. healthy
- Do you think walking in the countryside is better than walking in the city?
Walking in the lots of fresh air and green areas; no traffic; safe walking; enjoyable experience;
countryside good places for walkers
Walking in the regular and convenient walking; easy friend-making; nice short walks; beautiful
city parks for walkers
Let’s talk about your eating habits.
- Do you often eat healthy food?

- What do you usually eat at school/ at work?
- What is the unhealthiest food you can think of?
Healthy eating -eating lots of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains

habit
- regularly having good protein from fish, milk, and eggs
- having little red meat, sugar, and fat
- staying away from junk foods
Unhealthy - having unbalanced diet
104
eating habit - overconsuming red meat, sugar, and fat
- not eating much fruits or vegetables

Situation: You are choosing a birthday gift for your friend. There are three suggestions: a
book, a music show ticket, and a shopping coupon. Which do you think is the best choice?
A book an affordable gift; a good memory; high availability; many choices
A music show a special gift; enjoyment of watching live music performance and seeing one’s
ticket idols
A shopping a nice gift for female friends; high convenience; own choices
coupon

Topic: Cheap air travel should be promoted.
Cheap air travel
Offering a flexible enjoying deep discounts on undersold flights/ best fares on different
travelling mode dates/ good deals on early booking/ different charges for different travel
plans
Reducing travelling costs opting for limited comforts to save budget; saving up to 70% of costs
with flexible travel time and destinations
Creating business being time-efficient and cost-efficient for business deals; expanding
opportunities local and international markets; easily seeking business partners
-promoting cultural exchange:
international flights bridging cultural gaps and increasing value

More ideas for cheap air exchange
travel - boosting world travel:
low-budget flights reducing distance and minimizing cost-related

problems on travel
105
- developing economy:
tourist services creating jobs / increasing employment; business
yielding profit
- Do you think that governments should encourage cheap flights?
Encouraging cheap improving remote areas; increasing employment; facilitating goods

flights transport; developing economy
- Are there any problems with low-cost air travel?
Problems with low-cost extra costs for baggage and on-flight meals; small seats and limited
air travels legroom; basic customer service; low safety; non-refundability
- Cheap air tickets should be offered on domestic flights or international flights?
Cheap domestic flights encouraging family visits/ increasing local trade; developing tourism;
offering flexible transport modes
International flights promoting world travel; increasing international trade; developing

transnational cooperation
106
ANSWER KEY – LISTENING TEST 2
PART 1
1B 2A 3B 4B 5B 6C 7C 8B
PART 2:
9B 10 B 11 C 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 C
PART 3:
21 B 22 B 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 B 31 B 32 A 33 A
34 A 35 B
SCRIPTS:
Q.1 Who is probably making talking on the phone?
Hello, this is Gloria with Dr. Baum's office. This is a reminder of your dental appointment for
Thursday, May 22, at 1:00 p.m. Since you have several cavities to fill, please allow yourself at
least three hours for the visit.
Q.2: Why has the meeting been relocated?

Because the South Tower is undergoing renovations, the design team meeting scheduled for
tomorrow morning has been moved to the North Tower conference room on the 12th floor. The
meeting will still be held at 10:00.
Q.3: What is the main cause of decreased domestic sales?

Unfortunately, I must report that domestic sales have dropped by 17 percent over the last two
quarters. Although the sluggish domestic economy is a factor, the primary cause of this worrying
development is increasing competition in the retail clothing sector.
Q.4: What should the listeners do before they skate?

This weekend is the first outing of the in-line skating club for this season. Remember, you are not
allowed to skate with the club unless you wear an approved safety helmet. You can ask Rea, the
safety coordinator, if you are unsure about your gear.
Q.5: What profession does the speaker work in?

As a woman and sports announcer, I'm often approached about giving speeches on women in
sports.
107
Q.6: What is the purpose of Ricardo's visit?
Ricardo will be here in the U.S. for three months observing some of the managerial techniques
and procedures we use at this office.
Q.7: What kind of business would be making this announcement?

In order to improve customer service, we will be initiating a customer satisfaction survey. The
survey will focus on several different areas, including courtesy and promptness by waiters or
waitresses, cleanliness, and food quality and selection.
Q.8: Why has confidence increased?

Investor confidence was bolstered by government data indicating inflation rose by barely two
tenths of one percent last quarter, meaning that the National Bank is unlikely to raise interest
rates.
SCRIPTS:
Q.9- 12:
W: Our copier has been acting strangely today. Could you come and take a look at it for us?
M: Okay, but did you check to see if any paper is jammed inside?
W: Yes, I did, but that's not the problem. I think the problem may be more serious.
M: All right, but I have to run across town this morning to fix a machine there, so I don't think I
can make it to your office until after lunch.
Q.13- 16:
W: Hi, there. I'm having trouble finding this certain book on medieval German nobility.
M: Let me check on the computer. Hmm ... it appears that we don't have it.
W: Oh, no. It was really important for an essay I'm working on right now.
M: Well, we have a central computer system that is connected to the other university libraries in
the state. I can search them all to see where your book is, then order it from the nearest university.
You could borrow it from another library.
W: That would be great. How long will it take?
M: We can usually get a book here in two or three days. But the lending period is shorter than for
a normal book - only 10 days instead of two weeks. And if you're late returning books from other
libraries, the overdue fine is a lot larger.
W: I won't be late. But does it cost anything to sign out books from other libraries?
108
M: Not for up to five books. Any more than that, and you would have to pay a small service charge.
Q.17- 20:
M: What's the matter, Jane?
W: Oh, I was supposed to meet James for a study session at 4, but he's late.
M: James is like that. I always give myself an extra 15 minutes or so whenever I have an
appointment with him.
W: That's not a bad idea. I'd like to have him waiting for me for a change.
M: Yeah, some people are just irresponsible like that. I remember once he was actually late for
the exam. Nearly 20 minutes late, and he just comes walking in, like there's nothing wrong. He
wasn't worried or anything.
W: I can't imagine myself being like that. I always leave myself extra time, just to make sure I'm
always ready and on time.
M: Oh, there he comes now.
W: It's about time.
M: How long are you guys planning on studying?
W: Pretty late. We have a big chemistry test tomorrow and I'm really behind.
M: Well, maybe I'll see you later. I have to get some work done at the library, too.
SCRIPTS:
Q.21- 25:
W: Can you believe Professor Kensington postponed the due date for the term paper this morning?
It's unbelievable!
M: Yeah, it was crazy! I've been spending days and nights in the computer lab writing up
that paper. I only did that because he kept on emphasizing that he won't take any paper that's not
in his office by noon today.
What did the woman do last night?
W: I heard that, too. Jessica and I stayed up half the night trying to finish it. I think it was
three o'clock in the morning when we finally had the third draft. I barely had any sleep.
What is probably true about the woman?
M: You had Jessica to help you? At least you had someone to proofread your paper and help
you with the research. It was a nightmare for me. I didn't even have time to proofread my paper.
W: Well, I'm really upset that Professor Kensington was so inconsiderate. Don't you agree?
M: I guess it was a hasty change, but... I think he did it for us students.
W: You really didn't get enough sleep, did you? You're not thinking straight. I can't possibly
109
see how I can understand his hasty decision that way.
What can be inferred about the man?
M: Well, as much as I'm unhappy with his last-minute decision, I think he did it so that we
could have one more chance to look over our work before turning it in. Besides, an
extension of two days isn't going to change anything drastic in our papers.
W: I suppose. Still, I would have had more time to study for the calculus exam, which was
today, if I hadn't had to spend so much time and energy on that paper.
M: Oh well, at least he didn't tell us to hand it in earlier.
W: That's right ... anyway, I'm not going to spend another two days on the assignment. I'm handing
it in after the next class. What is the woman probably going to do next?
Q.26- 30:
W: Professor Atkins, could I get some help with my chemistry lab?
P: Certainly, Julie. What's the problem? Are you having trouble understanding some of the
experiments?
W: Oh, no, I understand the experiment…perhaps I only think that I understand it.
P: What do you mean? Do you or don't you?
W: Well, I tried the latest experiment by myself, based on what I understood from your Who is professor Atkins?
lectures and lab session ... but I seem to come up with really different results from what the
textbook indicates I should be getting.
P: That certainly is a possibility. Remember, the textbook tends to give you an ideal explanation
of the experiments. But in real life, any number of factors can cause you to get results that might
not be the ideal or preferred outcome.
W: Oh, that's good ... so any result is acceptable?
P: No, of course there is a range for this particular experiment, I'd expect your answer to be within
... let's see now ... perhaps 4 or 5% off the textbook.
W: Really? My answer was nearly 10% off. Wouldn't that be alright?
P: I'm sorry, but that would be a problem. If your answer were that far from the proper
answer, and say that even if you could explain the difference, I would have to lower
your grade significantly.
W: I see. Alright. I guess I'm going to have to redo it. I want to do well in your class and can't
afford to get a bad grade.
P: Very good. But you'll have to hurry, the lab is due Friday, and I won't be giving any extensions.
W: Oh, I was hoping ...
P: Yes?
110
W: Oh, it's nothing. Well, could you please sign a permission slip for me to use the lab after hours?
I only have time during late evenings this weekend.
P: Sure, I'll do that for you right now. Here you go .. ., and a tip ... before you start the
experiment, wipe the test tubes with alcohol... there might be unwanted residue inside that might
be affecting the result.
Q.31- 35:
We'll be looking into the largest state in America, Alaska. If you look at the location of Alaska on
the map, you can see that it is bordered by Canada on the east, the Arctic Ocean on the north, the
Bering Strait and Bering Sea to the east, and the Gulf of Alaska ... wait a minute ... sorry about
that... to the west and the Gulf of Alaska to the south. And as you can see on the map, Alaska has
a greater land area than California and Texas combined. Now, although there are many cities in
Alaska, the population is so low that an average number of students in a middle school classroom
is only about 10. You can imagine many desolate small towns scattered around Alaska. It's
probably because roads and railways serve only certain portions of the state. So, it's natural that
Alaskans rely heavily on airplanes for transportation, since many parts of Alaska are accessible
only via air. Well, of course, there is a railway operating between Fairbanks, a relatively big city
in central Alaska, and Seward, a city on the southern coast. It is much more popular than the only
major highway in Alaska, the Alaska Highway, which is open throughout the year. Not that there's
much traffic. One does not need to venture far to understand the reason for its sparse population.
Even though cold climate and other factors make most of Alaska a less-than-desirable location for
farming, agriculture is conducted in a few areas between Fairbanks and the southern coast. Most
of the food Alaskans need, however, must be imported from outside the state. Also, Alaska is subject
to strong earthquakes and occasional volcanic activity. Your textbook describes the explosion of
the Alaskan volcano Mount Katmai in the early 20th century as one of the most famous and violent
volcanic eruptions in history. I strongly suggest you read up on that chapter, as we'll be touching
on some of that the next time. Anyway, where was I? Oh yes, earthquakes ... these occasional
earthquakes generate seismic sea waves, called tsunamis. As you may have heard, these waves
can reach far inland and destroy communities along the shore. It wasn't much different from the
terrible tsunami of 2004.
111
1. A 11. D 21. B 31. C
2. C 12. A 22. A 32. C
3. A 13. B 23. B 33. B
4. D 14. A 24. C 34. A
5. B 15. A 25. A 35. B
6. A 16. C 26. B 36. B
7. C 17. C 27. C 37. C
8. D 18. B 28. A 38. A
9. D 19. C 29. C 39. C
10. A 20. B 30. D 40. D
112
Task 1:
Dear Daisy,
It’s great to hear from you again. I hope everything is going well in London.
Thanks for sending me the photos. I really like them because they remind me of the great time we
spent with each other in Ha Long Bay. I believe that you enjoyed the breath-taking scenery here
so much.
As you probably know, I had a bit of trouble at Tân Sơn Nhất airport because of the accidental
power-cut, but I got home safely in the end.
I’m afraid I won’t be able to get away this spring as I have to visit my grandparents in Central
Vietnam then. What about a trip to Hà Nội, the capital City of Viet Nam next summer? I will have
graduated from university by next June, and I’ve got a whole month to travel before starting my
first job.
Well that’s all for now, Daisy. Drop me a line when you have time and let me know what you think
about my plan.
All the best,
Word count: 169
113
Task 2:
Technological advances in the past few decades help to gradually replace human workforce with
the-state-of-the-art machines in a wide range of industries. Although people can benefit a lot from
the replacement, personally I think there are some drawbacks of this ongoing trend. This essay
will examine the negative effects of the development of technology on human- beings and
then propose some solutions.
One of the biggest problems is that there is less social interaction among factory workers because
they always have to work with machines. They just focus on the machine they operate instead of
communicating with their co-workers. The solution is for the board of directors to organize social
activities such as team building, going for a picnic at an amusement park, having staff parties on
national holidays and so on. Thanks to these activities, workers have a chance to spend time
together talking and sharing their work experience as well as life experience with one another.
Another issue is that this trend has made workers lazier because they tend to heavily depend on
machines. In some cases, they can, but they are unwilling, and even refuse to fulfill their task by
hand when a technical problems like a breakdown or power cut occurs. To tackle this problem, the
management, along with the trainer should raise the workers’ sense of responsibility to make
efforts to do their duty if possible without assistance of machinery.
Last but not least, this replacement may increase the unemployment rate. As machines can perform
faster and more efficiently, the need for manpower will decrease dramatically. There might be only
vacancies for highly-qualified technicians who can operate modern machines. As a result,
unskilled manual workers may run the risk of being jobless. Dealing with this issue involves the
government, local authority and vocational schools’ launching some specific programs or training
courses in which manual workers are trained to control fashionable machines. Moreover, they
should be encouraged to update themselves with the development of today’s science and
technology so as not to be left behind.
All things considered, no one can deny that there are two sides of the same coin; we can, therefore,
see both the pros and cons of substituting machinery for manpower. However, the government,
the factory management, and the vocational school can take the above-mentioned measures to
make a great contribution to minimizing its downsides.
Word count: 350
114
Let’s talk about weather.

- What kind of weather do you like?
Favorite weather Hot/ cold/ cool/ warm/ wet/ dry/ nice/ beautiful weather
- Does weather affect your mood/ feeling?
Weather affects people’ - Sunny weather/ clear days keep people happy and excited.
moods/ feelings.
- Wet/ cold/ grey days may make people sad/ bored/ depressed.
- What do you usually do in hot/ cold weather?
Hot weather Going out with friends; going for a picnic; joining outdoor activities;
going camping; playing sports; swimming; cycling
Cold weather Listening to music; reading books; playing computer games; playing
indoor sports; watching television; surfing the Internet
Let’s talk about your favorite childhood game.

- What game(s) did you enjoy playing when you were a child?
- Who did you play with?
- Did you need any skills to play the game?
Fun childhood games - Playing football; playing with toy cars; playing with a doll; playing
Tree-House; playing Hide and Seek; skipping ropes;
Players Playing with kids next door/ classmates/ with sisters or brothers/
parents
Skills needed Turn-taking; competing; cooperating; working in teams; conflict-
115
solving; concentrating
Situation: You are planning your holiday. There are three suggestions: a beach holiday, a
climbing holiday, and a sight-seeing holiday. Which do you think is the best choice for you?
A beach holiday Relaxing/ sunbathing on the beach; swimming in the sea; playing
water sports; building sandcastles
A climbing holiday Climbing a mountain/ a rock; hanging at the mountain sides;

camping on the top; discovering caves
A sight-seeing holiday Visiting famous tourist attractions; appreciate the nature and the
wildlife; trying local foods; discovering new cultures

Topic: Music should be taught in schools.
Music education
Relaxing Music at school can help fight stress and entertain students; Soothing
music helps students relax and keep calm.
Memory-improving Music learners usually perform with memory; The skill of memorization
can help students study well.
Helping with language Early musical training improves part of the brain which functions for
and reasoning language and reasoning; Information can be imprinted on young minds
with music and songs
More ideas for music - Students of music can develop imagination and creativity.
education at school
- Students of music can be emotionally developed and have positive
attitudes towards other cultures.
- Students of music can have better auditory attention, and pick out
predictable patterns from surrounding noise.
116
- Should children be encouraged to learn music early?
- Feeling the sense of achievement

Children should be
encouraged to learn - Keeping interested and engaged in school
music early.
- Learning to think creatively
- Do you agree that music can change people’s moods/ feelings?
Music can change - Soothing music calms feelings

people’s moods/
feelings. - Stimulating music wakes up feelings
- How would life be like without music?
- Failing to enrich people’s inner life and soul

Life without music
- Failing to release the sense of emotional freedom
117
ANSWER KEY – LISTENING TEST 3
PART 1:
1D 2B 3B 4A 5D 6C 7D 8B
PART 2:
9B 10 B 11 A 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 D 20 D
PART 3:
21 B 22 C 23 A 24 A 25 B 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D 31 B 32 C 33 D
34 A 35 C
SCRIPTS:
Q.1: Why is the speaker apologizing?
Your attention, please. The library will be closing at 3 o'clock today in order to add new books
and periodicals to its collection. Due to the need to take accurate inventory, we cannot allow books
to be checked out today. We apologize for any inconvenience this may cause.
Q.2: Why would Daniel Jergens like to reschedule the meeting?

Hello, Mr. Thompson, this is Daniel Jergens in the finance division. I am calling about the
upcoming meeting with representatives of Shoal Barrier Associates. If you are free, we would like
to move the meeting forward by one week. The main reason for this is that we need to wrap up the
purchase as quickly as possible. Please get back to me about this as soon as you can.
Q.3: Why will the information technology division be relocating earlier?

Beginning Wednesday, June 3, we will be temporarily relocating to the third floor of our Capital
Cities branch downtown. Before the full relocation, the information technology section will be
moving to the Capital Cities branch on May 20. This step will be necessary with the disruption of
network service caused by the construction work.
Q.4: What is the message mainly about?

Hello, Mrs. Hartman. This is Andy Synton with Premier Design Interiors. I have a few questions
about your recent furniture order. A number of the items you requested are not in stock at the
moment. However, we are able to offer you very similar products that can be shipped right away.
Please let me know if you are interested in this.
118
Q.5: What is the purpose of the talk?
OK, everyone. I asked you all to come today so that you know the schedule for the next 4 months.
As I'm sure you all have heard, we recently received a major contract from Confederated
Enterprises. However, we're really going to have to rush in order to meet the deadline in 4 months.
So, I have broken down the tasks that need to be accomplished by each department and will be
assigning them to you. After I give out your department's tasks, I'd like you to create a plan showing
how you'll be able to complete the assignments by the deadline. I'll need those work plans e-mailed
to me by this Friday.
Q.6: Who most likely is the speaker?

Good evening. This message is for Marty from Clara Clayton. I'm just calling to let you know that
I may have found an office space that might be exactly what you're looking for. It has 6 executive
offices and a conference room. The only problem is that it isn't as close to the subway station as
you wanted. However, it is in a waterfront building, so the view is quite spectacular. The rent is
8,000 dollars a month. So, if you're interested, give me a call and I can arrange for us to have a
look at it today with the landlord. I might not be in the office, so please call me on my mobile.
Thanks a lot, Marty. I'll speak with you soon.
Q.7: What will be provided for the travelers?

May I have your attention, please? Due to severe weather conditions, all outgoing flights after 7
p.m. on Europeo Airlines to Milan have been cancelled. This includes the 7:30 flight as well. The
next available flight to Milan Malpensa International will be tomorrow morning at 8 o'clock. We
apologize for the inconvenience and will be offering hotel accommodations and shuttle bus service
to those passengers who require them. For further information, please go to the Europeo Airlines
counter. Thanks for your patience and understanding.
Q8. What is the celebration for?

It is my great privilege to welcome you all to this evening's anniversary celebration. In just over a
decade, we have become one of the most reputable names in the American office supplies industry.
It is largely because of your efforts that we have made such tremendous strides.
SCRIPTS:
Questions 9-12:
M: Did you find out when the plumber is going to be here to fix the broken pipe?
W: Yes, I called at 1 o'clock, and he said he was tied up in another building and would be here
by 2.
119
M: Okay, it's ten minutes to 2 right now. Could you do me a favor and make sure the work goes
smoothly when he gets here? I have to step out of the office to meet a client but should be back
by 4 o'clock.
W: Okay, I will see you later.
Questions 13-16:
W: John, are you planning to go to Chicago to attend the big conference tomorrow? I heard it's
going to be great.
M: Well, I really want to, but I can't. I just came back from a business trip in Europe, so I have
so much work piled up on my desk.
W: I'm sorry to hear that. Tell you what... I’ll take my video camera with me, and I will film the
speeches you'd like to see.
M: Oh, that would be great. Thanks, Susan.
Questions 17-20:
W: Have you sent out the shipment of computers to the electronics shop yet? The owner just
called and said he needs them within the hour.
M: The truck left ten minutes ago, so it should arrive at the store in the next fifteen minutes. Do
you want me to check to see where the driver is now?
W: That's okay. So long as it has left, it'll be fine. Now could you do me a favor and get those
boxes loaded on to the truck parked over there?
M: Okay, I will take care of that right away.
SCRIPTS:
Questions 21-25:
OK class. I want to talk to you about the Cold War today. Now, the Cold War wasn’t just one
single war. It was actually a long time of aggression. It, um, it lasted about fifty years! Anyway,
the Cold War was mainly between the US and the USSR. That was Russia’s old name. They had
different opinions on just about everything. Oh, and Joseph Stalin, who we have talked about
before, was the leader of the USSR at the start of the Cold War. Anyway! There was a lot of
suspicion during the Cold War. But, the US and the USSR never actually fought each other. This
is because both countries had nuclear weapons. So, they were afraid of each other. They didn’t
want to destroy the whole world. And that might have happened... if they’d fought each other. But,
instead of fighting, they showed their different opinions by competing with each other. For
example, they made their militaries bigger. And they raced each other to see who could get a
120
person in space first. Stuff like that. But, a lot of the problems were political. The two countries
were very different, and so they couldn’t get along. This is what caused the Cold War.
Questions 26-30:
M: OK, yesterday we read about Georges Seurat. Now, many people would like to paint like
Seurat. But, very few people can. He invented a very precise way of painting. It looks different and
is hard to do because it is so exact. There were various styles of painting but Seurat decided to
make a different one. The first difference was that Seurat took a lot of time to prepare before he
painted. He planned his paintings very carefully. He made many drawings to decide on the best
way to reproduce the scene. He worked for many hours before he started to paint. With this style,
you have to have a clear purpose. With other styles at this time, they had very little time to prepare.
Now, the second difference was that he used pure colors. He understood that the eye would blend
the colors. He knew if he painted red next to yellow, the eye would see orange. OK?
W: Why didn’t he just mix the paints like other artists? Wouldn’t that have been easier?
M: Yes, but using pure colors made the painting very bright. These paintings don’t look bright in
books. But when you see them in person. Wow! They are great! Now, as you know the biggest
difference was that Seurat didn’t use brush strokes. He painted tiny dots. One at a time. Millions
and millions of dots and some of his paintings were VERY big! Can you imagine how long this
took? One painting took two years! Of course, that didn’t mean that Seurat was a better painter.
All the well-known painters back then were very good and made beautiful paintings. But, Seurat
was very proud of his different way of painting. He felt that this new style represented people and
nature very well.
Questions 31-35:
W: Today, we’re going to talk about snakes. Can you imagine eating a snake? Me neither. But
there are creatures that do. This is a problem for snakes. So how do they solve this problem? They
have to protect themselves. Let’s look at three types of snakes. The rattlesnake, spitting cobra, and
hognose snake. They all have unique ways of protecting themselves. The rattlesnake solves this
problem in a unique way. You see, rattlesnakes are born with small beads on their tails. As an
average snake gets older, it grows more beads. These beads rub together and make a rattling
sound. OK, so when does the rattlesnake make this noise? When it thinks an animal might attack
it. It cannot shield itself so it tries to scare the creature by rattling its tail. The spitting cobra has
another way to protect itself. What does it do? It sprays poison from its mouth. OK? But this snake
doesn’t just spray it anywhere. No, it sprays it into the eyes of the creature that is attacking it. This
is very effective because eyes are sensitive. The spray stops the creature from seeing. And the snake
gets away. Next, we have the hognose snake. It’s less aggressive. So what does it do? The hognose
snake plays dead. That’s right! It will twist and roll like it’s dying. Then it will lie still on its back.
121
The snake will even hang its tongue out of its mouth! Can you believe that? So, by playing dead,
it actually survives.
122
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. C
2. B 12. C 22. A 32. A
3. D 13. A 23. C 33. D
4. C 14. B 24. C 34. B
5. B 15. C 25. A 35. D
6. A 16. A 26. D 36. C
7. A 17. C 27. C 37. D
8. C 18. B 28. C 38. C
9. A 19. A 29. A 39. B
10. B 20. A 30. B 40. B
123
Task 1:
Dear Clare,
I’m very happy to get your email yesterday and know that you are getting used to your new life.
Why don’t you tell me why have you been so busy and what is going on there?
How many bedrooms are there in your new house? Is there a garden in front? What do you like
most about the house? Remember to send me some photos of it. I love to see them.
You know, missing some things and people here after you have moved to a new place is a matter-
of-course. However, I wonder who and what you miss. Do you miss me and the time we got
together?
I can’t wait to visit you there. What about next September? I have a week off then, so I can arrange
to go and stay with you for a few days.
Hope to hear from you soon.
All the best,
Word count: 150
124
Task 2:
In most parts of the world, including Vietnam, the popularity of fast food is growing at a
considerable rate. Some people hold the view that fast food poses several health hazards to
consumers. However, personally, I strongly believe that eating fast food is a great idea for
busy people for two following reasons.
To begin with, most people, especially young adults consider fast food as a convenient source of
food. In fact, fast food can be prepared and served within a very short time. One day, if you get
stuck in a traffic jam on the way home from work and don’t have enough time to cook dinner, just
take the whole family straight to a KFC restaurant to eat some fried chicken with french fries.
Obviously, fast food industry helps to save human time
Another reason is that eaters can enjoy the pleasant atmosphere in an air-conditioned fast food
restaurant which is beautifully decorated with colorful lights, nice paintings, and modern multi-
shaped tables and chairs. It can’t be denied that you will definitely feel relaxed and comfortable
after hard work and enjoy the good taste of hamburgers, hot dogs, pizzas, and so on here.
Turning to the other side of the argument, consuming too much fast food is the cause of obesity,
diabetes, high blood pressure, and heart disease. In fact, this kind of food is rich in fat, salt, artificial
substances and oils, all of which increase the risk of those health problems. Some recent surveys
show that the number of obese children is alarmingly on the increase.
All in all, I’m in favor of the idea that going to a fast food restaurant for meals is the best choice
when you are as busy as a bee. However, you should limit the amount of oily and salty fast food
consumed due to lots of warnings of health threat suggested by doctors and nutritionists.
(Word count: 315)
125
Let’s talk about noise.

- Do you like to live in a noisy place or a quiet place?
Noisy places Annoying/ irritating/ distracting/ disturbing
Quiet places Calming/ relaxing/ healing/soothing
- What kind of noise disturbs you most?
Disturbing noise Noise from traffic/ machines/ TV/ crowds/ crying babies
- Does noise affect your health?
Effects of noise on health Causing hearing impairment, hypertension, heart disease,

annoyance, and sleep disturbance.
Let’s talk about your favorite photograph.

- What is your favorite photograph?
- When was it taken?
- What makes the photograph special to you?
Favorite photographs -A family photo; a selfie; a school photo; a group photo

- Taken long/ not long ago
- Happy moments in life; nice memories; unforgettable events
126
Situation: You are thinking about how to spend your evening. There are three options:
hanging out with friends, reading books, and surfing the Internet. Explain your choice.
Hanging out with friends Dancing in a club; eating in a fast food restaurant; having a
barbecue; going out for a coffee; sitting and chatting
Reading books Reading fiction / non-fiction books; reading before bedtime;

reading for fun; reading for information
Surfing the Internet Visiting favorite websites; watching music videos; researching a
topic; uploading / downloading files; chatting with friends;
checking e-mails

Topic: There are several ways for people to make friends.
- How to make friends?
Joining social events Annual meetings; workshops; seminars; conferences; business

dinners; shows; exhibitions; fairs; charity events; music recitals
Forming interest-based Sports clubs; cooking clubs; groups of movie-makers/ stamp

groups collectors/ cartoonists; art clubs; drama clubs
Attending parties Wedding receptions; ceremonies; year-end parties; anniversaries;

family celebrations; gatherings; company parties
More ideas about ways to Volunteering; joining social network sites; travelling; working in
make friends teams
- Should people trust online friends? Why or why not?
Online friends - Having things in common because the connections based on location,
education, experiences, hobbies, age, gender, religions
- Having frequent communication between individuals via the Internet
127
- Easily tracking down friends’ profiles or uploaded messages
- Easily leading to a friendship, a romantic relationship, or a business
partnership in real life
- What factors can contribute to a true friendship?
True friends - Having common interests; being good listeners; showing loyalty;
making friendship a priority
- Inspiring/ trusting/ accepting / supporting/ encouraging / respecting
each other
- Which one is more important: family or friends?
Family vs friends - Family members are close by nature.
- Friends are close by interests or personality.

- Both family and friendship are true cause of happiness.
- Both family and friendship give a sense of love, joy, and laughter.
- Family ties tend to be longer and more reassuring.
128
PART 1
1A 2D 3B 4A 5A 6A 7C 8A
PART 2
9D 10 B 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 A
PART 3:
21 B 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 A 29 D 30 B 31 C 32 B 33 A
34 A 35 A
SCRIPTS
Q.1: What does the caller ask Ms. Cook to do?
Hi, Ms. Cook. This is the Village Clinic calling to remind you about your appointment on Thursday
at 4 o'clock. Please remember to bring your medical insurance card when you come for your
appointment.
Q.2: Who is Sachiko Suzuki?

Hello, Mr. Forrester. This is Sachiko Suzuki calling from human resources at Kitano Electronics.
If you are available, we would like you to come in for an interview on Friday at 9 o'clock. Please
give me a call and let me know if you can come at this time.
Q.3: What is the listener asked to do?

Hello, this is Jenny Jones from Jones Mobile Repairs. I'm calling to give you an update on the
repair of your mobile phone. Unfortunately, we will have to replace the speaker in your phone.
Please call me back at 555-1947 to let me know if you want me to order a new speaker.
Q.4: What is the purpose of this message?

Good morning, this is Maria Gray calling from Dilbert Furniture. This message is for Rebecca
Rhodes. I need to speak with her about the number of desks she requested, and want to confirm
her order before we ship her purchases.
Q.5: What is the main purpose of the call?

This is Julie calling from the Stylista Hair Salon. I’m trying to reach Mr. Andrews concerning the
interview we scheduled for this afternoon. I'm not feeling well today, so I'm afraid I'll have to
cancel our meeting. However, we are very interested in your application for our hairstylist
129
position. I hope to be back in the office tomorrow, so please call my secretary and let her know if
you are available to meet with me tomorrow.
Q.6 What is Ms. Kim asked to do?

Hello, Ms. Kim. This is Joe Wang from Romy Office Rentals. I 'm calling because we won't be able
to meet the delivery date. Our salesperson made a mistake and ordered a different photocopier
from what you requested. If we rush, we could deliver it to you by Friday night. Can you please
call and let me know if someone will be there in your office? Thanks.
Q.7: What is the decreasing percentage of domestic sales?

Unfortunately, I must report that domestic sales have dropped by 17 percent over the last two
quarters. Although the sluggish domestic economy is a factor, the primary cause of this worrying
development is increasing competition in the retail clothing sector.
Q.8: What does the speaker say about Rea?

This weekend is the first outing of the in-line skating club for this season. Remember, you are not
allowed to skate with the club unless you wear an approved safety helmet. You can ask Rea, the
safety coordinator, if you are unsure about your gear.
SCRIPTS
Questions 9 – 12:
W: Hi, Professor Johnson. Can I talk to you?
M: Why, yes, Carrie.
W: Oh, great! I need some help with my essay. I’m having problems finding good information
other than the things from the lessons. And I’m not very good at taking notes.
M: Hmm... OK. Let’s talk about finding good information first. Books are the best. But, these
days, you can look online too.
W: OK. How do I decide what websites and books to use?
M: Well, with the Internet, you type in a subject and you’ll get a list of websites. With books, do
a search on the library computer. It will give a list of useful books. It’s very easy.
W: Wow. That is easy. OK, then what?
M: Take notes. Don’t copy everything. You only need a summary of the information. With books,
sometimes reading the introduction and conclusion first will help you to decide if it is useful.
W: Yeah, I’ve been reading a lot. And I always copy down too much.
130
M: Just take notes that will give you the evidence you need for your essay paragraphs. Oh, and
the organization of your notes is important too. You will have to find your information again
easily.
W: Right. Of course. Thanks so much for your help!
Questions 13- 16:

W: Hi, Mr. Baker. Could you help me with something?
M: Sure. What can I do for you?
W: Well, I’d like to check out some library books. I have to do some research for an essay.
M: I see. Well, you’ve got two choices. You can either use the self-service machine, or you can
take the books to the front desk.
W: Could you explain them both, please?
M: OK, sure. See that machine that looks like a computer?
W: Yeah.
M: Well, that’s the self-service machine. You’ll have to scan your student ID card. Wait a
second; did you set up a student library account yet?
W: Yes.
M: OK, good. Anyway, then you scan the books, and the machine will print you a receipt. The
receipt tells you when the books are due back.
W: Oh, that’s great. I always forget when my books are due back.
M: Yeah. Just be sure to press your ID and the books on the scanner; it’s sensitive sometimes.
W: OK, so what’s my other checkout choice?
M: You can take your books over to the front desk, where the librarian will help you.
W: Oh, that’s it? That’s easy. Thanks for the help.
Questions 17- 20:

W: Hello. Do you need help?
M: Hi. Yes, I’m doing research for my history essay and I’m trying to find a book, but I’m not
sure where to begin.
W: No problem. Let’s see... there are two ways to find books here. You can either use the
computer system, or you can use the book lists.
M: How do the book lists work?
131
W: Well, the lists organize the books by their subjects. You’re looking for a book on history. So,
first you look under “History” on the list. Then you look at the title. Each book is in alphabetical
order.
M: OK, I see.
W: Good. Each book has a number next to it, and those numbers tell you where to find that book.
M: I see. And did you mention something about a computer?
W: Oh yeah, I almost forgot. The computer is just as easy. Do a search for your book, and it will
tell you where to find it.
M: Great! I should be able to find what I need. Thanks!
W: Oh, and remember if you want to check out any books you need to scan your ID card at the
self-service machine. If you have any books due on your account, you won’t be able to check out
anymore.
M: OK, got it.
Questions 21-25:
All right. Today’s lecture is about heat. Actually, we will talk about the ways heat moves. This is
called heat transfer. Now, there are three types of heat transfer. They are called [slowly]
convection..., conduction..., and... radiation. OK? OK! Convection happens when heat moves
through gases and liquids. When air or water heat up, they get lighter. Then they move away from
the heat. They rise. When they get cooler, they change direction. They come back down to the heat
again. In convection, this repeats over and over. For example, a hot-air balloon. Fire heats the
air. The hot air becomes lighter. The balloon rises up. But, as the air cools, it gets heavier. So, the
balloon goes down. Convection is how hot-air balloons fly. Now, next is conduction. This happens
when heat moves through solids. First, a solid object is put on heat. Eventually the solid object
takes this heat and it gets hot. Some materials are very good at conduction. Metals, for example.
This is why many cooking pans are made of metal. They heat up quickly. But don’t touch them.
Ouch! Conduction causes many burns. Finally, heat also moves by radiation. If you can feel heat
from an object without touching it then it is radiating heat. Remember you can’t see this heat. The
sun, a toaster, a dryer. All these things use radiation. Have you ever warmed your hands by a fire?
Even this is radiation. OK? Do we understand?
Questions 26-30:
OK. So, Impressionism was a new way of painting. It went against old art standards. It changed
what was seen as good art. Before it, art was considered good if it was exact. Artists tried to
reproduce what they saw on the canvas. They aimed to make the painting look just like what they
could see. Impressionist painters were different. The first thing you will notice in an Impressionist
132
painting is the use of color. These artists didn’t mix colors. They put two colors side by side. They
knew the eyes would blend the colors for them. The purpose was to create bright and bold colors.
Movement was also important. Painters often worked outdoors. This was not normal at the time.
Most painters had someone pose for them inside. But the Impressionist went outside. First, they
wanted to capture life as it was happening. Their subjects were doing something. They were not
posing. Blurred lines showed movement. They paid attention to lighting. Working outside allowed
artists to use natural light. This is always changing. The change comes through in the painting.
Different times of year are represented with the change in seasons. Impressionist Art changed art.
It broke the rules. Many people did not like it for this reason. If you ask me, that’s what makes it
so great. And over time, many people agreed.
Questions 31-35:
W: The book Watership Down... let’s talk about it today. It has sold more than 50 million copies.
This book’s themes are people and politics. This book looks at how people treat each other and
criticizes governments. It uses a story about rabbits. A group of rabbits leave home to find a new
place to live. They can’t remain in their old home because it’s going to be destroyed. So, they
escape. After a while, the group finds a safe new home. But, they start fighting with other rabbit
towns nearby. The rabbits in these towns are very different. And because of this, no one gets on.
This shows how people in real life can’t accept each other’s differences. One group of rabbits is
called Efrafa. The leader is an adult male rabbit. He controls his town. He tells everyone what to
do. No child, teenager, or adult has freedom to learn or experience anything there. The other
group of rabbits is the Tharn Warren. It is also very bad. Things are too easy there. Growing up
in a place like that means you learn very little. Some people think that the two rabbit towns are
like different kinds of governments in the world. And that no government is perfect.
M: Oh, I see! Having a really easy life is bad for you. This is like, uh, the Tharn Warren. The
rabbits don’t have to work to find food there. And Efrafa is a place where there is no real freedom.
So it is bad too.
W: Yes, exactly. Watership Down may seem like a simple story about rabbits. But it asks real
questions about how we live. This is why it is so popular.
133
ANSWER KEY –READING TEST 4
1. A 11. C 21. D 31. C
2. D 12. B 22. D 32. C
3. A 13. B 23. B 33. A
4. A 14. A 24. A 34. D
5. B 15. C 25. B 35. C
6. C 16. D 26. C 36. C
7. A 17. A 27. C 37. D
8. B 18. A 28. A 38. D
9. D 19. C 29. B 39. A
10. C 20. B 30. C 40. C
134
Task 1:
Hi Mary,
I’m very happy to hear from you again. It’s been such a long time. Of course, I still remember you
and the time I visited your high school in Oxford. I had lots of nice memories with you and your
classmates that summer.
I’m studying English at Ho Chi Minh City University of Education. I will be a teacher of English
after graduation. I also work part-time as a tutor. I love to teach English to children because they
look so adorable and seem eager to study another language.
You know, it’s great to tell you that I will have a chance to return to Oxford this summer and
definitely see you again there. As the best student of the course I’m taking at university, I have
been awarded a two-week trip to Oxford this June. Just think and tell me what we are doing then.
Please send my best regards to Pete.
Keep in touch.
Word count: 156
135
Task 2:
Over the last few years, many cities throughout the country have seen an alarming increase in the
levels of youth crime. This has become a question that not only the authorities but also parents are
concerned about. In this essay, I would like to analyze some reasons for this and suggest some
possible solutions.
The causes of this issue lies in the way the youth are brought up by their parents and the increasing
level of poverty in cities. The first reason is connected with the family. In order for a child to grow
up in a balanced way, it is very important that he or she must be nurtured by his or her parents with
love, care, and support. However, these days, it is often the case that children are neglected due to
the fact that many parents in cities now are too busy with their work to give their children good
advice and support in time. Another factor to consider is the increasing levels of poverty around
the world. We have seen with globalization the rich get far richer and the poor get much poorer,
and this inevitably means that those who were unfortunately born into a poor family and are
reluctant to work hard, but want to live in comfort turn to robbing and stealing. Reality shows that
they even dare to kill others to grab what they desire.
To solve the problem, we should take several measures on the part of families as well as society.
First, parents must spend more time with their children to control what they do and how they
behave so as to offer them timely guidance and prevent them from making a mistake and then
committing a crime. Second, those who commit a crime must be severely punished; for example,
a teenage murderer can be sentenced to death. It is also essential that the authorities send young
criminals to a rehabilitation center, where they have a chance to learn how to behave well and get
some vocational training so that they can find a job to support themselves later.
In conclusion, several factors have led to a dramatic increase in youth crime at present, but feasible
solutions are available to tackle this problem. I’m convinced that taking the above-mentioned
measures can help to reduce the level of youth crime substantially in big cities of Viet Nam.
Word count: 380
136
Let’s talk about your favorite color.

- What color(s) do you like most?
Favorite colors Bright/ dark/ warm / cool colors; [ name of colors]
- Do you care for colors when choosing clothes to wear?
Choosing clothes to wear Color combination; highlight colors; a casual/ work/ formal
outfit; personal taste for clothes; pleasing your sight/ people’s
sight
- Does color affect your mood/ feeling?
Color effects on moods - Colors as powerful communication tools to signal actions,

influence moods, and cause physiological reactions
- Certain colors associated with increased blood pressure,
increased metabolism, and eyestrain
- Warm colors evoking emotions ranging from feelings of
warmth and comfort to feelings of anger and hostility
- Cool colors calling to mind feelings of sadness or indifference
Let’s talk about going to the library.

- How often do you go to the library?
- What do you usually do in the library?
- Do you think that fewer people go to the library nowadays?
Going to the library - public /school/ private libraries
-Seeking trust-worthy free materials; browsing the stacks to look

for new books; making friends with book-lovers; discovering
137
local history; borrowing or returning books, videos, and
materials; concentrating on study; doing research projects
- High competition from e-books; more options for accessing
information via the Internet

Situation: You are going to celebrate your birthday. There are three suggestions for the place
where you can hold the party: in a fast food restaurant, in a sit-down restaurant, and in your
house. What do you think is the best choice?
Fast food restaurants Fast and convenient service; focused choices of foods; affordable meals;
friends’ treats; informal atmosphere; preferences for young customers;
friendly staff; happy-hour offers
Sit-down restaurants Immediate edible temptations; entire meals; various choices of foods
and drinks; specialties for the day; delicious dishes; good cooks; healthy
food servings; comfortable and formal atmosphere
An at-home party Familiar surroundings; nice theme decorations; great privacy; good time
availability; warm atmosphere; good budget management; great time for
family gatherings; healthy food preparation

Topic: More recycling centers should be built in communities.
Benefits of recycling centers
Reducing the size of -Cutting down the amount of rubbish that goes to landfills
landfills
-Recycling in the first place and reusing items wherever possible
Utilizing waste -Using waste which would otherwise be lost to landfill sites
products
-Cutting down the cost and effort of transport and production
-Reducing the demand up on new resources
Offering employment -Placing vacancies for waste collecting, transporting, sorting and
opportunities reprocessing
-Recycling as a win-win strategy for the environment and the economy
138
Further benefits of -Reducing needs for exploiting natural resources
recycling
- Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
- Dealing with climate change
- Are you aware of what recycling means?
Recycling - Recycling is known as the process whereby materials are reused

instead of manufacturing new products.
- Instead of keeping material in landfill sites, recycling aims to use this
material as a resource which can continue to be useful.
- Do you recycle as part of your everyday life?
Recycling habits -Cutting down on disposable products

-Using more reusable items
-Being green in the neighborhood
-Sorting trash
-Saving energy
- Do you agree that everyone should reuse and recycle products?
Recycling and reusing -Working to protect the environment in the long term
as a should
-Lowering levels of energy consumption
-Cultivating a green image for companies and organizations
-Increasing environmental responsibility.

-Conserving natural resources
-Reducing levels of pollution and tackling some causes of global
warming
139
PART 1:
1C 2D 3C 4D 5B 6B 7D 8B
PART 2:
9B 10D 11B 12C 13B 14B 15A 16C 17A 18A 19B 20B
PART 3:
21A 22D 23B 24D 25A 26C 27A 28A 29C 30B 31B 32A 33D
34 B 35D
SCRIPTS:
Q.1: Where would you probably hear this announcement?
Good morning, everyone. Please remember, we have a meeting today in the large meeting hall on
the second floor at 10 o'clock this morning. All staff must attend. We will talk about the move to
our new office building. We will move next Monday. So, you need to know what to do, and where
you need to be on Monday. So please make sure that you are on time for today's meeting.
Q.2: Where would someone hear this message?

Thank you for calling the law offices of Jones and Leung. If you are looking for a lawyer to help
you with a problem, please press ‘1’. If you are a lawyer from another company, please press '2'.
If you are a journalist, please press '3' to speak with our office manager. For all other questions,
press ‘0’ and someone will be with you soon. To hear this message again, press '9'.
Q.3: How long are the classes?

Remember. Everyone needs to attend the Sales Training this Wednesday. The first class will start
at 9 o'clock. At 10:30 we'll have a short coffee break. The second class will start at 10:45. We'll
have lunch from 12:15. The third class will start at 1:30 pm, then a short break. The last class will
start at 3:15 and finish at 4:45. That's the day after tomorrow. Don't forget.
Q.4: What should Jen do tomorrow?

Hi, everyone. Meet Jen, she'll be joining our team starting today. Jen worked in the head office for
five years, but from today, she'll be working with us. Please note that Jen's email address is her
home address because she doesn't have her new office email address yet. When Jen gets her new
office email address tomorrow, she'll give her new address to everyone.
Q.5: What is the purpose of this announcement?
140
May I have your attention? Because of the weather, flight number 446 is going to be a bit late
leaving. It's just too dangerous to take off in this high wind. As soon as this thunderstorm passes,
we will take off. We apologize for the inconvenience.
Q.6: What is the main point of this announcement?

Thank you for coming to see the Pacific Art Museum's exhibition of eighteenth century landscape
paintings. The museum will be closing in fifteen minutes. Please begin moving to the museum exits.
Q.7: Who is Gary Reynolds?

Hi, this is Gary Reynolds, from Skyline Airlines. You recently bought a ticket for February 16th
on flight number 681 from Los Angeles to San Francisco. Unfortunately, there was an error on
our website. That flight actually takes off at 9:40 am, not 10:40 as it said on the website. If that is
a problem, please call me at the customer service line, 334-445-9284, and we will reschedule you
to another flight. I'm sorry for the confusion.
Q.8: What does the woman recommend the listeners to do?

Ladies and Gentlemen. I'm very sorry we woke you up in the middle of the night. There was a small
fire in the hotel 's kitchen, but everything is okay now. The Fire Department has put out the fire.
You can return to your rooms. It's completely safe. We're very sorry for the trouble.
SCRIPTS:
Questions 9-12:
M: Hi, Professor Smith. Do you have a few minutes?
W: Sure. How can I help?
M: I want to know how to write a good essay.
W: I see. What exactly is the problem?
M: Well, I’m not sure. I mean I take many notes, and I understand the lessons. It’s just that my
essays aren’t very good.
W: Ah, yes. A good essay needs organization. Let’s go over the format for an essay.
M: That’d be great.
W: So there are the three parts to an essay. First, there’s the introduction. You need a strong
introduction. This gives the main idea for your whole essay. OK?
M: That makes sense.
W: Next, there are the body paragraphs. They provide evidence or details for your main idea.
M: OK. [Slowly] I think I should write this down.
141
W: Yes, that is a good idea.
M: OK. [Quickly] Can you tell me about body paragraphs again?
W: Sure. The body paragraphs provide evidence or details.
M: Ahhh right.
W: And then there’s your conclusion. The conclusion is just a summary of your main idea.
M: Wow! I’ve never thought of it that way.
W: Yes, it can make a big difference. Good organization is important for essay writing.
Questions 13-16:
M: Hi. Are you in charge of the Student Tutoring Center?
W: No, but I do tutor here.
M: Well, I need help with my mathematics class work. Can you help me?
W: That’s fine. I’m actually a math major. I can help you. But, before we begin, I need to clarify
the rules.
M: Rules? What rules?
W: Well, there are some things I can help you with, and some things I can’t help you with. Let me
explain.
M: OK.
W: First of all, our school has rules about cheating. It’s pretty standard for schools nowadays.
Anyway, according to the rules, if you cheat, then you can get kicked out of school.
M: That makes sense. I don’t want them to punish either one of us because of tutoring.
W: Exactly. OK, so I can help you with things like learning strategies for studying, and studying
from your notes. I can even help you take notes. However, when it comes to class work and
homework, you’re on your own. Are we all clear?
M: I think that’s fair.
W: Good. OK, let’s get started.
Questions 17-20:
M: Hi. Can I help you with anything?
W: Hi, Professor. Well, it’s about our project that’s due next week. I was wondering if I could
get an extension. Can I get an extra week to do it?
M: Why are you asking?
W: I normally wouldn’t, but I’ve been really sick and I was absent for a few of your lectures.
142
M: Well, I’m sorry but I can’t give you an extension. However, I can suggest a couple of ways to
make up for lost time.
W: I hope so. I really need a good grade or I could lose my scholarship. Then I wouldn’t be able
to pay my tuition.
M: You’ll be fine. Here’s what you can do: borrow one of your classmate’s notes from the
lectures that you missed. Ask if he or she can help explain them to you.
W: OK.
M: Or you can go to the library and do the research yourself. I can give you an outline of the
lectures that you missed. You can look up the main information. Either way, you should be fine.
W: Yeah, I guess you’re right. I should get started. Thanks.
SCRIPTS:
Questions 21-25:
M: So I really appreciate your talking with me about this.
W: Well, I was concerned. Generally I think students should get a grade based on your overall
work-but I could see that you didn't do as well on the last test ... and you had done very well on
the first two exams.
M: I know. I was right in the middle of moving out of my dorm at the end of the semester and
that was my last exam. Normally, I wouldn't ask to take an incomplete, but I just didn't feel that a
lower grade really represented my work.
W: I agree. But, again, I don't usually like to do change-of grade forms.
M: OK. I understand
W: So ... well, I was thinking. Perhaps if you want to do an extra credit project ... Let's say,
something that will help you pull your grade back up to an A minus?
M: I can do that. Look ... it's so important that I maintain very good grades. My financial aid
package requires that I do ...
W: I can understand that.
M: So what should I do?
W: OK, here's the deal: You write a five-page paper on Shakespeare's worst play-and I mean,
you have to read all of them to decide what his worst play was. And tell me why you think so.
M: Uh, wow ... that's ...
W: You want to get that change of grade, right?
M: Right, yeah. Of course.
W: Fine, so you'll have two weeks to write this paper shouldn't take you too long if you have
done your reading.
143
M: Oh, I have. I've read all the plays. And I think I know which one I'm going to choose.
W: Fine. Don't tell me ... surprise me.
M: I will. So, what happens if I do a good job on the paper?
W: Then I will fill out the forms for a change of grade. It takes a few weeks after that, but the
new grade should go on your transcript afterwards.
M: OK ... I guess I will have to go to the library over semester break ... thanks for your
understanding.
Questions 26-30:
W: Hi. I really need your help. I've got to prepare for a presentation and I haven 't got a clue
about how to do a visual slide show ...
M: Well, that's why we're here. We have tutors who know all the word-processing and
presentation programs. Uh, do you know what presentation viewer program you want to use?
W: I have no idea. Which is best?
M: That depends on what you want to do. Is your presentation just text or do you want to use
visuals with all the bells and whistles?
W: Um, you mean like images and graphics, and things that move around on the screen?
M: Exactly. You can include sounds or video too ...
W: Yes, absolutely ... the better it looks, the better I hope my grade will be.
M: Oh I think it is important that a presentation looks good-but you have to have the substance
too.
W: I guess so ... uh ...
M: You know what I mean ... if you have a good foundation for your presentation, you'll be fine.
W: Oh, right.
M: Anyway, I would advise you to use this presentation viewer program because it's pretty
intuitive-you can figure it out as you go along.
W: I've never really tried it.
M: After your tutorial, I think you'll find it is pretty simple. Speaking of which, uh, when do you
want to schedule your tutoring session?
W: As soon as possible! My presentation is next week and I'm nervous about speaking in front of
other people anyway. It would be bad if I had no time to practice using the program.
M: That's true. So ... then, how about tomorrow at 2 p.m.? Bring your outline.
W: Great. I'll do that. Can I bring my laptop with me?
M: Sure ... see you then.
144
Questions 31-35:
With unemployment rampant in the economic depression of the 1930s, the government established
a program to put people to work. It was called the Works Progress Administration, or WPA. The
WPA funded the construction and maintenance of schools, parks and highways. A small
subdivision of the WPA, uh the Federal Arts Project, or FAP, was dedicated to employing artists.
The reasoning behind the FAP was that the arts, as much as schools and bridges, contributed to
the public welfare. And of course artists at the time of the Depression were extremely vulnerable.
Photographers were uniquely suited to the requirements of the FAP, not least because much of
their work constituted documenting the achievements of the WPA. But documentation in the larger
sense of capturing the reality of an entire country was the mission of many of the FAP
photographers. One of the photographers funded by the FAP beginning in 1935 was Berenice
Abbott. It was perfect timing for Berenice Abbott-she'd been photographing New York City since
her return from Paris in 1929. Long before the FAP came into being, her stated purpose was to
document and interpret America with love, but without sentimentality. And she felt that New York
represented the essence of the changing nature of American society. I want to just go back to that
word, sentimentality. Because it relates to how we can define Abbott's approach to her art. As we
talked about last week, photography in its initial stages had been used in a very painterly fashion.
People like Abbott realized early on that photography's strengths had not been recognized or
utilized. Abbott and her contemporaries rebelled against the widespread painterly use of soft focus
in favor of the sharpness and clarity naturally inherent in photography. And they also rejected the
sentimentality of typical pastoral scenes and landscapes in favor of a realistic depiction of fast-
paced, modern urban life. It was this sensibility that she brought with her to New York from Paris,
where she had been living for eight years. Abbott's project was, simply put, to photograph New
York City. She called her project "Changing New York." And the way she approached this project
was to try to depict, through photography, the uh, interaction between human beings and solid
architectural constructs. Or something like that ... I don't have the exact quote. See, she was trying
to find a balance between buildings and activity. So she decided to use more than just a hand-held
camera ... which was perfect for, you know, capturing the hustle and bustle of the city, but would
not have done justice to the giant buildings that also define the city. At the same time, she didn't
want to just overshadow everything with those buildings. So she began to use a large format
camera. One of those rather bulky cameras you have to put on a tripod and then you have to view
the image under a black hood ... difficult to carry around, but it widened her vision. It allowed her
to capture the size of massive modern buildings and also to juxtapose them in a shot with older,
humbler ones. And to keep the life in her shots she would often wait until someone passed by and
make sure they were in the frame. Or she would ask people to walk through or stand in the frame.
So, she ended up using the large view camera for most of the work. Well, this "Changing New
145
York" collection of 305 photographs is really a remarkable achievement. Its images are so
powerful that Abbott is considered by many to be one of the twentieth century's greatest
photographers. In fact, one more contemporary photographer-Douglas Levere-was so inspired by
her work that in the 1990s he decided to re-photograph Abbott's New York photos. Imagine this:
Levere went to the same locations, on the same day and same time with the identical camera that
Abbott had used. He reframed Abbott's shots as exactly as possible. Why would someone do that?
I have to admit; when I first heard about this I was skeptical of one artist copying another so
completely. But then I saw the photographs. And the amazing thing about them is that if you put
them side by side with Abbott's, you see that they are a logical extension of her work. They take
you even deeper into the contrast between the old and the new that Abbott so expertly revealed in
the 1930s.
146
ANSWER KEY – READING TEST 5
1. C 11. B 21. B 31. A
2. D 12. A 22. D 32. B
3. A 13. C 23. B 33. C
4. C 14. A 24. A 34. B
5. C 15. B 25. C 35. C
6. B 16. A 26. B 36. D
7. B 17. B 27. C 37. A
8. B 18. C 28. A 38. C
9. D 19. D 29. D 39. D
10. A 20. C 30. D 40. A
147
Task 1:
Hi Natalie,
How’s it going? I hope you’re well and looking forward to your trip to Viet Nam. It’ll be
great to see you again. I’ll be on holiday when you come, so I’ve got plenty of time to spend
with you. We’ll definitely be able to visit a few places together.
The cheapest and easiest way to get to my apartment from the airport is on the bus. The
Number 30 Bus will drop you off at Bến Thành Market. I’ll be waiting for you at the bus
stop when you get there, so you won’t get lost!
It will still be quite hot here next month, so bring some summer clothes. It might rain as
well, but you can borrow my umbrella!
Well, that’s all for now, Natalie. When you have a moment, drop me a line and confirm
your flight and arrival times. I’m sure you’ll have a great time here.
See you soon,
Word count: 154
148
Task 2:
Access to computers has become more and more popular over recent decades, and the
number of children playing games on computers has increased considerably too. While
there is no doubt that children can get some benefits from this leisure activity, this trend is
a big concern to all parents due to plenty of serious downsides it may cause. This essay
will consider the positive and negative impacts of playing computer games and discuss
ways to mitigate the potential bad effects.
With regards to the advantages, playing computer games can develop children’s cognitive
skills. Many popular games require abstract and high level thinking skills in order to win.
For instance, children need to follow instructions, solve complex problems and use logic
in many of the games that are currently popular. Such experience will be beneficial to a
child’s development into an adult.
Turning to the other side of the argument, most computer games played by children contain
a great deal of violence. The problem is that in many of the games children are rewarded
for being more violent, and this violence is repeated again and again. For instance, many
games involve children helping their character to kill, kick, stab and shoot. This may lead
to increasing aggressive feelings, thoughts, and behaviors. Also, if children are absorbed
in computer games, they may distract themselves from their studies. As a result, they
inevitably perform worse and worse at school.
In order to minimize these negative impacts, parents need to take certain steps. The way
forward might be to choose a suitable computer games for children and ensure that they
are not allowed to have access to too many violent games. Parents can also set limits on
the length of time games are played. For example, their children only spend no more than
thirty minutes a day playing computer games.
To sum up, there are both pros and cons to everything, and playing computer games is not
an exception. From my perspective, the negatives of this activity obviously outweigh its
positives. However, if parents take adequate precautions, the above-mentioned drawbacks
can be avoided.
Word count: 320
149
Let’s talk about parties.
- Do you enjoy going to a party?
Going to a party Exciting/ amusing/ fun/ thrilling/ enjoyable/satisfying/ entertaining

experiences
- What do you usually do at a party?
Doing fun things Playing fun games; enjoying good foods; toasting drinks; chatting;
singing, dancing, gift-giving; saying best wishes
- On what occasions do you hold a party?
Celebrating special Anniversaries; birthdays; weddings; family gatherings; outings with

occasions friends; company meetings; festive holidays;
Let’s talk about your city.
- Which part of the city do you like best?
- Why do you like it?
- Are there any changes you would like to make to the place?
Favorite parts of the -Places of conveniences and pleasures; public gardens/parks; recreation
city complexes; suburban communities; city centers; shady streets with
sidewalks; downtown boutiques; ancient districts
- Carrying the city spirit; marking historical events; showing cultural

identity; benefiting communities; attracting visitors; preserving
traditional culture
150
Situation: You are considering buying a brand watch. There are three suggestions for how to
get it: placing an order through a website, shopping in a mall, and calling over the phone.
Which one is the best option for you?
Placing an order Fast/ convenient service; various choices; price comparison; special
through a website offers; sales seasons; original items; limited items
Shopping in a mall Real touch of the items; convenient try-ons; bargaining; sales offers;
nice window browsing; face-to-face communication; after-sales service
Calling over the Fast/ convenient service; tailored items; detailed description; reassuring
phone human voice; correct orders; tracking order status
Topic: There are several factors that lead to success in life.
Factors for success
Education and skills - Staying knowledgeable and skillful
- Minimizing obstacles and avoiding mistakes
-Effectively working and achieving goals
- Efficiently dealing with time and labor
Vision -Helping to set up plans and anticipate problems
- Making good strategies to fulfill tasks
- Seeing things done as a whole plan
Passion -Helping to stay consistent to the plans
-Having a desire for overcoming challenges
-Enjoying the sense of making progress
151
More ideas for - Intelligence brings intellectual power.
success factors
- Self-determination puts the right tracks for things to happen.
-Hard work ensures chance to meet deadlines.
- Why is money the most common way of judging success?
Role of money -Financial success tends to prove one’s ability and talent.
- Money brings high self-esteem and confidence that are roots of social
respect.
- Effective social helps commonly come from the rich.
- Is your idea of success the same as your parents’ idea of success?
Different views on -Success can be a state of being self-satisfied.

success
- Success can be achieved at a very young age.
- Success can be measured by things done for communities rather than

for individuals.
- Does luck play a part in success?
Role of luck -Luck enhances situations.
-Luck helps save effort and time.
-Luck helps exceed the expectations.
152

Vstep Collection Official R1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Vstep Collection Official R1

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Vstep Collection Official R1

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

VSTEP COLLECTION

With Full Answer Keys For 4 Skills & Audio Files

Ho Chi Minh City – 2017

v LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 ____________________________________Page 1-7

v LISTENING MOCK TEST 2 ____________________________________Page 21-26

v LISTENING MOCK TEST 3 ____________________________________Page 40-45

v LISTENING MOCK TEST 4 ____________________________________Page 58-64

v LISTENING MOCK TEST 5 ____________________________________Page 77-83

v MOCK TEST 1 _______________________________________________Page 96-106

PART 1: Questions 1-8

On the test book, you will read:

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 1

PART 2: Questions 9-20

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 2

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.

PART 3: Questions 21-35

Questions 26- 30 refer to the following lecture.

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 5

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk.

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING PAPER.

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 1 7

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 1 10

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 1 14

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 1 15

THIS IS THE END OF THE READING PAPER.

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 1 16

VSTEP – WRITING MOCK TEST 1 17

You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

VSTEP – WRITING MOCK TEST 1 18

Part 1: Social Interaction (3’)

VSTEP- SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 19

Reduces travelling Cheap air travel Your own idea

- Do you think that governments should encourage cheap flights?

VSTEP- SPEAKING MOCK TEST 1 20

PART 1: Questions 1-8

On the test book, you will read:

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 2 21

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 2 22

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation.

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation.

PART 3: Questions 21-35

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following conversation.

Questions 26- 30 refer to the following conversation.

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk.

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING PAPER.

VSTEP – LISTENING MOCK TEST 2 26

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 2 28

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 2 30

PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 2 32

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 2 33

THIS IS THE END OF THE READING PAPER.

VSTEP – READING MOCK TEST 2 35

You should write at least 120 words.