4/24/2019 The Best ITIL Interview Questions & Answers [UPDATED] 2019

The Best ITIL Interview Questions &

Answers [UPDATED] 2019
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4/24/2019 The Best ITIL Interview Questions & Answers [UPDATED] 2019

ITIL Interview Questions

Q) ITIL Vs COBIT
Compate ITIL OBIT Details COBIT ITIL Purpose Integration of IT
ITSM(Information Technology Service Management) Latest Version COBIT 5 -
April 2012 ITIL V3 - 2011 Operations To derive guidelines for organizational
operations To implement guidelines of an organizations Application Process
descriptions Process implementations Additional features control objectives,
management guidelines, maturity models Service strategies, design, transitions,
opetation implementations

Q1) What is ITIL?

The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a framework of best

practices. The concepts within ITIL support information technology services
delivery organizations with the planning of consistent, documented, and
repeatable or customized processes that improve service delivery to the
business.

Q2) ITIL framework consists of which processes?

Service Support (Service Desk, Incident Management, Problem

Management, Change Management, Configuration Management, and
Release Management)
Services Delivery (Service Level Management, Capacity Management,
Availability Management, Financial Management and IT Service
Continuity Management).

Q3) Explain one benefit of ITIL?

The quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently.
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Q4) What are the benefits of implementing a service desk?

Increased first call resolution

Improved tracking of service quality
Improved recognition of trends and incidents
Improved employee satisfaction
Skill based support
Rapidly restore service
Improved incident response time
Quick service restoration

5) What Processes are utilized by the Service Desk?

Workflow and procedures diagrams

Q6) What is the objective of Incident Management?

Minimize the disruption to the business by restoring service operations to agreed

levels as quickly as possible.

7) What are the Benefits of an Incident Management Process?

Incident detection and recording

Classification and initial support
Investigation and diagnosis
Resolution and recovery
Incident closure
Incident ownership, monitoring, tracking and communication
Repeatable Process

Q8) What is the goal of Problem Management?

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The object of problem management is to resolve the root cause of incidents, to

minimize the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business and
secondly to prevent recurrence of incidents related to these errors.

9) What’s the difference between problem and known error?

A `problem’ is an unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents, and a

`known error’ is a problem that is successfully diagnosed and for which a work-
around has been identified. The outcome of known error is a request for change
(RFC).

Q10) When can the KE known error be closed?

When a review of the change has lead to a satisfactory result.

Q11) What is the purpose of Problem Management?

Identify potentially recurring incidents

Determine the root cause
Take steps to prevent the incidents from reoccurring.

Q12) What are the Phases in the overall Problem Management Process?

Detection and Logging

Prioritization and Planning
Investigation and Diagnosis
Resolution

Q13) Which ITIL process controls the flow of incident information?

Incident Management

Q14) When must a Post Implementation Review take place?

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After every change.

Q15) What are IT Service Continuity Management responsibilities?

Analyzing risks.
Testing back-out arrangements.
Drawing up back-out scenarios.

Q16) Which ITIL process helps to monitor the IT services by maintaining

a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

Configuration Management.

Q17) Explain Deming quality circle steps must to ensure good

performance?

Plan-Do-Check-Act

Q18) Who is responsible for result of the process?

Process owner

Q19) Explain the difference between a process and a project?

A process is continuous and has no end date.

The project has a finite lifespan.

Q20) What is the basis of the ITIL approach to service management?

Interrelated Activities.

Q21) Explain Classification?

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Its the process of formally grouping Configuration Items (CIs) by type, e.g.
hardware, software, accommodation, people, documents, business processes,
external services and it takes place immediately after recording and registering
an incident.

Q22) What Information is regularly exchanged between Problem

Management and Change Management?

RFCs resulting from known errors.

Q23) How Availability Management’s manage the availability plan for

current and future?

By using an emergency power provision

Q24) What’s the importance of a service desk?

1. The Service Desk is critically important as the very first contact the
organization’s users have with IT Services.
2. This department also distributes information to users.
3. It is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident also.

Q25) What is incident management process? Examples?

Incident Management (IcM) is an IT service management (ITSM) process area

Its objective is to restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible
Incidents should be classified as they are recorded,

Examples:

Application
Service not available
Application bug

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Disk-usage threshold exceeded

Hardware
System-down
Automatic alert
Printer not printing

Q26) What is Proactive problem management?

Finding potential problems and errors in an IT infrastructure before they cause

incidents.

Q27) What’s the difference between Incident, Problem and Known

Error?

Incident => an incident is any event that is not part of the standard
operation.
Example no frees space on user’s hard disk.
Problem =>a problem is the unknown underlying cause of one or more
incidents. Incident can never become a problem.
Known Error =>is an incident or problem for which the root cause is known
and for which a temporary workaround or permanent alternative has been
identified.

Request for Change (RFC) is needed in order to fix the known error.

Q28) What’s the plan for Desktop rollout projects?

Evaluate
Plan
Build
Deploy
Operate

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Q29) Which activity in the problem management process is responsible

for generating Requests for Change (RFC)?

Error Control.

One of the tasks of Problem Management. Error Control encompasses

identifying, recording, classifying and progressing Known Errors.

Q30) Which ITIL process is responsible to identify the cause?

Problem Management.

Q31) What’s the goal of Problem Management?

As per ITIL the goal of Problem Management is to minimize the adverse impact
of Incidents and Problems on the business that is caused by errors within the IT
Infrastructure, and to prevent recurrence of Incidents related to these errors.

Problem Management tries to get to the root cause of Incidents and then initiate
actions to improve or correct the situation.

Q32) When is a known error identified?

When the cause of the problem is known.

Q33) What is Problem Management?

ITIL process responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors.

Q34) Give an example of proactive problem management?

Trend analysis, pain value analysis

Q35) How does problem management contribute?

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By making a knowledge database available, it contributes

To a higher solution percentage of first-line support.

Q36) What is the primary task of error control?

Correcting known errors.

Q37) What is meant by the urgency of an incident?

The degree to which the solution of an incident tolerates delay.

Q38) ITIL process Incident Management. Objective?

Restore normal state IT service operations as quickly as possible to minimize the

adverse impact on business operations by correcting malfunctions in the
services

Q39) While registering an incident what will be the first step?

Giving an incident number.

Q40) Which ITIL process has the task of classifying incoming

interruption reports?

Incident Management

Q41) Who determines whether that an incident can be closed?

User

Q42) Technical expertise in the Incident Management process called?

Functional Escalation.

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Q43) Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability are components of

which ITIL process?

Availability Management

Q44) What is serviceability?

The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by

maintenance contracts.

Q45) What’s “Mean Time To Repair” (MTTR)?

Average downtime of a service.

Q46) A report specifying the duration of an interruption of a

configuration item is part of Which ITIL process manager?

Availability Manager

Q47) What is application sizing?

Determining the hardware capacity required to support new or adapted

applications.

Q48) What concept below reflects “fitness for purpose” and represents
the characteristics of a service which a customer gets to achieve desired
outcomes?

a. Warranty
b. Utility
c. Resources
d. Service Management

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b – Utility reflects “fitness for purpose” and is what the customer gets to achieve
desired outcomes.

Q49) Which of the following ITIL Core volumes places and prioritizes
improvement programs according to strategic objectives?

a. Service Strategy
b. Continual Service Improvement
c. Service Transition
d. Service Operation

b – Continual Service Improvement accommodates learning and improvement,

and prioritizes improvement programs and projects in accordance with an
organization’s strategic objectives.

50) Which of the statements below are true regarding service assets?
The justification to maintain and upgrade service assets is increased as
the demand for those service assets increase
Costs incurred by accommodating the demand for services are recovered
from the customer through agreed terms and conditions

a. I and II
b. I
c. II
d. Both statements are false

a – Both statements above are true. As more demand is generated for services,
there is more reason to keep those services maintained. The cost of offering a
service to a customer is recovered from the customer.

51) Which of the following are valid objectives of the ITIL Service Desk
function?

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I. To quickly restore normal service to users after an interruption

II. To provide first-line support to users
III. To manage the resolution of incidents
IV. To escalate requests which cannot be resolved by first-line support

a. I, II
b. I, II, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. All of these responses / All of the above

d – All of the items listed are valid objectives of the Service Desk Function.

52) What role acts as the primary point of contact to customers for all
service related questions and issues, ensures that customer delivery and
support requirements are met, and may identify opportunities for
service improvements which result in raised RFCs?

a. Service Owner
b. Process Owner
c. Change Manager
d. Service Level Manager

a – The Service Owner is responsible for the activities listed above; In addition,
the Service Owner will communicate with Process Owners over the course of the
Service Management lifecycle.

53) Under ITIL, what are the 4 “P”s which facilitate effective Service
Management?

a. People, Processes, Products, Partners

b. Profit, Procedure, Products, Potential
c. People, Procedure, Profit, Planning
d. People, Products, Profit, Performance
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a – The 4 “P”s of Service Management, as defined by ITIL, are People,

Processes, Products, Partners.

54) What generic Service Management concept(s) allows defined

processes such as an organization’s Incident Lifecycle and Change
Model to be pre-defined and controlled, resulting in the automatic
management of items such as escalation paths and alerting?

a. Service Assets
b. Workflow or process engines
c. Incident workarounds
d. The Deming Cycle

b – Workflows and/or process engines allow processes to be pre-defined and

controlled, resulting in automatic management of the items described.

55) Which of the Service Strategy statements below are true?

I. Both Resources and Capabilities are types of assets

II. Capabilities are easier for an organization to acquire than Resources

a. I and II
b. I
c. II
d. Both statements are false

b – Resources are easier for an organization to acquire than Capabilities;

Capabilities relate to the management, processes, and knowledge within the
organization.

56) What term best represents the concept of outcomes desired by

customers, in combination with the services available to facilitate those
outcomes?

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a. Service Portfolio
b. Service Catalogue
c. Market Space
d. Market Value

c – Market Space is represented by the desired outcomes of customers, along

with the services available to support those outcomes.

57) What aspect of Service Design is concerned with designing the

calculation methods and metrics of services?

a. Technology archictectural design

b. Process Design
c. Measurement Design
d. Service Portfolio Management

c – In Service Design, Measurement Design is concerned with with designing the

calculation methods and metrics of services.

58) What type of Service Desk is typically dispersed geographically,

provides 24 hour support at a relatively low cost, and may need to
provide safeguards which address different cultures?

a. Local Service Desk

b. Centralized Service Desk
c. Virtual Service Desk
d. Follow the Sun

d – The characteristics above describe a Follow the Sun approach.

59) A large law firm is evaluating a new email service offered by a

managed service provider. The law firm is determining if the service
meets a specific functional requirement. The ability of the email service

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to do so is best described by which of the following terms?

a. Warranty
b. Value
c. Utility
d. Capacity

c – Utility is the functionality offered by a service to meet a particular need.

Utility is often defined as “what the service does.”

Q60) What statement below best describes the concept of “Service

Management” in ITIL?

a. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

customers in the form of services.
b. A logical concept referring to people and automated measures that execute a
defined process, an activity, or a combination thereof.
c. A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes they want
to achieve, without the ownership of specific costs and risks.
d. A team, unit, or person that performs tasks related to a specific process.

a – ITIL describes Service Management as “A set of specialized organizational

capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.”.

Q61) What types of context-sensitive tools execute automated scripts

which assist with diagnosing incidents in a short amount of time?

a. Remote control tools

b. Discovery, Deployment, and Licensing Technologies
c. Integrated Configuration Management System (CMS)
d. Diagnostic utilities

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d – Diagnostic utilities use automated scripts to diagnose incidents earlier, and

are context sensitive regarding the application.

Q62) You are responsible for documenting the required level of service
and performance targets with your organization’s internal Application
Support group so that the expected level of service can be delivered to the
customer. What is this internal, underpinning document referred to as?

a. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

b. Availability Management Plan
c. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
d. Service Catalogue

a – An OLA would document the level of service and performance target

expected of internal departments within the organization.

Q63) Which of the following statements regarding the Service Portfolio

are true?
I. The Service Portfolio should form part of a Service Knowledge
Management System (SKMS)
II. The Service Portfolio should be registered as a document within an
organization’s Configuration Management System (CMS)

a. I and II
b. I
c. II
d. None of the above are true.

a – The Service Portfolio should be part of an overarching SKMS, and should also
be registered as a document in the CMS.

Q64) Which of the following is not a key metric associated with Service
Level Management?
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a. SLA Targets Missed

b. SLA Breaches in Underpinning Contracts
c. Number of Service Interruptions
d. Customer Satisfaction of SLA Achievements

c – The number of Incidents due to Capacity Shortages would not be tracked by

Service Level Management; rather it would be tracked by Availability
Management.

Q65) An item such as a service component or an asset of the organization

which is under the control of Configuration Management is known as
what?

a. Configuration Item (CI)

b. Configuration Management System (CMS)
c. Variant
d. Resource

a – A Configuration Item (CI) includes any item which is, or will be, under the
control of Confguration Management.

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Q66) What role is responsible for identifying and documenting the value
of services within an organization and provides cost information to
Service Portfolio Management?

a. IT Financial Manager
b. Service Level Manager
c. Demand Manager
d. Product Manager

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a – The IT Financial Manager is responsible for identifying and documenting the

value of services within an organization and provides cost information to Service
Portfolio Management.

Q67) What statement below is true regarding a Function?

a. A function must be performed by multiple personnel, representing an

organizational unit
b. A single person must focus on a single function only
c. Functional hierarchies decrease cross-functional coordination within an
organization
d. A function optimizes work methods by focusing on specific outcomes

d – A function can be performed by as little as one person within an organization.

In smaller organizations, single persons may be multi-functional. Functional
hierarchies increase cross-functional coordination, eliminating silos within an
organization.

Q68) What Service Design process ensures agreed levels of availability

from the SLA is met, and maintains an Availability Plan which reflects
the current and future needs of the organization?

a. Service Level Management

b. Capacity Management
c. Availability Management
d. Service Catalogue Management

c – As the name suggests, Availability Management ensures agreed levels of

availability from the SLA is met, and maintains an Availability Plan which
reflects the current and future needs of the organization.

Q69) What Service Operation principle focuses on the ability to respond

to changes without impacting other services?
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a. Responsiveness
b. Quality of Service
c. Cost of Service
d. Stability

a – “Responsiveness” focuses on the ability to respond to changes without

impacting other services.

70) Which of the following items do not represent a valid term for the
structure of a Service Desk?

a. Centralized Service Desk

b. Production Service Desk
c. Local Service Desk
d. Virtual Service Desk

b – The common terms used to define options for structuring Service Desks are
Centralized Service Desk, Local Service Desk, Virtual Service Desk, and the
Follow the Sun approach.

71) Which of the following ITIL Core volumes relies on practices and
methods from Quality Management, Change Management, and the
enhancement of capabilities?

a. Service Design
b. Continual Service Improvement
c. Service Operation
d. Service Transition

b – Continual Service Improvement integrates the practices and methods from

Quality Management, Change Management, and the improvement of
capabilities.

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72) What item is responsible for storing only those services which are
currently active and being offered by the organization?

a. Service Catalogue
b. Service Pipeline
c. Service Specification
d. Service Portfolio

a – The Service Catalogue consists of services currently being offered. The

Service Pipeline consists entirely of services in development. The Service
Portfolio consists of services in development, services currently being offered,
and services which have been retired.

73) What role is responsible for ensuring IT capacity is adequate for the
delivery of services, produces and maintains a Capacity Plan, and
balances capacity with demand?

a. Capacity Manager
b. Availability Manager
c. Service Level Manager
d. Demand Manager

a – The Capacity Manager performs the activities above, and also configures
monitoring of capacity via different types of performance reporting.

74) In which of the following areas can Service Management be

positively impacted by automation?

I. Design and modeling

II. Service Catalogue
III. Classification and routing
IV. Optimization

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a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, III and IV
d. All of these responses / All of the above

d – Service Management can benefit from automation in all of the areas listed; in
addtion, pattern recogniation and analysis, and detection and monitoring may
also be improved.

75) A Service Desk structure which utilizes a number of sites, located in

different time zones, in an effort to provide 24 hour support is referred to
as:

a. Full coverage support

b. Full service support
c. Follow the sun support
d. Follow the moon support

c – As the term suggests, “Follow the sun support” aims to provide users with
around the clock support.

76) What concept allows management to better understand a service’s

quality requirements, and presents both the associated costs and
expected benefits?

a. Business Case
b. Technical Service Catalogue
c. Risk Analysis
d. Service Portfolio

a – A Business Case presents management with a service’s quality requirements

and associated delivery costs, in addition to models which outline what a service
is expected to achieve.
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77) Under Service Design, what process is used to manage

Underpinning Contracts with vendors through their lifecycle; and
assures that those Underpinning Contracts are aligned with targets
specified in customer SLAs?

a. Supplier Management
b. Capacity Management
c. Service Level Management
d. Information Security Management

a – Underpinning Contracts are agreements made with 3rd party

suppliers/vendors, and must be in alignment with customer SLAs. Supplier
Management ensures this.

78) Which of the following is not a Core volume of the ITIL Library?

a. Service Strategy
b. Service Transition
c. Continual Service Improvement
d. Service Catalogue Management

d – The Core volumes of ITIL are Service Strategy, Service Design, Service
Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement

79) In ITIL, the activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of performing a process in an effective, efficient and consistent
manner is known as what?

a. The Process Model

b. Process Change
c. Process Control
d. Process Policy

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c – Process Control plans and regulates processes so that they are performed
effectively, efficiently, and consistently.

Q80) What role is responsible for formally authorizing changes, and may
delegate this responsibility to another role based on pre-defined
parameters such as risk and cost?

a. Product Manager
b. Change Authority
c. Change Manager
d. Change Advisory Board

b – The Change Authority (which is a given role, person, or group) is responsible

for the activities listed above.

Q81) Which of the following items is not a recognized Change Type

under Service Transition?

a. Normal
b. Standard (Pre-authorized)
c. Emergency
d. Planned

d – The three Change Types defined by ITIL are Normal (not pre-approved),
Standard (Pre-authorized), and Emergency.

Q82) Which of the following items below would least likely be

categorized as a Service Request?

a. A request for a password re-set to allow a user to log in to a time tracking

program
b. A request for a user manual for the corporate extranet

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c. A request to fix a user’s network connection which failed after an application

caused an error
d. A request for a database extract from an information system

c – As Service Requests are classified as incidents which do not reflect a failure in

the IT infrastructure, the user who’s application caused an error would be the
correct response.

Q83) What role is responsible for owning, maintaining, and protecting

the Known Error Database?

a. Incident Manager
b. Problem Manager
c. Alert Manager
d. Event Manager

b – The Problem Manager is responsible for the Known Error Database, and
initiates the formal closure of all Problem records.

Q84) Under Continual Service Improvement (CSI), what type of metrics

are computed from component metrics?

a. Technology Metrics
b. Process Metrics
c. Baseline Metrics
d. Service Metrics

d – Service Metrics are computed from component metrics, and are the result of
the end-to-end service.

Q85) What Service Strategy process quantifies the financial value of IT

Services, assets which underlie the provisioning of services, and the
qualifications of operational forecasting?

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a. Demand Management
b. Financial Management
c. Strategy Generation
d. Service Portfolio Management

b – Financial Management is the Service Strategy process responsible for

quantifying the financial value of IT services, assets, and qualificiations of
operational forecasting.

Q86) The ability of an organization to transform resources in to services

which can offer value to customers is a critical concept for which of the
following?

a. Process Model
b. Service Management
c. Role
d. Good Practice

b – The statement describes a core concept of Service Management in ITIL.

Q87) During a client discussion, you are asked to summarize the

meaning of an Incident. Which of the items below most appropriately
defines an Incident?

a. The unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to Service

b. Any event which may lead to the disruption, or decreased quality, of a Service
c. A disruption for which the root cause is known
d. A support request not involving a failure in the IT infrastructure.

b – quality to a Service. A support request not resulting from a failure in the IT

infrastructure is a type of Incident (Service Request), but is not broad enough.

Q88) What is the proper sequence of the ITIL concepts listed below?

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I. Good Practice
II. Best Practice
III. Evolution in to Commodity, Generally accepted principles, Perceived
Wisdom, or Regulatory requirements

a. II occurs first, I occurs second, III occurs last

b. I occurs first, III occurs second, II occurs last
c. B occurs first, C occurs second, A occurs last
d. A occurs first, B occurs second, C occurs last

b – Under ITIL, Best Practice adoption or development of Best Practice occurs

first, over time the industry will adopt the Best Practice, turning it in to a Good
Practice, which will then undergo Evolution in to Commodity, Generally
accepted principles, Perceived Wisdom, or Regulatory requirements.

Q89) What statement below best describes the concept of a “Service” in

ITIL?

a. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

customers in the form of services.
b. A logical concept referring to people and automated measures that execute a
defined process, an activity, or a combination thereof.
c. A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes they want
to achieve, without the ownership of specific costs and risks.
d. A team, unit, or person that performs tasks related to a specific process.

c – ITIL describes a Service as “A means of delivering value to customers by

facilitating outcomes they want to achieve, without the ownership of specific
costs and risks.”.

90) Which of the statements below are true about the ITIL concept of
“Good Practice”?

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I. Good Practice represents Best Practices which have been commonly accepted
and applied throughout the industry
II. Good Practice is often referred to as the “most appropriate” and is considered
to be complete, with no gaps
III. Good Practice reflects an approach to an undertaking which has not yet been
proven to be successful

a. I
b. I and II
c. III
d. All of these responses / All of the above

b – Good Practice has already evolved from Best Practice, and is considered to
be proven and successful.

91) Which of the statements below describe the value offered to

customers through the use of a Service?

I. Performance of associated tasks are enhanced

II. The probability of desired outcomes on behalf of the customer is increased
III. Customer risk is increased, along with a higher potential for reward
IV. The effect of constraints are reduced

a. I, III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. All of these responses / All of the above

c – ITIL considers the value offered to customers through a Service to be all of

the items above, except for increased risk. A Service should lower the risk to the
customer for completion of associated tasks.

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92) What statement below best describes the concept of a “Role” in

ITIL?

a. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

customers in the form of services.
b. A team, unit, or person that performs tasks related to a specific process.
c. A logical concept referring to people and automated measures that execute a
defined process, an activity, or a combination thereof.
d. A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes they want
to achieve, without the ownership of specific costs and risks.

b – ITIL describes a Role as “A team, unit, or person that performs tasks related
to a specific process.”

93) The technical support group within an organization is expected to

assist with corporate software releases every quarter through specific
Release Management activities, as well as ensure the network is
consistently accessible via Availability Management activities. What
statement below is true?

a. Because they are a single department, the technical support group is playing a
single role regardless of the activities they perform.
b. The technical support group exists in a functional silo.
c. The technical support group is performing functions outside of its authority.
d. The technical support group is playing multiple roles by performing these
activities.

d – A single group within an organization may play several roles, as

demonstrated by the activities described. It is not known whether a functional
silo exists, or whether proper authority has been granted.

94) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship

between procedures and work instructions?
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a. A procedure describes who should carry out logically related activities, while
work instructions define how activities in a procedure should be carried out at a
highly detailed level.
b. A work instruction describes who should carry out logically related activities,
while procedures define how activities in a work instruction should be carried
out.
c. A work instruction may include activities and stages from different processes,
while a procedure only focuses on a single activity within a work instruction.
d. A work instruction only focuses on who must complete a given unit of work,
while a procedure only focuses on how the work will be performed.

a – A procedure describes who should carry out logically related activities, while
work instructions define how activities in a procedure should be carried out at a
highly detailed level.

95) Which of the following items fall under the area of Process
Enablers in the Process Model?

I. Process Owner
II. Process Resources
III. Process Capabilities
IV. Process Policy

a. I, IV
b. II, III
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV

b – The Process Resources and the Process Capabilities fall under the area of
Process Enablers in the Process Model; Process Owner and Process Policy fall
under the area of Process Control.

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96) An effective approach to an undertaking which has already proven

to be successful, but has not yet become common industry practice, is
known as what?

a. Good Practice
b. Generally Accepted Principles
c. Best Practiced
. Perceived Wisdom

c – A proven, effective approach which is not yet industry practice is known as a

Best Practice. Once it is commonly adopted industry-wide, it becomes a state of
Good Practice which is continuously improved.

97) Within a process, the description of logically related activities,

along with who should carry out the activities (i.e. “who does what”), is
represented by which term?

a. Work Instruction
b. Best Practice
c. Function
d. Procedure

d – In ITIL, a procedure describes logically related activities in a process, and

who should carry them out.

98) Under ITIL, the organization or entity responsible for the delivery
of a service to a customer is known as what?

a. Supplier
b. Internal Market
c. Vendor
d. Service Provider

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d – A Service Provider reflects the organization or entity responsible for the

delivery of a service to a customer.

99) Which of the following items describes to a customer the services

they will be provided, along with the expected level of service, roles and
responsibilities?

a. Operational Level Agreeement (OLA)

b. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c. Service Specification
d. Service Requirements

b – The SLA describes to the custom the services they will be provided, along
with the expected level of service, roles and responsibilities.

Q100) What item is a result of designing a new service, planning a major

change to an existing service, or removing an existing service; and is
relied on by Service Transition for its detailed requirements?

a. Service Portfolio
b. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c. Service Design Package (SDP)
d. Quality Management Plan

c – The Service Design Package (SDP) is created when designing a new service,
planning a major change to an existing service, or removing an existing service;
it is relied on heavily by Service Transition.

Q101) Under Configuration Management in ITIL, this system holds

information on all of an organization’s Configuration Items (CIs).

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a. Configuration Item (CI)

b. Configuration Management System (CMS)
c. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)
d. Service Catalogue

b – Under ITIL, the Configuration Management System is the overarching

platform holding information on all of an organization’s Configuration Items
(CIs).

Q102) What term best reflects the uncertainty of an outcome, including

negative threats, and positive opportunities?

a. Business Case
b. Risk
c. Procedure
d. Threat

b – A Risk represents an uncertain outcome, and can be positive or negative

(opportunity or threat).

Q103) A secure repository, where authorized versions of all media CIs

are protected and stored, is known as what?

a. Definitive Media Library (DML)

b. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
c. Definitive Hardware Store (DHS)
d. Configuration Management System (CMS)

a – The Definitive Media Library (DML) stores authorized versions of all media
CIs, including master copies of all controlled software in an organization.

Q104) What term in ITIL best reflects an unexpected interruption or

reduction in the quality of an IT Service?

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a. Problem
b. Service Request
c. Incident
d. Alert

c – An incident is an unexpected interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT

Service

Q105) What term best reflects a temporary method of resolving an issue,

difficulty, or service interruption?

a. Workaround
b. Known Error
c. Incident
d. Service Request

a – A Workaround provides a temporary means of resolving an issue for which an

underlying root cause has not yet been resolved

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About The Author

Ravindra Savaram is a Content Lead at Mindmajix.com

(https://mindmajix.com). His passion lies in writing articles on the most popular
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