Module 2

1. What is cloud computing, as defined by the National Institute of Standards

and Technology (NIST)?

A) A model for enabling convenient access to physical servers

B) A model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared
pool of configurable computing resources
C) A model for enabling access to proprietary software applications
D) A model for enabling access to hardware resources only

Answer: B) A model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to

a shared pool of configurable computing resources

2. What does the term "cloud" represent in technical architecture diagrams?

A) A physical data center

B) A network of interconnected computers
C) A collection of IT resources, including hardware and software
D) A specific type of software application

Answer: C) A collection of IT resources, including hardware and software

3. Who typically builds, operates, and manages a cloud infrastructure?

A) Individual consumers
B) Government agencies
C) Cloud service providers
D) Hardware manufacturers

Answer: C) Cloud service providers

4. How are resources provisioned to consumers in a cloud infrastructure?

A) Through physical delivery
B) Over a network
C) Through direct purchase from hardware vendors
D) Through manual configuration
Answer: B) Over a network

5. What happens to resources when they are released by consumers in a

cloud environment?

A) They are permanently deleted

B) They are returned to the consumer's premises
C) They return to the resource pool for reuse
D) They are sold to other consumers

Answer: C) They return to the resource pool for reuse

1. What analogy best describes the cloud computing model?
a) A marketplace for purchasing physical servers
b) A utility service like electricity or water
c) A closed network accessible only to IT professionals
d) A standalone infrastructure managed solely by the organization

Answer: b) A utility service like electricity or water

2. How do consumers typically pay for cloud services?

a) Through upfront fixed costs regardless of usage
b) Based on the number of virtual components provisioned
c) Only when they exceed a certain data transfer limit
d) Based on usage, either through subscription or resource consumption

Answer: d) Based on usage, either through subscription or resource

consumption

3. What aspect of IT infrastructure management is reduced when

organizations use cloud services?
a) Managing physical servers and network hardware
b) Software development and coding tasks
c) Managing only the resources required to access cloud services
d) Compliance and regulatory oversight

Answer: c) Managing only the resources required to access cloud service

4. Who manages the cloud infrastructure in a typical cloud computing
environment?
a) Individual organizations utilizing cloud services
b) Third-party consulting firms hired by the organizations
c) The cloud service provider
d) A consortium of organizations sharing resources

Answer: c) The cloud service provider

1. Which characteristic of cloud infrastructure allows consumers to provision

computing capabilities automatically without requiring human interaction
with each service provider?
A) Broad network access
B) Resource pooling
C) On-demand self-service
D) Rapid elasticity
Answer: C) On-demand self-service

2. Which characteristic ensures that cloud capabilities are accessible over

the network and can be accessed through standard mechanisms?
A) Broad network access
B) Resource pooling
C) Measured service
D) Rapid elasticity
Answer: A) Broad network access
3. Which characteristic involves pooling the provider’s computing resources
to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model?
A) Measured service
B) On-demand self-service
C) Resource pooling
D) Rapid elasticity
Answer: C) Resource pooling

4. Which characteristic allows cloud capabilities to be rapidly and elastically

provisioned, scaling commensurate with demand?
A) Measured service
B) Rapid elasticity
C) Broad network access
D) Resource pooling
Answer: B) Rapid elasticity

5. Which characteristic involves automatically controlling and optimizing

resource use by leveraging metering capabilities?
A) Measured service
B) Rapid elasticity
C) On-demand self-service
D) Broad network access
Answer: A) Measured service
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary cloud service models
according to NIST?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Data as a Service (DaaS)
c) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
d) Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer: b) Data as a Service (DaaS)

2. What are specific measurable characteristics used to measure the

performance of a cloud service provider?
a) Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
b) Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
c) Service Level Objectives (SLOs)
d) Consumer Needs and Market Conditions
Answer: c) Service Level Objectives (SLOs)

3. Which legal document describes the items such as what service level will
be provided, how it will be supported, service location, and the
responsibilities of the consumer and the provider?
a) End User License Agreement (EULA)
b) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c) Terms of Service (ToS)
d) Privacy Policy

Answer: b) Service Level Agreement (SLA)

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cloud service model based
on the primary models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS)?
a) Backup as a Service (BaaS)
b) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
c) Infrastructure as a Platform (IaaP)
d) Software as a Solution (SaaS)

Answer: d) Software as a Solution (SaaS)

5. What are the three primary cloud service models according to NIST?
a) Infrastructure as a Solution (IaaS), Platform as a Solution (PaaS), Software
as a Solution (SaaS)
b) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), Software
as a Service (SaaS)
c) Infrastructure as a Software (IaaS), Platform as a Software (PaaS),
Software as a Software (SaaS)
d) Infrastructure as a Space (IaaS), Platform as a Space (PaaS), Software as a
Space (SaaS)

Answer: b) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS),

Software as a Service (SaaS)
1. What does Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provide to consumers?
- A) Ready-to-use software applications
- B) Fundamental computing resources
- C) Physical servers
- D) Network security services
- Answer: B) Fundamental computing resources

2. In IaaS, who manages and controls the underlying cloud infrastructure?

- A) The consumer
- B) The provider
- C) Both the consumer and the provider
- D) It is managed automatically
- Answer: B) The provider

3. Which of the following components can consumers control in IaaS?

- A) Cloud infrastructure
- B) Network switches
- C) Operating systems and applications
- D) Physical servers
- Answer: C) Operating systems and applications
4. How is IaaS pricing typically structured?
- A) Pay-per-click
- B) Subscription-based or based on resource usage
- C) Fixed monthly fee
- D) Free of charge
- Answer: B) Subscription-based or based on resource usage

5. In IaaS, how are IT resources typically shared among consumers?

- A) Each consumer has dedicated resources
- B) Resources are shared within a single organization only
- C) Through a multi-tenant model
- D) Resources are not shared
- Answer: C) Through a multi-tenant model

1. What does Platform as a Service (PaaS) provide to consumers?

- A) Control over underlying cloud infrastructure
- B) Management of network, servers, and storage
- C) Capability to deploy consumer-created applications
- D) Configuration settings for the cloud infrastructure

Answer: C) Capability to deploy consumer-created applications

2. Which of the following is NOT managed by consumers in the PaaS model?
- A) Network
- B) Servers
- C) Operating systems
- D) Deployed applications

Answer: D) Deployed applications

3. What does platform software include in the PaaS model?

- A) Only programming frameworks
- B) Only storage resources
- C) Only network resources
- D) OS, database, programming frameworks, and middleware

Answer: D) OS, database, programming frameworks, and middleware

4. How are PaaS usage fees typically calculated?

- A) Based on the number of consumers and their age
- B) Based on the number of deployed applications
- C) Based on the time for which the platform is in use and consumed
resources
- D) Based on the type of applications developed

Answer: C) Based on the time for which the platform is in use and consumed
resources
5. Which of the following is NOT a factor in calculating PaaS usage fees?
- A) Number of consumers
- B) Types of consumers (developer, tester, etc.)
- C) Number of programming languages supported
- D) Compute, storage, or network resources consumed

Answer: C) Number of programming languages supported

1. What does SaaS stand for?

a) Software as a System
b) Software as a Service
c) System as a Service
d) System as a Software

Answer: b) Software as a Service

2. In the SaaS model, who manages the underlying cloud infrastructure?

a) Consumers
b) Providers
c) Both consumers and providers
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Providers
3. Which of the following is not managed by consumers in the SaaS model?
a) Network
b) Servers
c) Operating systems
d) Application capabilities

Answer: d) Application capabilities

4. How do consumers access SaaS applications?

a) Through locally installed software
b) Through a thick client interface
c) Through a web browser
d) Through direct server access

Answer: c) Through a web browser

5. Which of the following is an example of a SaaS application?

a) Video editing software
b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
c) Operating system
d) Graphics design software

Answer: b) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

1. What does NIST specify as the four primary cloud deployment models?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), Software
as a Service (SaaS), Function as a Service (FaaS)
b) Public cloud, Private cloud, Hybrid cloud, Community cloud
c) AWS, Azure, Google Cloud, IBM Cloud
d) Docker, Kubernetes, OpenShift, Rancher

Answer: b) Public cloud, Private cloud, Hybrid cloud, Community cloud

2. Which cloud deployment model allows organizations to have full control

over resources and infrastructure?
a) Public cloud
b) Private cloud
c) Hybrid cloud
d) Community cloud
Answer: b) Private cloud

3. Which cloud deployment model combines the features of both public and
private clouds, allowing data and applications to be shared between them?
a) Public cloud
b) Private cloud
c) Hybrid cloud
d) Community cloud

Answer: c) Hybrid cloud

4. Which cloud deployment model is designed for use by a specific
community of organizations that have shared concerns?
a) Public cloud
b) Private cloud
c) Hybrid cloud
d) Community cloud

Answer: d) Community cloud

5. What are some tradeoffs associated with different cloud deployment

models?
a) Speed, accuracy, efficiency
b) Control, scale, cost, availability of resources
c) Security, scalability, flexibility
d) Redundancy, latency, throughput
Answer: b) Control, scale, cost, availability of resources

1. What best describes the ownership and accessibility of a public cloud

infrastructure?
a) Restricted access to specific organizations
b) Open use by the general public
c) Owned and operated solely by government organizations
d) Managed exclusively by academic institutions
Answer: b) Open use by the general public
2. Which organization or entity can manage and operate a public cloud?
a) Only government organizations
b) Solely academic institutions
c) Any combination of business, academic, or government organizations
d) Exclusively businesses
Answer: c) Any combination of business, academic, or government
organizations

3. What are the possible payment models for public cloud services?
a) Only free services
b) Subscription-based only
c) Pay-per-use model only
d) Free, subscription-based, or pay-per-use model
Answer: d) Free, subscription-based, or pay-per-use model

4. What is a significant benefit of using a public cloud?

a) High up-front expenditure on IT resources
b) Limited scalability
c) Low up-front expenditure on IT resources and enormous scalability
d) Restricted accessibility
Answer: c) Low up-front expenditure on IT resources and enormous
scalability
5. What are some concerns for consumers regarding public cloud services?
a) Limited network availability
b) Risks associated with single-tenancy
c) Lack of visibility and control over cloud resources and data
d) Flexible default service levels
Answer: c) Lack of visibility and control over cloud resources and data

1. What is the definition of a private cloud according to NIST?

A) A cloud infrastructure exclusively provisioned for use by a single
organization
B) A cloud infrastructure shared among multiple organizations
C) A cloud infrastructure accessible to the public
D) A cloud infrastructure with limited control over IT resources

Answer: A) A cloud infrastructure exclusively provisioned for use by a single

organization

2. Which of the following is a concern that may lead organizations to opt for a
private cloud instead of a public cloud?
A) Cost-effectiveness
B) Greater privacy and control
C) Shared resources with other organizations
D) Scalability limitations

Answer: B) Greater privacy and control

3. What are the two variants of private cloud deployment mentioned in the
text?
A) Public and hybrid
B) On-premise and off-premise
C) Shared and dedicated
D) Virtual and physical

Answer: B) On-premise and off-premise

4. In which variant of private cloud deployment does an organization deploy

the cloud within its own data center?
A) On-premise
B) Off-premise
C) Hybrid
D) Public
Answer: A) On-premise

5. In the externally-hosted private cloud model, where is the cloud

infrastructure hosted?
A) Within the organization's data center
B) On the premises of the organization
C) On the premises of the provider
D) Shared among multiple tenants

Answer: C) On the premises of the provider

1. What defines a community cloud?
a) Provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of consumers
b) Accessible to the general public
c) Owned, managed, and operated by individual organizations
d) Offers no control or protection

Correct answer: a) Provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of

consumers

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a community cloud?

a) Shared concerns among participating organizations
b) Lowered individual investments
c) Higher level of control and protection than a public cloud
d) Owned and managed solely by one organization

Correct answer: d) Owned and managed solely by one organization

3. What contributes to the potentially higher cost of a community cloud

compared to a public cloud?
a) Fewer consumers sharing the costs
b) More widespread availability
c) Lower level of control
d) Limited security measures

Correct answer: a) Fewer consumers sharing the costs

4. In an on-premise community cloud, where is the cloud infrastructure
deployed?
a) At a third-party data center
b) On the premises of organizations providing cloud services
c) At a public cloud provider's facility
d) In a private cloud environment

Correct answer: b) On the premises of organizations providing cloud

services

5. How do organizations consuming cloud services connect to an on-premise

community cloud?
a) Over an unsecured network
b) Through a public cloud provider
c) Over a secure network
d) Via a shared internet connection

Correct answer: c) Over a secure network

1. What is the characteristic of the externally-hosted community cloud
model?
a) Organizations host the cloud infrastructure on their premises
b) Organizations outsource the implementation to an external provider
c) Organizations share the cloud infrastructure with other communities
d) Organizations manage the cloud infrastructure internally

Answer: b) Organizations outsource the implementation to an external

provider

2. Where is the cloud infrastructure typically hosted in the externally-hosted

community cloud model?
a) On the premises of participant organizations
b) Within the premises of the provider
c) On a public cloud provider's infrastructure
d) Within a dedicated data center of one of the organizations

Answer: b) Within the premises of the provider

3. How do organizations connect to the externally-hosted community cloud
infrastructure?
a) Over an insecure network
b) Via a public internet connection
c) Through a secure network connection
d) By physically relocating their IT infrastructure

Answer: c) Through a secure network connection

4. What ensures that community cloud resources are securely separated from
other cloud tenants?
a) Encryption techniques applied by each organization
b) Strict physical access controls at the provider's data center
c) Access policies implemented by the provider
d) Regular security audits conducted by tenant organizations

Answer: c) Access policies implemented by the provider

1. What defines a hybrid cloud according to NIST?
A) A single cloud infrastructure serving multiple entities
B) Two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound by standardized or
proprietary technology
C) A public cloud infrastructure serving only individual consumers
D) A private cloud infrastructure isolated from external access

Answer: B) Two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound by standardized

or proprietary technology

2. Which of the following is NOT a type of cloud infrastructure mentioned by

NIST in the context of hybrid clouds?
A) Private cloud
B) Community cloud
C) Public cloud
D) Hybrid cloud

Answer: D) Hybrid cloud

3. In a hybrid cloud scenario, what technology enables data and application
portability between distinct cloud infrastructures?
A) Standardized or proprietary technology
B) Encryption algorithms
C) Blockchain technology
D) Artificial intelligence algorithms

Answer: A) Standardized or proprietary technology

4. In the figure provided, what does the on-premise private cloud represent?
A) A cloud infrastructure serving individual consumers
B) A cloud infrastructure deployed by enterprise P
C) A public cloud infrastructure
D) A community cloud infrastructure

Answer: B) A cloud infrastructure deployed by enterprise P

5. What does the term "cloud bursting" refer to in the context of hybrid
clouds?
A) The sudden expansion of cloud infrastructure capacity due to high
demand
B) The dispersal of clouds in the atmosphere
C) The movement of data from private to public clouds
D) The deployment of multiple private clouds

Answer: A) The sudden expansion of cloud infrastructure capacity due to

high demand

1. What is the primary use case of cloud bursting in the hybrid cloud model?
A) Hosting mission-critical applications
B) Accessing additional resources from a public cloud for transient workload
spikes
C) Migrating standard packaged applications to a public cloud
D) Testing applications for scalability and performance

Answer: B) Accessing additional resources from a public cloud for transient

workload spikes
2. How does the hybrid cloud model benefit organizations in web application
hosting?
A) By hosting all applications on a private cloud for better security
B) By leveraging the scalability and cost advantages of the public cloud for
less critical applications
C) By deploying all applications on the public cloud for better performance
D) By utilizing a private cloud exclusively for e-commerce applications

Answer: B) By leveraging the scalability and cost advantages of the public

cloud for less critical applications

3. In which scenario might an organization migrate standard packaged

applications to a public cloud in the hybrid cloud model?
A) Cloud bursting
B) Web application hosting
C) Application development and testing
D) Freeing up internal IT resources for higher value projects

Answer: D) Freeing up internal IT resources for higher value projects

4. What is one benefit of using the hybrid cloud model for application
development and testing?
A) Reduced security risks
B) Lower capital expense for deploying applications in production
C) Better performance for testing purposes
D) Improved integration with legacy systems

Answer: B) Lower capital expense for deploying applications in production

1. What are the principal aspects of the definition of Big Data?

a) Data size, processing speed, and business potential
b) Characteristics of data, data processing needs, and business value
c) Structured data, unstructured data, and semi-structured data
d) IT infrastructure, data storage, and data visualization

Answer: b) Characteristics of data, data processing needs, and business

value

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Big Data?

a) Large data sets
b) Slow generation rate
c) Structured and unstructured data
d) Rapidly changing data

Answer: b) Slow generation rate

3. What kind of architecture is needed for efficient storage of Big Data?
a) Centralized architecture
b) Decentralized architecture
c) Highly-scalable architecture
d) Monolithic architecture

Answer: c) Highly-scalable architecture

4. What technologies are typically used for processing Big Data?

a) Sequential processing
b) Single-threaded processing
c) Distributed processing, massively-parallel processing, and machine
learning
d) Serial processing

Answer: c) Distributed processing, massively-parallel processing, and

machine learning
5. Which discipline represents the synthesis of several existing disciplines for
Big Data analytics?
a) Mathematics
b) Computer science
c) Data Science
d) Data visualization

Answer: c) Data Science

6. What is one of the benefits of Big Data analytics for organizations?

a) Decreased decision-making capability
b) Limited data-driven insights
c) Improved data-driven decision making
d) Slower data processing

Answer: c) Improved data-driven decision making

1. What does the term "Big" in Big Data primarily refer to?
A) The diversity of data sources
B) The rate of data production
C) The massive volumes of data
D) The real-time analysis of data
Answer: C) The massive volumes of data
2. Which characteristic of Big Data deals with the rate at which data is
produced and must be processed?
A) Volume
B) Velocity
C) Variety
D) Veracity
Answer: B) Velocity

3. What is the primary challenge associated with the velocity characteristic of

Big Data?
A) Managing diverse data formats
B) Storing massive volumes of data
C) Processing data at a fast pace
D) Ensuring data accuracy and reliability
Answer: C) Processing data at a fast pace

4. What does variety refer to in the context of Big Data?

A) The rate at which data is produced
B) The diversity of data formats and types
C) The massive volumes of data
D) The value derived from data analysis
Answer: B) The diversity of data formats and types
5. Which example best illustrates the variability characteristic of Big Data?
A) Real-time face recognition at airports
B) Managing transaction-based data over the years
C) Combining changing patient records with medical research
D) Analyzing data from social media streams
Answer: C) Combining changing patient records with medical research

1. What does variability refer to in the context of data analysis?

a) The consistency of data meaning
b) The constantly changing meaning of data
c) The reliability of data sources
d) The accuracy of analysis results
Answer: b) The constantly changing meaning of data

2. What is a major challenge related to veracity in Big Data analytics?

a) Ensuring the cost-effectiveness of analytics technology
b) Dealing with complex grammar in natural language search
c) Establishing trust in the quality and reliability of data
d) Optimizing data analysis for real-time insights
Answer: c) Establishing trust in the quality and reliability of data
3. How does variability impact data analysis?
a) It increases the likelihood of noise and errors in the data
b) It makes the data cleaning process easier
c) It enhances the accuracy of analysis results
d) It reduces the need for interpretation of complex grammar
Answer: a) It increases the likelihood of noise and errors in the data

4. Which aspect of Big Data analytics technology does "value" refer to?
a) The variety of data sources available
b) The cost-effectiveness of the technology used
c) The complexity of data analysis algorithms
d) The size of data repositories maintained
Answer: b) The cost-effectiveness of the technology used

5. What effort may be required to address challenges related to veracity in Big

Data analytics?
a) Optimizing data analysis algorithms
b) Increasing the variety and number of data sources
c) Cleaning data to remove noise and errors
d) Enhancing real-time data analytics capabilities
Answer: c) Cleaning data to remove noise and errors
1. What is a data warehouse?
a) A repository for storing structured and non-structured data assets
b) A central repository of integrated data gathered from multiple sources,
designed for query and analysis
c) A collection of data stored using an object-based storage architecture
d) A store-everything approach to Big Data

Answer: b) A central repository of integrated data gathered from multiple

sources, designed for query and analysis

2. How does a data lake differ from a data warehouse?

a) Data lakes store data in a structured format, while data warehouses store
data in an unstructured format
b) Data lakes eliminate the need for data preparation, while data
warehouses require extensive data preparation
c) Data lakes classify and organize data when it is stored, while data
warehouses classify and organize data only when it is accessed
d) Data lakes store exact or near-exact copies of source formats, while data
warehouses store data in a specific schema

Answer: d) Data lakes store exact or near-exact copies of source formats,

while data warehouses store data in a specific schema
3. What is the purpose of a data lake?
a) To eliminate the need for highly-skilled analysts
b) To provide a structured view of data to analysts
c) To present an unrefined view of data to highly-skilled analysts
d) To store only structured data

Answer: c) To present an unrefined view of data to highly-skilled analysts

4. How is data organized in a data lake compared to a data warehouse?

a) Data in a data lake is organized according to a specific schema, while data
in a data warehouse is not classified
b) Data in a data lake is classified and organized when it is stored, while data
in a data warehouse is not classified
c) Data in a data lake is stored using an object-based storage architecture,
while data in a data warehouse is stored in a structured format
d) Data in a data lake is classified and organized only when it is accessed,
while data in a data warehouse is classified and organized when it is stored

Answer: d) Data in a data lake is classified and organized only when it is

accessed, while data in a data warehouse is classified and organized when it
is stored
1. What does the "S" stand for in the SMAQ stack?
a) Structured data
b) Storage
c) SQL database
d) Sequential processing
Answer: b) Storage

2. Which layer of the SMAQ stack enables parallel processing across multiple
compute systems?
a) Query layer
b) Storage layer
c) MapReduce technologies
d) NoSQL database
Answer: c) MapReduce technologies

3. How does the MapReduce layer differ from SQL-based databases in terms
of processing model?
a) MapReduce supports real-time processing.
b) SQL-based databases use a batch-oriented processing model.
c) MapReduce processes data in a record-set orientation.
d) SQL-based databases enable distributed computation.
Answer: b) SQL-based databases use a batch-oriented processing model.
4. Which layer of the SMAQ stack is responsible for storing, retrieving, and
processing data?
a) Storage layer
b) MapReduce layer
c) Query layer
d) NoSQL database
Answer: c) Query layer

5. How may SMAQ solutions be implemented?

a) Only as multi-component systems
b) Only as self-contained systems
c) Both as multi-component and self-contained systems
d) Only as distributed systems
Answer: c) Both as multi-component and self-contained systems

Sure, here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided
section about MapReduce:

1. What is the primary purpose of MapReduce?

A) Processing large data sets on a single machine
B) Distributing a query over multiple compute systems
C) Reducing the size of data sets before processing
D) Storing data sets in a distributed file system

Answer: B) Distributing a query over multiple compute systems

2. Which phase of MapReduce is responsible for transforming chunks of data
into smaller intermediate data sets?
A) Map
B) Reduce
C) Shuffle
D) Split

Answer: A) Map

3. What is the main function of the Reduce phase in MapReduce?

A) Splitting data sets into chunks
B) Transforming data sets into intermediate results
C) Condensing intermediate results into a summarized data set
D) Storing output data sets in a file system

Answer: C) Condensing intermediate results into a summarized data set

4. Which of the following is a classic example of using MapReduce?

A) Sorting a list of numbers
B) Counting the number of unique words in a large body of text
C) Generating random numbers
D) Calculating the average of a set of numbers

Answer: B) Counting the number of unique words in a large body of text

5. In the Map phase of counting unique words, what is each word assigned?
A) Its length
B) Its frequency in the text
C) The count of 1
D) Its position in the text

Answer: C) The count of 1

6. What is a common implementation of MapReduce?

A) Apache's Hadoop MapReduce
B) TensorFlow
C) OpenCV
D) MongoDB

Answer: A) Apache's Hadoop MapReduce

1. What is the primary purpose of the storage layer in the SMAQ stack?
- A) To directly serve the processing nodes in a MapReduce framework.
- B) To solely store the results of computation.
- C) To provide an interface with MapReduce and enable data loading and
retrieval.
- D) To host proprietary distributed file systems.

Answer: C) To provide an interface with MapReduce and enable data loading

and retrieval.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of distributed file systems like
HDFS?
- A) They are capable of indexing data for fast retrieval.
- B) They only store and retrieve data, similar to regular file systems.
- C) They support relational database systems out of the box.
- D) They are not scalable and cannot handle additional nodes dynamically.

Answer: B) They only store and retrieve data, similar to regular file systems.

3. How do SMAQ solutions address the limitation of distributed file systems in

terms of data indexing?
- A) By implementing a relational database system on top of the distributed
file system.
- B) By incorporating proprietary indexing algorithms within the file system.
- C) By enabling indexing capabilities within the distributed file system itself.
- D) By implementing a NoSQL database on top of the distributed file system.

Answer: D) By implementing a NoSQL database on top of the distributed file

system.
4. What advantage do NoSQL databases bring to SMAQ solutions when
integrated with distributed file systems?
- A) They enable indexing of data for faster retrieval.
- B) They provide a relational data model for efficient storage.
- C) They allow for direct interfacing with MapReduce without additional
layers.
- D) They offer built-in MapReduce features for parallel processing over data
stores.

Answer: D) They offer built-in MapReduce features for parallel processing

over data stores.

5. How does the scalability of the storage layer in the SMAQ stack
accommodate changing workload and capacity needs?
- A) By limiting the number of nodes in the cluster.
- B) By utilizing a static architecture that cannot be adjusted.
- C) By allowing the addition of nodes dynamically to the cluster.
- D) By restricting access to multiple file systems for client access.

Answer: C) By allowing the addition of nodes dynamically to the cluster.

1. What is the primary purpose of incorporating a higher-level query layer in
SMAQ systems?
- A) To complicate the specification of MapReduce operations
- B) To simplify the specification of MapReduce operations
- C) To introduce additional complexity to MapReduce jobs
- D) To discourage the analysis of results

Answer: B) To simplify the specification of MapReduce operations

2. Which aspect of MapReduce job specification becomes more convenient

with the inclusion of a higher-level query layer?
- A) Writing distinct Map and Reduce functions
- B) Analyzing the results of MapReduce jobs
- C) Loading and saving data from and to the cluster
- D) Monitoring the execution of MapReduce jobs

Answer: C) Loading and saving data from and to the cluster

3. What is a characteristic feature of the languages supported by the query
layer in SMAQ systems?
- A) They only handle processing of data
- B) They do not integrate with NoSQL databases
- C) They are designed solely for analyzing results
- D) They support integration with NoSQL databases on the MapReduce
cluster

Answer: D) They support integration with NoSQL databases on the

MapReduce cluster

4. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the query layer
in SMAQ systems?
- A) It adds complexity to MapReduce jobs by introducing new languages.
- B) It simplifies the specification of MapReduce operations and facilitates
data management.
- C) It restricts the analysis of results to a limited set of functions.
- D) It isolates Map and Reduce functions to enhance performance.

Answer: B) It simplifies the specification of MapReduce operations and

facilitates data management.
1. What benefits do Big Data analytics solutions offer in healthcare?
a) Improved patient care and outcomes
b) Increased errors and mistakes
c) Decreased patient engagement
d) Worsened operations and services
Answer: a) Improved patient care and outcomes

2. How do organizations in finance utilize Big Data analytics?

a) By avoiding customer profiling
b) By correlating purchase history and analyzing behavior on social networks
c) By minimizing credit card fraud detection
d) By ignoring customer acquisition costs
Answer: b) By correlating purchase history and analyzing behavior on social
networks

3. What insights can retail organizations gain from Big Data analytics?
a) Ineffective marketing strategies
b) Competitive pricing and optimized inventory assortment
c) Anticipating decreased demand
d) Poor distribution management
Answer: b) Competitive pricing and optimized inventory assortment
4. How does Big Data analytics benefit government organizations?
a) By decreasing efficiency and effectiveness
b) By focusing solely on defense
c) By ignoring transportation and tax compliance
d) By enabling improved efficiency across various domains
Answer: d) By enabling improved efficiency across various domains

1. What is the primary purpose of social networking?

A) Sharing personal information
B) Establishing connections with others
C) Promoting digital content
D) Conducting business transactions
- Answer: B) Establishing connections with others

2. Which term describes the structure of many-to-many human connections

in social networking?
A) Network structure
B) Social hierarchy
C) Social network
D) Connection matrix
- Answer: C) Social network
3. What is a key feature of online social networking services?
A) Broadcasting live events
B) Sharing personal opinions only
C) Creating digital content communities
D) Building connections across geographic locations
- Answer: D) Building connections across geographic locations

4. Which of the following is NOT a popular online social networking service

mentioned in the section?
A) Facebook
B) Twitter
C) LinkedIn
D) Snapchat
- Answer: D) Snapchat

5. What do most social networking services enable individuals and

organizations to do?
A) Create personal profiles
B) Share only text-based content
C) Connect with offline contacts only
D) Promote offline events only
- Answer: A) Create personal profiles
6. Which social networking service is often used for professional networking?
A) Facebook
B) Instagram
C) LinkedIn
D) Pinterest
- Answer: C) LinkedIn

7. What type of connections can be established using some specialized social

networking services?
A) Connections with pets
B) Connections with co-workers
C) Connections with fictional characters
D) Connections with robots
- Answer: B) Connections with co-workers

8. Which of the following terms refers to the sharing of information with the
entire social network or subsets of it?
A) Broadcasting
B) Narrowcasting
C) Crowdsourcing
D) Network sharing
- Answer: B) Narrowcasting
1. What does SNA stand for in the context of social networking analysis?
- A) Social Networking Association
- B) Social Network Analysis
- C) Social Network Automation
- D) Social Networking Algorithm

Answer: B) Social Network Analysis

2. Which of the following is NOT a potential source of data for social network
analysis?
- A) Social media posts
- B) Surveys
- C) Financial reports
- D) Emails

Answer: C) Financial reports

3. What does SNA enable organizations to identify in social networks?

- A) Influential people and associations
- B) The quality of relationships
- C) Trends and patterns
- D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

4. What multidisciplinary approach does SNA involve?
- A) Social sciences and mathematics
- B) Statistics and physics
- C) Network science and computer science
- D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

5. In which areas can SNA be applied?

- A) Engineering and science
- B) Economics and national security
- C) Criminology and fraud detection
- D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

6. What does SNA enable the analysis of in commercial platforms?

- A) User behavior in open forums
- B) Personalization for social activities
- C) Analysis of user behavior in e-commerce
- D) None of the above

Answer: C) Analysis of user behavior in e-commerce

1. What is brand networking?
a) The use of social networking for personal connections
b) Creating social network pages and communities to showcase products
and interact with customers
c) Using social media for entertainment purposes only
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Creating social network pages and communities to showcase

products and interact with customers

2. What benefits does brand networking offer to organizations?

a) Decreased customer interaction
b) Limited visibility for brands
c) Higher-level customer interaction, global visibility, and broader customer
base
d) Reduced effectiveness of sales campaigns

Answer: c) Higher-level customer interaction, global visibility, and broader

customer base
3. What is enterprise collaboration?
a) Collaboration between different organizations
b) Collaboration within organizations using enterprise social networking
c) Collaboration between customers and organizations
d) None of the above

Answer: b) Collaboration within organizations using enterprise social

networking

4. How does social media marketing contribute to increasing sales and

revenue?
a) By decreasing brand visibility
b) By limiting customer engagement
c) By advertising products and services on social media platforms
d) None of the above

Answer: c) By advertising products and services on social media platforms

5. How do organizations use social networks for customer support?
a) By ignoring customer comments
b) By proactively identifying and resolving customer issues through social
media
c) By limiting customer interaction
d) None of the above

Answer: b) By proactively identifying and resolving customer issues through

social media

1. What defines a mobile device?

a) A device with a display and touch input
b) A handheld compute system with a display and either touch input and/or
a hardware keyboard
c) Any device that can make voice calls
d) Any device that has Bluetooth connectivity

Correct answer: b) A handheld compute system with a display and either

touch input and/or a hardware keyboard

2. What are typical features found in mobile devices?

a) Voice calling and GPS
b) Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity
c) NFC for file sharing and audio-video capabilities
d) All of the above
 Correct answer: d) All of the above

3. What is pervasive computing also known as?

a) Mobile computing
b) Internet of Things (IoT)
c) Ubiquitous computing
d) Wireless technology convergence

Correct answer: c) Ubiquitous computing

4. What is the primary trend of pervasive computing?

a) Embedding processors in devices for communication over the Internet
b) Making devices continuously connected and available
c) Enabling communication between mobile devices and application servers
d) Advancing wireless technologies

Correct answer: b) Making devices continuously connected and available

5. How do pervasive computing devices contribute to the mobile computing
ecosystem?
a) By providing hardware keyboards for input
b) By enabling communication over private networks only
c) By embedding sensors and processors in devices
d) By restricting access to enterprise data centers/clouds

Correct answer: c) By embedding sensors and processors in devices

1. What is one benefit of enterprise mobility?

A) Decreased collaboration among employees
B) Limited access to information and business applications
C) Enhanced workforce productivity
D) Restricted access to company devices

Answer: C) Enhanced workforce productivity

2. What does BYOD stand for in the context of enterprise mobility?

A) Bring Your Own Desktop
B) Bring Your Own Data
C) Bring Your Own Device
D) Bring Your Own Digital

Answer: C) Bring Your Own Device

3. Which of the following is an example of a mobility-based product or
service?
A) Desktop software applications
B) Fixed-line telecommunication services
C) Mobile banking applications
D) Paper-based marketing materials

Answer: C) Mobile banking applications

4. What is mobile cloud computing?

A) The integration of mobile phones with traditional desktop computers
B) The convergence of cloud computing, Internet, and wireless technologies
C) The use of mobile devices exclusively for cloud storage
D) The creation of cloud-based mobile applications only

Answer: B) The convergence of cloud computing, Internet, and wireless

technologies

5. How does mobile cloud computing benefit organizations?

A) It restricts access to cloud services for mobile users
B) It limits the availability of enterprise cloud services to employees
C) It enables mobile access to cloud services, enhancing workforce mobility
D) It discourages the use of mobile devices for accessing cloud services
 Answer: C) It enables mobile access to cloud services, enhancing workforce
mobility

1. What is one of the key drivers for organizations worldwide to transform to

the third platform?
a) Reduced operational costs
b) Increased reliance on traditional technologies
c) New/improved business models
d) Limited access to data insights

Answer: c) New/improved business models

2. How do third platform technologies contribute to agility and innovation

within organizations?
a) By increasing bureaucratic processes
b) By facilitating experimentation and rapid development
c) By limiting access to computing resources
d) By prolonging time-to-market for products

Answer: b) By facilitating experimentation and rapid development

3. What role do analytics play in enhancing operational effectiveness and
efficiency for organizations?
a) They increase equipment downtime
b) They decrease the need for real-time data processing
c) They enable efficient equipment maintenance strategies
d) They hinder communication and collaboration

Answer: c) They enable efficient equipment maintenance strategies

4. How can third platform technologies help organizations respond to

changing user/customer needs?
a) By limiting access to market insights
b) By providing valuable insights from data
c) By increasing bureaucratic processes
d) By reducing the need for innovation

Answer: b) By providing valuable insights from data

1. What enables organizations to create new revenue streams on top of

traditional products?
- A) The second platform
- B) The third platform
- C) The fourth platform
- D) The fifth platform
- Answer: B) The third platform
2. How do manufacturers utilize data obtained from sensors embedded in
products?
- A) To decrease customer engagement
- B) To offer reactive maintenance
- C) To provide innovative after-sales services
- D) To reduce workforce collaboration
- Answer: C) To provide innovative after-sales services

3. What effect does mobility have on workforce collaboration and

productivity?
- A) Decreases collaboration and productivity
- B) Increases collaboration and productivity
- C) No impact on collaboration and productivity
- D) Decreases market penetration and profitability
- Answer: B) Increases workforce collaboration and productivity

4. How do consumer-facing organizations leverage online social networking?

- A) To decrease their global visibility
- B) To reduce accessibility for new customers
- C) To increase their global visibility
- D) To limit engagement with existing customers
- Answer: C) To increase their global visibility
5. What benefits do organizations derive from engaging on social networking
channels?
- A) Decreased loyalty from customers
- B) Increased customer dissatisfaction
- C) Greater loyalty from customers
- D) Reduced insights on potential customers
- Answer: C) Greater loyalty from customers

1. What is a key characteristic of a third platform infrastructure related to

availability?
A) Efficient data storage techniques
B) Redundant components and resilient design
C) Limited application functionalities
D) Static application design
Answer: B) Redundant components and resilient design

2. Which of the following is NOT a security challenge associated with third

platform technologies?
A) Unauthorized data access
B) Data loss prevention
C) Hacking and malware
D) Loss of governance and compliance
Answer: B) Data loss prevention
3. How does a third platform infrastructure address scalability?
A) By limiting application workloads
B) Through static architecture design
C) By employing a scale-out architecture
D) By restricting data volume
Answer: C) By employing a scale-out architecture

4. What technique is typically used in Big Data analytics to accommodate

growth in processing and storage requirements?
A) Scale-in architecture
B) Redundancy reduction
C) Scale-out architecture
D) Limited scalability design
Answer: C) Scale-out architecture

1. What is a key consideration for ensuring optimal performance in a third

platform infrastructure?
a) Installing high-performance components only
b) Load balancing, caching, and storage tiering
c) Using low-cost components to reduce expenses
d) Focusing solely on hardware upgrades

Answer: b) Load balancing, caching, and storage tiering

2. Why is mobile access crucial in third platform adoption?
a) It reduces the need for infrastructure investments
b) It enables organizations to access applications and information from any
location
c) It ensures better security for data storage
d) It minimizes the need for interoperability between systems

Answer: b) It enables organizations to access applications and information

from any location

3. What does interoperability refer to in a third platform environment?

a) The ability of systems to work without any integration
b) The ability of systems to share and use information and services
c) The exclusivity of using only proprietary software
d) The absence of heterogeneous hardware and software components

Answer: b) The ability of systems to share and use information and services
4. What is essential for effective infrastructure management in a third
platform environment?
a) Complexity and rigidity in management processes
b) Limited use of automation and orchestration tools
c) Management tools providing a single pane for all management processes
d) Avoiding pre-integrated/commodity components to ensure customization

Answer: c) Management tools providing a single pane for all management

processes

5. Which technique is NOT commonly used to ensure optimal performance in

a third platform infrastructure?
a) Load balancing
b) Storage tiering
c) Static resource allocation
d) Caching

Answer: c) Static resource allocation

1. What is the primary goal of operating model transformation in the context of
third platform transformation?
A) Reducing IT costs
B) Enhancing agility and innovation
C) Increasing reliance on traditional IT delivery processes
D) Minimizing the use of IT services

Answer: B) Enhancing agility and innovation

2. Which operating model is adopted to transform traditional IT delivery into a

service paradigm?
A) IT as a Product (ITAaP)
B) IT as a Service (ITaaS)
C) IT as a Solution (ITAaS)
D) IT as a Utility (ITAaU)

Answer: B) IT as a Service (ITaaS)

3. What does XaaS stand for in the context of IT services?
A) Extraordinary as a Service
B) Extensive as a Service
C) Everything as a Service
D) Exclusive as a Service

Answer: C) Everything as a Service

4. Which of the following is NOT a role that may emerge during organizational
transformation in the context of third platform adoption?
A) Cloud advisor
B) Financial manager
C) Network engineer
D) Service manager

Answer: C) Network engineer

5. What is one of the dimensions of technology transformation mentioned in

the text?
A) Personnel transformation
B) Application transformation
C) Marketing transformation
D) Financial transformation

Answer: B) Application transformation

6. Which technology enables IT to consolidate resources, improve resource
utilization, and eliminate IT silos?
A) Virtual reality
B) Artificial intelligence
C) Virtualization and software-defined technologies
D) Blockchain

Answer: C) Virtualization and software-defined technologies

7. According to IDC, what are predicted to become the new core IT

competencies over the next two decades?
A) Second platform technologies
B) Soft skills
C) Cloud, Big Data, social, and mobile technologies
D) Legacy IT systems

Answer: C) Cloud, Big Data, social, and mobile technologies