0% found this document useful (0 votes)
138 views9 pages

Lecture 10 Legendre Eqn Part II

Rodrigue's formula for Legendre polynomials is derived. The derivation involves taking successive derivatives of a function using Leibniz rule to obtain the Legendre differential equation. The solution to this equation is equated to the Legendre polynomial with an unknown constant. Evaluating this at x=1 allows determining the value of the constant, resulting in Rodrigue's formula. Finally, it is shown that the generating function for Legendre polynomials is (1-2xt+t^2)^-1/2 by expanding this using the binomial theorem and identifying the terms containing tn as the Legendre polynomials.

Uploaded by

dev.user.1792
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
138 views9 pages

Lecture 10 Legendre Eqn Part II

Rodrigue's formula for Legendre polynomials is derived. The derivation involves taking successive derivatives of a function using Leibniz rule to obtain the Legendre differential equation. The solution to this equation is equated to the Legendre polynomial with an unknown constant. Evaluating this at x=1 allows determining the value of the constant, resulting in Rodrigue's formula. Finally, it is shown that the generating function for Legendre polynomials is (1-2xt+t^2)^-1/2 by expanding this using the binomial theorem and identifying the terms containing tn as the Legendre polynomials.

Uploaded by

dev.user.1792
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

Q.

Derive Rodriq’s formula for Legendre Polynomial

Pf.

n
2 nx ( x 2−1 ) n
⟹ v 1= ⟹ ( x 2−1 ) v 1=2 nx ( x2 −1 )
( x −1 )
2

Differentiating this equation n+1 times by Leibniz rule we get

C (n+1 , 0)(1−x 2)v (n+1)+1+C ( n+ 1, 1 ) ( 1−x 2 )1 v n+1 +C ( n+1 ,2 ) ( 1−x 2 )2 v n−1+ 1+ … … … .

+2n {C ( n+ 1, 0 ) x v n+1 +C ( n+1 ,1 ) x 1 v n}=0

( n+1 ) n (−2 )
⟹ ( 1−x 2 ) v n +2+ ( n+1 ) (−2 x ) v n +1+ v n +2 n {x v n+1 + ( n+1 ) v n }=0
2!

It can be rewritten as

( n+1 ) n (−2 )
( 1−x 2 ) v n+2−2 nx v n+ 1−2 x v n +1+ v n +2 nx v n+1 +2 n(n+ 1)v n =0
2!

Cancelling bold letter terms we get

Which is a Legendre equation and let v nc is the solution of above Legendre equation. And also Pn (x ) is
also a solution of Legendre equation. So we can equate as
n
d ( 2 )n
Pn ( x )=cv n=c n
x −1 as v=( x 2−1 )n …………………………….(**)
dx

Then to find the value of c put x=1 in LHS of above equation. And we get

Pn ( 1 )=1=c
[ dn
dx n
n
( x−1 ) ( x +1 )
n
] ……………………………………………..(*)
x=1
Now by Leibniz rule we gat
n n n−1
n d ( n d d ( x−1 )n +… …
C ( n , 0 )( x +1 ) n
x−1 ) +C ( n , 1 ) ( x +1 ) n−1
dx dx dx

{ }
n n
d n
+C ( n ,n ) n
( x +1 ) ( x−1 ) .
dx

The 1st term gives the value 2n . n! and rest of the term gives the value as zero for x=1 as every term
contain x-1. Hence the equation (*) becomes

n 1
1=c 2 n ! ⇒ c= n
n!2

Putting the value of C in equation (**) we get the Rodrique formula i.e.
n
1 d ( 2 )n
Pn ( x )=cv n= n n
x −1
n!2 d x

Generating function:

−1 −1
= ∑ t Pn ( x) where ( 1−2 xt +t 2)
n
Prove that ( 1−2 xt +t 2 2
) 2 is called as generating function for the
n=0
Legendre polynomial.

Proof : (not necessary for exam point of view)

This inbox part is pre requisite for the proof of generating function of Legendre Polynomial

From Binomial expansion we know

n ( n−1 ) 2 n ( n−1 )( n−2 ) 3


( 1+ x )n=1+nx + x+ x … … …Where n is a fraction or a negative number.
2! 3!

−1
Here if we consider n= then the above formula reduces to
2

−1
=1+ (
( )(
−1 −1
−1 ) ( )(
−1 −1
−1 )( −2 )
−1
( 1−x ) 2 −1
2 ) (−x )+
2 2
2!
(−x ) +
2 2
3!
2 2
(−x ) +… … . 3

1
¿ 1+ x+
( )(
1 3
2 2 ) x +
( 2 )( 2 )( 2 )
1 3 5
2
x +… … . .
3
2 2! 3!
1 1.3 2 1.3 .5 3
=1+ x+ 2 x + 3 x +… … … … … …
2 2 2! 2 3!

1.2 1.2 .3 .4 2 1.2.3 .4 .5 .6 3


¿ 1+ 2
x+ 2
x + 3
x +… … . .
2 1! 2.4 . 2 2 ! 2.4 .6 . 2 3 !

2! 4!
= 1+ 2 2
x + 4 …….(*)
2 ( 1 !) 2 ¿¿


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
Actually we have to prove ( 1−2 xt +t 2) 2
n=0

To use the above technique we rewrite the LHS as¿ ¿

Now we can write as

−1 2! 4!
2 =1+ t (2 x−t ) + 4
{1−t(2 x−t )} 2
2 ( 1 !)
2
2 ¿¿

( 2n−2 r ) ! ( 2n ) ! n
+ 2 2 n−2 r
t n−r ( 2 x−t )n−r + … … …+ 2 2n
t ( 2 x −t )n
[ ( n−r ) ! ] 2 ( n !) 2

Now in the general term( 2 x−t )n−ris also a binomial term. In the expansion we can find a term
containing t r.

The term in t nfrom the term containing t n−r ( 2 x−t )n−r of general term we get

( 2n−2 r ) !
2 2 n−2 r
t n−r C(n−r , r ) (−t )r ( 2 x )n−r−r
[ ( n−r ) ! ] 2

( 2n−2 r ) ! ( n−r ) ! r n n−2r (−1 )r ( 2 n−2 r ) !


¿ 2 2 n−2 r
× (−1 ) t ( 2 x ) = n x n−2 r t n
[ ( n−r ) ! ] 2 r ! ( n−2r ) ! 2 r ! ( n−r ) ! ( n−2r ) !

Now we can mark that the above term contains t n and e can find several terms for different values of r
starting from 0. So collecting all the terms containing t n we get

N
(−1 )r ( 2 n−2r ) !
∑ 2n r ! ( n−r ) ! ( n−2 r ) ! x n−2 r tn = Pn (x )t n………………………..(*)
r=0

n n−1
where N= whenn is even∧N= when n is odd
2 2
N
(−1 )r ( 2 n−2r ) !
where we consider ∑ n x n−2 r as Pn (x )
r=0 2 r ! ( n−r ) ! ( n−2 r ) !

Then taking summation over zero to ∞ the equation * becomes



−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
( 1−2 xt +t )
2 2
n=0

Proved.


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x) Show that Pn ( 1 )=1
n
Property 1. Using ( 1−2 xt +t 2) 2
n=0


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
Pf. From the generating function we know ( 1−2 xt +t )
2 2
n=0


−1
= ∑ t Pn (1)
n
If we put x=1 in above equation we get ( 1−2t +t )
2 2
n=0

−1 ∞ ∞
⟹ {( 1−t ) } =∑ t n Pn ( 1 ) ⟹ ( 1−t ) =∑ t n Pn (1)
2 2 −1

n=0 n=0

Expanding LHS & RHS we get


2 n 0 1 n
1+t+ t +… .+t +… …=P0 (1 ) t + P1 ( 1 ) t +… ….+ P n ( 1 ) t + … …

By comparing the coefficient of t n we get Pn ( 1 )=1.


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x) Show that Pn (−1 )=(−1 )
n n
Property 2. Using ( 1−2 xt +t )
2 2
n=0


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
Pf. From the generating function we know ( 1−2 xt +t )
2 2
n=0


−1
= ∑ t Pn (−1)
n
If we put x= -1 in above equation we get ( 1+2 t+ t 2 2
) n=0

−1 ∞ ∞
⟹ {( 1+t ) } =∑ t n Pn ( 1 ) ⟹ ( 1+t ) =∑ t n Pn (−1)
2 2 −1

n=0 n=0

Expanding LHS & RHS we get


2 n n 0 1 n
1−t +t −… .+ (−1 ) t + … …=P0 ( 1 ) t + P1 ( 1 ) t +… … .+ Pn ( 1 ) t +… …
n
By comparing the coefficient of t n we get Pn (−1 )=(−1 ) . Proved.


−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)Show that
n
Property 3. Using ( 1−2 xt +t 2) 2
n=0

[
n
1.3 .5 … … .(n−1)
(−1 ) 2
when nis even
Pn ( 0 ) = 2.4 .6 … … … .. n
0 when n is odd

−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
Proof: From the generating function we know ( 1−2 xt +t )
2 2
n=0


−1
Putting x = 0 in above equation we get ( 1+t 2 ) 2 = ∑ t Pn (0)
n

n=0

Expanding the above equation we get

1 1.3 4 r 1.3.5 … …..(2 k−1) 2 k


1− t 2 + t +… … … … … … .+ (−1 ) t + … … …=1 P0 ( 0 ) +t P 1 ( 0 ) +t 2 P2 ( 0 ) +… … … … .+ ¿
2 2.4 2.4 .6 … … … … … 2 k
(*)

If we compare the corresponding term then we get in LHS the terms contain only even powers
of t but in RHS both odd and even powers of t are present.

If we consider the powers of t are even then


n
2 1.3.5 … … . (2 n−1)
Pn ( 0 )= (−1 )
2.4 .6 … … … ..2 n

If we consider the powers of t are odd in RHS of (*) then we find no terms with even powers of
t in LHS. So Pn ( 0 )=0for n is even.

1
Property 4. Show that Pn(1) =
'
n ( n+1 )
2

Proof: We the Legendre equation is ( 1−x 2 ) y -2xy'+n(n+1)y=

As Pn ( x ) is the solution of Legendre equation it must satisfy the above equation. i.e

( 1−x 2 ) P}n (x) -2x {P} rsub {n} rsup {'} (x) +n(n+1) {P} rsub {n} left (x right ) = ¿

Now putting x = 1 we get


'
−2 Pn (1)+ n(n+1)P n ( 1 )=0

' 1
⟹ Pn (1 )= n ( n+1 ) P n ( 1 )
2

' 1
In property 1 we have proved Pn ( 1 )=1 Hence we get Pn ( 1 )= n ( n+1 ) Proved
2

Property 5. (Recurrence Relation)

( n+1 ) Pn+ 1 ( x )=( 2 n+1 ) x Pn ( x )−n Pn−1 ( x )



−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x)
n
Proof: We know from Generating function ( 1−2 xt +t 2) 2
n=0

Finding the partial derivative of above w.r.to t we get


−3
−1
( 1−2 xt +t 2 ) 2 (−2 x+ 2t )=∑ nt n−1 P n ( x)
2
−3
⟹ ( x−t ) ( 1−2 xt +t ) =∑ n t
2 2 n−1
Pn (x )

Multiplying ( 1−2 xt +t 2) to both sides we get

−1
⟹ ( x−t ) ( 1−2 xt +t ) =( 1−2 xt +t ) ∑ n t
2 2 2 n−1
Pn ( x )

Again using Generating function formula in LHS we get



⟹ ( x−t ) ∑ t n P n (x)= ( 1−2 xt+t 2 ) ∑ n t n−1 Pn (x)
n=0

Then equating the coeeficient of t n from both sides we get

x P n ( x )−Pn−1 ( x )=1. ( n+1 ) P n+1 ( x ) −2 xn Pn (x ) +( n−1 ) P n−1 (x )

⟹ ( n+1 ) Pn+1 ( x )=x Pn ( x )−Pn−1 ( x ) +2 xn Pn (x) - ( n−1 ) P n−1 (x )

⟹ ( n+1 ) Pn+1 ( x )=( 2 n+1 ) x Pn ( x ) −n Pn−1 (x) Proved

Property 6. (Recurrence Relation) n Pn ( x )=x P'n ( x )−P'n−1 (x)

Proof:

−1
= ∑ t Pn ( x) ……………………………..(1)
n
From the generating function we know ( 1−2 xt +t ) 2 2
n=0
Step1 Find partial derivative of 1 w.r.to x i.e

Step2 Find partial derivative of 1 w.r.to t i.e


Step3 Divide Step2 by step1 i.e.

Step4 Do the cross multiplication i.e.


Step5 Equate the coefficient of t n of both ' '
n Pn ( x )=x Pn ( x )−Pn−1 (x)
side

Property 7. (Recurrence Relation) ( 2 n+1 ) Pn ( x )=P 'n+1 ( x ) −P 'n−1 ( x)

Proof: This can be proved from property 5

Step1 Recall the ( n+1 ) Pn+ 1 ( x )=( 2 n+1 ) x Pn ( x )−n Pn−1 ( x )


property 5
Step2 Differentiate
w.r.to x
Step3 Collect the
value of
'
x P n ( x )from
property 6 and
put in step 2
Step4 Rearrange as
per need

Property 8. (Recurrence Relation) P'n ( x )=x P'n−1 ( x )+ n P n−1 ( x )

Proof:

Step1 We know 1st recurrence ( n+1 ) Pn+ 1 ( x )=( 2 n+1 ) x Pn ( x )−n Pn−1 ( x )
relation i.e Property 5
Step2 Differentiate w.r.to x
Step3 Rearrange the RHS and ( n+1 ) P'n+ 1 ( x )
simplify ' ' '
¿ ( 2 n+1 ) P n ( x ) + ( n+1 ) x P n ( x ) +nx P n ( x )−n Pn −1 (x )
=( 2 n+1 ) Pn ( x ) + ( n+1 ) x P n ( x ) +n ( x P n ( x )−P n−1 (x ) )
' ' '

Step4 Use Property 6 i.e ( n+1 ) P'n+ 1 ( x )


' '
n Pn ( x )=x Pn ( x )−Pn−1 (x) ¿ ( 2 n+1 ) P n ( x ) + ( n+1 ) x P'n ( x ) +n n Pn ( x )
and simplify ' 2
¿ ( 2 n+1 ) P n ( x ) + ( n+1 ) x P n ( x ) +n P n ( x )
¿ ( n+1 ) x P'n ( x ) + ( 2 n+1+n2 ) Pn ( x )
' 2
¿ ( n+1 ) x P n ( x ) + ( n+1 ) P n ( x )
Step5 Cancelling n-1 terms ' '
Pn +1 ( x )=x P n ( x ) + ( n+1 ) Pn ( x )
from both sides we get
Step6 To complete the proof ' '
Pn ( x )=x Pn−1 ( x )+ n P n−1 ( x )
replace n by n-1

Property 9. (Recurrence Relation) ( 1−x ) Pn ( x )=n { Pn−1 ( x ) −xPn ( x ) }


2 '

Proof:

Step1 We know a recurrence property as ' '


x P n ( x )−Pn−1 ( x )=n Pn ( x )
' '
n Pn ( x )=x Pn ( x )−Pn−1 (x)
We can rewrite as
Step2 We know another recurrence
property as
' '
Pn ( x )=x Pn−1 ( x )+ n P n−1 ( x )
We rewrite this as
Step3 Multiply step 1 by x which gives 2 ' '
x Pn ( x )−xPn −1 ( x )=n xPn ( x )
Step4 Now subtract step 3 from step 2 and P'n ( x )−x P'n−1 ( x )−x 2 P'n ( x )+ xP 'n−1 ( x )
simplify =n Pn−1 ( x ) −n xPn ( x )
Step5 After simplification ( 1−x 2 ) P'n ( x )=n { Pn−1 ( x ) −xPn ( x ) }

Property 10 Orthogonality of Legendre polynomial


Only remember the property no need of proof

You might also like